IIT-JEE 2009 STS III/MPC/P(II)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

PAPER II MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. INSTRUCTIONS:
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A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 24 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

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PART A : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. Let f(x) = ax + bx + c, a 0 and f( 1) < 1, f(1) > 1 and f(3) < 4. Then (A) a < 1 8 (B) b > 1 (C) a is negative (D) b < 1
2

2. If Z = 2a sin (sin + i cos ), then the locus of Z is (A) a circle whose centre is a (C) a circle whose radius is a 2 (B) a circle whose centre is a (D) a circle of radius 2a
2A 2B 2C

3. In a ABC, the minimum value of tan 1 2

tan

tan

2 (D) 3

is equal to

(A) 0

(B)

(C) 1

4. In a ABC, coordinates of A are (4, 6), AB = 12 and BAC = AC is (4, 12). Then the radius of the incircle of ABC is (A) 3 3 (B) 2 3 (C) 4 3 (D) 3

. The midpoint of

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5. If the position vectors of the points A, B, C, D are a , b , c , d and if b c 2d b c = c a 2d c a = 0 , then D is (A) circumcentre of ABC (C) orthocentre of ABC (B) incentre of ABC (D) centroid of ABC

6. An ordinary die is rolled n times. The probability of getting an odd number 3 times is equal to the probability of getting an even number 4 times. Then the probability of getting an even number, even number of times is (A) 63 128 (B) 1 4 (C) 1 8 x log (D) 1 2
2

7. The domain of the function f x = 2 log 1 32 1 32

4

1 2

1 2

15 is

(A)

,8

(B) 0 ,

(C) (0, 8]
2

(D) (0, 5]

8. Let

d dx

Fx =

sin x

, x > 0 . If

2e x
1

sin x

dx = F(k) F(1), then one of the

possible values of k is (A) 4 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 8

9.

cot

cot x dx is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C)

3 2

(D) 9

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SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: sin = c has a solution only if 1 c 1. Area between the curves y = e , y = log x, x + y = 1, x + y = 2 e is equal to twice the area between y = e , y = x, x + y = 1 and x+y=2 and Statement 2: The curves y = e and y = loge x are symmetrical with respect to the line y = x. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
x x x

If a b , b coplanar

c, c

a are non-coplanar, then a , b , c are non-

b b

c c

a = 2 a bc .
2

p cos x q sin x = r has a solution only if r p

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13. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

The number of terms in the expansion of (x + y + z)

n

25

is 351

The number of terms in the expansion of (x + y) is (n + 1). SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 50 objects a1, a2, a3, ..., a50 are arranged in a row. 14. The number of ways of selecting two of the objects so that they are not consecutive is (A) 1176 (B) 1175 (C) 1225 (D) none of these 15. Number of ways of forming three element subsets in which exactly two of the elements are consecutive (A) 2266 (B) 2302 (C) 2256 (D) none of these 16. Number of three element subsets with the condition no two subsets have the same pair of consecutive elements (A) 19600
4 2

(B) 17296

(C) 17388

(D) 17344

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 Let y = 2x x be the equation of a curve. 17. The equation of the normal at the origin is (A) y = 0 (B) x = 0 (C) not unique (D) none of these 18. The depth of the lowest point on the curve below the x-axis is (A) 1 8 (B) 1 4 (C) 1 16 (D) none of these

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19. The area between the curve and the x-axis is (A) 1 15 (B) 1 15 2 (C) 2 2 15 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 20. (A) cos 2 7 9 14 15 sin sin 5 18 sin 3 14 3 10 sin sin cos p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) 18 sin 21 14 1 8 (D) 2 15

Column I 4 7 cos 3 9 5 14 4 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK cos 6 7 sin

(B) cos

(q)

1 16 1 8 1 2

(C) sin

(r)

(D) sin

(s)

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21.

Column I
6

Column II 3 3 1
5

(A) The integer just greater than (B) The integer just less than 2

is

(p) 723 (q) 416 (r) 720 (s) 737

is

(C) The number of natural numbers from 2 to 999 which have none of the digits repeated is (D) The number of ways 5 different red flowers and 3 different white flowers can be arranged in a garland so that no two white flowers are together is 22. Column I

Column II

(A)

1 1 0

2x

2x

dx

(p)

56 15

(B)

x 1
2

dx

(q)

1 2

(C)

x cos dx 8 2
0 4

(r)

1 30

(D)

cos1 x dx
6

(s) 0

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PART B : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Choose the incorrect statement. (A) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct. (B) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect. (C) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct. (D) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be incorrect. 24. A particle moves in the x-y plane with velocity v = a i bx j , where a and b are constants. Initially, the particle was at the origin. The trajectory of the particle is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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25. Two solid bodies rotate about stationary mutually perpendicular intersecting axes with constant angular velocities 1 and 2. What is the magnitude of angular velocity of one with respect to the other? (A) 1 2 (B)
2 1

2 2

(C)

