12th Chemsitry 1 Marks EnglishCHEMISTRY

m o c . i a I l o A s i L v l A a k M . A w N w w .
AN R
CHEMISTRY
ONE MARK QUESTION & ANSWER
HIGHER SECONDARY - SECOND YEAR
m o Compiled by: i.c a I l Mr.R.ANNAMALAI o A s i L v l A a k M . A w N w w .AN R

M.Sc(Chem).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed., B.Music., P.G. TEACHER IN CHEMISTRY GOVT. GIRLS HR.SEC.SCHOOL, GINGEE. VILLUPURAM DIST. email:ssssmalai@gmail.com
Design:
Raasi Computers 199, Balaji Complex, Gandhi Bazaar, Gingee - 604 202.
Mobile No.94442 82044
Higher Secondary - Second Year

BLUE PRINT - CHEMISTRY Time : 180 Mins.
S.No
OBJECTIVES KNOWLEDGE E/LA SA VSA UNDERSTANDING
Maximum Marks : 150

APPLICATION
E/LA SA VSA
SKILL
TOTAL
1 Atomic Structure 2 Periodic Classification 3 p-Block elements 4 d-Block elements 5 f-Block elements 6 Co-ordination & Bio-coordination Compounds
O E/LA SA VSA O - 1(1) - - 1(3) -
O E/LA SA VSA O - 1(1) - 1(5) - -
10 09
1(5) -
- 1(1) -
- 1(3) -
- 1(3) -
- 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(3) 1(1) -
- 1(1) 12 18 07 11 09
- 1(5) 1(3) -
- 1(1) 1(5) - 1(1) -
- 1(5) - 1(1) -
1(5) -
- 1(1) - 1(5) -
7 Nuclear Chemistry 8 Solid state
9 Thermodynamics-II
10 Chemical equilibrium-II 11 Chemical Kintics-II 12 Surface Chemistry
13 Electrochemistry - I 14 Electrochemistry-II
15 Isomerism in Organic Chemistry 16 Hydroxy Derivatives 17 Ethers
18 Carbonyl Compounds 19 Carboxylic Acids
m o c . i a I l o A s i L v l A a k M . A w N w w .AN R
- 1(5) - 1(1) - 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(1) - 1(1) - 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(1) - 1(1) - 1(3) 1(5) - 1(1) - 1(3) 1(1) - 1(1) - 1(1) 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(5) - 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(3) - 1(1) 1(5) - 1(1) - 1(5) - 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(1) 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(5) - 1(1) - 1(1) 1(5) - 2(1) - 1(1) - 1(1) 1(5) - 1(3) - 1(5) -
- 1(3) -
- 1(1) 09 10
- 1(3) -
- 1(1) 10 12 11 14 10 08 12
- 1(5) -
- 1(1) 07 14 14 11 07 08
20 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 21 Bio molecules 22 Chemistry in Action 23 Problem in Chemistry
- 1(3) -
TOTAL 20 5 24 6 25 20 24 10 15 25 6 10 20 10 9
No. of Questions Marks Summary / E / LA 8 80 Scheme of options Short Answer (SA) No. 12 60 Scheme of Sections Very Short Answer (VSA) No.21 63 Objective(O) 30 30 233 Knowledge : 24% Understanding : 34% Application : 24% Skill : 18% Part-I MCQ Part-II VSA Part-III SA Part-IV E / LA -
4 233
30 / 30 15 / 21 7 / 12 3 / 6 & 1 Compulsory (Either or Type)
iv
INDEX
S.No. LESSON Page No
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION - II p - BLOCK ELEMENTS d - BLOCK ELEMENTS f - BLOCK ELEMENTS COORDINATION COMPOUNDS AND BIO-COORDINATION COMPOUNDS NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY SOLID STATE - II
1 2 3 4 6 7 8 9 10 10 11 12 13 15 17 18 20 22 24
THERMONYNAMICS - II
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - II CHEMICAL KINETICS - II SURFACE CHEMISTRY
ELECTRO CHEMISTRY - I HYDROXY DERIVATIVES ETHERS
CORBONYL COMPOUNDS CARBOXYLIC ACIDS BIOMOLECULES
ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
R.ANNAMALAI
M.Sc (Che).,M.Sc (Psy).,M.Phil.,B.Ed. PGT(CHE), G(G)HSS, GINGEE, DISTRICT SECRETARY, TNHSPGTA, VILLUPURAM DT
vii
HIGHER SECONDARY - SECOND YEAR
CHEMISTRY
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE - II
Choose the correct answer 1. En= - 313.6 , If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value n corresponds n2 a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
2 x 1= 2
2. Dual character of an electron was explained by a) Bohr b) Heisenberg
3. de-Broglie equation is mv a) = h
4. The value of Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is a) 0.529 x 10-8cm
5. Which of the following particle having same kinetic energy, would have the maximum de-Broglie wave length a) - particle b) proton c) - particle d) neutron
6. If the energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of H-atom is - E, what is the energy of the electron in the Bohrs first orbit? a) 2E b) -4E c) -2E d) 4E
7. The energy of electron in an atom is given by En=

