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Biology 12

August 1998 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K D B C D C B B A D A C C C A D A B C B A A D B A B C H U U K H H U H K U K K U H U U U H U K K U H U K CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1 A1 A2 B1 B3 C5, 1 C10 E1 F1 F1 F3 G1 G3, 5 G6 H1 H2 H6 H6 I2 I6 I7 I10 J2; L7, 8 J2 J7 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K C C D C D D A D A D B D C A C D C D B C C C C D D C U U K K U U U U H U U U K U H U U H H H K K U K K CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J11 J12 K1 K1 K2 L1 L3 L7 L7 L8 M2 M3 M4 M5, 6 N3 N4 O1, 2 O2 O2, 3 O4, 5 P1 P4 P6 P7 P12 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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September 2, 1998

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 C U U K U U U H U U H U K S 4 3 3 3 4 5 6 6 4 2 4 6 CO 1 1, 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 2 C11, G1, 3 D5 E3, 4 H3 I2, 7, 9 I2, L8, O1 J5 M5, 6 M5, 6, 7 O2, 5 P1, 7, 11

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (12 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome
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S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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September 2, 1998

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. 1. Explain the functional relationship between rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, chromosomes and vesicles. (4 marks) Chromosomes contain the DNA code for proteins. Ribosomes or rough endoplasmic reticulum are sites of protein production. Endoplasmic reticulum temporarily stores proteins coded by the DNA of the chromosome. Vesicles transport proteins to Golgi bodies. Golgi bodies receive proteins from vesicles and repackage these proteins into new vesicles. The proteins in these new vesicles are either exported or used within the cell as a lysosome. any four for 1 mark each Suggested Time: 75 minutes

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September 2, 1998

Use the following diagram to answer question 2.

2. a) Identify the molecules labelled X. Protein. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) Name two processes by which these molecules function in order to move materials. (2 marks) Diffusion. Active transport. Facilitated transport. any two for 1 mark each

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September 2, 1998

3. List three ways in which mRNA is different from DNA. mRNA Uracil. Shorter. Ribose sugar. Single stranded. More abundant. Moves out of the nucleus (into the cytoplasm). any three for 1 mark each

(3 marks)

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September 2, 1998

4. a) Give one example of an environmental mutagen. Viruses. Radiation. Chemicals. any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

b) Explain how a mutagen could change the mRNA produced in a cell. The DNA is altered by addition, deletion or substitution of nucleotides. (1 mark) A different sequence will be transcribed resulting in altered codons. (1 mark)

(2 marks)

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September 2, 1998

5. Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the lock and key model of enzymatic action.

(4 marks)

substrates coenzyme

enzyme-substrate complex

product

enzyme

active sites

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September 2, 1998

6. a) Name the three glands that secrete enzymes that digest carbohydrates. Pancreas. (1 mark) Salivary glands. (1 mark) Intestinal glands. (1 mark)

(3 marks)

b) Name the structure in the small intestine that absorbs the products of carbohydrate digestion. Villus. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) Where does the body store the excess products of carbohydrate digestion? Fat. Liver. Muscle. any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

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September 2, 1998

7. The maintenance of optimum pH is essential to living systems. Give three different locations in the body where pH is regulated and explain how it is maintained. (6 marks: 1 mark each for locations; 1 mark each for explanations) The student could indicate 3 of the following: Location: duodenum digestive system either one for 1 mark

Explanation: Secretion of sodium bicarbonate occurs to neutralize acid chyme thus maintain optimum pH. (1 mark)

Location: capillaries respiratory system

either one for 1 mark

Explanation: Hemoglobin acts as a buffer by absorbing H + ions in order to maintain optimum blood pH. (1 mark)

Location: kidney nephron

either one for 1 mark either one for 1 mark

Explanation: If blood is too acidic, hydrogen ions are excreted and bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed. If blood is too alkaline, fewer hydrogen ions are excreted and fewer sodium and bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed.

Location: stomach (1 mark) Explanation: Secretion of HCl produces an acidic environment in order to maintain optimum pH. (1 mark)

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September 2, 1998

8. Name any three fetal structures indicated by the letters. Give one function for each structure that you name. (6 marks: 1 mark each for names; 1 mark each for functions)

V W X

Z Y

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September 2, 1998

The student could indicate 3 of the following: Letter: U Name: placenta Function: Exchanges wastes for nutrients with the mothers blood. Letter: V Name: arterial duct Function: Diverts blood from the lungs. Letter: W Name: oval opening Function: Diverts blood from the lungs.

Letter: X Name: venous duct Function: Joins the umbilical vein to the vena cava.

Letter: Y Name: umbilical vein Function: Carries blood from the placenta (brings nutrients).

Letter: Z Name: umbilical artery Function: Carries blood to the placenta (takes wastes).

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September 2, 1998

9. Explain how a nerve impulse travels from one neuron to another. Diffusion of Ca 2 + ions into presynaptic ending. Contractile proteins pull synaptic vesicles to presynaptic membrane. Neurotransmitter is released from synaptic vesicles (exocytosis). Neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft. Neurotransmitter binds to receptor sites on post synaptic membrane causing it to depolarize. Neurotransmitter is destroyed by an enzyme.

(4 marks) any four for 1 mark each

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September 2, 1998

10. Describe two ways in which a drug could block transmission of an impulse at the synapse. (2 marks) Could inhibit release of neurotransmitter. Could destroy neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft. Could occupy receptor sites on post-synaptic membrane (acts as a competitive inhibitor). Could block uptake of Ca 2+ ions by the presynaptic membrane. Could interfere with formation of neurotransmitter or vesicles. any two for 1 mark each

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September 2, 1998

11. Describe the process by which each of the following affects the composition of filtrate in the nephron. (4 marks: 2 marks each) Proximal Tubule: Selective reabsorption. Glucose is actively transported into the blood. Fatty acids and glycerol are actively transported into the blood. Water is reabsorbed passively by osmosis. Na + ions are actively transported into the blood. Cl ions are passively reabsorbed by the blood. any two for 1 mark each

Loop of Henle: Counter-current exchange. Na + ions are transported out of the ascending limbs by active transport ( Cl follows passively). There is increasing salt concentration in the medulla. The tissue surrounding the descending limbs is saltier and H 2O is drawn out of the nephron. any two for 1 mark each

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September 2, 1998

12. a) Give two functions for each of the following structures. Testes: Produce sperm. (1 mark) Produce testosterone. (1 mark)

(4 marks: 2 marks each)

Ovaries: Release egg(s). Mature egg(s). Secrete estrogen. Secrete progesterone. any two for 1 mark each

b) Name the hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop and explain one of its functions. (2 marks) Name: Oxytocin. (1 mark) Function: Causes expression of milk by mammary glands. Causes the smooth muscles of the uterus to contract and these contractions increase the release of more oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. either one for 1 mark

END OF KEY
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September 2, 1998

Biology 12
June 1998 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K D C D C D D D C B D D D A A A C A B D C C B D C B C H K U U K U K H K K U H H H K K H U K K K U U U U CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 2, 3 A1, 3 A1, 3 B1 B3 C1 D3 E2 F1 F1 F3 G8 H1, 4, 5 H6; I2, 4 I3, 1 I4 I6, 7; J7; O3 I10 J1 J2 J2, 8 J5 J7 J8 J9 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K B C CO PLO Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

K 3 J11 DELETED D U 3 K1 C K 3 K1 B U 3 K2 C U 3 K5, 6 C U 3 L8 C U 3 L7, 8 D H 3 M3 C H 3 M7 B U 3 N1, 2 D U 3 N3 D U 3 N4 B U 3 N4, 5 A K 3 O1 A U 3 O1 B K 3 O1 C H 3 O2 B U 3 O2 D U 3 O2 D K 3 O2 D U 3 O2, 5 C K 3 O4 D K 3 P1 D U 3 P1

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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July 22, 1998

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 C H U K U H K U U U S 6 3 3 3 6 6 8 6 9 CO 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 PLO B1, 2; C2, 8, 11 A1; D5 E1, 3 H3, 6 G6, 7 I2, 4 L1, 5, 6 M2, 8 P9, 10, 12

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (9 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome
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S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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July 22, 1998

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. 1. For each of the following molecules, give one function and describe a characteristic of the molecule that aids this function. (6 marks: 2 marks each) a) ATP Function: To act as the energy currency. To act as an energy carrier in cells. Characteristic: It has high energy phosphate bonds. (1 mark) Suggested Time: 75 minutes

either one for 1 mark

b) Water Function: To act as a solvent for polar molecules. To maintain blood volume in the body. To regulate temperature (large range between freezing and evaporation). Characteristic: It has a polar nature. (1 mark)

any one for 1 mark

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July 22, 1998

c) Phospholipid Function: It forms membranes. (1 mark) Characteristic: It has a polar nature. It has hydrophilic ends. It has hydrophobic ends. Its composition aids in movement of lipids across the membrane.

any one for 1 mark

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July 22, 1998

2. Complete the following table comparing DNA and RNA.

(3 marks: 1 mark each)

DNA Bases Location in cell Number of strands C, G, A, T nucleus 2

RNA C, G, A, U nucleus and cytoplasm 1

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July 22, 1998

3. Give one role of each of the following in the process of translation. tRNA: Matches its anticodon to the mRNA codon. Brings the correct amino acid to the ribosome. either one for 1 mark

(3 marks: 1 mark each)

Ribosome: Site of production of polypeptide. Site where codon and anticodon join. Holds the mRNA for translation to occur. any one for 1 mark

mRNA: Carries a copy of the code to the site of translation. Contains codons which determine the sequence of amino acids. either one for 1 mark

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July 22, 1998

4. a) Explain the lock and key model of enzymatic action. An enzyme has an active site [the lock] that specifically fits the substrate(s) [the key]. (1 mark) The enzyme and substrate(s) fit together forming a complex so that the substrate(s) react. The enzyme and substrate(s) fit together forming a complex so that the energy of activation is lowered.

(2 marks)

either one for 1 mark

b) Explain how denaturation stops enzymatic action. Denaturation alters the shape of the active site. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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July 22, 1998

5. Two identical red blood cell samples were prepared for an experiment. The samples were placed in two different solutions and the percent change in mass was recorded and graphed over an eight hour period as shown below.
+ 10 +8 +6
Percent Change in Mass Cell Sample in Solution A

+4 +2 0 2 4 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Time (h)

Cell Sample in Solution B

a) Account for the change in mass of the cells in Solution A during the first four hours. (2 marks) Solution A is hypotonic to the cells. (1 mark) Water entered the cells via osmosis. (1 mark)

b) What happened to the cells in Solution A after four hours? The cells burst. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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July 22, 1998

Use the following diagram of red blood cells in solution to answer part c).

c) A sample of cells from Solution B (at five hours) was examined under the microscope. Explain why they appear as in the diagram above. (2 marks) They are crenated. Water left the cells via osmosis. Solution B is hypertonic to the cells. any two for 1 mark each

d) Give one reason for the results obtained from the cells placed in Solution B between three and eight hours. (1 mark) Isotonicity was reached between the interior and exterior of the cells. (1 mark)

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July 22, 1998

6. Complete the table below by giving one enzyme produced by each of the following glands and by stating the digestive product of that enzyme. (6 marks: 1 mark each) GLANDS ENZYME PRODUCED

DIGESTIVE PRODUCT

Salivary glands

Salivary Amylase

Maltose

Gastric glands

Pepsin or Pepsinogen

Peptides or Polypeptides

Intestinal glands

Maltase or Nuclease or Peptidase

Glucose or Nucleotides or Amino Acids

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July 22, 1998

Use the following diagram to answer question 7.

Y W

7. a) Label structures W, X, Y and Z on the diagram.

(4 marks: 1 mark each)

Medulla Oblongata X

Y Rib Lung/Alveoli W

Z Diaphragm

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July 22, 1998

b) Describe the roles of structures W, X and Z in the process of inhalation.

(3 marks)

The medulla oblongata senses increased carbon dioxide concentrations in the blood and sends messages to the rib muscles and diaphragm. (1 mark) The diaphragm contracts and flattens, which increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. (1 mark) The resulting negative pressure sucks air into the lungs/alveoli and gas exchange between the capillaries and the lungs occurs. (1 mark)

c) Why are the pleural membranes important to the inhalation process? They maintain an interpleural pressure that is less than atmospheric pressure thereby keeping the lungs open. They are lubricated and slide easily to reduce friction.

(1 mark) either one for 1 mark

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July 22, 1998

8. Name each of the following neurons and for each give its role in a reflex arc. a)

(6 marks)

Name: Motor Neuron. (1 mark) Role: Carries impulse from the interneuron to the effector. Carries impulse from the interneuron to the muscle. Carries impulse from the interneuron to the gland.

any one for 1 mark

b)

Name: Sensory Neuron. (1 mark) Role: Carries impulse from the sensory receptors to the interneuron. (1 mark)

c)

Name: Interneuron. (1 mark) Role: Carries impulse from the sensory neuron to the motor neuron. Carries impulse within the spinal cord.

either one for 1 mark

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July 22, 1998

9. a) Complete this summary table of the ovarian cycle. HORMONE WHICH INITIATES PHASE Phase 1
Days 1 to 14

(4 marks) HORMONE PRODUCED BY OVARY Estrogen

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Phase 2
Days 15 to 28

Progesterone

b)

i) What is the event that occurs on Day 14?

(1 mark)

Ovulation occurs on Day 14. (1 mark)

ii) What causes this event to occur? A surge of LH is thought to be responsible. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) What causes Phase 2 to end? Degeneration of the corpus luteum. All hormones are at their lowest levels. Negative feedback of LH stops its production. any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

d) Describe the effects of implantation (pregnancy) on the ovarian cycle. Degeneration of the corpus luteum is prevented. More progesterone is produced. No new follicles mature. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

END OF KEY

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July 22, 1998

Biology 12
November 1998 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K C D A B B B B D D A C B B A C D D A B D C A A B D C U U K U H U H H H K K U K U U H U K K U U K H K K CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3 B1 B3 C2 C3 C2, 4 C10 E1 E1, 2 E3, 4 G6 H1 H2 H3 H5 H6 H6 I1 I1 I2 I2 I6 I9 I10 J2 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K C D B B B D C D A C D D A C D A A B D C C C C A C C U H U U K U U H K U U U U U U K U H H H K K U K H CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J2 J2, 4 J4 J1, 8 K1 K4, 6 L2 L7, 8 M2, 8; N1 M3 M4 M7 M8 N2 N4 O1 O1 O2 O3, J2 O5 P1 P1 P6 P7 P10 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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December 3, 1998

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C U U K U K U U H U K S 6 4 3 6 4 6 4 6 5 6 CO 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 2 D1 F1 G3, 6, 7 I2 J9 L1, 4, 6 M6 04, 5; N5 P4

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (10 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number K = Keyed Response B = Score Box Number S = Score PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome C = Cognitive Level CO = Curriculum Organizer

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December 3, 1998

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. Use the following diagram to answer question 1. Suggested Time: 75 minutes

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December 3, 1998

1. Identify each part of the cell indicated and give one role for each structure in the secretion and/or synthesis of a protein. (6 marks: 1 2 mark for each name; 1 mark for each function) Part W: Name: Golgi bodies. ( 1 2 mark ) Role: Package, modify and sort proteins. (1 mark)

Part X: Name: Cell membrane. ( 1 2 mark ) Role: Receives vesicles from the Golgi and exports the proteins from the cell through exocytosis. (1 mark)

Part Y: Name: Nucleus. ( 1 2 mark ) Role: Contains the DNA and is the site of transcription in protein synthesis. (1 mark) OR Name: Nucleolus. ( 1 2 mark ) Role: Synthesis of rRNA. (1 mark)

Part Z: Name: Rough endoplasmic reticulum. ( 1 2 mark ) Role: It is the site of translation in protein synthesis. (1 mark)

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December 3, 1998

2. Demonstrate your understanding of the structure of DNA by describing the following features of the DNA molecule. You may use drawings in your answers. a) Describe the shape of the DNA molecule. (1 mark)

It is a double helix. It is a twisted ladder shape.

either one for 1 mark

b) Describe the structure of the strands (backbone) of DNA. It is a double backbone of alternating sugar/phosphate molecules. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) Describe complementary base pairing. In complementary base pairing, adenine is always paired with thymine and guanine is always paired with cytosine. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

d) Describe the bonding that occurs between bases. There is hydrogen bonding between the bases. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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December 3, 1998

3. Give three ways in which cancer cells differ from normal cells. Ability to metastasize. Lack of differentiation. Lack of contact inhibition. Increased frequency of mitosis. Large nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. Release growth factors to promote vascularization. any three for 1 mark each

(3 marks)

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December 3, 1998

4. An experiment was designed to determine the correct salinity of water (percentage of salt in water) required to successfully clone certain cells using tissue culture. Three cell samples were placed in three different salt solutions and their change in mass was recorded in the data table shown below. SALT IN WATER (%) 0.5 1.0 1.5 CHANGE IN MASS OF CELLS (%) + 0. 82 + 0. 40 0.15

a) Use the grid provided to graph the data above. Label the x -axis as salt in water (%). (2 marks)

+1.0

+.5

Change in Mass (%)

.5

.5

1
Salt in Water (%)

1.5

(1 mark for correct scale and labels; 1 mark for plot and line of best fit.) Note: Students will not be penalized for reversing the axis.
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December 3, 1998

b) If the cells must be cultured in a solution that does not cause them to shrink or swell, estimate the percentage of salt in water that would be best for culturing the cells. (1 mark) 1.35 1.39. (1 mark)

c) Why do the cells in the 1.5% salt solution lose mass? Water leaves the cells because the solution is hypertonic to the cells. Water leaves the cells because the cells are hypotonic to the solution.