2 1

2 2

(D) 1 + 2

26. In Figure shown, find the magnitude of acceleration of m, given that the string is inextensible and massless and the acceleration of M is 2 m/s towards left. (A) 2 3 m s
2

(B) 3 2 m s

(C) 4 2 m s

(D) 2 5 m s q

27. A particle having charge to mass ratio

= k is projected in a m magnetic field B with a speed v = 2kBd as shown in Figure, where d is the width of the region in which magnetic field is present. For this situation, mark the incorrect statement. 6kB

(A) Particle remains in the magnetic field for a time of d 3

(B) It travels a distance of

in the magnetic field

(C) The angle of deviation from its initial direction is 30. (D) The displacement of particle in magnetic field is 2d sin 15. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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28. Two plane mirrors are placed as shown in Figure. A point object O is approaching the intersection point A of mirrors with a speed of 100 cm/s. The velocity of image of the object formed by M2 with respect to velocity of image of object formed by M1 is (A) (B) 128 i 28 i 96 j cm s 48 j cm s 48 j cm s 48 j cm s

(C) 128 i (D) 100 i

29. Some cases are given below. Identify the case in which the emf is induced, when a uniform magnetic field B is applied, throughout.

(A) In (I), (III) and (IV) only (C) In (III) only

(B) In (II), (III) and (IV) only (D) In all the four

30. A point source of light of power P and wavelength is emitting light in all directions. The number of photons present in a spherical region of radius r to radius 2r with centre at source, is (A) P 4 r hc
2

(B) P r hc
2

(C)

P 4 r hc
2

(D)

P hc

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31. During the process A-B for an ideal gas (A) Work done on the gas is zero (B) Density of the gas is constant (C) Slope of line AB from the T-axis is directly proportional to the number of moles of the gas (D) All of the above SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: and Statement 2: If Fext = 0, the centre of mass keeps on moving with constant velocity. 33. Statement 1: and Statement 2: A sample of atomic hydrogen gas consists of millions of atoms. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK The different series of emission spectra (like Lyman, Balmer etc.,) of atomic hydrogen gas are produced by different atoms Internal forces of the brake of a vehicle, can bring the centre of mass of the vehicle to rest

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34. Statement 1:

An inductor and a capacitor connected in the circuit shown in Figure. The ammeter may read infinity.

and Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: and Statement 2: The frequency of open organ pipe depends on its radius. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Two circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed coaxially as shown in Figure. From time period t < 0, the loop 1 carries steady current I0 while loop 2 does not carry any current. Then loop 1 is disconnected from its power source at t = 0 and current carried by it decays to zero in an exponential manner. As a result of which flux linked with loop 2 decays and hence an induced current flows through the second loop. Take R1 >> R2 and consider only mutual induction effects M between the coils. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK At resonance, voltage in coil and capacitance are equal and out of phase by 180. Narrower the open organ pipe, higher will be the pitch

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36. The coefficient of mutual inductance M between two coils is (A) R R

0 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 2

(B)

R
0

2 1

2R

2 R

R (C)
0

R R (D)
0 1 2 1 2

2 2 3 2

2 R

37. The total charge carried by induced current in loop 2 is given by (where R is the resistance of loop 2) MI (A) R
M 0

2MI (B) R

MI (C)

(D) none of these

2R
R

38. The current in loop 2 as a function of time is given by

t t

(A) I e
0

(B) I e
0

(C) I0e

Mt

(D) I0e

Rt

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R is allowed to roll on a wedge of mass m which in turn is kept on a smooth horizontal floor. The cylinder is rolling without slipping. Given x = cos 2
2

sin 2 sin
2

39. The angular acceleration of cylinder is (A) g sin x R (B) 2g sin 3R x (C) 2g cos x 3R (D) 2g sin 3R

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40. The frictional force between cylinder and wedge is (A) Mg sin 3 x (B) Mg sin (C) Mg sin 2 sin
2

(D)

Mg sin 2 sin
2

41. The normal contact force between wedge and ground is (A) (2 mg cos ) x (C) 2mg cos 2 sin
2

(B) mg cos (D) (mg cos ) x SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s

42. Match the entries in Column I with those in Column II. Column I (A) Longitudinal stress (B) Shear stress Column II (p) Volume changes (q) Shape changes SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(C) Volume stress (D) Tensile stress

(r) Volume does not change (s) Shape does not change

43. In the given Figure, the separation between the plates of C1 is slowly increased to double of its initial value. Now match the entries in Column I with those in Column II. Column I (A) The potential difference across C1 (B) The potential difference across C2 (C) Energy stored in C1 (D) Energy stored in C2 Column II (p) increases (q) decreases (r) increases by a factor of 6 5 (s) decreases by a factor of 18 25
234 235 238

44. A sample of uranium is a mixture of three isotopes: 92U , 92U , 92U present in the ratio 0.006%, 0.71% and 99.284% respectively. The half-lives of these isotopes are 2.5 10 years, 7.1 10 years and 4.5 10 years respectively. Now match the items in Column I with those in Column II. Column I (A) Activity of U (B) Activity of U (C) Activity of U
234 235 238 5 8 9