a) 42me4 n2h2 b) 22me2 n2h2 c)
c) de-Broglie d) Pauli b) =hmv c) = hv m d) = h mv b)0.529 x 10-10cm c)0.529 x 10-6cm 22me4 d) n2h2 2me4 n2h2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2
d)0.529 x 10-12cm
8. The bond order of Oxygen molecule is a) 2.5
9. The hybridisation in SF6 molecule is a) sp3 b)sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp3d3
10. The intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in a) o-nitrophenol b) m-nitro phenol c) p-nitrophenol d) None
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Page : 1
2. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION - II
Choose the correct answer:1. The value of C-C distance found experimentally in a saturated hydrocarbon is a) 1.34 b) 1.36 c) 1.54 2. On moving down the group, the radius of an ion d) 1.56
1 x 1= 1
a) Decreases b) Increases c) No change d) None of these 3. Effective nuclear charge (Z*) can be calculated by using the formula a) Z* = Z - S b) Z* = Z + S c) Z* = S - Z d)Z = Z* - S 4. Pick the correct statement a) Carbon having more nuclear charge than boron b) The size of carbon atoms is larger than boron c) Carbon forms electron deficient compounds d) Carbon forms ionic compounds 5. Comparing the ionisation energy of fluorine with carbon, fluorine has a) higher ionisation energy b) lower ionisation energy c) same ionisation energy d) none of these 6. Among the following which has the maximum ionisation energy a) Alkali elements b) Alkaline elements 7. The electron affinity of an atom c) is independent of its size a) Fluorine
a) directly proportinal to its size
8. Among the following which has higher electron affinity value b) Chlorine c) Bromine
9. The scale which is based on an empirical relation between the energy of a bond and the electrongativities of bonded atoms is a) Pauling scale b) Mullikens scale c) Sandersons scale d) Alfred and Rochows scale 10. Electron affinity is expressed in a) KJ b) J c) KJ mol c) 1.98 11. The bond length of Cl2 molecule is a) 0.74 b) 1.44 12. The order of ionization energy a)s<p<d<f a) decreases a) High b) s>p>d>f b) increases b) Low 13. Across the period, electron affinity c) decrease and the increases d) Very low c) Ionic d) metallic Page : 2 d) increase and then decreases 14. Noble gases have .................. electron affinity c) Zero 15. When XA>> XB, A - B bond is a) polar covalent
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c) Halogens d) Noble gases b) inversely proportional to its size d) none of these d) Iodine d) KJ mol-1 d) 2.28 c) s>d>p>f d) s<d<p<f
b) non-polar covalent
3. p - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Choose the correct answer: 1. Which of the following does not belong to group 13? a) B b) Al c) Ge d) In 2. Which of the following is most abundant in earths crust? a) C b) Si c) Ge d) Sn
1 x 1= 1
3.An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acid. B Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipilate with AgNO3 solution A is a) SO 2 a) P2 O 3 a) pyramidal a) PCl3 a) F a) HI a) HF a) 14 b) NO 2 b)P2 O 5 c) P2O3 c) H3PO3 d) SO3 d) H3PO4 c) linear d) tetrahedral 4. The compound with garlic odour is 5. The shape of PCl5 is 6. The compound used as smoke screen b) PCl5
7. Which shows only - 1 oxidation state? b) Br
8. One can draw the map of building on a glass plate by b) HF c) HBr d) HCl 9. Among the halogen acid, the weakest acid is b) HCl b) 15 c) HBr 10. Halogens belong to the group number c) 17
11. The noble gases are unreactive because they a) have same number of electrons b) have an atomicity of one c) are gases with low densities 12. The shape of XeF4 is a) tetrahedral 13. Which is not known? a) XeF6 a) He a) He b) XeF4 b) H2 b) Ne c) N2 c) Ar c) XeO3 d) Ar b) octahedral
c) PH3 c) Cl d) H3PO3 d) I d) HI d) 18 c) square planar d) ArF6 d) pyramidal
b) trigonal bipyramidal
d) have stable electronic configuration
14.The lightest gas which is non-inflammable is 15. Which of the following has highest first ionisation energy? d) Kr Page : 3
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4. d - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Choose the correct answer: 1. The general electronic configuration of d-block element is a) (n-1)d1-10 ns0-2 a) paired electrons a) p-block elements a) d-d transistion c) Inter atomic transfer of electrons 5. The electronic configuration of chromium is
a) 3d6 4s0
2 x 1= 2
b) (n-1) d1-5 ns2 b) unpaired electrons
c) (n-1)d0 ns1
d) None of these d) none the above d) f-block elements
2. Formation of coloured ions is possible when compounds contains c) lone pairs of electrons c) s-block elements 3. Paramagnetism is common in b) d-block elements
3+ 6
4. The colour of Ti(H2O) ion is due b) Presence of water molecules d) none the above d) 3d3 4s2 4p1
b) 3d5 4s1
c) 3d4 4s2
6. Paramagnetism is the property of a) paired electrons c) unpaired electrons
7. d-block elements form coloured ions because
a) They absorb some energy for d-s transition
b) They absorb some energy for p-d transition c) They absorb some energy for d-d transition d) They do not absorb any energy a) 3d10 4s1 b) 3d10 4s2
8. The correct electronic configuration of copper atom is c) 3d9 4s2 9. Copper is extracted from
a) cuprite b) copper glance 10. Silver salt used in photography is a) AgCl b) AgNO3
b) completely filled electronic subshells d) completely vacant electronic subshells d) 3d5 4s2 4p4 c) malachite d) copper pyrites c) AgF d) AgBr b) Reducing behaviour d) Photochemical behaviour c) ZnO c) ZnCl2 d) Cu+ c) K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] d) K3[Fe(CN)6] Page : 4 d) Zn(OH)2 d) C6H5Cl b) Na2 ZnO2 b) HgCl2
11. Sodiumthiosulphate is used in photography because of its a) Oxidizing behaviour c) Complexing behaviour a) ZnH2 a) CuCl2 a) Ni2+ b) Fe2+
12. Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form 13. Which of the following compounds will not give positive chromyl chloride test? 14. Which of the ions will give colourless aqueous solution? c) Cu2+ b) Na2CdI4 15. Which of the following compounds is not coloured? a) Na2CuCl4
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16. In the extraction of Cu, the reaction which does not take place in the Bessemer converter is a) 2CuFeS2 + O2 c) 2Cu2O + Cu2S Cu2S + FeS + SO2 6Cu + SO2 b) 2Cu2S + 3O2 d) 2FeS + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2 2FeO + 2SO2
17. Select the wrong statement a) All cuprous salts are blue in colour b) Transition metals are highly reactive c) All cuprous salts are white in colour d) Mercury is a liquid metal 18. Choose the wrong statment regarding K2Cr2O7 a) It is a powerful oxidizing agent b) It is used in tanning industry c) It is soluble in water d) It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate 19. For a transition metal ion, the effective magnetic moment in BM is given by the formula a) n(n-1) b) n(n+1) c) n(n+2) d) n(n+1) (n+2)
20. The correct statement in respect of d-block elements is a) They are all metals b) They sho variable valency
c) They form coloured ions and complex salts d) All above statement are correct a) Cu2 (CN)2 a) Mn2+
21. Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate b) K2 [Cu(CN)6 ] c) K [Cu(CN)2 ] d) Fe2+ d) Cu2 (CN)2 + (CN)2
22. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons? b) Ti3+ c) V3+ 23. Among the following statement, the incorrect one is a) Calamine and siderite are carbonates b) Argentite and cuprite are oxides c) Zine blende and pyrites are sulphides d) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
b) FeSiO3 c) CuFeS2 d) Cu2S+FeO
24. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is a) Cu2O+FeS
25. The transition element with the lowest atomic number is a) Scandium b) Titanium c) Zinc d) Lanthanum 26. Which transition element show highest oxidation state a) Sc b) Ti c) Os d) Zn Page : 5
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5. f - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Choose the correct answer: 1. The electronic configuration of Lanthanides is a) [Xe]4f0 5d0 6s0 c) [Xe]4f1-14 5d1 6s2 a) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0 7s0 c) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s1 b) [Xe]4f1-7 5d1 6s1 d) [Xe]4f1-14 5d1-10 6s2 b) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s0 d) [Rn]5f0-14 6d0-2 7s2 b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
2 x 1= 2
2. The electronic configuration of Actinides is
3. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that a) Zn and Y have about the same radius c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius a) +2 b) +1 5. Lanthanides are extracted from
a) Limonite
d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state d) +4
4. The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is
6. The elements in which the extra electron enters (n-2) f orbitals are called a) s - block elements b) p - block elements c) d - block elements d) f - block elements 7. The Lanthanides contraction is due to a) Perfect shielding of 4f electron 8. Ceria is used in a) toys a) MnO2 c) Perfect shielding of 3d electron b) tracer bullets b) CeO2
9. .................. is used in gas lamp material 10. Alloys of Lanthanides are called as a) Mish - metals
b) M onazite c) M agnetite d) Cassiterite
c) +3
b) Imperfect shielding of 4f electron
d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electron
c) gas lamp materials
d) none of the above
c) N2O5
d) Fe2O3
b) Metalloids
c) Plate metals
d) Actinides
11. Metallothermic processes involving Lanthanides are called as a) Aluminothermic process c) Reduction process 12. ................... form oxocations a) Lanthanides a) +1 b) +2 b) Actinides c) +3 c) Noble gases d) +4 b) Steam distillation d) Sublimation Page : 6 d) Alkalimetals 13. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Lanthanides is 14. Lanthanides are separated by a) Fractional distillation c) Fractional Crystallisation
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b) Lanthanido - thermic process d) Oxidation process
6. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS AND BIO-COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