(1 mark) either one for 1 mark

d) Name the process and explain how each of the following nutrients, when added to any of the solutions, would enter the cells in the culture. (2 marks) Glucose: Name of Process: Active transport. Facilitated transport. one for } eithermark
1 2

Explanation: Using a carrier protein. ( 1 2 mark )

Oxygen: Name of Process: Diffusion. ( 1 2 mark ) Explanation: Moves through the membrane down a concentration gradient. Moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. either one for 1 mark 2

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December 3, 1998

5. Complete the following table for the digestive system.

(4 marks:

1 2

mark each)

SOURCE OF ENZYME Stomach Pancreas

ENZYME Pepsin Lipase

SUBSTRATE Protein Lipid

Pancreas Small intestine

Trypsin Maltase

Protein Maltose

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December 3, 1998

Use the following blood-smear diagram to answer question 6.

6. Name structures X, Y and Z and provide a function of each. (6 marks: 1 mark for each name; 1 mark for each function) Structure X: Name: Red blood cells. (1 mark) Function: Carry oxygen. Carry carbon dioxide. Carry hydrogen ions.

any one for 1 mark

Structure Y: Name: Platelets. (1 mark) Function: Initiate blood clotting. (1 mark)

Structure Z: Name: White blood cells. (1 mark) Function: Fight infection. Phagocytize bacteria and worn-out red blood cells.
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either one for 1 mark


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7. a) Explain how each of the following structures functions in the process of inhalation. (2 marks) Diaphragm: The diaphragm moves down to increase the volume of the thoracic cavity, decreasing pressure, causing air to rush in. (1 mark)

Ribs: The ribs move up and out to increase the volume of the thoracic cavity, decreasing pressure, causing air to rush into the lungs. (1 mark)

b) What role does each of the following have in breathing? Medulla oblongata: The medulla oblongata controls the breathing rate. (1 mark)

(2 marks)

Pleural membranes: The pleural membranes ensure that the thoracic cavity is sealed so that pressure remains low during breathing. They allow the lungs to move freely within the thoracic cavity. They reduce friction between lung tissue and the rib cage. They create a partial vacuum and negative pressure. any one for 1 mark

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December 3, 1998

Use the following diagram to answer question 8.

8. Describe the process which occurs at the circled area labelled X when a nerve impulse travels through this area. (6 marks) A wave of depolarization reaches the synaptic ending. The presynaptic membrane becomes permeable to calcium. Calcium ions move into the ending. Calcium ions interact with contractile proteins. Synaptic vesicles move to the presynaptic membrane. Vesicles release a neurotransmitter into the cleft. Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft. Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs. Enzymes in the cleft destroy extra neurotransmitter. OR Neurotransmitter is absorbed in the pre-synaptic membrane. any six for 1 mark each

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December 3, 1998

9. Demonstrate your understanding of negative feedback by describing how the kidneys and the hypothalamus work together to regulate blood volume. (5 marks) Hypothalamus senses high osmotic pressure. (1 mark) ADH is released. (1 mark) Kidneys increase their retention of H 2O . Distal tubule becomes more permeable to water. Collecting duct becomes more permeable to water. Results in increased blood volume. Results in decreased osmotic pressure. Negative feedback occurs in the posterior pituitary which stops ADH secretion. Negative feedback occurs in the hypothalamus which stops ADH secretion. any one for 1 mark one for } either 1 mark either one for 1 mark

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December 3, 1998

Use the following diagram to answer question 10. X Y

W Z

10. Identify the labelled structures in the diagram above and give one function of each. (6 marks: 1 2 mark for each name; 1 mark for each function) Structure W: Name: Acrosome. ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Contains acrosome enzymes which aid the sperm in reaching the surface of the egg and allow a single sperm to penetrate the egg. (1 mark)

Structure X: Name: Head. ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Stores genetic material (or DNA) required to produce a new human being. (1 mark)

Structure Y: Name: Mid-piece. ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Makes ATP required for propulsion in the tail. (1 mark)

Structure Z: Name: Tail. ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Provides the locomotion needed by the sperm to reach the egg (so that fertilization can occur). (1 mark) END OF KEY
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December 3, 1998

Biology 12
January 1998 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K C D C B D C D A B C D B C D D A B A B B A A D D A C K H K K H U H U U U H U U K H H K H U U U H U U U CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3 A1, 2; G5 A3 A1 B1 B3 C4, I2 C6, 12 D1 D2 E1, 2 F1 F1, 4 F2 G4 G6 H5 I2 I1 I5 I7 J1 J2 J6 J8 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K C D B B B D A C D D A A C D A C C D D C B A C B C C U K K H K U H U K U U H K U U U U H U K H U U U U CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J9 K1, 6 J11 J12 K2 K6 L3, 8 L4 L6 L8 M2 M3 M1 M6, 7 N3 N4 N5 O2 O2 O2 O4, 5 P1 P4 P7, J5 P10 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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February 25, 1998

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C U U K U U U U U H K S 4 4 4 5 6 4 4 5 6 8 CO 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO C9 E1 G3 G7, H6 I4, L7, O2 I9 L3 M8 O5, N5, J7 P5, 8, 6

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice

50 (50 questions) 50 (10 questions) 100 marks

Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number K = Keyed Response B = Score Box Number S = Score PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome C = Cognitive Level CO = Curriculum Organizer

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February 25, 1998

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. Suggested Time: 75 minutes

1. Draw a generalized amino acid and label the amine, acid (carboxyl) and R groups. (You may use a pencil for your drawing.) H N
amine group

(4 marks)

H C C

O OH acid group (1 mark)

(1 mark)

R group (1 mark)

(1 mark for correct linkage of amine and acid groups. If unlabelled, 1 2 mark each only.)

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February 25, 1998

2. Give one role of each of the following in the production of a protein. DNA:

(4 marks: 1 mark each)

Contains the code (gene) that determines the amino acid sequence of the protein. It is the template (blueprint) for mRNA.

either one for 1 mark

mRNA: Reads gene (transcription) and carries message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes. (1 mark)

tRNA: Specific tRNAs attach to specific amino acids and carry them to the ribosome. (1 mark)

rRNA: rRNA forms the ribosomes that read the mRNA and provide a site for tRNAs to join with the mRNA. (1 mark)

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February 25, 1998

3. State how each of the following transport mechanisms functions to move materials into a cell. (4 marks: 1 mark each) Diffusion: Net flow of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. (1 mark)

Osmosis: Net flow of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane. Net flow of water from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration. either one for 1 mark

Facilitated transport: Use of a carrier protein to move molecules from a higher to a lower concentration. (1 mark)

Active transport: Use of a carrier protein and an energy source to move molecules from a lower to a higher concentration. (1 mark)

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February 25, 1998

4. An experiment was conducted to determine the effects of pH on pepsin. The following steps were performed: 1. Five test tubes were numbered and equal amounts of egg white and water were added to each. 2. A buffer was added to each test tube to maintain its pH at the level given in the table below. 3. An equal amount of pepsin was added to each test tube. After one hour, the mass of egg white remaining in each test tube was determined. The results are recorded below: TEST TUBE 1 2 3 4 5 pH 1 2 3 5 7 MASS OF EGG WHITE
(in grams)

2.8 1.3 2.7 3.9 5.8

a) Draw a graph that compares the pH to the amount of egg white remaining in each test tube. Label the x-axis (horizontal axis) as pH. (2 marks)
6

Mass 3 (g)
2

pH (1 2 mark for each correctly labelled axis; 1 mark for correct plot points)
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February 25, 1998

b) What appears to be the optimum pH for pepsin? pH of 2. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) Explain what happens to pepsin at a pH of 7, and why this affects its activity.

(2 marks)

The enzyme denatures. (1 mark) The active site is lost so that the enzyme can no longer hold its substrate. (1 mark)

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February 25, 1998

5. Give three functions of the bicarbonate ion HCO3 in the body and identify one specific location of each function. (6 marks: 2 marks each) Students could chose 3 of the following: Function: Bicarbonate ions are formed when carbon dioxide and water combine. Most of the carbon dioxide generated by cellular respiration is carried back to the lung capillaries as bicarbonate. (1 mark) Location: In the capillaries. (1 mark) Function: Bicarbonate ions neutralize stomach acid. (1 mark) Location: In the duodenum. (1 mark)

Function: When blood is acidic, bicarbonate ions are reabsorbed to maintain the proper pH of the blood. (1 mark) Location: In the nephron. (1 mark) Function: Initiates breathing by action on breathing centre. (1 mark) Location: Medulla. (1 mark)

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February 25, 1998

6. Describe how the small intestine is specialized for digestion and absorption. Digestion: Produces enzymes to break down nutrients. Produces maltase to convert maltose into glucose. Produces peptidases to convert peptides into amino acids. Produces nucleases to break down nucleic acids. Its long length allows time for digestion. any two for 1 mark each (2 marks)

Absorption: Its long length and villi provide a large surface area. Lacteals absorb lipids. Capillary network absorbs amino acids and glucose. Microvilli (brush border) increase absorptive area. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

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February 25, 1998

7. How is the structure of the alveoli ideally suited to the exchange of gases with the blood? (4 marks) Maximize surface area. Lipoprotein lowers surface tension so they cannot collapse. Thin-walled to increase diffusion rates. Highly vascularized.

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February 25, 1998

Use the following diagram to answer question 8.

8. The diagram above represents a simple reflex arc. Identify structures V, W, X, Y and Z and give one function of each structure. 1 (5 marks: 1 2 mark for each name, 2 mark for each function)

STRUCTURE

NAME

FUNCTION

Receptor

Initiates impulse from environmental stimuli.

Sensory neuron

Carries impulse to CNS. or Carries impulse to spinal cord.

Interneuron

Relays impulse to motor neuron. Carries impulse to effector. or Carries impulse to muscle. or Carries impulse to gland.

Motor neuron

Effector

A muscle or gland that responds to the stimulus.

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February 25, 1998

9. Plasma from a student was analyzed before and after a ten kilometre cross-country run. During the run, the student became dehydrated. Explain how the resulting lowered blood volume is detected by the body and describe a homeostatic mechanism by which it is returned to normal. (6 marks) Path One: Stretch receptors in the walls of the arteries detect that the plasma lacks sufficient water. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) produced by hypothalamic neurons is transported to the posterior pituitary where it is released into the blood. ADH increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct in the nephron. This increased permeability causes more water to be reabsorbed. Increased water in the plasma will return ion concentrations to normal levels. As the blood becomes more dilute, ADH ceases to be produced and released. This mechanism is an example of negative feedback. OR Path Two: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect that the plasma lacks sufficient water. The hypothalamus causes sensations of thirst. The student drinks. Water is absorbed from the stomach, small intestine and large intestine into the blood. Blood volume is increased. OR Path Three: Kidney releases an enzyme when blood volume and Na + is low which eventually targets adrenal gland. Adrenal gland releases aldosterone. Aldosterone targets kidney tubules. This increases Na + recovery in the nephrons. This results in increased water recovery and subsequent increase in blood volume. (Students may describe a combination of pathways.) any for 1 mark each any for 1 mark each

any six for 1 mark each

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February 25, 1998

10. State the effects that each of the following hormones has on the body during puberty. (8 marks) Testosterone: (three effects) Maturation of penis and testes. Production of sperm. Growth of body hair. Larynx and vocal chords enlarge. Increased muscle strength. Oil and sweat glands secrete. any three for 1 mark each

Estrogen: (three effects) Growth of uterus and vagina. Onset of uterine cycle. Growth of body hair. Fat distribution. Pelvic girdle and breasts enlarge. any three for 1 mark each

Follicle stimulating hormone: (two effects) Promotes the development of the follicle. Produces sperm. Causes spermatogenic cells to take up testosterone. Maturation of the egg. any two for 1 mark each

END OF KEY
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February 25, 1998

Biology 12
November 2001 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K B A D B D C B D A C A A A C B D D B C D C C B D C C U U U U U K U U K H U H K U U H U H U U H U H K U S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3, 2 3 3, 1 3 3 PLO A1, 3 A1, 3 A1; C2 A1, 3 B1 B2 C3, 4 C1, 2 C12; A1 D2 E1 E2 F1 F1 F3, 4, 5 G1, 3 G6 H3 I1; J8 I1 I2; G3 I2 I5, 1; C5 J2 J4; K1 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K A B A D B D A A B D B B B B D D C D A B D A B C C C K H U K U U K K U K H U U K U H H H H U U U U K K S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J5 J6, 1 J9 J12 K1 K1, 6 K2 L2 L3 L6 L7, 1; G3, 7; J2 L6, 7, 8 M2, 8 M5, 6 N2, 3 N4 N4 O4, 5 O2 O5 P1 P1 P2 P7 P12 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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December 3, 2001

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 C K U U U U H U K K S 3 4 4 6 5 8 8 6 6 CO 1 2, 1 2 2, 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 PLO A1 E1; D2 G3, 5 H6, 7; G7; I2 I7; J7 J2, 12; L7, 8; G7; I1, 5, 9 M3, 4 O1 P7

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice Written Response EXAMINATION TOTAL

= = =

50 (50 questions) 50 (9 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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December 3, 2001

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination unless otherwise instructed. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question.

1. For each of the following structures, identify a cellular process in which the structure is involved. (3 marks: 1 mark each) chromosomes: DNA replication protein synthesis / transcription cell division (e.g., mitosis, meiosis) mutations any one for 1 mark

mitochondria: active transport cellular respiration create energy any one for 1 mark

lysosomes: hydrolysis intracellular digestion autolysis / autodigestion breaks down molecules / cells / cell parts any one for 1 mark

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December 3, 2001

2. Complete the following table showing the products and locations of the cellular processes indicated.

(4 marks)

Translation

Replication

Product

proteins OR polypeptides OR amino acid chain

two DNA molecules OR a molecule of DNA identical to the original molecule

Location

cytoplasm OR ribosome OR polysome OR rough endoplasmic reticulum

nucleus OR mitochondria

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December 3, 2001

3. Identify and describe the process by which each of the following substances moves into a cell. (4 marks: 1 mark each for process; 1 mark each for description) oxygen: Name of process: diffusion (1 mark) Description: The movement of oxygen from an area of higher oxygen concentration outside the cell to an area of lower oxygen concentration inside the cell. (1 mark)

macromolecule: Name of process: endocytosis phagocytosis pinocytosis

any one for 1 mark

Description: The cell membrane uses ATP to form a vesicle. The cell membrane engulfs the macromolecule in order to bring the macromolecule into the cell. The cell membrane binds with receptors which forms vesicles / vacuoles.

any one for 1 mark

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December 3, 2001

4. The following experiment was conducted to observe the effect of temperature on the rate of enzyme activity. 10 mL of a starch solution was added to each of five lettered test tubes. Each test tube was placed in a different water bath as shown in the table below. An equal amount of salivary amylase was added to test tubes W, X, Y and Z. A sample was taken from each test tube every minute and tested with IKI, an indicator that turns from yellow to black when mixed with starch.

Test Tube V W X Y Z

Temperature of Water Bath (oC) 20 0 20 40 60

1 min. black black black black black

2 min. black black black yellow black

3 min. black black yellow yellow black

4 min. black yellow yellow yellow black

5 min. black yellow yellow yellow yellow

a) What is the purpose of test tube V? Test tube V is the scientific control. The purpose is to show IKI doesnt turn from yellow to black in the absence of salivary amylase.

(1 mark) either one for 1 mark

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December 3, 2001

b) Using the grid provided, draw a graph that relates the time it takes for the indicator to turn yellow to the temperatures of test tubes W, X, Y and Z.

(2 marks)

time (min.)

10

20

30

40

50

60

temperature (C) Mark distribution: (1 2 mark for plotting the points) (1 2 mark for drawing the curve) (1 2 mark for labelling y- axis) (1 2 mark for correct increment scale)

c) Explain the results of the experiment. The reaction rate is slower at 0C due to fewer collisions between molecules. The optimum temperature for the enzyme is 40C (approximately body temperature). The enzyme is becoming denatured at 60 C, slowing the reaction. The reaction rate increases between 0C and 40C due to increased collisions between the molecules.

(3 marks) any three for 1 mark each

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December 3, 2001

5. a) State one digestive system function of the liver. It produces bile to emulsify fats. It stores glucose as glycogen after eating. either one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

b) State three circulatory system functions of the liver.

(3 marks)

It makes blood proteins. (1 mark) It detoxifies the blood by removing poisonous substances. (1 mark) It converts hemoglobin in worn-out red blood cells to bilirubin and biliverdin. (1 mark)

c) State one excretory system function of the liver. It excretes bile / bile pigments. It excretes nitrogenous wastes. It produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids. Deamination. Detoxifies blood because poisons go to the excretory system. any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

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December 3, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 6.