Column II (p) (q) (r) to that of U

235

in percent in percent in percent

238

2.1 51 22 46.8

(D) Ratio of the activity of U

(s)

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PART C : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. Ratio of radii of second orbit of protium (H), deuterium (D) and tritium (T) is (A) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 1 1
2

(B) 1 : 2 : 3 : 1 3
2

1 2
2

(D) 1 : 1 : 1

46. Identify the incorrect statement: (A) Among the halides, I is the most powerful reducing agent. (B) Fluorine does not show +7 oxidation state but iodine shows +7 oxidation state. (C) HOCl is stronger acid than HOBr. (D) HF is stronger acid than HCl. 47. The metal which cannot be extracted by smelting process is (A) lead (B) copper (C) zinc (D) aluminium

48. Which is the false statement about orthoboric acid? (A) It is a strong tribasic acid. (B) It does not act as a proton donor but behaves like a Lewis acid by accepting OH ion. (C) It is prepared by the action of mineral acid on borax solution. (D) It has a layer structure in which hydrogen bonds unite B(OH)3 units. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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49. During debromination of meso-2, 3-dibromobutane, the major product formed is (A) CH3 CH2 C CH (C) (B) CH3 C C CH3 (D)

50. Identify the correct statement: (A) Carbocations are pyramidal. (B) Ethyl carbanion is planar. (C) C H CH
6 5

ion is pyramidal.

(D) Singlet carbene is diamagnetic. C + 2D, two moles of A and two moles of B are mixed 51. In the reaction A + B in a volume of one litre. If 1.2 moles of C is formed at equilibrium, the value of equilibrium constant is (A) 1.69 52. The products finally formed in the above sequence of reactions are (A) CH3CHO and CH3COCH3 (B) CH3CHO and (CH3CO)2O (C) CH3COCH3 and (CH3CO)2O (D) CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (B) 1.08 (C) 10.8 (D) 16.9

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53. The solubilities of carbonates decrease downward in magnesium group due to a decrease in (A) hydration energies of cations (B) inter-ionic attraction (C) entropy of solution formation (D) lattice energies of the solids SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: and Statement 2: An amino group attached to benzene ring makes it sensitive to oxidation. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Oxidation states of sulphur in Caro s acid and sulphuric acid are +7 and +6 respectively. Oxidation of aminonaphthalene yields phthalic acid. Caro s acid is a stronger oxidising agent than sulphuric acid.

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56. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 57. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

When chlorobenzene is treated with ammonia gas, aniline is formed at 80C and one atmospheric pressure. Ammonia is a stronger nucleophile than chloride ion. The chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature. The rate constants of forward reaction and its reverse reaction are the same at equilibrium. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 Carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones undergo addition reaction as well as condensation reaction. group is polar in nature and hence it is attacked by nucleophiles. In these reactions aldehydes are more reactive than ketones. Steric effects and polar effects decide the reactivity of carbonyl group. 58.

The product is (A)

(B)

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(C)

(D)

59. Consider the following sequence of reactions.

The final product N is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

60. Enolisation is maximum in the case of

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 0.02 M aqueous solution of NH4Cl undergoes hydrolysis. As a result of it, the solution develops acidity. NH
4

+ H2O

NH4OH + H

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The basicity constant Kb for NH4OH is 1.85 10 Kw = 1 10

14

and the ionic product of water

at 298 K. [pKb = 4.73]

4

61. For the reaction, NH NH

4

+ H2O

NH4OH + H . The hydrolytic constant of

ion is
10

(A) 5.4 10

(B) 4.5 10

10

(C) 1.85 10

(D) 1.85 10

62. The degree of hydrolysis in the above NH4Cl solution is (A) 5.0 10
3

(B) 1.64 10

(C) 5.0 10

(D) 1.64 10

63. The pH of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NH4Cl is (A) 4.52 (B) 4.48 (C) 5.48 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s (D) 5.52

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64.

Column I Species (A) BCl3 (B) NH3 (C) NO2 (D) NH 4

Column II Nature of central atom (p) Formal charge = 0 (q) Formal charge = +1 (r) Oxidation number = 3 (s) Hybridisation: sp
2

65.

Column I (A) CO < CO2 < CO

2 3

Column II (p) Dipole moment (q) Bond distance (r) Bond order (s) Bond strength Column II Zn
2 aq

(B) HI < HBr < HCl (C) NF3 < NCl3 < NH3 (D) CO 66.
2 3

< CO2 < CO

Column I (A) Zn
o

Cu

2 aq

Cu

(p) S = positive (q) H = negative (r) G = negative (s) Ecell = positive

(B) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (C) CaO(s) + H2O(l) Ca(OH)2(aq) 1 (D) SO2(g) + O2(g) SO3(g) 2

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A : Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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