Choose the correct answer 1. Which a double salt a) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O a) K4[Fe(CN)6] a) Linear a) NO-2 a) tetrahedral a) +1 b)NaCl c) K4[Fe(CN)6] c) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 d) KCl 2. An example of a complex compound having coordination number 4 b)[Co(en)3]Cl3 d) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 3. The geometry of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ complex ion b) Tetrahedral b) Chloro c) Square planar c) Bromo d) en c) Octahedral d) -2 d) triangular d) Angular 4. An example of a chelating ligand is 5. The geometry of complex ion [Fe(CN6]4- is 6. The oxidation number of Nickel in the complex ion, [NiCl4]2- is b) -1 c) +2 7. Which is not an anionic complex? a) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 a) Tetrahedral a) CN8. The geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2- is
1 x 1= 1
9. An example of an ambidentate ligand is b) Cl10. [FeF6]4- is paramagnetic because a) F-is a weaker ligand c) F - is a flexidentate ligand a) Fe a) 2 b) Fe+2
11. In [FeII(CN)6]4- the central metal ion is
12. The coordination number of Ni (II) in [Ni(CN)4]2- is b) 4

IV
b) K4[Fe(CN)6] c) K3[Fe(CN)6] d) [NiCl4]2b) Square planar c) NO2c) Triangular d) Id) Octahedral b) F-is a strong ligand d) F - is a chelating ligand d) CNc) Fe+3 c) 5
2+
b) square planar
d) 6 b) Diamminedichloroplanitate (IV) d) Dichlorodiammineplatinum (IV) ion 4K + [Fe(CN6]4-, the complex ion is

+
13. The name of [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] is a) Diamminedichloroplatinum (IV) ion c) Diamminedichloroplatinum 14. For a compound K4[Fe(CN)6]
a) K+ b) CNc) FeII d) [Fe(CN)6]415. A metal ion from the first transition series forms an octahedral complex with magnetic moment of 4.9 BM and another octahedral complex which is diamagnetic. The metal ion is a) Fe2+ a) Debye unit
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b) Co2+
c) Mn2+
d) Ni2+ c) BM d) ergs Page : 7
16. Paramagnetic moment is expressed in b) K Joules
17. The type of isomerism found in the complexes [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]SO4 and [Co(SO4)(NH3)5]NO2 a) Hydrate isomerism c) Linkage isomerism b) Coordination isomerism d) Ionisation
18. Valence bond theory does not explain the property of complex compound a) geometry b) magnetic c) nature of ligand d) colour
7. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
Choose the correct answer:1. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by a) Mada curie a) rays 2. The most penetrating radiations are b) rays b) Pierre curie c) Henry Becquerrel d) Rutherford
1 x 1= 1
3. In the nuclear reaction, 92U238 a) 7, 5 b) 6, 4
4. Which one of the following particles is used to bombard 13Al27 to give 15p30 and a neutron a) particle a) decay b) deuteron
4
5. The reaction 5B8
6. Radioactivity is due to b) Stable nucleus
a) Stable electronic configuration c) Unstable nucleus
d) Unstable electronic configuration a) 3, 3 b) 5, 3
c) rays
82
d) All are equally penetrating
Pb206, the of and particles emitted are d) 8, 6
c) 4, 3
c) proton
d) neutron
Be8 takes place due to
b) decay
c) electron capture
d) positron decay
7. In the following radioactive decay, 92X232 c) 3, 5
89
y220 , how many and Particles are ejected. d) 5, 5
8. 92U235 nucleus absorbs a neutron and disintegrates into 54Xe139, 38Sr94 and x. What will be the product x? a) 3 neutrons b) 2 neutrons c) particle d) particle 9. Loss of a -particle is equivalent to a) Increase of one proton c) Both (a) and (b) b) Decrese of one neutron only d) None of these
10. Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor? a) Water b) Deuterium c) Some compound of uranium d) Cadmium Page : 8
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PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
8. SOLID STATE - II
Choose the correct answer. 1. The number of chloride ions that surrounds the central Na+ ion in NaCl crystal is .............. a) 12 a) =2d sin a) Unit cell b) 8 b) nd=2sin b) Space lattice c) 6 d) 4 d) n=2d sin d) Crystallography 2. The Braggs equation is c) 2=nd sin c) Primitive 3. A regular three dimensional arrangement of indentical points in space is called 4. The smallest repeating unit in space lattice which when repeated over and again results in the crystal of the given substance is called a) Space lattice a) Simple cubic a) NaCl 5. The crystal structure of CsCl is
1 x 1= 1
6. An example for Frenkel defect is b) AgCl
7. Semiconductors which exhibit conductivity due to the flow of excess negative electrons are called a) Super conductors b) n-type semiconductors b) Avogadro number d) 8 c) p-type semiconductors d) Insulators 8. In the Braggs equation for diffraction of X-rays, n represents a) The number of moles a) 6 b) 4
9. The number of close neighbours in a body centred cubic lattice of identical sphares is c) 12 10. The crystals which are good conductors of electricity and heat are a) Ionic crystals a) One unit cell a) Semiconductor a) 1 14. Rutile is a) TiO2 a) rectifiers a) NaCl b) Cu2O b) transistors b) AgCl c) MoS2 d) Ru d) all the above d) FeS 15. Semiconductors are used as c) solar cells c) CsCl 16. An example of metal deficiency defect
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11. In a simple cubic cell, each point on a corner is shared by b) Two unit cell b) Conductor c) 3
b) face-centred cubic c) Tetragonal c) CsCl d) FeS c) A quantum number b) Molecular crystals c) Metallic crystals c) 8 unit cell c) Superconductor d) 4 d) 4 unit cell d) Insulator b) 2
b) Crystal lattice
c) Unit cell
d) Isomorphism
d) Body centred cubic
d) Order of reflection
d) Covalent crystals
12. The ability of certain ultra cold substances to conduct electricity without resistance is called 13. The total number of atoms per unit cell is bcc is
Page : 9
9. THERMONYNAMICS - II
Choose the correct answer.
2 x 1= 2
1. The amount of heat exchanged with the surrounding at constant temperature and pressure is called a) E b) H c) S d) G 2. All the naturally occuring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to a) decrease of entropy c) increase in free energy a) q = w b) q = 0 4. When a liquid boils, there is a) an increase in entropy b) a decrease in entropy c) an increase in heat of vapourisation d) an increase in free energy a) Spontaneous c) Reversible b) increase in enthalpy d) decrease of free energy c) E = q d) PV = 0
3. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?
5. If G for a reaction is negative, the change is d) Equilibrium
6. Which of the following does not results in an increase in the entropy? a) crystallisation of sucrose from solution b) rusting of iron c) conversion of ice to water d) vaporisation of camphor a) H>0, S>0 c) H>0, S<0
7. In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible? b) H<0, S>0 d) H<0, S<0
8. Change in Gibbs free energy is given by a) G = H + TS c) G = H x TS 9. For the reaction 2Cl(g) a) +, b) +, +
b) Non-spontaneous b) G = H - TS d) None of the above Cl2(g), the signs of H and S respectively are c) , d) , +
10. CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - II