6. The diagram represents the capillary bed of a villus in the small intestine. a) Identify vessel Y: (1 mark)

mesenteric artery mesenteric arteriole Note: (only

either one for 1 mark

1 2

mark given for artery or arteriole)

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December 3, 2001

b) Describe four ways in which the composition of the blood at point X changes, two to three hours after eating a meal. There is an increased concentration of glucose because it is entering the capillary from the small intestine. There is an increased concentration of nucleotides because they are entering the capillary from the small intestine. There is an increased concentration of amino acids because they are entering the capillary from the small intestine. There is an increased concentration of carbon dioxide because it is entering the capillary from the tissues. There is a decreased concentration of oxygen because it is entering the tissues from the capillary. CO2 + Hb HbCO2 CO2 + H 2O H 2CO3 HCO3 + H + H + + Hb HHb HbO2 Hb + O2 There is an increase in water reabsorption. There is an increase in insulin.

(4 marks)

any four for 1 mark each

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December 3, 2001

c) The following is a graph of glucose concentration in vessel W over time.

concentration of glucose in the blood

Q time

Explain the observed changes in the glucose concentration between time P and time Q. (3 marks) Blood glucose levels are decreasing, probably as a result of not eating. Insulin is released by the pancreas which decreases the glucose concentrations. The liver is converting glucose to glycogen so the glucose levels decrease. Physical activity has increased, decreasing glucose concentrations. An increase in thyroxin increases cellular respiration, thus decreasing glucose concentrations. Glucose is being used by the cells. Glucose has entered the cells. Mitochondria use glucose to produce ATP. any three for 1 mark each

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December 3, 2001

7. a) Use the word list below to complete the paragraph describing characteristics of a nerve impulse. (Use each word only once. Not all of the words will be used.) (2 marks: 1 2 mark each) resting potential threshold recovery phase all-or-none stimulus polarized membrane

Any change in the environment that can open sodium gates is called a(n) stimulus . If the change in the environment does not threshold has not been reached. all-or-none

open a sodium gate then the

When an action potential is produced, it is called the response. During the can be generated. recovery phase

, no further action potentials

b) Describe the changes that occur in the polarity of the membrane and the distribution of ions during an action potential. (4 marks) Sodium gates open. Sodium ions ( Na + ) enter the cell. The cell membrane depolarizes (60 mV +40 mV). An upswing in polarity results. AND Potassium gates open. Potassium ions ( K + ) leave the cell. The cell membrane repolarizes (+40 mV 60 mV). A downswing in polarity results. any two for 1 mark each any two for 1 mark each

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December 3, 2001

c) Describe the structure of the myelin sheath and explain why it speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses. (2 marks) The myelin sheath consists of many layers of Schwann cells which surround the axon. Schwann cells are separated by the nodes of Ranvier. A fatty white sheath with interruptions. AND An action potential (depolarization) jumps from node to node instead of all the way along the neuron; therefore, the transmission of the nerve impulses speed up. Depolarization occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier; therefore, the transmission of the nerve impulses speed up. The ions are only water soluble and therefore ion exchange occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier. Saltatory conduction occurs. any one for 1 mark any one for 1 mark

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December 3, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 8.

Y Z

8. Identify and give one function of each of the following structures. (6 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Structure X: Name: ureter (1 mark) Function: It carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. (1 mark)

Structure Y: Name: bladder (1 mark) Function: It stores urine. (1 mark)

Structure Z: Name: urethra (1 mark) Function: It transports semen. It carries urine out of the body.

either one for 1 mark

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December 3, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 9.

Y X

9. Identify and give one function of each of the following structures. (6 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Structure X: Name: uterus endometrium womb

any one for 1 mark any one for 1 mark

Function: The muscles contract at birth. It is the site of embryo development. Site of implantation.

Structure Y: Name: oviduct fallopian tube

either one for 1 mark

Function: It sweeps the egg toward the uterus. It is usually the site of fertilization of the egg.

either one for 1 mark

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December 3, 2001

Structure Z: Name: ovary (1 mark) Function: It produces eggs. It produces estrogen. It produces progesterone. It produces a follicle.

any one for 1 mark

END OF KEY

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December 3, 2001

Biology 12
June 2001 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K C C C D B C A C A D B D C C A B C A D B D B D C C C U K H K U U U K U U K K H K U H H K K K H H K U H S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 PLO A1 A1 A2; C1; E1 B1 C1 C1 C2 C7 C10 D3 D5 E1 E1, 2, 4 F1 F1 G6, 3, 2 H6 I1, 2 I1 J1 J2, 7; G6; I7 J8 J9 J11 J12 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K A A B D C D B C D A C C A B C A A B C C D D B C A C U K U K H U H K H U H U H H H K U U U K H K U U H S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO K1 L1 L1 L7 L8 M2, 8 M3 M7 N4 N4 O1, 2 O2 O2 O2 O2 P1 P1 P1 P6 P7 P5, 6 P7 P8 P9, 10 P10 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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July 31, 2001

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C U U K U U U H U U K S 5 4 4 5 4 4 6 6 7 5 CO 1, 2 2 2 2 3 3 3, 1 3 3 3 PLO D2, 3; F5 E1 G4, 3, 2, 1 H1, 6 I1, 2, 4 I1, 2, 4, 6, 9 J9; L6, 7, 8; B3 J7, 9 M3 O1, 2, 5

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (10 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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July 31, 2001

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes

1. a) Name and describe the process shown below. (4 marks: 1 mark for name; 3 marks for description)

x y1

x1

y1

x1

Name: DNA duplication (DNA) replication

either one for 1 mark 1 mark for each part of the process

Description: Unzipping: The hydrogen bonds between the base pairs break (unzip). Helicase (enzyme) is involved in breaking hydrogen bonds. Complementary base pairing: Complementary base pairing occurs. DNA polymerase acts as a proof-reader to ensure that there are no errors in base pairing. 2 new identical strands created: Sugar of one nucleotide joins with the phosphate of the adjacent nucleotide to form the sugar-phosphate backbone. The end result is the formation of two identical DNA molecules.

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July 31, 2001

b) How could a virus affect the molecule shown in the diagram above? It could cause a mutation by addition or deletion. It could change a proto-oncogene into an oncogene. It could add a new section of DNA from another organism. any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

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July 31, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 2.


S P P S P S P S P S P S P S P S S P S P S P S S P S P S P S S S P S P P S S P P S S P S P S P P S S P S S P P S P S S P S P S

mRNA

2. Name the process shown above and explain how the molecule that is produced is used to determine the sequence of amino acids in a protein. (4 marks: 1 mark for name; 3 marks for explanation) Name: transcription (1 mark) Explanation: mRNA carries DNA code to the cytoplasm / ribosome each three bases on the mRNA (codon) codes for one specific amino acid tRNA brings amino acid to mRNA tRNA joins to mRNA through complementary base pairing amino acids join by peptide bonds in correct coded sequence to form a polypeptide mRNA has start and stop codons for polypeptide production

any three for 1 mark each

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July 31, 2001

3. List four factors that would affect the rate of diffusion of molecules crossing a cell membrane. temperature / speed of molecules / kinetic energy size of molecule concentration gradient / tonicity / osmotic pressure* mass of molecule diffusing chemical composition of the molecule (e.g., lipid solubility) chemical and physical properties of the cell membrane (permeability) number of protein pores / carriers electrical charge cytoplasmic streaming (cyclosis) specific hormonal effects (e.g., ADH, thyroxin, insulin) pressure (e.g., blood / atmospheric / hydrostatic) any four for 1 mark each

(4 marks)

Notes to Markers: * Student must mention a difference between the two sides of the membrane. Not accepted as responses: pH thickness of the membrane amounts of energy / ATP / active transport

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July 31, 2001

4. An experiment investigating enzyme activity is carried out. A test tube is prepared containing substrate solution W and enzyme solutions 1, 2 and 3. The reactions that occur in the test tube are summarized below.

2 3

Y Z
(2 marks)

a) Describe two ways in which the rate of production of product Y can be increased.

add more of enzymes 1 and 2 add a substance that denatures enzyme 3 alter the temperature to achieve optimum conditions alter the pH to achieve optimum conditions for the reactions add more of substrate W denature enzyme 3

any two for 1 mark each

b) A substance is added to the test tube. As a result, no product Y is formed, but product Z is still formed. Explain why. (3 marks) A competitive inhibitor (1 mark) binds to the active site (1 mark) of enzyme 2, blocking active site access by the substrate (1 mark). OR A non-competitive inhibitor (1 mark) binds to another part of enzyme 2 (not the active site) (1 mark) altering the shape of the enzymes active site and the substrate doesnt fit (1 mark). Note to Markers: 1 mark can be obtained for: The substance is an enzyme that converts W directly to Z.

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July 31, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 5.

5. a) Describe three different ways that X aids in digestion. The pancreas produces: lipase to break down fats. nuclease to break down nucleic acids. trypsin(ogen) to break down proteins. pancreatic amylase to break down starch. NaHCO3 (or HCO3 ) to provide optimum pH / neutralize stomach acid. H 2O for hydrolysis / transport

(3 marks)

any four for 1 mark each

Notes to Markers:
1 2 1 2

mark if student only gives the enzyme mark if student gives the wrong substrate for the enzyme

b) What is the role of Y in the digestive system? to reabsorb water to compact and store feces
016bik

(1 mark)

either one for 1 mark -8July 31, 2001

6. Describe the mechanisms involved in the digestion and absorption of fat. Bile from the liver / gallbladder emulsifies fats to increase surface area. Mechanical digestion of fats occurs by chewing / biting. Lipase from the pancreas hydrolyzes fats. (1 mark) 1 Fats hydrolyzed to fatty acids ( 1 2 mark) and glycerol ( 2 mark). Fatty acids / glycerol are absorbed into the lacteals of the villi. (1 mark)

(4 marks) either one for 1 mark

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July 31, 2001

7. a) Mountaineers attempting to scale Mt. Everest encounter an environment that contains one-third the oxygen present at sea level. Describe how each of the following will change during the climb and how the change will compensate for the lower than normal oxygen levels. rate of cell division in the bone marrow: The rate of cell division will increase thus increasing the number of hemoglobin / red blood cells. (1 mark) The increased number of red blood cells will allow more oxygen to be carried to the tissues. (1 mark) (2 marks)

breathing rate: Breathing rate will increase. As the breathing rate increases the rate of gas exchange also increases. More O2 is accepted by the hemoglobin. There is more external respiration.

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

b) During the climb, the blood pH decreases. Explain how the body compensates for this change. excretion of H + by the kidneys excretion of NH 3 by the kidneys reabsorption of HCO3 by the kidneys the increased amount of H + combines with hemoglobin producing more reduced hemoglobin (HHb) breathing rate increases to exhale more CO2 buffers maintain pH by accepting H +

(2 marks)

any two for 1 mark each

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8. Complete the following chart that describes the composition of blood. (6 marks: 1 mark each)

PART OF THE BLOOD

COMPONENT NAME

SOURCE absorbed by small / large intestine and kidneys OR environment

FUNCTION

plasma

water

maintaining blood volume

plasma

urea OR plasma proteins* (e.g., fibrinogen, albumin)

liver

maintaining blood volume, pressure and pH clotting

formed elements

platelets

bone marrow

(initiating) clotting

formed elements

white blood cells

bone marrow OR lymphoid tissue (nodes / thymus)

fighting infection

plasma

glucose

absorbed by intestinal villi

cellular respiration OR ATP production OR food for cells

Notes to Markers: Blood proteins was not accepted, as many are made elsewhere.

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July 31, 2001

9. a) On the following grid, draw a curve to represent an action potential.

(2 marks)

+ 40

voltage (mV)

65

time (milliseconds) Mark distribution: shape=1 mark; range=1 mark

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July 31, 2001

b) Label the depolarization and the recovery period of your graph. (1 mark: Note to Markers: no plateau
1 2

mark each)

+ 40

Note to Markers: any range from +45 mV to 70 mV

0 voltage Depolarization (mV)

Recovery Period

65 Note to Markers: no dip required

time (milliseconds)

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July 31, 2001

c) Describe what happens to the axon during repolarization. sodium gates close potassium gates open potassium ions (K + ) diffuse out of the axon membrane potential difference of 65 mV is re-established OR inside of the axon gains a net negative charge while the outside gains a net positive charge any three for 1 mark each

(3 marks)

d) Describe what happens to the axon during the recovery period. Sodium-potassium pump actively transports sodium ions (Na + ) out of the axon and potassium ions (K + ) are moved into the axon. This re-establishes the ion concentration across the membrane. Resting potential is re-established.

(1 mark) either one for 1 mark

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July 31, 2001

10.

State one function of each of the following. ureter: carries urine from the kidney carries urine to the bladder either one for 1 mark

(5 marks: 1 mark each)

collecting duct: collects urine from the nephron and transports it to the renal pelvis reabsorbs water from the urine into the tissues / blood adjusts blood volume any one for 1 mark

antidiuretic hormone (ADH): increases blood volume makes walls of the distal tubule and collecting duct more permeable to water causes increased reabsorption of water from the distal convoluted tubule into the blood decreases urine output maintains water balance any one for 1 mark

renal pelvis: transports urine from the nephron to the ureter collects and temporarily stores urine from several nephrons either one for 1 mark

glomerulus: pressure filtration separates large molecules (e.g., blood cells and proteins) from small molecules (e.g., water, glucose, urea and ions) transports blood from the afferent arteriole to the efferent arteriole monitors blood pressure any one for 1 mark

END OF KEY
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July 31, 2001

Biology 12
August 2001 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K B C B C B B A D B A A C C C A C A B B D C D D C D C U K U K H H U H H U U U H U U K K U K H K K K U H S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 1 1 1 1 1 1, 2, 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3 A1 A1 A1 B1, 2; C2, 8 B3; E1; I4 C4 C7 D1, 2 D2 D2 D5 G5 H2 H1 I1, 4 I1 I7 I2 I4; H6 I9 J1 J2 J2 J2 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K D D C C A A C C B C A D C A A D B D D B B A A A C U S CO PLO Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

1 3 J2; L8; K1 DELETED U 1 3 K1 H 1 3 K6 H 1 3 K5; N3 K 1 3 L1 U 1 3 L2 U 1 3 L1, 4, 5 K 1 3 L7, 8 H 1 3 L7, 8 H 1 3 M5, 6, 7 K 1 3 N4 H 1 3 N4 U 1 3 N2 U 1 3 N4 H 1 3 O2 H 1 3 O2 U 1 3 O5 U 1 3 O5, 2 U 1 3 P1 K 1 3 P1 K 1 3 P4 U 1 3 P7, 8 K 1 3 P7 U 1 3 P12

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 C U U U U U H U U K S 8 4 3 4 5 7 7 7 5 CO 1, 2 2 2 2, 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 PLO C2, 8, 11, C12; G1, 3; A1 E1, 2, 3, 4 F1 G1, 2, 4; I2 J2 L7, 6, 8; H6 M1, 2, 3, 4 O1, 2 P9, 10

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (9 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes Use the following diagram to answer question 1 a). Molecule X
CH3

H O C

N H C C H H O C N N C H

CH3

1. a)

i) Identify molecule X and name the organelle where the molecule is made. Name of molecule: (1 mark) any one for 1 mark

protein polypeptide name of a specific protein

Name of organelle where made: ribosome polysome rough endoplasmic reticulum any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

ii)

Describe two ways in which molecule X is used by the cell membrane. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

Proteins act as carriers. Proteins act as cell recognition markers. Proteins act as receptor sites for hormones. Proteins provide channels for specific molecules to be transported throughout the phospholipid cell membrane. Proteins act as enzymes for specific reactions on the membrane. 018bik -3-

September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 1 b). Molecule Y

b)

i) Identify molecule Y and name the organelle where the molecule is made. Name of molecule: (1 mark) either one for 1 mark

ATP triphosphonucleotide

Name of organelle where made: chloroplast mitochondrion either one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

ii)

Describe two ways in which molecule Y is used by the cell membrane. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

ATP is required for exocytosis. ATP is required for endocytosis. ATP is required for pinocytosis. ATP is required for phagocytosis. ATP is required for active transport. ATP is involved in enzymatic reactions. ATP is required as an energy source for cilia and flagella.

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September 5, 2001

Use the following chart of mRNA codons to answer question 2 a).


Three-letter codons of messenger RNA and the amino acids specified by the codons
AAU AAC AAA AAG ACU ACC ACA ACG AGU AGC AGA AGG AUU AUC AUA AUG Asparagine Lysine CAU CAC CAA CAG CCU CCC CCA CCG Histidine Glutamine GAU GAC GAA GAG GCU GCC GCA GCG Asparatic acid Glutamate UAU UAC UAA UAG UCU UCC UCA UCG UGU UGC Glycine UGA UGG UUU UUC Valine UUA UUG Leucine Stop Tryptophan Tyrosine Stop

Threonine

Proline

Alanine

Serine

Serine Arginine

CGU CGC CGA CGG

Arginine

GGU GGC GGA GGG

Cysteine

Isoleucine Methionine

CUU CUC CUA CUG

Leucine

GUU GUC GUA GUG

Phenylalanine

2. A segment of hemoglobin has the following sequence of amino acids: leucinethreonineprolineglutamateglutamate

The same segment of hemoglobin found in people who have sickle-cell anemia has the following sequence: leucinethreonineprolinevalineglutamate a) Using the chart above, explain how DNA is different in people with sickle-cell anemia. (2 marks) The DNA code C T T or C T C (1 mark) has changed to C A A or C A G or C A T or C A C (1 mark). OR There is a mutation and the triplet code for one amino acid is altered. The code for glutamate (C T T or C T C) is changed to that for valine (C A A / C A G / C A T / C A C); i.e., thymine is changed to adenine (C T T C A T or C T C C A C). (2 marks) OR A single base substitution / mutation has occurred. (1 mark)

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September 5, 2001

b) State two environmental agents that can change the DNA. X rays viruses bacteria ultraviolet light mutagenic chemicals radiation any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

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September 5, 2001

3. Tissue sample A is taken from a mole on the skin that shows abnormal growth while tissue sample B is composed of normal skin cells. Describe how the cells in tissue sample A are different from those in tissue sample B. (3 marks) Tissue sample A is vascularized. The cells in tissue sample A are unspecialized. The cells in tissue sample A are able to metastasize. The cells in tissue sample A exhibit lack of contact inhibition. The cells in tissue sample A have a larger nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. The nuclei of sample A cells may have an abnormal number of chromosomes. The cells in tissue sample A display abnormal nuclei, have increased growth factors and receptors. any three for 1 mark each

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September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 4.