Choose the correct answer. 1. State of chemical equilibrium is a) dynamic b) stationery c) none d) both B is K1 and B
2 x 1= 2
2. If the equilibrium constants of the following reactions are 2A a) K1 = 2K2 b) K1 = 1/K2 c) K2 = (K1)2
2A is K2, then
d) K1 = 1/K22 Page : 10
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3. In the reversible reaction 2HI a) greater than Kc
H2 + I2, is c) Equal to Kc d) Zero 2NH3 , the maximum yield of ammonia will be obtained with the b) low pressure and low temperature d) high pressure and low temperature
b) less than Kc
4. In the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 process having
a) low pressure and high temperature c) high temperature and high pressure 5. For the homogeneous gas reaction at 600 K 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) a) (mol dm-3)-2 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) b) (mol dm-3)
c) (mol dm-3) 10
d) (mol dm-3)-9
6. Two moles of ammonia gas are introduced into a previously evacuated 1.0 dm3 vessel in which it partially dissociates at high temperature. At equilibrium 1.0 mole of ammonia remains. The equilibrium constant Kc for the dissociation is a) 27/16 (mole dm-3)2 c) 27/4 (mole dm-3)2
7. An equilibrium reaction is endothermic if K1 and K2 are the equilibrium constants at T1 and T2 temperature respectively and if T2 is greater than T1 than a) K1 < K2 b) K1 > K2 c) K1 = K2 d) None
Choose the correct answer
1. Hydrolysis of an ester by dilute HCl is an example for (a) Second order reaction (c) pseudo first order reaction (a) litre mol1sec1
ty
2. The unit of zero order rate constant is
b) 27/8 (mole dm-3)2 d) None
11. CHEMICAL KINETICS - II
1 x 1= 1
(b) zero order reaction
(d) first order reaction (c) sec1
(b) mol litre1 sec1
(d) litre2 sec1
3. The excess energy which a molecule must process to becom active is known as (a) kinetic energy (c) potential energy (a) k = Ae1/RT (b) threshold energy (d) activation energy (b) k = AeRT/Ea (c) k = AeEa/RT (d) k = AeEa/RT
4. Arrhenius equation is 5. The term A in arrhenius equation is called as (a) Probability factor (c) Collision factor (a) molecularity (c) rate (b) Activation of energy (d) Frequency factor (b) Order (d) rate constant Page : 11
6. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms that occur in the rate equation is called
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7. Reactions in which the reacting molecules resact in more than one way yielding different set of products are called (a) consecutive reactions (c) opposing reactions (a) 6.93 x 102 min1 (c) 6.932 x 102 min1 (b) parallel reactions (d) chain reactions (b) 0.693 x 102 min1 (d) 69.3 x 101 min1
8. The half life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. Then its rate constant is
9. For a reaction : aA bB, the rate of reaction is doubled when the concentratin of A is increased by your times. The rate of reaction is equal to (a) k [A]a 10. 2N2O5 d [NO2] (b) k [A] 4NO2 + O2, = k2 [N2O5] and (c) k [A]1/a d [N2O5] = k1[N2O5], dt d [O2 ] (d) k [A]
dt (a) 2k1 = 4k2 = k3
11. For a reaction, Ea = 0 and k = 4.2 x 105 sec1 at 300 K, the value of k at 310K will be (a) 4.2 x 105 sec1 (c) 7.4 x 104 sec1 (b) 8.4 x 105 sec1 (d) unpredictable
Choose the correct answer (a) electroosmosis (c) electrodialysis
1. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of an electric field is known as (b) cataphoresis (d) electrophoresis
2. Which one is the correct factor that explains the increase of rate of reaction by a catalyst (a) shap selectivity (b) particle size (c) increase of free energy (a) gas in liquid (a) emulsion (c) true solution (a) presence of change (c) absorption of light (a) temperature increases (c) pressure increases
R.ANNAMALAI
12. SURFACE CHEMISTRY
(d) lowering of activation energy (c) gas in solid (b) liquid in gas (d) solid in gas (b) colloidal solution (d) None (b) scattering of light (d) reflection of light (b) temperature decreases (d) concentration increases
= k3 [N2O5], the relation between k1, k2 and k3 is dt (b) k1 = k2 = k3 (c) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3 (d) 2k1 = k2 = k3
3 x 1= 3
3. Fog is a colloidal solution of 4. The phenomenon of Tyndalls effect is not observed in
5. The Tyndalls effect associated with colloidal particles is due to
6. In case of physical adsorption, there is desorption when
Page : 12
7. Colloidal medicines are more effective because (a) they are clean (b) they are easy to prepare (c) the germs more towards, them (a) O/W (a) Ni / 250C (c) Pd, partially inactivated by quinoline 10. For chemisorption, which is wrong (a) irreversivle (b) it requires activation energy (c) it forms multimolecular layers on adsorbate (d) surface compounds are formed 11. An emulsion is a colloidal solution of (a) two solids (b) two liquids 12. Colloids are purified by (a) precipitation (b) W/O (d) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed (c) O/O (d) W/W (b) Pt / 25C (d) Raney nickel 8. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulsion remains colourless then, the emulsion is 9. For selective hydrogenation of alkyness into alkene the catalyst used is
Choose the correct answer (a) neutralisation (a) Dalton
1. The process in which chemical change occurs on passing electricity is termed as ................ (b) hydrolysis (c) electrolysis (d) ionisation 2. The laws of electrolysis were enunciated first by ................... (b) Faraday (c) Kekule
3. When one coulomb of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to ........................ (a) equivalent weight (b) molecular weight (d) one gram (c) electrochemical equivalent
(c) two gases (d) one solid one liquid (d) filtration (b) coagulation (c) dialysis
13. ELECTRO CHEMISTRY - I
1 x 1= 1
(d) Avogadro
4. Faradays laws of electrolysis are related to ............... (a) atomic number of the cation (c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte (b) atomic number of the anion (d) speed of the cation
5. The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm1 cm1 at 25oC. Its equivalent conductance is .................. (a) 14 ohm1 cm2 eq1 (c) 1.4 ohm1 cm2 eq1 (b) 140 ohm1 cm2 eq1 (d) 0.14 ohm1 cm2 eq1
o
6. The equivalent conductivity of CH3COOH at 25 C is 80 ohm1 cm2 eq1 and at infinite dilution 400 ohm1 cm2 eq1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is ...................... (a) 1 (b) 0.2
R.ANNAMALAI
(c) 0.1
(d) 0.3 Page : 13
7. When sodium acetate is added to acetic acid, the degree of ionisation of acetic acid ................ (a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (b) it is only partially ionised (d) it has low density (d) becomes zero 8. NH4OH is a weak base because ............... (a) it has low vapur pressure (c) it is completely ionised
9. Which one of the following formulae represents Ostwalds dilution law for a binary electrolyte whose degree of dissociation is and concentration C. (a) K = (c) K = (1-) C (1-)C 2 (b) K = (d) K = 2C 1- 2C (1- )C (c) NaOH (d) H2SO4
10. Ostwalds dilution law is applicable in the case of the solution of ................ (a) CH3COOH 1 [H+] 11. Which one of the following relationship is correct? (a) pH =
[H+] 12. When 106 mole of a monobasic strong acid is dissolved in one litre of solvent, the pH of the solution is ...................... (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) less than 6 (d) more than 7 13. When pH of a solution is 2, the hydrogen ion concentration in moles litre - 1 is .............. (a) 1 X 1012 (a) 1 (b) 1 X 102 (c) 1 X 107 (d) 1 X 104 14. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 N NaOH solution is ................. (b) 101 (c) 13 (d) 1013
(c) log10 pH = [H+]
15. A solution which is resistant to changes of pH on addition of small amounts of an acid or a base is known as ................. (a) buffer solution (c) isohydric solution (b) true solution (d) ideal solution
(b) pH = log10 [H+] (d) pH = log10 1 [Acid] [Salt] (b) [H+] = Ka [Salt] (d) [H+] = Ka
(b) NaCl
16. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salt is given by ................. (a) [H+] = Ka
[Salt] [Acid] 17. Indicators used in acid - base titrations are .................. (c) [H+] = Ka [Acid] (a) strong organic acids (c) weak organic acids or weak organic bases
R.ANNAMALAI
(b) strong organic bases (d) non-eletrolysis Page : 14
18. For the titration between oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide, the indicator used in ............... (a) potassium permanganate (c) litmus (b) phenolphthalein (d) methyl orange
16. HYDROXY DERIVATIVES

Choose the correct answer. 1. Which has the highest boiling point? (a) CH3CH3 (a) Phenol (b) CH3OH (b) Alkanes (c) C2H5OH (c) Alcohols (d) C3H8 (d) Alkenes
1 x 1= 1
2. Which is soluble in H2O? 3. Order of reactivity of alcohol towards sodium metal is (a) primary < secondary > tertiary (b) primary > secondary > tertiary (c) primary < secondary < tertiary (d) primary > secondary < tertiary (a) propane
4. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol should be less than that of (b) formic acid (c) dimethyl ether (d) None of the above
5. Ethyl alcohol cannot be used as a solvent for CH3MgI because (a) CH3MgI reacts with alcohol giving methane (c) CH3MgI is converted to C2H5MgI (d) Alcohol is immicible with CH3MgI (b) The reaction between them is explosive in nature
6. When alcohols are converted to alkyl chlorides by thionyl chloride in presence of pyridine the intermediate formed is (a) sulphonium ion (b) chlorosulphonic acid (d) chlorosulphite (c) alkyl chlorosulphite
(b) 2o alcohol (c) 3o alcohol (d) None (b) 2-pentanone (d) pentanal (b) butan - 2 - ol (d) 2 - methyl propan - 2 - ol
7. On oxidation of an alcohol gives an aldehyde having the same number of carbon atoms as that of alcohol. The alcohol is (a) 1o alcohol (a) 1-pentanol (c) 3-pentanone (a) butan - 1 - ol (c) 2 methyl propan - 1 - ol
R.ANNAMALAI
8. A compound that gives a positive iodoform test is
9. The compound that racts fastest with Lucas reagent is
Page : 15
10. The ionization constant of phenol is higher than that of ethanol because (a) phenoxide ion is bulkier than ethoxide (b) phenoxide ion is sronger base than ethoxide (c) phenoxide ion is stablized through delocalisation (d) phenoxide ion is less stable than ethoxide ion 11. Among the following compounds strongest acid is (a) HC = CH (b) C6H6 o (b) (c) N + (c) C2H6 o(d) N + (d) CH3OH o 12. The most unlikely representation of resonance structures of p-nitrophenoxide ion is (a) o-
N o o(-)
13. p-nitrophenol is having lower pKa value than phenol because (a) phenol is more acide than p-nitro phenol
(b) anion of p-nitrophenol is more stabilised by resonance than that of phenol (c) degree of ionisation of p-nitro phenol is less than that of phenol (d) anion of p-nitrophenol is less stable than that of phenol 14. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with (a) (CH3)3COH (b) (CH3)2CHOH
15. When phenol is distilled with Zn dust it gives (a) benzaldehyde (a) benzoic acid (b) benzoic acid (b) benzene
16. A compound that undergoes bromination easily is 17. Isomerism exhibited by ethylene glycol is (a) position isomerism (c) functional isomerism (a) Na2CO3 solution (a) adipic acid
(c) CH3(CH2)2OH (c) toluene (d) benzene (c) phenol (d) toluene (b) chain isomerism (d) both (a) and (c) (b) nitrous acid (c) NaHCO3 (aqueous) (c) terephthalic acid (b) phthalic anhydride
(-)
N +
(-)
o-
(d) CH3CH2OH
18. Ethylene diamine is converted to ethylene glycol using (d) Baeyers reagent
19. Ethylene glycol forms terylene with (d) oxalic acid 20. 1 - propanol and 2 - propanolcan be best distinghished by (a) oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution (b) oxidation with acid dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution (c) oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution (d) oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution
R.ANNAMALAI
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21. Glycerol is used (a) as a sweeteing agent (b) in the manufacture of good quality soap (c) in the manufacture of nitro glycerin (d) in all the above 22. The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is (a) pentanol (a) 1 (a) Keiselghur (c) Nitro benzene (a) ICH2CH2I (b) 2 (b) propanol (c) 3 (c) glycerol (d) 0 (d) glycol 23. The number of secondary alcoholic group in glycerol is 24. The active component of dynamite is (b) Nitro glycerine (d) Trinitro toluene (b) CH2 = CH2 (c) CH2 = CHI (d) ICH = CHI
25. The reaction of ethylene glycol with PI3 gives
Choose the correct answer:
1. The isomerism exhibited by C2H5OC2H5 and CH3 O CH CH3 is | CH3 (a) Functional (b) metamerism (c) position 2. Which one of the following is simple ether? (a) CH3 O C2H5 (c) C2H5 O C2H5 (a) HI
3. Diethyl ether can be decomposed with (b) KMnO4
4. Oxygen atom of ether is (a) very active (a) Neutral (a) CH3COOH (a) Ethyl alcohol
17. ETHERS
(d) chain (b) C2H5 O CH3 (d) C3H7 O C2H5 (c) NaOH (d) H2O (b) Replacable (b) Acidic (c) oxidising (c) Basic (d) Amphoteric (c) CH3CH2OH (c) silver ethoxide (b) electrophilic addition (d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction (b) C2H5OC2H5 (b) diethylether
2 x 1= 2
(d) Comparatively inert
5. According to Lewis concept of acids and bases, ethers are 6. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in (d) C2H5NH2 (d) ethylmethyl ether 7. When ethyl Iodide is treated with dry silver oxide it forms 8. Williamsons synthesis is an example of (a) nucleophilic addition (c) electrophilic substitution
R.ANNAMALAI
Page : 17
9. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is (a) peroxide (a) Hoffmann reaction (c) Wurtz synthesis (b) oxide (c) TNT (d) superoxide 10. Ether is formed when alkylhalide is treated with sodium alkoxide. This method is known as (b) Williamsons synthesis (d) Kolbes reaction
18. CORBONYL COMPOUNDS