Side A

Side B

amylase and starch solution

distilled water

semi-permeable membrane

4. Side A contains a solution of amylase and starch. Side B, which only contains distilled water, is separated from side A by a semi-permeable membrane. The contents of the beaker are kept at 37C . a) What characteristic does the semi-permeable membrane share with a living membrane? (1 mark) It limits what can move across the membrane. It allows the passage of small molecules (material passes through on the basis of size). It allows for passive transport. any one for 1 mark

b) After 20 minutes, the liquid on side B was tested and a disaccharide was found. Identify this disaccharide and account for its presence on side B. (3 marks: 1 mark for name; 2 marks for explanation) Name: maltose (1 mark) Explanation: The starch was digested by amylase into maltose. The disaccharide moved by diffusion from side A to side B. The disaccharide moved from a higher concentration on side A to a lower concentration on side B. Maltose was small enough to move through the membrane to the other side. any two for 1 mark each

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September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 5 a).

5. a) Describe three things that would occur if the artery labelled X became blocked? A heart attack would occur. The heart muscle would die. An irregular heartbeat would occur. Nutrients and oxygen would not get to the heart muscle. Other vessels would grow in and re-establish the blood supply. Blood pressure in vessel X increases. any three for 1 mark each

(3 marks)

b) What would happen if the atrioventricular (AV) valve in the left side of the heart did not close properly? (2 marks)
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The heart rate would increase. Cardiac output would decrease. The left ventricle wall would enlarge. The heart would not pump as efficiently. Blood pressure in the lungs would increase. Backflow of blood into the left atrium would occur. Increased fluid would be pushed into the lung tissues. There would be decreased blood pressure in the aorta. A heart murmur could be detected. -9-

any two for 1 mark each


September 5, 2001

Use the following information to answer questions 6 a) and b). ACTIVITY exercise sitting (at rest) sleeping RATE OF AIR INTAKE 78 L/min. 45 L/min. 2 L/min.

6. a) What substance found in the plasma would cause the change in the rate of air intake during exercise? adrenalin hydrogen ions ( H + ) carbon dioxide (CO2 ) bicarbonate ions ( HCO3 ) reduced hemoglobin any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

b) Write the chemical reactions that occur during internal respiration that return the rate of air intake during exercise to the resting rate. (2 marks) CO2 + H 2O H 2CO3 HCO3 + H + H + + Hb HHb+ Hb + CO2 HbCO2 HbO2 Hb + O2 any two for 1 mark each

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September 5, 2001

c)

i) Why would a drop in pH cause the enzymes that clot blood to function at a slower rate?

(2 marks)

Due to the lowered pH, the enzymes in the blood will become denatured and lose their tertiary structure. As a result, the shape of the active site will change and the substrate will no longer be able to bind with the enzymes.

either one for 2 marks

ii)

State two other conditions that would have the same effect on the enzymes in the blood. (2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

adding an inhibitor increasing the temperature substantially adding heavy metals (e.g., lead, mercury) lack of coenzyme / cofactors

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September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 7.

X 7. a) Identify the following structures. Structure X: cell body axoplasm cytoplasm any one for 1 mark (2 marks: 1 mark each)

Structure Z: synaptic ending (bulb) presynaptic membrane either one for 1 mark

b) Describe the stages in the transmission of a nerve impulse. Sodium gates open. Sodium ions ( Na + ) enter the cell. Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs. Potassium gates open. Potassium ions ( K + ) leave the cell. Repolarization of the membrane occurs. Sodium-potassium pump re-establishes the ion distribution. Depolarization causes the sodium gates to open in the adjacent area. Action potential is generated.

(4 marks) any four for 1 mark each

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September 5, 2001

c) How would nerve impulse transmission be affected without the cells that form structure Y? The nerve transmission would be much slower (without the myelin sheath). The nerve transmission could be induced / transferred to adjacent axons.

(1 mark) either one for 1 mark

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September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer questions 8 a) and b).

8. a) Identify structure X and describe the environment within the structure. (2 marks: 1 mark for name; 1 mark for description) Name: renal medulla / renal pyramid (1 mark) Description: The environment in the renal medulla is hypertonic to the inside of the loop of Henle; i.e., there is a higher concentration of solutes. There is a low water content AND a high salt concentration.

either one for 1 mark

b) Identify structure Y and give its function. (2 marks: 1 mark for name; 1 mark for function) Name: renal pelvis (1 mark) Function: collects urine connects collecting ducts with ureter

either one for 1 mark

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September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 8 c).

Z c) Identify structure Z and describe two characteristics that assist in its function. (3 marks: 1 mark for name; 2 marks for characteristics) Name: loop of Henle (1 mark) Characteristics: The ascending limb is impermeable to water. The ascending limb actively transports sodium ions into the renal medulla. The long descending limb allows maximum reabsorption of water. It has a thin membrane for efficient diffusion. There are a great number of mitochondria for active transport. It has a long / large surface area for the reabsorption of water.

any two for 1 mark each

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September 5, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 9.

hormone X

hormone Y

14

21

28

day in cycle

9. a) On what day does ovulation take place? day 14 / 15 / 16 (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b)

i) Identify hormone X.

(1 mark)

luteinizing hormone (LH) (1 mark)

ii) What structure secretes hormone X? (anterior) pituitary (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) Describe the effects on the body caused by the release of hormone Y between days 1 and 14. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) causes the follicle to mature. Increasing amounts of estrogen (and some progesterone) are released. This leads to the negative feedback of luteinizing hormone (LH) and FSH. Proliferation of the endometrium occurs. Ovum matures in the follicle.

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

END OF KEY
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September 5, 2001

Biology 12
January 2001 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K A A A C A D C B A B A D C C D D C C C D B D D A B C K U H U U U U U K U H K K H K K K K U U U U H K K S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2, 1 2 2 2 2, 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 PLO A1 A1 A1; D2; E1 A1, 3 A1 B1 B3 C1 C2, 4 C10 D1 D3 E1; A1 E2, 4 F1 F4 F2; I1 G3 G8 H6, 3 H1, 2 H1, 3 H6 I1 I1 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K D A B C B A C D D B D D C B A C A D D D B C D C D C K U U H U K U U U H H K K U K U H U K K U H K H U S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO I1, 9 I1 I2 I4 J2 J5, 2 K1 L4, 5 L6 L6 L7; G7; J2 M2 M8 O1 O1 O1, 2 O2 P1 P1, 3 P4 P7 P8, 9, 10; N5 P9, 10 P9, 10 P9, 10 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 C U U U U H U U U U H H K S 2 2 5 6 4 7 3 6 6 2 4 3 CO 1 2 2 3, 2, 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 1 3 PLO D1 E1 G3, 6, 7 I1, 2, 4; G7; B3 K1; J4, 6 J2, 5 L3 M3, 5, 6, 1 M3 O2, 3 O5, 4; B3 P7

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (12 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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March 1, 2001

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination unless otherwise instructed. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question.

Use the following diagram to answer question 1. X Y Z

1. Identify the structure made up of parts X, Y and Z and state its function. (2 marks: 1 mark for name; 1 mark for function) Name: nucleotide (1 mark) Function: It forms RNA or DNA. It is a monomer / building block / unit molecule of nucleic acids. It joins with other nucleotides by complementary base pairing to produce DNA and mRNA. any one for 1 mark

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March 1, 2001

2. What is produced as a result of each of the following during protein synthesis? RNA bases and DNA bases join together by complementary base pairing. The joining of RNA and DNA bases by complementary base pairing produces mRNA which carries the genetic blueprint to the cytoplasm. (1 mark) (1 mark)

Transfer RNA joins to messenger RNA at the ribosome. Amino acids form peptide bonds in the production of a polypeptide chain (or protein). (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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March 1, 2001

3. An experiment was devised in which blood cells were placed in three beakers containing solutions of different concentrations. The results are given below. % SOLUTE IN RED BLOOD CELLS 2 2 2 % SOLUTE IN THE SOLUTION 2 1 3 (2 marks)

BEAKER A B C

a) Describe what happened to the cells in beaker B and explain the results. The cells in beaker B underwent hemolysis (swelled or burst) (1 mark) due to water moving into the cell from an area of greater concentration of water to an area of lower concentration of water (or moving from an area of lower concentration to a greater concentration). because the solution is hypotonic to the cells (osmosis occurs).

either one for 1 mark

b) Describe what happened to the cells in beaker C and explain the results. The cells in beaker C underwent crenation or shrunk (1 mark) due to water leaving the cells and moving into the area of greater concentration (or water moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration of water). because the solution is hypertonic to the cells.

(2 marks)

either one for 1 mark

c) Explain why the solution in beaker A is isotonic to the red blood cells. The solute concentration is the same as that of the red blood cells. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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March 1, 2001

4. A piece of living small intestine was placed in a solution containing maltose, egg white, and fats. In order to ensure that the piece of intestine functioned normally, oxygen was bubbled through the solution and the pH was maintained at 8.2. After one hour the solution was analyzed. a) Explain why glucose was found in the solution. Maltase from the intestinal glands breaks down the maltose into glucose. (1 mark) (1 mark)

b) Products from the breakdown of fat were not found. Explain why. There was no lipase present to break down the fat. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) Why was the solution buffered to pH 8.2? This is the optimum pH for intestinal enzymes to function. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

d) In a variation of this experiment, trypsin was also added to the solution. Describe the results of this new experiment after one hour. Trypsin broke down the egg white into peptides. (1 mark) Peptidase is produced by the intestinal glands. (1 mark) The peptides were then broken down into amino acids. (1 mark)

(3 marks)

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March 1, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 5.

Y X

5. a) Compare the composition of the blood in structures X and Y. Structure X: The right ventricle has blood with a higher concentration of carbon dioxide (carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ions, reduced hemoglobin) and a lower concentration of oxygen. (1 mark)

(2 marks)

Structure Y: The left ventricle has blood with a lower concentration of carbon dioxide (carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ions, reduced hemoglobin) and a higher concentration of oxygen. (1 mark)

b) Relate the difference in the structure of X and Y to their functions.

(2 marks)

The left ventricle is thicker-walled and more muscular (1 mark) to contract and send blood with increased pressure throughout the body because the blood has a greater distance to cover than blood leaving the right ventricle (1 mark).

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March 1, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 6.

6. a) Identify each of the labelled veins and give one function of each. (4 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Vein X: Name: jugular vein (1 mark) Function: to carry blood from the head to the anterior (superior) vena cava (1 mark)

Vein Y: Name: posterior (inferior) vena cava (1 mark) Function: to carry blood from the legs and lower body to the heart (1 mark)
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March 1, 2001

b)

i) Give the location of the oval opening (foramen ovale) in the circulatory system of the fetus and state its function. (2 marks: 1 mark for location; 1 mark for function)

Location: It is between the right and left atria. (1 mark) Function: to allow blood to bypass the lungs to reduce blood flow to the uninflated lungs either one for 1 mark

ii)

Describe what would occur if the oval opening (foramen ovale) failed to close at birth. (1 mark) any one for 1 mark

Blood low in oxygen from the right side of the heart would mix with oxygenated blood from the left side of the heart. Less blood would flow to the lungs. The babys skin would have a bluish tinge (blue baby).

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March 1, 2001

7. Describe three ways in which the structure of the alveoli facilitates their function. They are moist which increases the rate of diffusion of gases. They are highly vascularized which allows more exchange of gases. The thin walls of the alveoli allow materials to be exchanged quickly and easily. A layer of lipoprotein reduces surface tension and prevents the alveoli from collapsing. They are small and number in the millions. This increases their surface area and allows for speedy gas exchange. Stretch receptors in their walls signal medulla oblongata to stop inhalation.

(3 marks) any three for 1 mark each

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March 1, 2001

8. Describe how each of the following is important to the passage of a nerve impulse. sodium/potassium pump: It re-establishes the distribution of ions across the membrane. (1 mark) This allows the axon to be polarized by pumping potassium ions ( K + ) back into the axoplasm and sodium ions ( Na + ) out of the axoplasm. (1 mark) (2 marks)

synaptic vesicles: They store neurotransmitters. They migrate to the pre-synaptic membrane and exocytosis occurs. The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synapse and fit into the post-synaptic membrane which generates a nerve impulse.

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

myelinated axon:

(2 marks)

Myelination speeds conduction of the impulse along the axon. (1 mark) Saltatory (node-to-node) conduction occurs along the length of the axon. (1 mark)

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March 1, 2001

Use the following graph to answer question 9.

+40

0 membrane potential (millivolts)

65

X
time (milliseconds)

9. a) Describe what is occurring at the neuron between time X and time Y. Potassium ion ( K + ) gates open. Potassium ions ( K + ) diffuse out of the axoplasm. The polarity inside the axoplasm changes from positive to negative. The membrane potential changes from + 40 mV to 65 mV . Repolarization occurs. The sodium/potassium pump operates. The original ion concentrations are restored.

(4 marks) any four for 1 mark each

b) What would occur if the membrane of the axon became impermeable to potassium ions ( K + ) at time X? Potassium ions ( K + ) would not flow out of the axon. The polarity within the axon would remain positively charged. The neuron would be unable to re-establish resting potential (or repolarize). any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

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March 1, 2001

Use the following diagram to answer question 10.

10. a) Explain why it would be abnormal to find glucose in structure Y. Glucose is usually reabsorbed from the proximal convoluted tubule. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) Explain why structure X is longer in an animal that lives in the desert.

(1 mark)

The loop of Henle which absorbs water is longer in a desert animal because the added length allows for greater water reabsorption. (1 mark)

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March 1, 2001

11. Explain what happens in the kidneys in response to each of the following conditions. a decrease in blood pressure: Aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium ions ( Na + ) and water follows osmotically. The increase in blood solute causes the secretion of ADH which causes the kidneys to reabsorb water. Increased blood plasma volume increases blood pressure. The juxtaglomerular apparatus detects the drop in blood pressure and produces renin. Renin causes the secretion of angiotensin. The angiotensin stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone. (2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

a decrease in blood pH: The kidney would: excrete ammonia ( NH 3 ) excrete more hydrogen ions ( H + ) ions reabsorb more bicarbonate ions ( HCO3 )

(2 marks)

any two for 1 mark each

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March 1, 2001

12. Identify the structure in a female that produces an egg. ovary ovarian follicle either one for 1 mark

(3 marks)

provides nourishment for the developing embryo. placenta endometrium either one for 1 mark

enables the egg to travel to the uterus. oviduct fallopian tubes fimbriae any one for 1 mark

END OF KEY

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March 1, 2001

Biology 12
August 2000 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K A C D C C B B A D A B C C B A D C A C A A D C B B C K U H U H U H U K U U H H U U U U K H K K H K U U CO 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3 A1, 3 A1, 3; C2, C8 A1 A1, 3; G1, 3 B2 B3 C1, 5 C9 C1 C2, 11 C2, 7 D1 C2; D1 D1 F1 F2 F5 G4, 6, 7 G6 H3 H6 I1 I2 I2, 4 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K B B C D D B A C D C C C D A D B A D D D B C B D A C K K U K H H K U U H U U K K K U H U K U K U K U U CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO I5 J2 J9 J11 J12 K2 L1 L6 M1 M3 M5, 1, 3 N2, 4 N4 N4 O1, 2 O1, 2 O2, 5 O2 P1, 2 P1, 3 P1 P1, 5 P7 P7, 8, 9, 10 P8 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C U U U U U U H K U H S 5 4 5 6 2 8 5 5 6 4 CO 2, 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO E1; D1, 2 G3 H1, 3, 6 I1, 2, 4, 9 J1, 2 K1 L7, 8 M3, 4, 6, 7, 8 O2, 5 P9, 10

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = 50 (50 questions) Written Response = 50 (10 questions) EXAMINATION TOTAL = 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination unless otherwise instructed. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question.

1. a) In an experiment conducted to study protein synthesis, radioactive thymine and radioactive uracil were added to a culture of human cells. A few hours later, the culture was analyzed and radioactive mRNA was found. i) Explain how an mRNA molecule is produced. The DNA molecule unzips. Complementary base pairing occurs between mRNA and DNA bases. Sugars and phosphates of adjacent mRNA nucleotides are joined together. (2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

ii) Explain why the mRNA produced is radioactive. During transcription, radioactive uracil is used to produce mRNA. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) In a different experiment, radioactive uracil was added to a culture of human cells undergoing DNA replication. What will be the characteristic of the resulting DNA in terms of radioactivity? Explain. (2 marks) No radioactive elements will be incorporated in the DNA molecule (1 mark) as adenine will bond only with thymine and not uracil during replication (1 mark).

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2. Materials move across the cell membrane either actively or passively. Complete the following table to compare and contrast these two ways of moving materials.

(4 marks)

ACTIVE TRANSPORT uses energy (ATP)

PASSIVE TRANSPORT does not use energy (ATP) any four pairs with 1 mark for each pair

moves against the concentration gradient

moves with the concentration gradient

uses carrier proteins

uses carrier proteins

active transport is used for ion movement endocytosis / exocytosis (phagocytosis / pinocytosis) uses vesicles

diffusion / osmosis is used for gas / water movement

does not use vesicles

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Use the following graph to answer question 3 a).

rate of reaction

concentration of substrate

3. a) The graph represents data collected from an enzyme-catalyzed reaction in the small intestine. Explain the results.

(2 marks)

At first, the rate of reaction increases because more collisions occur between substrate and enzyme molecules to produce enzyme-substrate complexes which makes more product. (1 mark) Eventually the rate of reaction will level off because the active sites are filled. (1 mark)

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b) How would the shape of the graph below change if a large amount of concentrated acid were added to the enzyme-catalyzed reaction at time X? Draw the change on the graph and explain your answer. (3 marks)

rate of reaction

time

rate of reaction

1 mark for showing the change on the graph


time

The acid denatures (changes the shape of) the enzyme, therefore no product is produced. (1 mark) The substrate and enzyme are unable to form enzyme-substrate complexes, therefore no product is produced. (1 mark)

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Use the following diagram to answer question 4.

4. Secretions from glands in the walls of structure X and secretions from structure Y are collected and added to test tubes containing three substrates as shown below. The test tubes are allowed to stand for one hour. Blue litmus paper, which turns red in the presence of an acid, is used as an indicator.

Substrate Secretions from

starch X and Y

fats X and Y

protein X and Y

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a) The test tubes were sampled during a one hour period. Identify any new substances produced in the following test tubes and account for their presence. Test tube 1: Maltose is present amylase breaks down starch into maltose. (1 mark) Glucose is present maltase breaks down maltose into glucose. (1 mark) (2 marks)

Test tube 2:

(2 marks)

Fatty acids are present lipase breaks fats down into fatty acids and glycerol. (1 mark) Glycerol is present lipase breaks fats down into fatty acids and glycerol. (1 mark)

b) Each test tube was tested with litmus paper at the beginning of the experiment and after one hour. In test tube 3, the litmus paper changed from blue at the beginning of the experiment to red after one hour. Explain what occurred in the test tube to cause the litmus paper to turn red. (2 marks) The protein was digested into peptides by trypsin. The peptides were broken down by peptidases to form amino acids. The amino acids created an acidic environment which caused the litmus paper to turn red. any two for 1 mark each

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5. Explain how the structure of arteries is related to their function. Arteries have: thick walls to resist pressure. muscle fibers to pump / give pulse. elastic fibers to allow stretching / recoil of pulse. a large bore which permits rapid blood flow to the arterioles.

(2 marks)

any two for 1 mark each

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August 31, 2000

Use the following diagram to answer question 6.

6. Identify and give one function of each of the following structures. (8 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Structure W: Name: right atrium (1 mark) Function: receives deoxygenated blood (low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide) returning from the body sends blood through an atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle

either one for 1 mark

Structure X: Name: aorta (1 mark) Function: carries oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation (1 mark)

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Structure Y: Name: semi-lunar valve (1 mark) Function: prevents the back flow of blood into the ventricles (1 mark)

Structure Z: Name: chordae tendinae (1 mark) Function: prevent the heart valves from inverting during the heartbeat (1 mark)

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7. a) Describe internal respiration. H 2O + CO2 (diffuse into the blood from the tissues) H 2CO3 (carbonic acid) H + and HCO3 Hb + H+ HHb (the excess H ions produced from the water and carbon dioxide are taken up by the hemoglobin forming reduced hemoglobin) HbO2 Hb + O2 (the oxygen diffuses into the tissues) Occurs in a warm, acidic environment (relative to the lung capillaries) Hb + CO2 HbCO2
Note to Markers

(3 marks) any three for 1 mark each

Students may answer using an equivalent description in words.

b) Explain why the pH of the blood in the lung capillaries and in the body-tissue capillaries is similar. (2 marks) Hemoglobin takes up excess H + ions forming reduced hemoglobin at the tissues. Bicarbonate ions take up excess H + ions at the lungs forming water and carbon dioxide. Blood is buffered by a variety of substances (including Hb, HCO3 , HPO4 2 , etc.) which reduces the amount of H + ions and keeps the pH relatively constant. any two for 1 mark each

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Use the following diagram to answer question 8. X

8. a) Identify each of the following structures and give one function of each. (4 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Structure X: Name: sensory neuron (1 mark) Function: receives impulses from sensory organs (receptors) carries impulses towards the central nervous system carries impulses from a receptor to the spinal cord

any one for 1 mark

Structure Y: Name: interneuron (1 mark) Function: carries impulses within the spinal cord (central nervous system) receives impulses from a sensory neuron transmits action potentials between sensory and motor neuron

any one for 1 mark

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b) A substance disrupts communication between structures X and Y. Give an explanation of how a substance could do this. (1 mark) The substance could: block receptor sites on the post-synaptic membranes preventing the continuation of the transmission. destroy the neurotransmitters before they reach the receptor sites, (thus causing depolarization). destroy the enzymes that break down the neurotransmitters (allowing for an abnormally long impulse). prevent the movement of Ca 2+ into the presynaptic ending, (thus stopping the release of neurotransmitters). any one for 1 mark

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Use the following diagram to answer question 9 a). W X

9. a) Give one different function of each of the following structures. Structure W: selective reabsorption actively transports material out of the proximal tubule

(4 marks: 1 mark each)

either one for 1 mark

Structure X: carries out tubular excretion / secretion excretes penicillin and histamines secretes H + and NH 3 to regulate the acidity of the blood any one for 1 mark

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Structure Y: absorbs and excretes specific ions excretes materials from the blood to the filtrate receives material reabsorbed from the nephron transports blood from renal artery to renal vein any one for 1 mark

Structure Z: reabsorbs water extrudes Na + ions counter-current exchange any one for 1 mark

Use the following table to answer question 9 b).

Filtrate 95% water

Urine 50% water

b) Provide an explanation that accounts for the difference in the water content as shown in the table above. (2 marks) Water is absorbed because ADH causes the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct to become more permeable to water. The loop of Henle causes a hypertonic environment by excreting Na + . Aldosterone causes the distal convoluted tubule to transport Na + into the blood. (2 marks)

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10. a) Describe any two events that occur during days 15 to 28 of the ovarian or uterine cycles. (2 marks) Endometrium thickens and becomes secretory. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. The corpus luteum develops as a result of LH secretions. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone. any two for 1 mark each

b) During days 1 to 13 of the ovarian cycle, what would occur if follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) was not secreted? (2 marks) The follicle would not mature. The follicle would not secrete estrogen. The lack of estrogen would not exert negative feedback on the anterior pituitary gland. The endometrium would not thicken. any two for 1 mark each

END OF KEY
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Biology 12
June 2000 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K C CO PLO A1 A1; G5 A1; G5; C11; I5 A1; C5, 8; H1 C2 C5; I2, 4, 7 C9 C12; A1 C2, 7 E2, 4 F1 F2, 3, 4 G3 G4 G6 H1 H6 H7 I1, 4 I1 I9; C9 J1 J5 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K D D C D A D A B D A B B C B B B B B C A D A C D A C H H U K K K U K U H U K U H H U K K H U K U U U U CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3, 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J12; L1, 3 K1; J5 K1; J6, 2 K1 L1 L1, 5 L3, 1; G8 L1, 4 L6; N4 L7, 8; B3 L8; J2, 4 M1 N2, 3; M7 M6 N3 N4 O1 O2 O3, 2 P1, 2 P4 P7 P10 P10 P11 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

B K 1 A U 1, 2 B H 1, 2, 3 B H 1, 2 D E L E T E D D U 1 D H 1, 3 B K 1 A U 1 D U 1 B H 2 A K 2 C U 2 A U 2 A U 2 D U 2 A K 2 A H 2 D U 2 C K 3 B U 3 D E L E T E D B H 3, 1 A U 3 B U 3

Multiple Choice = 48 marks


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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C K U K H U U U K U U S 4 4 3 5 6 6 5 4 7 6 CO 1 2 2 1, 2, 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 PLO D1 E1 G3 H1, 6; B3; I2; G7 I1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10 J2, 4, 5 M3; F6 M2, 4, 8 O2 P7

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

48 (48 questions) 50 (10 questions) 98 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination unless otherwise instructed. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. 1. The symbols shown below represent parts of a DNA molecule. Construct the DNA molecule by redrawing the parts to make a complete section. (4 marks)
Legend
= base = sugar

P = phosphate

= hydrogen bond = other bonds

thy

mi

cytos
ne

ine

adenine

n ua

ine

P
adenine thymine

P P
cytosine guanine

P two strands (1 mark) correct base pairing (1 mark) sugar-phosphate backbone (1 mark) correct location of hydrogen bonding (1 mark) ( Note Number of H bonds not critical to receiving mark.)
Note to Markers

Students may use letters to identify bases; e.g., A Minus


1 2

and C

mark if base is attached to phosphate group.

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2. a) What is the purpose of transcription during protein synthesis?

(1mark)

To assemble mRNA from a section of DNA (gene) that contains the code for one protein. To make mRNA. To carry complementary mRNA (codon) from DNA.

any one for 1 mark

b) What occurs during translation?

(3marks)

mRNA binds to the ribosome. tRNAs with specific amino acids attached, bind to the mRNA where the anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon of the mRNA. Adjacent amino acids undergo dehydration synthesis. Ribosomes move along one codon and the process is repeated. A polypeptide is produced (peptide bonds form). Ribosomal subunits come together. Stop codon indicates release of mRNA and polypeptide chain. Initiation, elongation and termination. ( Note With no accompanying description this received 1 1 marks out of 3). 2

any three for 1 mark each

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3. Describe the following mechanisms of transport across cell membranes. (3marks: 1markeach) osmosis: The net diffusion of water from the area of high water concentration to the area of lesser concentration of water. The net diffusion of water from the area of lower solute concentration to the area of greater solute concentration. The movement of water according to osmotic pressure / gradient (or diffusion). any one for 1 mark

facilitated transport: The net movement of molecules, using a carrier protein, from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. The net movement of molecules down the concentration gradient, using a carrier protein. either one for 1 mark

active transport: The use of a carrier protein and an energy source to move molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. The movement of molecules, against the concentration gradient, using a protein carrier and ATP as an energy source.
Note

either one for 1 mark

Examples of exocytosis, endocytosis, pinocytosis or phagocytosis were not acceptable.

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4. An experiment was carried out to measure the effect of pH on enzyme activity. The following steps were performed: 1. An equal volume of hydrogen peroxide was added to eight numbered test tubes at 20 C . 2. The contents of each test tube were maintained at a different pH. 3. An equal mass of liver was added to each test tube. Liver, which contains the enzyme catalase, catalyzes the following reaction: hydrogen peroxide oxygen gas ( O 2 ) and water The time to collect 10 mL of oxygen gas ( O 2 ) from each tube was measured and recorded in the table below. TIME TO COLLECT 10 mL of O2 (SECONDS) 120 90 50 30 40 60 90 140

TEST TUBE 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

pH OF SOLUTION 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

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a) Draw a graph that compares the time taken to collect 10 mL of oxygen gas ( O 2 ) produced to the pH of the solution. Label the x-axis as pH of solution. (Use a pencil to graph the data.)
160

(2marks)

140 120

100 time to collect 10 mL O2 (seconds) 80

60

40

20

correct scale and labels (1 mark) plotting and line (1 mark)

0 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 pH of solution

Note

Minus 1 mark for: bar graph, best fit line, error in line, reversed axis, extra lines / data points. 2

b) Using your graph, estimate the time it takes to collect 10 mL of oxygen gas ( O 2 ) at pH 6.5. (1mark) 70 seconds (1 mark)
Note

Accepted 60 seconds to 75 seconds if graph supported estimate. No mark if no graph, bar graph or range of answers.

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c) Explain what causes the results observed between pH 8 and pH 12. As the pH increases and the solution becomes more basic, (the enzyme is denatured.) (1 mark) Fewer active sites are available for the reaction to occur. Fewer enzyme substrate complexes are formed. Loss of tertiary / 3-D structure of enzyme. any one for 1 mark

(2marks)

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August 1, 2000

Use the following diagram to answer question 5.

1 8

7 5 5 or 6
5. Place the correct number for each of the following descriptions in the appropriate box at the location in the diagram where it occurs. Not all the descriptions will be used. (6marks) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Note

kills bacteria lined with cilia produces thyroxin lipid emulsifier produced here contains bacteria that produce vitamins has no known digestive function in adults where maltose is broken down into glucose hormone that controls blood sugar produced here

Student could have 5 in both the positions indicated. If two numbers were written in the same box no mark was awarded. 006bik -9-

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6. Describe the concentration of dissolved gases in the following pairs of vessels and explain why the concentrations are different. pulmonary vein / pulmonary artery: (2marks)

The pulmonary vein returns blood from the lungs to the heart and therefore contains a higher concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide. (1 mark) The pulmonary artery carries blood, which has returned from the systemic circulation, from the heart to the lungs, and therefore contains a higher concentration of carbon dioxide and a lower concentration of oxygen. (1 mark)

posterior vena cava / aorta:

(2marks)

The blood in the posterior vena cava has picked up carbon dioxide and dropped off oxygen at the tissues. (1 mark) The blood in the aorta has picked up oxygen and dropped off carbon dioxide at the lungs. (1 mark)

umbilical vein / umbilical artery:

(2marks)

The blood in the umbilical vein has picked up oxygen and dropped off carbon dioxide at the placenta. (1 mark) The blood in the umbilical artery has picked up carbon dioxide and dropped off oxygen at the fetal tissues. (1 mark)
Note

From heart was not accepted, unless correct side (left / right) was mentioned.

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August 1, 2000

Use the following graph to answer question 7.

+ 40

0 membrane potential (millivolts)

65

time (milliseconds)

7. The graph shows the change in an axons polarity before, during and after an action potential. a) Explain what occurs in the axon at the following times. From 1 to 3 milliseconds: Na + enters. Depolarization occurs. The sodium gates open, causing a positive charge inside the axon. any one for 1 mark (3marks:1markeach)

From 3 to 5 milliseconds: K + exits. Repolarization occurs. The potassium gates open which restores the positive charge on the outside of the axon. Beginning of refractory period. any one for 1 mark

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From 5 to 7 milliseconds: Resting potential is re-established. The sodium-potassium pump restores the ion distribution. The sodium-potassium pump moves Na + ions out of and K + ions into the axon. Hyperpolarization is corrected. Active transport restores ion concentrations. any one for 1 mark

b) What would be the effect of increasing the stimulation of the neuron? Give reasons to support your answer.

(2marks)

There would be no change in the action potential (1 mark) because of the all-or-none response of neurons (1 mark). OR There would be an increase of frequency of action potentials (1 mark) because stimulus is present immediately after refractory period (1 mark).

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8. Give one function of each of the following parts of a reflex arc. myelin sheath: The myelin sheath speeds the transmission of nerve impulses. It insulates / protects the axon. Saltatory neural transmission.

(4marks:1markeach)

any one for 1 mark

effector: An effector, a gland or muscle, reacts to the nerve impulse. Carries out reflex action. either one for 1 mark

Receives impulse from motor neuron. ( Note Only receives 1 mark.) 2

interneuron: An interneuron relays the impulse between a sensory and a motor neuron. (1 mark)

receptor: The receptor generates a nerve impulse that moves along the dendrite of a sensory neuron toward the cell body and then the central nervous system. Detects stimulus (or specific stimulus mentioned).
Note

either one for 1 mark

Receives message not accepted.

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9. Explain how each of the following structures contributes to the formation of urine. Bowmans capsule: Through pressure filtration, small molecules are forced from the glomerulus into Bowmans capsule. Glomerulus filtration. (1mark) either one for 1 mark

proximal convoluted tubule: Site of selective reabsorption where nutrients, such as amino acids, salts and glucose are reabsorbed / active transport of nutrients into the peritubular capillary network (out of the tubule) occurs. Water is reabsorbed, concentrating the urine. pH adjustment of blood by movement of H + / HCO3 .

(2marks) any two for 1 mark each

loop of Henle: As plasma enters the descending loop of Henle, water is reabsorbed osmotically out of the filtrate by the hypertonic salt environment in the medulla. The ascending portion of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water, but sodium ions are actively extruded to produce the hypertonic environment. There is a counter-current exchange with salt creating a hypertonic environment.

(2marks) any two for 1 mark each

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distal convoluted tubule: Water is reabsorbed, concentrating urine. Tubular excretion occurs where toxins, such as penicillin and ammonia, are added to the filtrate. The pH of the blood is adjusted by the movement of hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. ADH causes greater H 2O resorption.

(1mark) any one for 1 mark

collecting duct: Water continues to be reabsorbed in the collecting duct to concentrate urine. The pH of the blood is adjusted by the movement of hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. ADH causes greater H 2O resorption.

(1mark) any one for 1 mark

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August 1, 2000

Use the following diagram to answer question 10.