Choose the correct answer 1. The chain isomer of 2-methyl propanal is (a) 2-butanone (c) 2-methyl propanol (a) acetone (b) butanal (d) but 3 - ene - 2 - ol (c) ethyl alcohol (d) methyl acetate
1 x 1= 1
2. Schiffs reagent gives pink colour with 3. Isopropyl alcohol vapours with air over silver catalyst at 520 K give (a) tert.butyl alcohol (c) acetone (b) acetaldehyde (d) 2-propanol
4. Methyl ketones are usually characterised by (a) the Fehlings solution (c) the Schiffs test (a) 2-propanol
5. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to give ethyl methyl ketone? (b) 2-pentanone (c) 1-butanol 6. Formaldehyde polymerises to give (a) paraldehyde 7. Tollens reagent is
(a) ammoniacal cuprous chloride (c) ammoniacal silver nitrate (a) Cu2O (a) formaldehyde (c) benzaldehyde (b) CuO
(b) the iodoform test (d) the Tollens reagent (d) 2-butanol (b) paraformaldehyde (c) formalin (d) formic acid (b) ammoniacal cuprous oxide (d) ammoniacal silver chloride (d) Cu (c) CuO + Cu2O (b) acetaldehyde (d) trimethyl acetaldehyde
(b) acetaldehyde
8. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it gives a precipitate of 9. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
10. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of (a) electrophilic addition (c) nucleophilic substitution (a) phenol (b) benzoic acid (b) nucleophilic addition (d) electrophilic subtitution (c) benzyl alcohol (d) benzaldehyde Page : 18
11. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presernce of Pd on BaSO4 gives
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12. From which of the following, tertiary butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium iodide? (a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CO2
13. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and C2H5ONa the product formed is (a) RCH = NNH (b) RC = N
2
(c) R C NH2 || O 14. Aldol is (a) 2-hydroxy butanol (c) 3-hydroxy butanal
(d) R CH3
(b) 3-hydroxy butanol (d) 2-hydroxy butanal
15. In the reduction of acetaldehyde using LiAlH4 the hydride ion acts as (a) electrophile 16. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone are position isomers
(b) aqueous solution of formaldehyde is known as formalin (d) aldehydes act as reducing agents
(c) aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic substitution
17. A cyanohydrin of a compound X on hydrolysis gives lactic acid. THe X is (a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) (CH3)2 CO
18. The IUPAC name of CH3 C = CH C CH3 is | || O CH3 (a) 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one (c) 3-methylpent-2-en-1one
19. Which of the following does not give iodoform test? (a) aceto phenone (c) CH3 CHOH | CH3
(d) C6H5CH2CHO (b) 2-methylpent-3-en-2-one (d) None of these (b) benzophenone (d) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3 | OH (b) acetaldehyde (d) propionaldehyde The product is
(b) nucleophile
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) a free radical
20. The compound which does not reduce Fehling solution is (a) formaldehyde (c) benzaldehyde 21. CH3COCH3 (a) mesitylene (c) phorone
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Conc. H2SO4
(b) mesityl oxide (d) paraldehyde