X Y

10. Identify the following structures indicated in the diagram and give one function of each. (6marks:1markeachforstructure;1markeachforfunction) Structure X: Name: ovary (1 mark) Function: secretes estrogen secretes progesterone egg production and maturation releases egg corpus luteum development any one for 1 mark

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August 1, 2000

Structure Y: Name: uterus womb either one for 1 mark any one for 1 mark

Function:

contains developing fetus acts as the site of fetal development pathway for sperm contracts to expel fetus site of implantation OR

Name: uterine wall endometrium

either one for 1 mark either one for 1 mark

Function: contracts to expel fetus site of implantation

Structure Z: Name: vagina birth canal either one for 1 mark

Function:

serves as birth canal receives penis during copulation creates an acidic environment pathway for sperm

any one for 1 mark

END OF KEY
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August 1, 2000

Biology 12
November 2000 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K C B D B A A D D C B D D D A A C B B D C C C B D D C K H U U H H U K K U K H H K K K U U U H H K U K U CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2, 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3 A1, 3; E1; H1 A1, 3 B3 C1, 4 C5; I7 D1 D1; C2 D2 D5, 1 E1 E2 E1, 2 F1 F2 F4 F5 G3 G5; M5, 6 G6 G3, 6 I1 I7, 5 J2 J7, 8 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K B A A D A C D A A C D A D B A C C D C C C B A B A C H U K U H H U H U U U U H U U U U U U K U U U U H CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J12 K1; J4 K1 L1, 2 L4, 5 M3 M3 M3, 5, 6 N4 N5 O2 O2 O2 O3, 2 O4 P1 P1, 6 P3 P4 P5 P6, 10 P7 P10, 9, 7 P9 P10, 9 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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November 29, 2000

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 C U K U U H U U U S 6 6 6 8 10 5 7 2 CO 1, 2, 3 1 1 3 3, 2 3 3 3 PLO A1, 2, 3; G1, 8, I1, 7; O2 C10 H6 I2, 4, 5 J1, 6; K4; G7; N2, 3 L7, 8 M1, 2, 8 O2

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (8 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome
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November 29, 2000

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes Use the following diagrams to answer question 1. Cell A Cell B

1. Cell A is found lining the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron. Cell B is found in the liver. Identify three visible differences between the two cells and explain how each difference aids the cell in carrying out its specific functions. (6 marks: 2 marks each) (Student must give 3 of the following differences and explain the purpose of each difference.) Difference: Explanation: Cell A has a brush border This greatly increases its surface area for (microvilli) and Cell B does not. absorption. Cell A must absorb large amounts of sodium ions, glucose, water and amino acids from the filtrate. Cell B has more endoplasmic This allows it to detoxify blood. reticulum than Cell A. OR This allows it to make plasma proteins. Cell A has more mitochondria than Cell A must produce more ATP for the active Cell B. transport of sodium ions/glucose/amino acids across its membrane. Cell B has more Golgi bodies than Golgi bodies are needed to package cell products Cell A. which the liver synthesizes. Cell A has a columnar shape and The columnar shape is more conducive to lining Cell B does not. of a tubule.

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2. Levels of protein structure differ according to the types of bonds that hold them together. As an enzyme is synthesized, these bonds form to give the protein its final 3-dimensional shape. For each of the following diagrams, name the level of protein structure and describe the type of bonding responsible. (6 marks: 1 mark each for level; 1 mark each for description)
C N N C C H O C O N H O N C C N C N N C O N C N N O C O C C O C C O C O C H C C C H C C C H C C O

Level of protein structure: secondary ( 2 ) / alpha helix (1 mark) Description of bonding: H-bonding (1 mark)

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November 29, 2000

Level of protein structure: tertiary ( 3 ) (1 mark) Description of bonding: There is ionic bonding. There is hydrogen bonding between the R-groups. There is covalent bonding. There are disulfide bridges (bonds). any one for 1 mark

H O C

N R H H O C N C C N C H

Level of protein structure: primary ( 1 ) / linear sequence of amino acids (1 mark) Description of bonding: There is peptide bonding. There is covalent bonding.
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either one for 1 mark -5November 29, 2000

3. What effect would each of the following changes have on the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction occurring in the stomach? Give an explanation for the effect. a) The temperature is increased from 35 C to 37C . The rate of the reaction would increase. (1 mark) Increasing the temperature speeds up the molecules, thereby increasing the chance of a successful collision between reacting molecules. A greater number of enzyme-substrate complexes would form. 37 C is the optimum or best temperature. any one for 1 mark (2 marks)

b) A competitive inhibitor is added. The reaction rate would decrease or stop. (1 mark) A competitive inhibitor fits into the active site in place of the substrate. (1 mark) Note: Denaturation of enzyme was not accepted.

(2 marks)

c) The pH is increased from 3 to 8. The reaction would decrease or stop. (1 mark) Raising the pH denatures the enzyme (loss of active site). Pepsinogen would not be activated. It would not be the optimum pH for pepsinogen. (Note: Student must name enzyme). any one for 1 mark

(2 marks)

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November 29, 2000

4. Identify four substances produced by the pancreas and give one function of each. (8 marks: 1 mark each for substance; 1 mark each for function) (Students must identify 4 of the following substances and give one function of each.) Substance: lipase trypsin(ogen) pancreatic amylase sodium bicarbonate / NaHCO3 / bicarbonate ions Function: digests / hydrolyzes / breaks down fats to fatty acids / glycerol digests / hydrolyzes / breaks down proteins (polypeptides) to peptides digests / hydrolyzes / breaks down starch (carbohydrates) to maltose raises the pH in the small intestine (duodenum) makes the pH of the duodenum alkaline / basic over neutralizes the chyme / acts as a buffer of chyme creates optimum pH conditions for action of pancreatic / intestinal enzymes activates trypsinogen stimulates cells to metabolize glucose makes cells more permeable to glucose absorption stimulates cells to absorb glucose and store as glycogen reduces blood glucose level promotes buildup of fats / proteins (and inhibits use of energy source)

insulin

glucagon

stimulates cells to convert glycogen to glucose raises blood glucose level promotes breakdown of fats / proteins to unit molecules break down nucleic acids

nucleases

Note: Student must correctly identify the substance to get a mark for the function.

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5. a) The average resting blood pressures and blood velocities were measured in various blood vessels of an individual as shown in the table below. Identify the type of blood vessel in the space provided. (5 marks) AVERAGE BLOOD VELOCITY
(cm/s)

BLOOD VESSEL A B C D E

AVERAGE BLOOD PRESSURE


(mm Hg)

TYPE OF BLOOD VESSEL artery capillary arteriole vein venule

48.0 0.5 15.0 25.0 4.0

100 22 60 2 10

b) Explain the observed blood pressure and velocity in the following vessels. Vessel A: It is close to the heart. It is elastic which helps maintain blood pressure. It is made of smooth muscle to allow constriction. The left ventricle contracts and forces the blood under high pressure. (2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

Vessel B: The capillaries have the greatest cross-sectional area. The capillaries are farther from the heart than the arteries. The capillaries are narrow and thus increased friction leads to lower velocity.

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

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November 29, 2000

c) How does the sympathetic nervous system raise blood pressure? The sympathetic nervous system causes constriction of the blood vessels. / The medulla oblongata generates sympathetic nerve impulses which cause vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. Adrenalin causes increased heart rate which increases blood flow and blood pressure. The blood is diverted (shuttled) from the digestive system to the skeletal system.

(1 mark) any one for 1 mark

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November 29, 2000

6. a) During external respiration, reactions involving gases occur in the capillaries. Describe three of these reactions.

(3 marks)

oxygen combines with hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin ( O2 + Hb HbO2 ) (1 mark) carbaminohemoglobin releases carbon dioxide ( HbCO2 Hb + CO2 ) (1 mark) bicarbonate ions combine with hydrogen ions to release carbon dioxide ( HCO3 + H + H 2CO3 H 2O + CO2 ) (1 mark)

b) Describe two conditions in the capillaries during external respiration that affect the rate of the reactions above. (2 marks) Blood at the lung capillaries has a lower temperature. Blood at the lung capillaries has a higher pH / less acidic. Blood at the lung capillaries has a lower oxygen concentration. Blood at the lung capillaries has a higher carbon dioxide concentration. Low amounts of hemoglobin will reduce the amount of O2 diffused per minute. Changes in blood pressure and blood velocity will affect the rate of gas exchange. any two for 1 mark each

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November 29, 2000

Use the following diagram to answer question 7.

7. a) Label the diagram above using the numbers of the terms listed below. (Not all the terms will be used.) (2 marks: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. axon dendrite synapse node of Ranvier cell body receptor

1 2

mark each )

5 1 6 2

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November 29, 2000

b) Describe how a reflex arc functions. A stimulus initiates a nerve impulse in a receptor. The sensory neuron carries the impulse (action potential) to the interneuron. The interneuron carries the impulse from the sensory neuron to the motor neuron. The motor neuron carries the impulse from the interneuron to an effector. The effector responds to the stimulus (in the case of a muscle, it causes contraction; in the case of a gland, it causes secretion). A reflex arc is automatic / doesnt use the brain / is involuntary.

(5 marks) any five for 1 mark

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November 29, 2000

8. Name two substances that are actively excreted during the process of tubular excretion. (2 marks) uric acid penicillin / antibiotics / drugs histamine creatinine ammonia ( NH 3 ) hydrogen ions ( H + ) toxins / poisons potassium ions ( K + ) any two for 1 mark each

END OF KEY
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November 29, 2000

Biology 12
January 2000 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K D A D D D A C C D B A D C C C B B C D C B B C D A C K U K H H H H H U H K U H U U U H H K U K U U K U CO 1 1 1 1, 2 1, 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2, 3 2, 1 2 2 2, 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1 A1 A1 A1, 2, 3; E1 A1, 3; L7 B1, 2 C1, 9, 2, 10 C2, 8 D3, 4 F1 F2 F3, 4 G1; J11 G1; C8 G2 G3 G6, 3; A3 G8 I1 I1 I1, 2, 4 I5 J2, 6 J9 L1 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K C B A A D B B A A A D D A D A A A D B C C B D C D C K K K K U H U K K U K K K U U K U H K U K K U U K CO 3 3 3 3 3 3, 1, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO L1, 2 L1 L4, 5 L8 M1, 2 M3; C12; G3 M3 M5, 6, 8 N1, 2 M3 N4 N4 O1 O1, 2 O2 O2 O3 O4; N5 O5; N4, 5; L6 O5, 2 P1 P3 P7, 9 P7, 9 P12 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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March 2, 2000

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 C K K U H U U U U U U U S 2 3 4 7 6 6 6 3 3 4 6 CO 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 PLO C6, 5 D5, 1 E1 H2, 3, 6; G7 I6, 7 J9, 11; K3, 4; N2 J12, 7 L5, 6, 8 M5, 6, 3; G5 O2 P1, 5, 6, 8, 10, 11

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (11 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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March 2, 2000

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. 1. State two biological functions of glucose in living organisms. As markers on cell surface. As a building block of cellulose (forms plant cell walls). As a source of energy to produce ATP in the process of cellular respiration. As a building block of starch. As a building block of glycogen. (2 marks) any two for 1 mark each Suggested Time: 75 minutes

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March 2, 2000

2. Using the chart below, contrast DNA and mRNA. (3 marks: 1 mark for each contrasting pair)

DNA TYPE OF SUGAR NUMBER OF STRANDS BASES deoxyribose sugar

mRNA ribose sugar

two

one

C, G, A, T

C, G, A, U

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March 2, 2000

3. Describe one way in which each of the following pairs of molecules are functionally related in the process of protein synthesis. (4 marks: 1 mark each) DNA and mRNA: mRNA is produced from the DNA code during transcription. mRNA carries the DNA code into the cytoplasm. either one for 1 mark

mRNA and tRNA: tRNA attaches complementarily to the mRNA during translation. (1 mark)

tRNA and amino acids: tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis. a specific tRNA binds to a specific amino acid. either one for 1 mark

protein and rRNA: rRNA and protein form the ribosome structure. Protein is manufactured at the ribosomes which are made of rRNA. either one for 1 mark

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March 2, 2000

4. An experiment was conducted to measure the effects of the presence of thyroxin and temperature on oxygen use in human tissue cells. Two tissue samples were prepared as shown below. Sample A: 50 grams of muscle tissue was added to a nutrient solution. Sample B: 50 grams of muscle tissue was added to a thyroxin and nutrient solution. Oxygen consumption was measured at various temperatures. The results are shown below.
Temperature (C) Consumption of oxygen (mL/hour) Sample A
muscle tissue

Sample B
muscle tissue + thyroxin

15C 25C 35C 45C 55C

6 8 12 7 2

12 16 24 14 4

a) Use the grid provided to graph the data in the table above. Label the x-axis as temperature. (2 marks: 1 mark for correct scale and labels; 1 mark for plotting and lines)
Use the following lines to plot your data:
Sample A Sample B

26 24 22 20 18 16

O2 consumption 14 (mL/hour)
12 10 8 6 4 2 0 0 5 15 25 35 45 55 60

temperature (C)

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March 2, 2000

b) Based on your graph of the data for sample B, predict the amount of oxygen consumed per hour at 20C . (1 mark) 13 14 mL/hour

c) Explain the difference observed in the results of samples A and B. Thyroxin increases the consumption of oxygen (metabolic rate). (1 mark)

(1 mark)

d) Explain the results for sample B at each of the following temperatures. (3 marks: 1 mark each) 15 C : The particles move slowly so that the metabolic rate is low resulting in little oxygen being consumed. (1 mark)

35 C : The temperature is near optimum for the hormone function and therefore metabolic rate is high in sample B. This leads to high oxygen consumption. (1 mark)

55 C : The hormone has begun to denature so the metabolic rate slows and oxygen consumption is lower. The enzymes in the muscle tissue have begun to denature. either one for 1 mark

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March 2, 2000

5. Explain how the liver is involved in each of the following processes. digestion of fat: (2 marks)

The liver produces bile (1 mark) which emulsifies (increases surface area of) fat in the duodenum of the small intestine (1 mark).

maintenance of blood glucose levels:

(2 marks)

The liver converts glucose to glycogen (1 mark) which lowers blood sugar levels (1 mark). OR The liver converts glycogen to glucose (1 mark) which raises blood sugar levels (1 mark).

maintenance of healthy blood: The liver breaks down worn-out red blood cells. The liver makes blood proteins from amino acids. The liver detoxifies the blood by removing toxins such as alcohol.

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

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March 2, 2000

6. How does the circulatory system respond to each of the following? an antigen enters the blood: White blood cells produce antibodies that inactivate the antigen. (1 mark) White blood cells phagocytize the antigen. (1 mark) Note to markers: 2 marks may be awarded for a detailed response. (2 marks)

increased stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system: Heart rate increases resulting in higher blood pressure. (1 mark) Arterioles constrict resulting in higher blood pressure. (1 mark) Note to markers: 2 marks may be awarded for a detailed response.

(2 marks)

hardening of the arteries (inability of arteries to expand and recoil): Heart rate increases to raise blood pressure. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

a cut on your finger: Platelets release a clotting protein to help seal the wound. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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Use the following diagram to answer question 7.

7. a) Describe the capillary-tissue fluid exchange at X. (2 marks)

Plasma, carrying nutrients, oxygen and hormones, leaves the capillaries. (1 mark) This occurs because the blood pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure. (1 mark)

at Y.

(2 marks)

Tissue fluid, containing wastes and secretions from the cells, enters the capillaries. (1 mark) This occurs because osmotic pressure is greater than blood pressure. (1 mark)

b) Describe what is occurring at Z between the tissue fluid and the cells. Oxygen and nutrient molecules enter the cells. This occurs by diffusion, facilitated transport and active transport. Wastes and carbon dioxide leave the cells. This occurs by diffusion (along a concentration gradient).

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

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March 2, 2000

8. a) How does an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood affect the breathing rate? The breathing rate increases. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) Where is an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood detected? Explain how the body responds to return carbon dioxide concentration to normal levels. (2 marks) The medulla oblongata detects an increase in carbon dioxide concentration. (1 mark) The medulla oblongata then sends out a nerve impulse that increases the rate of contractions of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. (1 mark)

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March 2, 2000

Use the following diagram to answer question 9.

A B

9. a) Identify the process by which the molecules labelled X leave the cell. exocytosis (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) How do the molecules travel from membrane A to membrane B? diffusion (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) Describe the effect of these molecules on membrane B. cause increased permeability to Na + (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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March 2, 2000

10. Describe the process which occurs at each of the following structures. (4 marks: 1 mark each) Bowmans capsule: pressure filtration of the blood (1 mark)

proximal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of nutrients and water (1 mark)

collecting duct: reabsorption of water regulation of pH either one for 1 mark

loop of Henle: reabsorption of water absorption of salt either one for 1 mark

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March 2, 2000

11. Give one function of each of the following hormones. testosterone:

(6 marks: 1 mark each)

causes sperm maturation promotes the normal development of the primary sex organs brings about and maintains the secondary sex characteristics in males

any one for 1 mark

follicle-stimulating hormone: stimulate the follicle to produce estrogen initiates egg maturation and sperm production promotes spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules any one for 1 mark

luteinizing hormone: promotes ovulation controls testosterone levels controls sex hormone production stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone any one for 1 mark

estrogen: stimulates growth of the endometrium (begins the development of the uterine lining) causes female secondary sex characteristics any one for 1 mark

progesterone: stimulates growth of the endometrium causes the endometrium to become secretory causes the uterine glands to mature, producing a thick mucoid secretion brings about and maintains the secondary sex characteristics in females any one for 1 mark

oxytocin: causes the uterus to contract during childbirth stimulates the release of milk from the mothers mammary glands END OF KEY
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either one for 1 mark

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March 2, 2000

Biology 12
August 1999 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K B B C D D B C C D C D D D A A A A C C C A D C A A C U K H U K H K U H K H H K U H U H U U H U U U U U CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1 A1 A1, 3; C8; G1 A1, 3 B3 C1, 2 C2, 3, 4 C7 D1 E1 E4 E2, 4 F1 F3, 5 F4 G1 G4 G5 H1 H6; I2, 4 I1 I1, 2 I1, 2 I5 I7 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K A A C C A D D B C B B C D C B A B B C D B B A D B C U K U K H U U H U H U K K H U H K H H K U U U U U CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J1 J2 J2 J2 J2; K5 J5 J8 J9 J9 J12 K2 L1 L4, 5 L6 L7 L8 M1 M1, 6, 8 M5, 6 N2 O2 O4 P1 P4 P7 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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September 17, 1999

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C U U U H K U U U K U S 4 3 4 5 6 3 3 8 8 6 CO 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO C2, 6 D5 G3 H3, 6; I1, 2, 4 I1, 2 J1; K1 L8 M1, 3 O2 P1, 2

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (10 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome
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September 17, 1999

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. Suggested Time: 75 minutes

Use the following diagram to answer question 1.

CH2 OH C H C OH OH C H 1. a) Identify the molecule above. glucose (1 mark) H C OH (1 mark) H O H C OH

b) What is the general term given to polymers formed from this molecule? polysaccharides (1 mark)

(1 mark)

c) List two biological functions of these polymers. To store energy in animals as glycogen. (1 mark) To provide strength and support to plant cell walls. (1 mark)

(2 marks)

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September 17, 1999

2. Using the table below, list three differences between RNA and DNA. (3 marks: 1 mark for each contrasting pair)

RNA

DNA 1 mark for each contrasting pair

single strand

double strand

contains uracil

contains thymine

ribose sugar

deoxyribose sugar

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September 17, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 3.

outside
Na+ Na+

inside

Na+

P
Na+ Na+

Na+

Na+ Na+

Na+

X
membrane

3. a) Identify the process shown in the diagram above. active transport (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) Give one example in which this process is used in the body. Nerve impulse transmission. Reabsorption and tubular excretion. Absorption of nutrients in the small intestine. Active transport of sodium ions into the medulla of the kidney. any one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

c) Describe the function of the molecule represented by Provides energy for the process. (1 mark)

P:

(1 mark)

d) What is the function of molecule X? Transports (or carries) sodium ions. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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September 17, 1999

Use the following diagrams to answer question 4.

2 glucose molecules
O

X 4. a) The diagrams illustrate a reaction that occurs in the small intestine. Give the specific name for each of the following. Molecule X: maltase (1 mark) (1 mark)

Molecule Y: maltose (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) In a laboratory experiment, substance Y was added in increasing amounts until it eventually had no effect on the rate of the reaction. Explain why. (1 mark) The active sites of the enzymes were occupied. (1 mark)

c) A solution containing lead ions was added to the reaction. How will the addition of this solution affect the reaction? Explain why. (2 marks) The rate of the reaction will decrease (1 mark) because the enzyme has been denatured (1 mark).

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September 17, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 5.

X Y

5. a) State two functions of structure Z. Absorption of water. Compacting/storage of feces. Synthesis of vitamin K (by bacteria). any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

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September 17, 1999

b) For each of the following structures, list one enzyme it secretes and the substrate that the enzyme acts upon. (4 marks: 1 mark each for enzyme; 1 mark each for substrate) Structure X: Enzyme: pepsin (1 mark) Substrate: protein (1 mark)

Structure Y: Enzyme: trypsin(ogen) (1 mark) Substrate: protein (1 mark) OR Enzyme: lipase (1 mark) Substrate: fat lipid OR Enzyme: amylase (1 mark) Substrate: starch (1 mark) one for } either 1 mark

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September 17, 1999

6. Describe how the structure of each of the following aids in its function. Artery: is thick-walled with elastic tissue to be able to withstand the forces of blood pressure. is equipped with smooth muscle so that blood pressure may be controlled.

(3 marks)

either one for 1 mark

Semi-lunar valve: has cusps (flaps) which open in one direction only in order to prevent back flow. (1 mark)

Capillary: is thin-walled in order to facilitate the exchange of materials. (1 mark)

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September 17, 1999

7. Identify three substances transported by hemoglobin in the blood and give the name of each form of hemoglobin. (3 marks: 1 2 mark each)

SUBSTANCE TRANSPORTED

FORM OF HEMOGLOBIN

oxygen

oxyhemoglobin

hydrogen ions

reduced hemoglobin

carbon dioxide

carbaminohemoglobin

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September 17, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 8. X Y

8. Describe, in correct order, the events that occur during the transmission of a nerve impulse from point X to point Y. (8 marks) Initially, there is a greater concentration of sodium ions outside the neuron and a greater concentration of potassium ions inside the neuron. Initially, the interior of the neuron has a relatively negative charge. OR The resting potential is approximately 65 mV. Sodium ion gates open. Sodium ions diffuse into the neuron. This causes depolarization. OR A reversal of the voltage occurs across the membrane. Potassium ion gates open. Potassium ions exit the neuron. This causes repolarization. The sodium-potassium pump re-establishes the original ion distribution. Depolarization of one site on the neuron causes depolarization of the area adjacent to it. OR An action potential may be generated. (1 mark for correct order) any seven for 1 mark each

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September 17, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 9.

9. Identify the following structures and give a different function of each structure. (8 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Structure W: Name: afferent arteriole (1 mark) Function: Brings blood to the glomerulus. (1 mark)

Structure X: Name: proximal tubule (1 mark) Function: Reabsorbs water. Selectively reabsorbs nutrients such as glucose and amino acids.

either one for 1 mark

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September 17, 1999

Structure Y: Name: distal convoluted tubule (1 mark) Function: Reabsorbs water. (Note to markers: only accept if students have not used reabsorbs water for structure X.) Regulates blood pH. Carries out selective reabsorption of K + , H + , NaCl and HCO3 .

any one for 1 mark

Structure Z:

Name: loop of Henle (1 mark) Function: Osmoregulation. Maintains salt and water balance.

one for } either 1 mark

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September 17, 1999

10. a) Give two functions of each of the following hormones. Estrogen: Causes eggs to mature. Causes breasts to develop. Causes endometrium to thicken. Causes the pelvic girdle to enlarge. Causes growth of uterus and vagina. Causes the onset of the menstrual cycle. Causes growth of pubic and underarm hair. any two for 1 mark each (2 marks)

LH (luteinizing hormone): A surge of LH causes ovulation in females. Promotes testosterone production in males. Leads to luteal phase in females (ovarian cycle). Causes development of the corpus luteum in females. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

b) Describe two hormonal changes that occur in the mother as a result of implantation. (2 marks) Embryonic membrane produces HCG (human chorionic gonadotropic) hormone. HCG maintains corpus luteum in the secretory phase; therefore, it continues to secrete progesterone. Placenta continues HCG production. Negative feedback results in decreased FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH production. Placenta secretes estrogen and progesterone and the corpus luteum degenerates by the end of the first trimester. any two for 1 mark each

END OF KEY

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September 17, 1999

Biology 12
June 1999 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K B B C A B D C D A A D D A A B B B A A C D C D B B C K U U U U U K H H K U H H H H H U U H U K K H H U CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1 A1 A1 A1 B3 C1 C1; G1 C2, 9 C2, 5 C2, 7 D1 E1 G8 H2 I1, 2, 4 I2 I2 I2 I6 I7 I9 J2 J1 J5 J6 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K A D B C A C A A A C A B B A C C C B B C D D C C D C K U H H U U K H K U U U U U K H K U K U K K U H U CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J8 J11 K2 K4 K1, 6 L1 L2 L6, 7, 8 L8 M2 M6 N2 N5 O1 O2 O2 P1 P1 P1 P4 P7 P7, 9 P10 P9, 10, 12 P12 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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July 21, 1999

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 C K H U U U U K U U K U S 3 4 3 7 4 4 4 4 4 6 7 CO 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO D3, 4 E1 F1, 3 G3, 6, 7 H6 I2 J9 L5 M3 N4 O4, 2

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (11 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome
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S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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July 21, 1999

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. 1. a) Define recombinant DNA. DNA that has genes from two different organisms. (1 mark) (1 mark) Suggested Time: 75 minutes

b) Describe two uses for recombinant DNA. Development of frost-resistant crops. Production of pure and safe vaccines. Mass production of human proteins and hormones (e.g. insulin, interferon). Production of hormones for animals (e.g. bGH to increase milk production). Production of DNA probes (used to determine such things as paternity or body identification at crime scenes). Enhancement of naturally occurring bacteria for use in environmental cleanup. Identification of genes for cloning and mapping.

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each

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July 21, 1999

2. Give the purpose of each of the following steps in the process of protein synthesis. a) Ribosome moving along a mRNA: to match codon and anticodon. to allow more tRNAs with specific amino acids to join together. directs or controls the formation of a polypeptide chain. any one for 1 mark (1 mark)

b) Adenine bonding to thymine: to produce a mRNA during transcription. in the DNA molecule, this bonding ensures that the code is copied properly. either one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

c) An amino acid bonding to a specific tRNA: to allow the transport of the amino acid to the ribosome. to ensure the correct sequence of amino acids. either one for 1 mark

(1 mark)

d) Forming of peptide bonds: to join adjacent amino acids to produce a protein. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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July 21, 1999

Use the following diagrams to answer question 3.

Tissue Sample A
Top View

Tissue Sample B
Top View

Side View

Side View

3. a) The diagrams above were made from samples of epithelial cells taken from healthy tissue and cancerous tissue. Which tissue sample is from the cancerous tissue? (1 mark) Tissue Sample A (1 mark)

b) Give two reasons for your answer in a) above. There is less cytoplasm. There is a loss of contact inhibition. There is disorganized growth (anaplasia). There is a large nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

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July 21, 1999

4. An experiment was conducted to determine the concentration of molecules in the cytoplasm of potato cells. The following steps were taken: 1. Five different sugar solutions were added to five numbered test tubes as shown in the data table below. 2. Five potato discs (cut from the same potato) were weighed and one disc was added to each test tube. 3. After 24 hours, the potato discs were removed, blotted dry, and weighed again. CONCENTRATION OF SUGAR SOLUTION
(%)

TEST TUBE 1 2 3 4 5

INITIAL POTATO MASS


(grams)

FINAL POTATO MASS


(grams)

CHANGE IN MASS (%) 20 10 +6 + 15 + 20

30.0 20.0 10.0 5.0 0.0 (distilled water only)

5.0 4.8 5.2 4.7 5.1

4.0 4.3 5.5 5.4 6.1

a) Name and describe the process that allowed the potato cells to gain and lose mass when placed in the sugar solutions. (2 marks: 1 mark for name; 1 mark for description) Name of Process: osmosis diffusion of water plasmolysis

any one for 1 mark

Description of Process: The movement of water from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration across the cell membrane. The movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration across the cell membrane.

either one for 1 mark

b) Explain the change in mass of the potato disc in test tube 1. The potato cells were hypotonic to the sugar solution. The sugar solution was hypertonic to the potato cells. Water diffused out of the potato cells. Water left the potato cells by osmosis.
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(2 marks) one for } either 1 mark

one for } either 1 mark -6July 21, 1999

c) Draw a graph that compares the concentration of sugar solution (%) to the change in mass (%) of the potato discs. Label the x-axis as the concentration of sugar solution (%). (2 marks)

25 20 15 10 5

change in mass (%) of potato discs

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

concentration of sugar solution (%)

(1 mark for correct scale and labels; 1 mark for plot and line of best fit)

d) Use your graph to determine the concentration of sugar solution (%) that would be isotonic to the cytoplasm of the potato cells. (1 mark) 13%16%. (1 mark)

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July 21, 1999

5. An experiment was conducted to measure the effect of temperature on an enzyme isolated from the small intestine. Data was collected and graphed as shown below.

30

25

20 Activity Rate for Enzyme (amount of product) (mg/min)

15

10

0 0 10 20 30 40 50 60

Temperature ( C)

Explain why the following temperatures change the activity rate of the enzyme. 0 C to 35 C : The molecules move and react faster with increased temperature. As temperature increases from 0 C to 35 C , the rate of enzyme activity increases because the average kinetic energy of the molecules increases. (1 mark) either one for 1 mark

37 C : This is the optimum temperature for the enzyme. (1 mark) 45 C to 55 C : The hydrogen bonds break and the enzyme loses the shape of its active site. It can no longer combine with the substrate because the kinetic energy of the enzyme and substrate molecules is too great for as many enzyme-substrate complexes to form. Denaturation is beginning to occur.
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(1 mark)

(2 marks) any two for 1 mark each


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6. The following substances were isolated from organs found in the digestive system. Name the organ in which each substance was produced and give one function of the substance. (4 marks) ORGAN WHERE PRODUCED

SUBSTANCE

FUNCTION

pepsin

stomach (1 mark)

to convert proteins into polypeptides (1 mark)

nuclease

small intestine or pancreas

to break down nucleic acids into nucleotides (1 mark)

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July 21, 1999

7. a) Describe one function of each of the following. Red blood cells: Carry oxygen. Act as a buffer. Carry hydrogen ions. Carry carbon dioxide. any one for 1 mark

(3 marks)

White blood cells: Fight infections. Produce antibodies. Phagocytize. any one for 1 mark

Platelets: Initiate blood clotting. Form a temporary clot. Produce serotonina vasoconstrictor. any one for 1 mark

b) Where are red blood cells produced? Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow. (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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July 21, 1999

8. Describe the interaction of the lungs, pleural membranes, ribs, and diaphragm during inhalation. The contraction of the diaphragm causes it to move down (flatten). The contraction of the rib muscles causes the rib cage to move up and out. Negative pressure within the pleural cavities causes the lungs to expand. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases. The pleural membranes seal the lungs, allowing them to inflate.

(4 marks)

any four for 1 mark each

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July 21, 1999

9. Explain how an action potential is generated in a neuron.

(4 marks)

A stimulus that is greater than the threshold level initiates the action potential. There is a spontaneous action potential in the central nervous system. Sodium ion gates open. (1 mark) Sodium ions diffuse into the neuron. (1 mark) Depolarization occurs. There is a positive charge on the inside and negative charge on the outside of the axon.

either one for 1 mark

either one for 1 mark

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July 21, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 10.

Y Z

10. Identify structures X, Y and Z and give one function of each. (6 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Structure X: Name: cerebrum cerebral cortex either one for 1 mark

Function: controls the central nervous system (CNS) (e.g. sensory perception, learning, memory, conscious behaviour, skeletal muscle control) (1 mark)

Structure Y: Name: cerebellum (1 mark) Function: controls muscle coordination, balance, posture, muscle tone. (1 mark)

Structure Z: Name: medulla oblongata (1 mark) Function: controls the autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls blood pressure (or any other specific example).

either one for 1 mark

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July 21, 1999

11. a) Using the following diagram, label the parts of a nephron in the blanks provided. (3 marks:

1 2

mark each)

proximal convoluted tubule efferent arteriole distal convoluted tubule Bowmans capsule

loop of Henle

collecting duct

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July 21, 1999

b) Identify one hormone that responds to a decrease in blood volume and explain how this hormone functions to return blood volume to normal levels. (4 marks: 1 mark for name; 3 marks for explanation) Name: ADH (1 mark) Explanation: ADH makes the walls of the collecting duct or the distal tubule more permeable to water. (2 marks) An increased amount of fluid/water/solution/extra cellular fluid is reabsorbed by the peritubular capillary network. The increased water reabsorption increases blood volume to the normal level. OR Name: aldosterone (1 mark) Explanation: Sodium and potassium ions are reabsorbed by active transport at the distal tubule or collecting duct. (2 marks) This increases the solute concentration of the blood; therefore, more fluid returns from the tissues and the blood volume increases. (1 mark) either one for 1 mark

END OF KEY
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July 21, 1999

Biology 12
November 1999 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


CURRICULUM: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Applications 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K C C A C C A C D B D A C B C A C C C C D A B B C A C K U K H H K H K K U K K K K K H U K H U K H K K U CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1 A1, 3 A3 A2, 3 A3 C2, 4 C1, 2, 4 C7 C10 E1 E3 F3 G3 G3 G5; M6 G6 H1, 5 H5 I1, 4 I3 I4 I9 J1 J2 J1, 2, 4; K1 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K C B C C C A C A C A D D A B B A B B B D A C B A A C U K U K K U H U K U K K H H U K K H K K K U H H U CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO J5 J9 J9 K1 L1 L1, 7 L4, 5, 6 L8; J4 M1 M2 M3 M4 M8, 2, 4 M8 N1 N4 O1 O1, 2 O2 O4 P1 P2 P9, 10 P9, 10 P12 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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December 1, 1999

Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 C U U U U U U U U U H U U S 3 3 2 2 3 4 6 5 4 5 6 7 CO 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO C4, 5, 11 D2 E1, 2 F1 G1 H3, 6 I1, 2, 4 J12 L3, 5, 7 M5, 6, 7 O2 P3, 5, 6

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (12 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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December 1, 1999

PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. 1. State a different function for each of the following in the human body. (3 marks: 1 mark each) Monosaccharides: provide an energy source for the body. are the building blocks of polysaccharides. either one for 1 mark Suggested Time: 75 minutes

Amino acids: are used to form proteins. are used to synthesize enzymes. are used to synthesize hormones. are the building blocks of antibodies, plasma proteins. are a source of energy. (Note to markers: do not accept if student answered energy source for Monosaccharides). any one for 1 mark

Glycogen: is used as a stored form of glucose in animals. is converted to glucose in the liver/muscles. is used for cell-to-cell recognition. any one for 1 mark

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December 1, 1999

2. Describe the process of DNA replication. The hydrogen bonds between the base pairs break (unzip). Helicase (enzyme) is involved in breaking hydrogen bonds. Complementary base pairing occurs. DNA polymerase acts as a proof-reader to ensure that there are no errors in base pairing. Sugar of one nucleotide joins with the phosphate of the adjacent nucleotide to form the sugar-phosphate backbone. The end result is the formation of two identical DNA molecules.