Page : 19
22. Which compound on strong oxidation gives propionic acid? (a) CH3 CH CH3 | OH CH3 | CH3 C OH | CH3 (a) acetone (c) isopropyl alcohol (a) benzophenone (c) acetophenone ` (c) (b) CH3 CO CH3
(d) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
23. The compound used in the preparation of the tranquilizer, sulphonal is (b) acetophenone (d) glycol
distillation
24. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate
gives
(b) benzaldehyde (d) phenyl benzoate
25. Bakelite is a product of reaction between (a) formaldehyde and NaOH (c) aniline and NaOH
Choose the correct answer. (a) C2H5OH
1. Which of the following is least acidic (b) CH3COOH (b) Phenol 2. Weakest acid among the following is (a) Acetic acid
3. Ester formation involves the reaction of (a) an aldehyde and a ketone (b) an alcohol with RMgX
(b) phenol and methanal (d) phenol and chloroform
19. CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1 x 1= 1
(c) C6H5OH
(d) ClCH2COOH
(c) Water
(d) Acetylene
(c) Two molecules of an acid with dehydrating agent (d) an acylhalide with an alcohol 4. Heating a mixture of sodium acetate and soda lime gives (a) methane (a) acetic acid (b) ethane (b) benzoic acid (c) acetic acid (c) formic acid (d) oxalic acid (d) oxalic acid 5. The acid which reduces Tollens reagent is CH3 | 6. The IUPAC name of CH3 CH2 CH COOH is (a) - methyl butric acid (c) 2-methyl butanoic acid
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(b) 3-methyl butanoic acid (d) Iso pentanoic acid Page : 20
7. The Isomerism exhibited by CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOCH3 is (a) metamerism (a) acetic acid (b) position (b) formic acid (c) chain (c) butyric acid (d) functional (d) benzoic acid 8. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent 9. Which order of arrangement is correct iterms of the strength of the acid (a) CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH (b) ClCH2COOH < HCOOH < CH3COOH < CH3CH2COOH (c) CH3CH2COOH < CH3COOH < HCOOH < ClCH2COOH (d) HCOOH > CH3CH2COOH < CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH 10. The compound which does not undergo intermolecular dehydration with P2O5 is (a) acetic acid H 11. HO C=O
160oC
(b) formic acid The product is
(c) propionic acid
(d) Butyric acid
(a) CO + H2O
12. When chlorine is passed through acetic acid in presence of red P, it forms. (a) acetyl chloride (b) Trichloro acetaldehyde (c) Trichloro acetic acid (a) acetic acid (d) Methyl chloride
13. Which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt and CO2 ? (b) n-hexanol (c) phenol (d) both (a) and (c) 14. When propanoic acid is treated with aqueous sodium - bicarbonatate, CO2 is liberated. The C of CO2 comes from (a) methyl group (b) carboxylic acid group (d) bicarbonate (c) methylene group
15. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol because of (a) inter molecular hydrogen bonding (c) highly acidic hydrogen 16. Among the following the strongest acid is (a) ClCH2COOH (a) CH3CH2COOH (c) CH3CH(OH)COOH 18. CH3CH(OH)COOH (a) CH3COCOOH (c) CH3CHOHCHO
R.ANNAMALAI
(b) HCOOH (c) H2 + CO2 (d) HCHO + O2 (b) formation of dimers (b) Cl3CCOOH (c) CH3COOH (b) HOOCCH2COOH (d) Cl2CHCOOH ? The product is
(d) greater resonance stabilisation of their conjugate base (d) Cl2CHCOOH
17. Which of the following compound is optically active?
H2O2/Fe2+
(b) CH3CH2COOH (d) HOOCCH2COOH Page : 21
19. The compound found in some stony deposit in kidneys is (a) potassium oxalate (c) potassium succinate (a) oxalic acid (c) adipic acid (b) oxalic acid (d) calcium oxalate
20. Ethylene cyanide on hydrolysis using acid gives (b) succinic acid (d) propionic acid
20. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS 3 x 1= 3

Choose the correct answer 1. Bromo ethane reacts with silver nitrite to give (a) C2H5NO2 (b) C2H5ONO (c) C2H5Ag + NaBr O 2. The isomerism exhibited by CH3 CH2 N (a) position (a) Sn/HCl (a) CH3NH2 (b) chain (d) C2H5NC
3. In nitro alkanes NO2 group is converted to NH2 group by the reaction with (b) Zn dust (c) Zn/NH4Cl (d) Zn/NaOH
4. When nitromethane is reduced with Zn dust + NH4Cl in neutral medium, we get (b) C2H5NH2 (c) CH3NHOH (a) Toluene (d) C2H5COOH
5. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is (b) benzene (c) benzoic acid 6. Nitromethane condenses with acetaldehyde to give (a) nitro propane (c) 2-nitro-1-propanol
7. Which of the following compounds has the smell of bitter almonds? (a) aniline (c) benzene sulphonic acid (a) o-dinitro benzene (c) p-dinitro benzene (a) C6H5NH NHC6H5 (c) C6H5 N = N C6H5 (a) hydronium ion (c) nitronium ion (b) nitro methane (d) nitrobenzene
O (c) functional (d) tautomerism (d) nitrobenzene (b) 1-nitro-2-propanol (d) 3-nitro propanol (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene (d) m-dinitro benzene (b) C6H5 NHOH (d) C6H5.HSO4 (b) sulphonic acid (d) bromide ion Page : 22
and CH3 CH2 O N = O is
8. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in
9. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction in con. sulphuric acid, the intermediate formed is
10. Electrophile used in the nitration of benzene is
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11. The reduction of CH3 CH2 C = N with sodium and alcohol results in the formation of (a) CH3 CH CH3 NH2 (c) CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 (a) tetrahedral structure (b) presence of nitrogen atom (c) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom (d) high electronegativity of nitrogen 13. The organic compound that undergoes carbylamine reaction is (a) (C2H5)2NH (c) (C2H5)3N 14. Primary amine acts as (a) Electrophile (c) Lewis acid (b) C2H5NH2 (d) (C2H5)4 N+ I (d) CH3 CH2 NH2 12. The basic character of amines is due to the (b) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH + N2
15. Oxidation of aniline with acidified potassium dichromate gives (a) p-benzo quinone (c) benzaldehyde (a) aniline (b) benzoic acid (d) benzyl alcohol
16. Which one of the following is a secondary amine? (c) sec.butylamine 17. C6H5NH2 (a) C6H5Cl (c) C6H5N2Cl
NaNO 2/HCl
18. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation? (a) m-toluidine (c) p-amino (a) metallic sodium (b) an alkyl halide (c) chloroform and caustic potash (d) nitrous acid (b) aniline (d) benzyl amine
(b) lewis base (d) Free radical (b) diphenyl amine (d) tert.butylamine X. Identify X. (d) C6H5OH (b) C6H5NHOH
19. Anilin differs from ethylamine by the reaction with
20. When aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chloride is boiled the product formed is (a) benzyl alcohol (c) phenol
R.ANNAMALAI
(b) benzene + N2 (d) phenyl hydroxylamine