(3 marks) any three for 1 mark each

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December 1, 1999

Use the following chart to answer question 3.


Three-letter codons of messenger RNA and the amino acids specified by the codons
AAU AAC AAA AAG ACU ACC ACA ACG AGU AGC AGA AGG AUU AUC AUA AUG Asparagine Lysine CAU CAC CAA CAG CCU CCC CCA CCG Histidine Glutamine GAU GAC GAA GAG GCU GCC GCA GCG Asparatic acid Glutamic acid UAU UAC UAA UAG UCU UCC UCA UCG UGU UGC Glycine UGA UGG UUU UUC Valine UUA UUG Leucine Stop Tryptophan Tyrosine Stop

Threonine

Proline

Alanine

Serine

Serine Arginine

CGU CGC CGA CGG

Arginine

GGU GGC GGA GGG

Cysteine

Isoleucine Methionine

CUU CUC CUA CUG

Leucine

GUU GUC GUA GUG

Phenylalanine

3. a) Determine the DNA base sequence that codes for the amino acid tryptophan. ACC (1 mark)

(1 mark)

b) Determine the anticodon for tryptophan. ACC (1 mark)

(1 mark)

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December 1, 1999

4. Describe how increased vascularization aids in the development of cancer. Removes wastes. Brings nutrients. Allows metastasis. Allows for increased metabolic activity. Nourishes tumour. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

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December 1, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 5.

5. Give three functions of the structure above. Maintains cell integrity. Catalyzes reactions on the cell surface. Forms tissues by joining to other cells (junctions). Regulates the exit and entrance of molecules out of and into the cell via pinocytosis / phagocytosis / endocytosis. Regulates the exit and entrance of molecules out of and into the cell via exocytosis. Regulates the exit and entrance of molecules out of and into the cell via diffusion. Regulates the exit and entrance of molecules out of and into the cell via osmosis. Regulates the exit and entrance of molecules out of and into the cell via active transport. Regulates the exit and entrance of molecules out of and into the cell via facilitated transport. Used in cell identification. Glycoproteins bring certain molecules in by pinocytosis. Provides receptor sites. Acts as a cell boundarykeeps the organelles within the cell.

(3 marks) any three for 1 mark each

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December 1, 1999

6. The addition of heavy metals, boiling water or acid all have the same effect on the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Describe the effect that these additions have on the enzyme and the reaction rate. (4 marks) They slow the rate of the reaction (1 mark) by denaturing the enzyme (1 mark). Fewer enzyme-substrate complexes can be formed (1 mark) because the enzyme and substrate do not fit as the active site has changed (1 mark).

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December 1, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 7. W

7. Identify each of the labelled structures and give one function of each. (6 marks: 1 2 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Part W: Name: esophagus ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Transports food from the mouth to the stomach. Secretes mucus. Part X: Name: stomach ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Stores food. Secretes HCl. Digests protein. Secretes pepsinogen. Conducts mechanical churning of food. Absorbs H 2O, alcohol. Secretes mucus. Part Y: Name: small intestine ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Emulsifies fats. Absorbs nutrients. Neutralizes acid chyme. Digests maltose and peptides. Secretes enzymes (e.g. maltase, peptidase). Transports undigested materials to the large intestine. Receives enzymes and bile.
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one for } either 1 mark

any one for 1 mark

any one for 1 mark


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Part Z: Name: large intestine ( 1 2 mark ) Function: Absorbs water and salts. Stores indigestible materials. Produces vitamins and growth factors. Houses bacteria.

any one for 1 mark

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December 1, 1999

8. Describe tissue-capillary fluid exchange.

(5 marks)

The blood pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure on the arteriole side of the capillary bed. Plasma is forced into the tissues as a result. As the blood flows through the capillary bed, the blood pressure drops. Therefore, the blood pressure is lower than the osmotic pressure on the venule side of the capillary bed. Fluid is drawn from tissues into the blood as a result of diffusion and osmosis. Nutrients diffuse into the tissues at the arteriole end of the capillary bed. Wastes diffuse out of the tissues at the venule end of the capillary bed. Substances move according to their concentration gradient.

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December 1, 1999

9. Describe how the characteristics of the lungs assist in the function of gas exchange.

(4 marks)

Wetness increases the diffusion rate of gases. Large surface area allows for greater gas exchange. Alveoli are one cell layer thick for ease of diffusion. Numerous blood vessels increase the efficiency of gas exchange. Lipoprotein layer decreases surface tension to prevent alveolar collapse. Capillaries are one cell layer thick for ease of diffusion. Made up of alveoli to maximize surface area to volume ratio. Alveoli are made up of simple squamus epithelium. Alveoli are surrounded by a rich capillary network which increases the rate of diffusion. The large number of alveoli allows for greater gas exchange. A neutral pH or more basic pH than tissues allows hemoglobin to bind more readily to O2 . Cooler temperature in the lungs than in the tissues allows hemoglobin to bind more readily to O2 . Mucus and cilia in the lungs move debris out of the lungs for more efficient gas exchange. The pleural membranes prevent friction to allow inflation of the lungs. Stretch receptors in the alveoli inhibit the medulla oblongata thus allowing exhalation to occur. The alveoli are flexible or elastic for ease of inflation.
1 2

Note: (4 marks: process)

mark each for correct characteristic;

1 2

mark each for description of correct

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December 1, 1999

10. Describe how a nerve impulse moves across a synapse. A wave of depolarization reaches the synaptic ending. The presynaptic membrane becomes permeable to calcium ions. Calcium ions diffuse into the ending. Calcium ions interact with contractile proteins. Synaptic vesicles are pulled to the presynaptic membrane.

(5 marks) any four for 1 mark each

Vesicles release a neurotransmitter into the cleft via exocytosis. OR The synaptic vesicles merge with the presynaptic membrane. Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft. Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs. OR Excitation of the postsynaptic membrane occurs. Enzymes in the cleft destroy neurotransmitter. OR Neurotransmitter is absorbed by endocytosis in the pre-synaptic membrane. Na + channels open in the postsynaptic membrane. A threshold needs to be reached in order for the nerve impulse to form. Inhibition of the postsynaptic membrane occurs.

Note: (5 marks: 4 marks for description; 1 mark for correct order in process)

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December 1, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 11.

X Y V

11. State a different function of each of the labelled structures. Part U: Regulates pH. Reabsorbs water. Takes urine to the renal pelvis. Collects urine from many nephrons. any one for 1 mark

(6 marks: 1 mark each)

Part V: Takes nutrients from reabsorption to renal vein. Provides energy and oxygen to the nephron. either one for 1 mark

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December 1, 1999

Part W: Reabsorbs water. (Note to markers: do not accept if student answered reabsorbs water for structure U). Tubular excretion. Regulates blood pH. (Note to markers: do not accept if student answered regulates pH for structure U). Carries out selective reabsorption of K + , H+ , NaCl and HCO3 Is affected by aldosterone and ADH. any one for 1 mark

Part X: Pressure filtration. (1 mark)

Part Y: Selective reabsorption. Passive and active transport of nutrients, salts and H 2O . either one for 1 mark

Part Z: Osmoregulation. Extrusion of Na + . Maintains salt and water balance. Reabsorbs water. (Note to markers: do not accept if student answered reabsorbs water for structure W.) Creates a hypertonic medulla. any one for 1 mark

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December 1, 1999

12. a) Give one function of each of the following in a male. Luteinizing hormone (LH): Stimulates the production of testosterone. (1 mark)

(3 marks: 1 mark each)

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): Stimulates spermatogenesis. (1 mark)

Testosterone: Gender differentiation. Stimulates maturation of sperm. Brings about the development of the primary sex organs. Brings about and maintains secondary sex characteristics. any one for 1 mark

b)

i) Name two structures that contribute to the production of seminal fluid. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

prostate gland seminal vesicle Cowpers gland

ii) Give two functions of seminal fluid. Provides lubrication. Causes uterine contractions. Neutralizes the acidity of the vagina. Provides medium for sperm to swim in. Contains sugar as an energy source for sperm locomotion. any two for 1 mark each

(2 marks)

END OF KEY

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December 1, 1999

Biology 12
January 1999 Provincial Examination

ANSWER KEY / SCORING GUIDE


Curriculum: Organizers 1. Cell Biology 2. Cell Processes and Application 3. Human Biology Part A: Multiple Choice Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. K D C D D C C C D B C A D B B A C C D D C D A B B C C K H U H K H U K K U K K H K H H H U U U U U U U K CO 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3 A1; H1 A1 A1, 2; G5 B3 B3 C1, 2 C2; D1 C2, 8; G1 C3 C9 C2, 12 D2 G1 G3, 4 G4, 8 G6 H3 I1, 2 I1, 2 I1, 9 I2 I2 I2 J1 Q 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. K C CO PLO K1 K2 K1, 6 L1 L1 L1, 5 L7 L8; J2 N2 N3 N4 N4 O1 O2 O2, 4, 5 O4 P1 P1 P3 P4 P5, 6 P9, 10 P10 P7, 9, 10 Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P

B U 3 B H 3 D U 3 C U 3 D K 3 C U 3 D K 3 A U 3 D U 3 C K 3 A K 3 A U 3 A K 3 B U 3 C H 3 DELETED D K 3 D K 3 C K 3 D K 3 B K 3 C H 3 C H 3 A U 3 B K 3

Multiple Choice = 50 marks


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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 C K U U H U U U U K S 4 3 4 8 10 3 8 6 4 CO 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 PLO D1 E1 F4 H6; I2, 4 J2, 5, 6 L2 M3, 4 O1, 2 P7

Written Response = 50 marks

Multiple Choice = Written Response = EXAMINATION TOTAL =

50 (50 questions) 50 (9 questions) 100 marks

LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer

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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Use a pen for this part of the examination. 2. Write your answers in the space below the questions. 3. Organization and planning space has been incorporated into the space allowed for answering each question. 4. You may not need all of the space provided to answer each question. Suggested Time: 75 minutes

1. Describe the structure of DNA. (You may use a labelled diagram to answer this question.) (4 marks) It consists of two polynucleotide strands. It is a double helix OR ladder configuration. Its sugar is deoxyribose. It has bases A, T, C and G. There is hydrogen bonding between the complementary bases (AT, CG) on the two polynucleotides. It is composed of nucleotides. Each nucleotide is composed of sugar, phosphate and base. It has a sugar-phosphate backbone. any four for 1 mark each

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February 23, 1999

2. State one role for each of the following molecules in the process of protein synthesis. (3 marks) DNA:

Contains the genetic code for protein synthesis. Serves as a template for the transcription of mRNA.

either one for 1 mark

mRNA: Carries the transcribed code to the ribosome for translation. Determines the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide produced. either one for 1 mark

tRNA: Carries specific amino acid to a codon on the mRNA. Binds to a specific amino acid. Ensures the correct amino acid sequence in the new polypeptide through complementary base pairing of codons and anticodons. any one for 1 mark

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February 23, 1999

3. Describe the process of carcinogenesis. During initiation, a carcinogen brings about a mutation. During promotion, cancerous growth is triggered. Vascularization occurs. A mutagen converts a proto-oncogene to an oncogene. Metastasis occurs (cancer spreads to other sites). There is a loss of contact inhibition between the cells. The cells develop abnormal nuclei. The cytoskeleton of the cells is altered. any four for 1 mark each

(4 marks)

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February 23, 1999

4. In an experiment designed to test the effects of environmental conditions on the ability of enzymes to digest food, the following steps are carried out: Four test tubes are labelled A, B, C and D. All tubes contain distilled water and a small amount of egg white (protein). Individual tubes have additional contents as shown in the table below. All tubes are to be incubated at 37 C for one hour.

For each tube, explain what will happen and why. (8 marks: 1 mark each for result; 1 mark each for explanation) INITIAL CONTENTS ADDITIONAL CONTENTS

TUBE

RESULT AND EXPLANATION

distilled water + egg white

none

No digestion occurs (1 mark) because no enzyme is present. (1 mark)

distilled water + egg white

pepsin

Little or no digestion occurs (1 mark) because pH is not optimum. (1 mark)

distilled water + egg white

pepsin + hydrochloric acid (at pH 3)

Digestion occurs either one Peptides are produced for 1 mark because the correct enzyme and optimum pH are present. (1 mark)

distilled water + egg white

hydrochloric acid (at pH 3)

Little or no digestion occurs (1 mark) because no enzyme is present. (1 mark) (There is limited hydrolysis by HCl at 37C.)

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February 23, 1999

Use the following diagram to answer question 5a).

W X Y Z V U

5. a) For each blood vessel listed in the table below, write the letter from the diagram which indicates the vessels location. (2 marks: 1 2 mark each ) LETTER FROM DIAGRAM U Z W X -7February 23, 1999

BLOOD VESSEL Iliac artery Aorta Carotid artery Subclavian artery


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b) In the table below, contrast the structure and/or function of the hepatic vein versus the hepatic portal vein.

(4 marks)

HEPATIC VEIN Joins the liver and the inferior vena cava. After a meal, carries blood lower in glucose than the hepatic portal vein. Between meals, carries blood higher in glucose than the hepatic portal vein. Starts in a capillary bed and ends in a vessel. CONTRASTS Carries blood higher in urea than the hepatic portal vein.

HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN Joins the digestive tract and the liver. After a meal, carries blood higher in glucose than the hepatic vein. Between meals, carries blood lower in glucose than the hepatic vein. Starts and ends in capillary beds. any two contrasting pairs for 2 marks per pair

Carries blood lower in urea than the hepatic vein.

Larger in diameter.

Smaller in diameter.

Carries purified blood away from the liver.

Carries blood containing poisons to the liver.

Part of systemic circulatory system.

Part of portal system.

Note to markers: Students must show a valid contrast. No single marks should be given if student fills in only one of the pair of boxes.

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February 23, 1999

c) Name two structures present in fetal but not in adult circulatory systems and describe the function of each. (4 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) Students may choose any two of the following: Name: oval opening Function: Allows blood to move from the right to the left atrium, bypassing the pulmonary circuit. Name: arterial duct Function: Allows blood to move from the pulmonary artery and the aorta, bypassing the pulmonary circuit. Name: umbilical arteries Function: Take blood containing wastes to the placenta. Name: umbilical vein Function: Brings nutrient-rich blood from the placenta. Name: venous duct Function: Allows blood to flow from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. Name: umbilical cord Function: Carries O2 / nutrients from the placenta; carries wastes to the placenta.

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February 23, 1999

6. Describe how the upper respiratory tract is specialized to keep the lungs free of debris. (3 marks) Mucus traps debris. Cilia sweep debris back up to the glottis. Cilia filter the air. Hairs in the nasal passages filter the air. Coughing moves debris up and out of the respiratory tract. Epiglottis blocks food from entering the lungs. Saliva traps particles. any three for 1 mark each

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February 23, 1999

7. Describe the transmission of a nerve impulse through a neuron. Through a neuron: Depolarization of postsynaptic membrane occurs. OR Neurotransmitter attaches to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Membrane is polarized. Sodium ion gates open. Sodium ions diffuse into the neuron. Depolarization occurs. Membrane potential is + 40mV (upswing). Sodium ion gates close. Potassium ion gates open. Potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron. Repolarization occurs. Membrane potential is 65mV (downswing). Myelinated fibres allow faster transmission because the action potential travels from node to node. Sodium-potassium pump re-establishes resting potential. Transmission occurs in one direction only. At the synapse: Action potential reaches the end of the axon. Presynaptic membrane becomes permeable to calcium. Calcium ions cause microfilaments to pull synaptic vesicles to inner surface of presynaptic membrane. Vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. any eight for 1 mark each

(8 marks)

991bik

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February 23, 1999

8. Give two functions of each of the following urinary system structures. Kidney: Helps maintain pH. Excretes nitrogenous wastes, excess salts and H 2O or produces and excretes urine. Helps maintain water balance. Removes histamines, penicillin, etc. Helps maintain nutrient and mineral balance. Purifies blood. Regulates blood volume. any two for 1 mark each

(6 marks)

Collecting duct: Reabsorbs water. Carries urine to the renal pelvis. Regulation of pH. Regulates blood volume. any two for 1 mark each

Proximal tubule: Selective reabsorption of salts. Selective reabsorption of amino acids. Selective reabsorption of glucose. Reabsorption of water. Active transmission of nutrients. Moves filtrate to the loop of Henle. any two for 1 mark each

991bik

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February 23, 1999

9. Label the following diagram in the blanks provided.

(4 marks)

oviduct or fallopian tube

ovary uterus or uterine wall

vagina

END OF KEY

991bik

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February 23, 1999

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