Page : 23
21. BIOMOLECULES
Choose the correct answer. 1. Which is a mono saccharide among the following (a) Sucrose (a) Sucrose 3. Sucrose is not (a) a di saccharide (c) hydrolysed to only glucose (a) C1 C1 (a) Br2/H2O (b) C1 C2 (b) a non - reducing sugar (d) hydrolysed to glucose & fructose (c) C1 C4 (d) C1 C6 (b) Cellulose (b) Cellulose (c) Maltose (c) Starch (d) Glucose (d) Glucose 2. Identify the reducing sugar.
2 x 1= 2
4. Sucrose contains glucose and fructose linked by 5. Glucose is not oxidised to gluconic acid by 6. Inversion of sucrose refers to (a) oxidation of sucrose
(c) hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose (a) di acetate (a) Glysine (b) tetra acetate (b) Alanine
7. Glucose forms __________with acetic anhydride and sodium acetate. (c) penta acetate 8. The amino acid without chiral carbon is 9. The building block of proteins are (a) -hydroxy acids
10. Which is not true of amino acid? (a) amino acid forms Z witter ion (c) dual behaviours (a) two dipeptides (a) two peptide units (c) an amido group 13. Proteins are not sensitive to (a) acids (b) bases
11. Two amino acids say A, B - react to give 12. A di peptide does not have
(b) Fehling solutions (c) Tollens reagent (b) reduction of sucrose (d) polymerisation of sucrose (d) hexa acetate (c) Proline (d) Thyrosine (b) -amino acids (c) -hydroxy acids (b) has isoelectric point (d) amino acid is insoluble in NaOH solution (c) four dipeptides (b) three dipeptides (d) only one (b) portions of two amino acids (d) salt like structure (c) elevated temperature (d) water
(d) Conc. HNO3
(d) -amino acids
14. Denaturation does not involve (a) breaking up of H - bonding in proteins (b) the loss of biological action of enzyme (c) the loss of secondary stucture (d) loss of primary structure of proteins
R.ANNAMALAI
Page : 24
15. Specificity of enzyme is due to (a) the sequence of amino acids (c) tertiary structure (a) aniline 17. Proteins are (a) polypeptides (a) starch (a) Wax (a) wax (b) polyacids (b) mineral oil (b) Cooking oil (b) cooking oil (c) poly phenols (c) edible oil (c) Essential oil (c) turpentine oil (d) poly esters (d) peptide (d) Albumin (d) cellulose 18. Which of the following contains a lipid? 19. Which among the following contains triglyceride? 20. Which contains a long chain ester? 21. An example of a fatty acid obtained from a cooking oil is (a) acetic acid (b) stearic acid 22. Which is not a saturated fatty acid? (a) Palmitic acid (a) soap (a) cellulose (a) lipid (b) aliphatic acid (b) secondary structure (d) all of the above (c) amino acid (d)aromatic acid
16. Ultimate products of hydrolysis of proteins is
23. Alkaline hydrolysis of cooking oil gives (b) glycerol (b) fat 24. Hair and nail contains
25. Important constituent of cell wall is (b) cellulose
(c) benzoic acid (c) Olei acid (d) oxalic acid (b) Stearic acid (d) Glyceric acid (c) fatty acid (d) both (a) and (b) (d) lipid (c) keratin (c) protein (d) vitamin ALL THE BEST All the Glitters are not Gold
R.ANNAMALAI
Page : 25

12th Chemsitry 1 Marks EnglishCHEMISTRY

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12th Chemsitry 1 Marks EnglishCHEMISTRY

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m o c . i a I l o A s i L v l A a k M . A w N w w .

HIGHER SECONDARY - SECOND YEAR

m o Compiled by: i.c a I l Mr.R.ANNAMALAI o A s i L v l A a k M . A w N w w .AN R

Higher Secondary - Second Year

Maximum Marks : 150

O E/LA SA VSA O - 1(1) - - 1(3) -

O E/LA SA VSA O - 1(1) - 1(5) - -

- 1(3) - 1(5) - 1(3) 1(1) -

- 1(1) 1(5) - 1(1) -

7 Nuclear Chemistry 8 Solid state

10 Chemical equilibrium-II 11 Chemical Kintics-II 12 Surface Chemistry

15 Isomerism in Organic Chemistry 16 Hydroxy Derivatives 17 Ethers

18 Carbonyl Compounds 19 Carboxylic Acids

20 Organic Nitrogen Compounds 21 Bio molecules 22 Chemistry in Action 23 Problem in Chemistry

30 / 30 15 / 21 7 / 12 3 / 6 & 1 Compulsory (Either or Type)

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - II CHEMICAL KINETICS - II SURFACE CHEMISTRY

ELECTRO CHEMISTRY - I HYDROXY DERIVATIVES ETHERS

CORBONYL COMPOUNDS CARBOXYLIC ACIDS BIOMOLECULES

ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS

HIGHER SECONDARY - SECOND YEAR

2. Dual character of an electron was explained by a) Bohr b) Heisenberg

4. The value of Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is a) 0.529 x 10-8cm

7. The energy of electron in an atom is given by En=

8. The bond order of Oxygen molecule is a) 2.5

9. The hybridisation in SF6 molecule is a) sp3 b)sp3d2 c) sp3d d) sp3d3

a) directly proportinal to its size

7. Which shows only - 1 oxidation state? b) Br

d) have stable electronic configuration

b) (n-1) d1-5 ns2 b) unpaired electrons

d) None of these d) none the above d) f-block elements

6. Paramagnetism is the property of a) paired electrons c) unpaired electrons

7. d-block elements form coloured ions because

a) They absorb some energy for d-s transition

2. The electronic configuration of Actinides is

d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state d) +4

4. The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is

b) Imperfect shielding of 4f electron

d) Imperfect shielding of 3d electron

c) gas lamp materials

d) none of the above

b) Lanthanido - thermic process d) Oxidation process

6. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS AND BIO-COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

11. In [FeII(CN)6]4- the central metal ion is

12. The coordination number of Ni (II) in [Ni(CN)4]2- is b) 4

d) 6 b) Diamminedichloroplanitate (IV) d) Dichlorodiammineplatinum (IV) ion 4K + [Fe(CN6]4-, the complex ion is

d) Ni2+ c) BM d) ergs Page : 7

16. Paramagnetic moment is expressed in b) K Joules

3. In the nuclear reaction, 92U238 a) 7, 5 b) 6, 4

5. The reaction 5B8

6. Radioactivity is due to b) Stable nucleus

a) Stable electronic configuration c) Unstable nucleus

d) Unstable electronic configuration a) 3, 3 b) 5, 3

d) All are equally penetrating

Pb206, the of and particles emitted are d) 8, 6

Be8 takes place due to

7. In the following radioactive decay, 92X232 c) 3, 5

y220 , how many and Particles are ejected. d) 5, 5

6. An example for Frenkel defect is b) AgCl

d) Body centred cubic

3. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?

5. If G for a reaction is negative, the change is d) Equilibrium

8. Change in Gibbs free energy is given by a) G = H + TS c) G = H x TS 9. For the reaction 2Cl(g) a) +, b) +, +

10. CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM - II