Jee Advanced 2

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.
, India
2013
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2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 2/ 36
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C. Question Paper Format
The question paper consisits of three parts ( Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of
three sections.
Section 1 contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct
Section 2 contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight questions relate to
four paragraph with two question on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has ONLY ONE
correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Section 3 Contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
D. Marking Scheme
For each question in section 1, you wil be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding
to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-
1) markwill be awarded.
For each question Section 2 and 3, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble correspond-
ing to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(-1) mark will be awarded.
Sol Solutions
PART-I_PHYSICS
Section-1
(One or more options correct type)
This section contains 8 Multiple Choice questions. Each Question has Four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of Which One or MORE are correct
01. Using the expression
2dsinu =
, one calculates thevalues of d by measuring the corre-
sponding angles
u
in the range 0 to 90
0
. The wavelength
is exactly known and the error in

u
is constant for all values of
u
. As
u
increases from 0
0
A) the absolute error in d remains constant.
B) the absolute error in d increases
C) the fractional error in d remains constant
D) the fractional error in d decreases.
Ans : D
Sol. ( ) ( ) 2dsin d sin u = u = constant K
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) d cos d sin dd 0 u u + u =
( ) ( ) ( ) d d tan dd u = u
Fractional error in d is
dd d
d tan
u
=
u
du =
constant (given).
tanu
increases with increase in
u
the above fraction decreases.
Again ( ) ( ) d tan dd
2sin
u = u
u
Absolute error in
d
is ( )
( )
2
d cos
dd
2sin
u u
=
u
du
and
are constant (given). Clearly dd decreases with increase in

u
.
02. Two non-conducting spheres of radii R
1
and R
2
and carrying uniform volume charge densi-
ties + and respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap, as showin in the
figure. At all points in the overlapping region.
Sol Solutions
A) the electrostatic field is zero
B) the electrostatic potential is constant
C) the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude
D) the electrostatic field has same direction.
Ans : C,D
Sol. At P, due to 1st sphere, 1 1
0
E r
3
=
c
due to 2nd sphere, 2 2
0
E r
3
=
c
( )
P 1 2 1 2
0 0
E E E r r x
3 3

= + = + =
c c
P
E is independent of
1
r or
2
r but depends upon constant vector
x
.
E
=constant V is variable.
03. The figure below shows the variation of specific heat capacity(C) of a solid as a function of
temperature (T).The temperature is increased continuously from 0 to 500 K at a constant
rate. Ignoring any volume change, the following statement(s) is (are) correct to a reason-
able approximation.
A) the rate at which heat is absorbed in the range 0-100 K varies linearly with temperature
T
B) heat absorbed in increasing the temperature from 0-100 K is less than the heat required
for increasing the temperature from 400-500K
C) there is no change in the rate of heat absorption in the range 400-500K
D) the rate of heat absirption increases in the range 200-300K
Ans : B,C,D
Sol Solutions
Sol. Rate of heat absorption
dQ
R
dt
=
dT
R mC
dt
=
dT
dt
is constant
R C
From T =0 to T =100K. The graph is not a straight line passing through origin.
c and hence R does not vary linearly with T

dQ m CdT =
} }
Q =m[area under C - T graph]
Q area.
From graph, the area from 0 to 100 K is less than the area from 400 to 500 K. Hence option
B is correct
From 400K to 500K, C and hence R is constant.
From 200K to 300K, C and hence R increases.
04. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen-like atom is 4.5
0
o , where
0
o is the
Bohr radius. Its orbital angular momentum is
3h
2t
. It is given that h is Planck constant and R
is Rydberg constant.The possible wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is(are)
A)
9
32R
B)
9
16R
C)
9
5R
D)
4
3R
Ans : A,C
Sol. Radius of nth orbit
2
n 0
n
r a
Z
=
( )
2 2
0 0
n n
4.5a a 4.5 1
Z Z
= =
( )
nh 3h
n 3 2
2 1
= =
t t
Substituting (2) in (1), Z =2
From Ridbergs equation,
2
2 2
1 2
1 1 1
RZ
n n
| |
=
|
\ .
Sol Solutions
n =3 to 1 transition :- 1
1
1 1 9
4R 1
9 32R
| |
= =
|
\ .
2
1 1 1 9
4R
4 9 5R
| |
= =
|
\ .
3
1 1
4R 1 3R
4
| |
= =
|
\ .
05. Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is
projected from the midpoint of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to the line. The
gravitational constant is G. The correct statement(s) is (are)
A) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodoies is
GM
4
L
B) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
GM
2
L
C) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
2GM
L
D) The energy of the mass m remains constant
Ans : B,D or B
Sol.
W KE = A
2
GMm 1 GM
2 mv v 2
L 2 2
= =
If t he gravitational PE of system of M,M and m is considered as P.E of m itself, (which is
reasonable only when m <<M)
Total energy of m can be taken as constant.
Sol Solutions
06. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a mass-less spring of force constant k, lying
on a frictionless horizontal plane. The other end of the spring is fixed. The particle starts
moving horizontally from its equilibrium position at time t =0 with an initial velocity u
0
.When
the speed of the particle is 0.5 u
0
, it collides elastically with a rigid wall. After this colli-
sion,
A) the speed of the particle when it returns to its equilibrium position is u
0
B) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the first time is
m
t
k
= t
C) the time at which the maximum compression of the spring occurs is
4 m
t
3 k
t
= .
D) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the second
time is
5 m
t
3 k
t
=
Ans : A,D
Sol. O to A :
0
v u coswt =
0
0
u 2 t 2 t T
u cos t
2 T 3 T 6
t t t
= = =
From conservation of energy, it will have a speed
0
u while crossing mean position every
time.
First time of crossing mean position
1
T 1 m 2 m
t 2t 2
3 3 K 3 K
t
= = = t =
Compression is max. when the particle reaches left extreme position. That time
2
T T 7T 7 m 7 m
t 2
3 4 12 12 K 6 K
t
= + = = t =
second time mean position crossing time
3
T T 5 5 m 5 m
t T 2
3 2 6 6 K 3 K
t
= + = = t =
Sol Solutions
07. A steady current I flows along an infinitely long hollow cylindrical conductor of radius R.
This cylinder is placed coaxially inside an infinite solenoid of radius 2R.The solenoid has n
turns per unit length and carries a steady current I. Consider a point P at a distance r from the
common axis. The correct statement(s) is (are)
A) In the region 0 <r <R, the magnetic field in non-zero
B) In the region R <r <2R, the magnetic field is along the common axis.
C) In the region R <r <2R, the magnetic field is tangential to the circle radius r, centered
on the axis.
D) In the region r >2R, the magnetic field is non-zero
Ans : A,D
Sol. At P : 0 <r <R, B due to current in pipe is zero but due to solenoid,
0
B nI 0 = =
At Q : R <r <2R, B due to solenoid is parallel to the common axis and that due to I in pipe
is tangential to the circle of radius r i.e. the two fields are perpendicualr to each other. Their
resultant will make some angle with common axis.
At S : r >2R, B =0 due to solenoid but it is non zero due to current in pipe.
08. Two vehicles, each moving with speed u on the same horizontal straight road, are approach-
ing each other. Wind blows along the road with velocity w. One of these vehicles blows a
whistle of frequency f
1
. An observer in the other vehicle hears the frequency of the whistle
to be f
2
. The speed of sound in still air is V. The correct statement(s) is (are)
A) If the wind blows from the observer to the source, f
2
>f
1
B) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f
2
>f
1
C) If the wind blows from observer to the source, f
2
<f
1
D) If the wind blows from the course to the observer, f
2
<f
1
Ans : A,B
Sol. f
2
>f
1
for any direction of motion of wind as there will be relative velocity of approach in
both the cases.
Sol Solutions
Section-2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices A,B,C and D.
Paragraph for Questions 9 to 10
A point charge Q is moving in a circular orbit of radius R in the x-y plane with an
angular velocity
e
. This can be considered as equivalent to a loop carrying a steady
current
Q
2
e
t
. A uniform magnetic field along the positive z-axis is now switched on,
which increases at a constant rate from 0 to B in one second. Assume that the raduis
of the orbit remains constant.The application of the magnetic field induces an emf in
the orbit. The induced emf is defined as the work done by an induced electric field in
moving a unit positive charge around a closed loop.It is known that, for an orbiting
charge, the magnetic dipole moment is proportional to the angular momentum with
a proportionality constant .
09. The magnitude of the induced electric field in the orbit at any instant of time during the time
interval of the magnetic field change is
A)
BR
4
B)
BR
2
C) BR D) 2BR
Ans : B
Sol.
( )
2
B 0 BR
E 2 R R E
1 2
| |
t = t =
|
\ .
10. The change in the magnetic dipole moment associated with the orbit, at the end of the time
interval of the magnetic field change, is
A)
2
BQR
B)
2
BQR
2
C)
2
BQR
2
D)
2
BQR
Ans : B or C
Sol. Induced electric filed will do work and it leads to change in KE of the particle
( ) ( ) Fdt mdv EQ mdv 1 = =
| |
dt 1 =
Dipole moment
2 2
QV QVR
R I R
2 R 2
= t = t =
t
R,Q are constant
QR
d dv
2
| |
=
|
\ .
,
( ) ( )
2
dv d 2
QR
=
Sol Solutions
Substituting (2) in (1)
( ) ( )
2
EQ m d
QR
=
BR 1 d
Q
2 r R
| | | |
=
| |
\ . \ .
[
It is given that,
r
L 2m
u
= =
]
2
rBR
d
2
u
= . d may be +ve or ve depending upon sense of revolution (clockwise or
anticlockwise) of the particle.
The mass of a nucleus
A
Z
X is less than the sum of the masses of(A-Z) number of neu-
trons and Z number of protons in the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corre-
sponding mass difference is known as ther binding energy of the nucleus. A heavy
nucleus of mass M can break into two light nuclei of masses m
1
and m
2
only if (m
1
+
m
2
) < M. Also two light nuclei of mass m
3
and m
4
can undergo complete fusion and
form a heavy nucleus of mass M
1
only if (m
3
+ m
4
) > M
1
. The masses of some neutral
atoms are given in the table below.
1
1
H 1.007825 u
2
1
H 2.014102u
3
1
H 3.016050u
4
2
He 4.002603 u
6
3
Li 6.015123 u
7
3
Li 7.016004 u
70
30
Zn 69.925325 u
82
34
Se 81.916709 u
152
64
Gd 151.919803 u
206
82
Pb 205.974455 u
209
83
Bi 208.980388 u
210
84
Po 209.982876 u
11. The correct statement is
A) The nucleus
6
3
Li can emit an alpha particle
B) The nucleus
210
84
Po can emit a proton
C) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion
D) The nuclei
70
30
Zn and
82
34
Se can undergo complete fusion
Ans : C
Sol. A :
6 4 2
3 2 1
Li H o +
Here sum of masses of products is more than the mass of
6
3
Li . Hence this is not possible
Sol Solutions
B :
210 1 209
0 1 83
P H Bi +
This is also not possible as sum of masses
1
1
H and
209
83
Bi is more than that of
210
84 0
P .
C :
2 4 6
1 2 3
H Li + o
Sum of the masses of
2
1
H and
4
2
o is more than that of
6
3
Li . Hence this reaction is pos-
sible.
70 82 152
30 34 64
Zn Se Gd +
This is not possible.
12. The kinetic energy (in keV) of the alpha particle, when the nucleus
210
84
Po at rest undergoes
alpha decay, is
A) 5319 B) 5422 C) 5707 D) 5818
Ans : A
Sol.
210 4 206
84 0 2 82
P Pb o +
mass deffect ( ) ( )
1 2
M M m m 209.982876 4.002603 205.974455 0.00582amu A = + = + =
aviable energy E 0.00582 931.5 5.419467MeV A = =
Momentum is same in magnitude for o and Pb.
2
Pb a
Pb
K M P
K
2m K M
o
= =
( )
Pb Pb
Pb
Pb Pb
K M M
1 1 K K K
K M M M
o
o o
o o
| |
+ = + +
|
+ \ .
Pb
Pb
M 205.974455
K E 5.419467 5.31616MeV 5316.16KeV
M M 209.977058
o
o
| |
= A = = =
|
+ \ .
A small block of mass 1kg is released from rest at the top of a rough track.The track
is a circular arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track without toppling
and a frictional force acts on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous
velocity.The work done in overcoming the friction up to the point Q, as shown in the
figure below, is 150J. (Take the acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms
-2
).
Sol Solutions
13. The speed of the block when it reaches the point Q is
A) 5 ms
-1
B) 10 ms
-1
C)
1
10 3ms
D) 20 ms
-1
Ans: B
Sol.
0 2
1
mgRsin30 150 mv
2
=
( )
2 1
1 1
1 10 40 150 1 v v 10ms
2 2

= =
14. The magnitude of the normal reaction that acts on the block at the point Q is
A) 7.5 N B) 8.6 N C) 11.5 N D) 22.5 N
Ans : A
Sol.
2
0
mv
N mgcos60
R
=
( ) ( ) 1 100 1
N 1 10 7.5N
2 40
= + =
A thermal power plant produces electric power of 600kW at 4000V, which is to be
transported to a place 20 km away from the power plant for consumers usage. It can
be transported either directly with a cable of large current carrying capacity or by
using a combination of step-up and step-down transformers at the two ends. The
drawback of the direct transmission is the large energy dissipation. In the method
using transformers, the dissipation is much smaller. In this method, a step-up trans-
former is used at the plant side so that the current is reduced to a smaller value. AT
the consumers end a step-down transformer is used to supply power to the consum-
ers at the specified lower voltage. It is reasonable to assume that the power cable is
purely resistive and the transformers are ideal with a power factor unity. All the
current and voltages mentioned are rms values.
Sol Solutions
15. If the direct transmission method with a cable of resistance
1
0.4 km
O is used, the power

dissipation (in %) during transmission is
A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50
Ans : B
Sol. Current produced
5
0
3
0
P 6 10
I 150A
V 4 10
= = =
Resistance of cable
R 0.4 20 8 = = O
.
Percentage of power disspation when compared with produced power
( )
2
2
5
0
150 8 I R
100 30
P 6 10
= = =
16. In the method using the transformers assume that the ratio of the number of turns in the
primary to that in the secondary in the step-up transformer is 1:10.If the power to the con-
sumers has to be supplied at 200V, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to that in
the secondary in the step- down transformer is
A) 200 : 1 B) 150 : 1 C) 100 : 1 D) 50 : 1
Ans : A
Sol. At the step-up transformed, output voltage v
1
is given by
4 1
1 3
v 10
v 4 10 v
4 10 1
= =
This is input voltage to the step down transformed . Its output voltage v
2
is given as 200v.
The ratio number of turns in step-down transformed
4
4 10
200
200
= = .
Section-3
(Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for lists have choices A,B,C and D out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
LIST - I LIST - II
P) Boltzmann constant 1) [ML
2
T
1
]
Q) Coefficient of viscosity 2) [ML
1
T
1
]
R) Plank constant 3) [MLT
-3
K
-1
]
S) Thermal conductivity 4) [ML
2
T
2
K
1
]
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 3 1 2 4 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 4 2 1 3 D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : C
Sol. Conceptual
Sol Solutions
18. A right angled prism of refractive index
1
is placed in a rectangular block of refractive
index
2
, which is surrounded by a medium of refractive index
3
, as shown in the figure.
A ray of light e enters the rectangular block at normal incidence. Depending upon the
relationships between
1 2
, and
3
it takes one of the four possible paths ef, eg, eh or
ei.
Match the paths in List I with conditions of refractive indices in List II and select the cor-
rect answer using the codes given below the lists:
LIST -I LIST - II
P)
e f
1)
1 2
2 >
Q) e g 2)
2 1
> and
2 3
>
R)
e h
3)
1 2
=
S)
e i
4)
2 1 2
2 < < and
2 3
>
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 2 3 1 4 B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 1 2 3 D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : D
Sol. Conceptual
19. Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the
end products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
LIST - I LIST - II
P) Alpha decay 1)
15 15
8 7
O N ...... +
Q)
+
|
decay 2)
238 234
92 90
U Th .......... +
R) Fission 3)
185 184
83 82
Bi Pb ........... +
S) Proton emission 4)
239 140
94 57
Pu La .......... +
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 2 1 3 B) 1 3 2 4
C) 2 1 4 3 D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : C
Sol. Conceptual
Sol Solutions
20. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken along two cyclic processes
E F G E
and
E F H E
as shown in the PV diagram.The processes involved are purely
isochoric. isobaric, isothermal or adiabatic.
Match the path in List I with the magnitudes of the work done in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
LIST - I LIST - II
P)
G E
1) 160 P
0
V
0
ln2
Q)
G H
2) 36 P
0
V
0
R)
F H
3) 24 P
0
V
0
S)
F G
4) 31 P
0
V
0
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 3 2 1 B) 4 3 1 2
C) 3 1 2 4 D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : A
Sol.
E H
:
5/3
r r 0 H
1 1 2 2 H 0
0 0
32P V
PV P V V 8V
P V
| |
= = =
|
\ .
( )
G E 0 0 0 0 0
W P 32V V 31P V
= =
( )
G H 0 0 0 0 0
W P 32V 8V 24P V
= =
Sol Solutions
PART-II_CHEMISTRY
Section-1
21. The correct statement(s) about O
3
is (are)
A) O O bond lengths are equal
B) Thermal decomposition of O
3
is endothermic
C) O
3
is diamagnetic in nature D) O
3
has a bent structure
Ans : A,C,D
Sol.
3
O exihibits resonance ; its formation is endothermic but decomposition is exothermic ; it
is diamagnetic with ben strucuture
22. In the nuclear transmutation
9 8
4 4
Be X Be Y + + (X,Y) is (are)
A) ( ) ,n B) (p,D) C) (n,D) D) ( ) ,p
Ans : A,B
Sol.
9 0 8 1
4 0 4 0
Be Be n + +
9 0 8 2
4 0 4 1
Be P Be D + +
23. The carbon based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of
A) tin from
2
SnO B) iron from
2 3
Fe O
C) aluminium from
2 3
Al O D) magnesium from
3 3
MgCO .CaCO
Ans : C,D
Sol.
2
SnO C 8n CO + +
2 3
Fe O C Fe CO + +
But
2 3
Al O and dolamite cannot be reduced
24. The thermal dissociation equilibrium of ( )
3
CaCO s is studied under different conditions.
( ) ( ) ( )
3 2
CaCO s CaO s CO g +
For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is (are)
A)
H A
is dependent on T
B) K is independent of the initial amount of
3
CaCO
C) K is dependent on the pressure of
2
CO at given T
D)
H A
is independent of the catalyst, if any
Ans : A,B,D
Sol Solutions
Sol. (1) BH depends on T but not an catalyst
(2) K is independenc of conc.
25. The
sp
K of
2 4
Ag CrO is
12
1.1 10
at 298K. The solubility (in mol/L) of

2 4
Ag CrO in 0.1M
3
AgNO solution is
A)
11
1.1 10
B)
10
1.1 10
C)
12
1.1 10
D)
9
1.1 10
Ans : B
Sol.
( )
2
2
sp 4
K Ag CrO
+
( =

( ) ( )
2
12 2
4
1.1 10 0.1 CrO

=
( )
2
4
CrO
= solubility =1.1 10
10
26. In the following reaction, the product(s) formed is (are)
OH
CH
3
CHCl
3
OH
-
?
(P)
OH
CH
3
OHC
CHO
(Q)
O
CHCl
2
H
3
C
(R)
OH
CHCl
2
H
3
C
(S)
OH
CH
3
CHO
A) P (major) B) Q (minor) C) R (minor) D) S (major)
Ans : D
Sol. Reimer teimann reaction
OH
CH
3
CHCl
3
OH
-
OH
CH
3
CHO
Sol Solutions
27. The major product(s) of the following reaction is (are)
OH
SO
3
H
aqueous Br
2
(3.0 equivalents)
?
A) P B) Q C) R D) S
Ans : B
Sol.
OH
SO
3
H
+3Br
2
OH
Br
Br
Br
28. After completion of the reactions (I and II), the organic compound(s) in the reaction mix-
tures is(are)
Reaction I :
H
3
C CH
3
O
(1.0 mol)
Br
2
(1.0 mol)
aqueous/NaOH
Reaction II :
H
3
C CH
3
O
(1.0 mol)
Br
2
(1.0 mol)
CH
3
COOH
(P)
H
3
C CH
2
Br
O
(Q)
H
3
C CBr
3
O
(R)
Br
3
C CBr
3
O
(S)
BrH
2
C CH
2
Br
O
(T)
H
3
C ONa
O
(U) CHBr
3
A) Reaction I : P and Reaction II : P
B) Reaction I : U, acetone and Reaction II : Q, acetone
C) Reaction I : T,U, acetone and Reaction II : P
D) Reaction I : R, acetone and Reaction II : S, acetone
Sol Solutions
Ans : C
Sol. Acetone +Br +NaOh
3 3
CH COONa CHBr +
3
CH COOH
3 3 2 3 2
CH C CH Br CH C CH Br +
O O
Section-2
(Paragraph Type)
Paragraph for Question 29 and 30
A fixed mass m of a gas is subjected transformation of states from K to L to M to N
and back to K as shown in the figure
K
L
M N
Pressure
Volume
29. The succeeding operations that enable this transformation of states are
A) Heating, cooling, heating, colling B) Cooling, heating, cooling, heating
C) Heating, cooling, cooling, heating D) Cooling, heating, hetaing, cooling
Ans : C
Sol.
K L
expantion which needs heating
L M
Isochloric which needs heating process
M N
Isobaric which needs cooling process
N K
Isochoric which needs heating process
30. The pair of isochoric processes among the transformation of state is
A) K to L and L to M B) L to M and N to K
C) L to M and M to N D) M to N and N to K
Ans : B
Sol. Conceptual
Sol Solutions
The reactions of Cl
2
gas with cold-dilute and hot-concentrated NaOH in water give
sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q, respectively. The Cl
2
gas reacts with SO
2
gas, in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with
white phosphorus to give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phos-
phorus T.
31. P and Q, respectively, are the sodium salts of
A) hypochlorus and chloric acids B) hypochlorus and chlorus acids
C) chloric and perchloric acids D) chloric and hypochlorus acids
Ans : A
Sol.
2 2
NaOH Cl NaCl NaClO H O + + +
Salt of HOCl
cold
Salt of HOCl
3
hot
2 3 2
NaOH Cl NaCl NaClO H O + + +
32. R,S and T respectively, are
A)
2 2 5
SO Cl ,PCl and
3 4
H PO B)
2 2 3
SO Cl ,PCl and
3 3
H PO
C)
2 3
SOCl ,PCl and
3 2
H PO D)
2 5
SOCl ,PCl and
3 4
H PO
Ans : A
Sol.
2 2 2 2
SO Cl SO Cl +
2 2 5
SO Cl P PCl +
5 2 3 4
PCl H O H PO HCl + +
An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute
HCl, gave a precipitate (P) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate P was found to dissolve
in hot water. The filtrate (Q) remained unchanged, when treated with H
2
S in a dilute
mineralacid medium. However, it gave a precipitate (R) with H
2
S in an ammoniacal
medium. The precipitate R gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with
2 2
H O in
an aqueous NaOH medium.
Sol Solutions
33. The precipitate P contains
A)
2
Pb
+
B)
2
2
Hg
+
C) Ag
+
D)
2
Hg
+
Ans : A
Sol.
2
PbCl is soluble is hot water
34. The coloured solution S contains
A) ( )
2 4
3
Fe SO B)
4
CuSO C)
4
ZnSO D)
2 4
Na CrO
Ans : D
Sol.
2 4
Na CrO is coloured solution.
P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid
4 4 4
C H O . Both decolorize
2 2
Br /H O. On heat-
ing P forms the cyclic anhydride.
Upon treatment with dilute alkaline
4
KMnO , P as well as Q could produce one or
more than one from S,T and U.
(S)
COOH
H OH
COOH
H OH
(T)
COOH
H OH
COOH
HO H
(U)
COOH
HO H
COOH
H OH
35. Compounds formed from P and Q are, respectively
A) Optically active S and optically active pair (T,U)
B) Optically inactive S and optically inactive pair (T,U)
C) Optically active pair (T,U) and optically active S
D) Optically inactive pair (T,U) and optically inactive S
Ans : B
Sol. P malie acid (cis compound)
Q fumeric acid (trans compound)
4
KMnO
OH
P

meso compound S
4
KMnO
OH
Q

resmic mixture (T & U)
Sol Solutions
36. In the following reaction sequences V and W are, respectively
2
/ H Ni
Q V
A
+V
AlCl
3
(anhydrous)
1.Zn-Hg/HCl
2.H
3
PO
4
W
A)
O
O
O
V
and
O
W
B)
CH
2
OH
CH
2
OH
V
and
W
C)
O
O
O
V
and
W
D)
HOH
2
C
CH
2
OH V
and
CH
2
OH
W
Ans : A
Sol.
Fumeric acid
2
H / Ni
Butane dioic acid
A
O
O
O
O
O
O
+
3
AlCl
acylation
2 2
CH CH COOH
An Hg/HCl
2 2
CH CH CH COOH
3 4
H PO
O
Sol Solutions
Section-3
37. Match the chemical conversions in List I with the appropriate reagents in List II and select
the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
P)
Cl
1) ( ) ( ) ( )
4
2
i Hg OAc ; ii NaBH
Q)
ONa
OEt
2) NaOEt
R)
OH
3) EtBr
S)
OH
4) ( ) ( )
3 2 2
i BH ; ii H O / NaOH
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 2 3 1 4 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 3 4 1 D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : A
Sol.
Cl
C
2
H
5
ONa
;
ONa +C
2
H
5
Br
OC
2
H
5
Oxymeruration
demeruration
OH
;
Hydroboration
oxidation
OH
Sol Solutions
38. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List I show missing reagent or condition (?)
which are provided in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists :
List I List II
P)
?
2 2 4 4 2
PbO H SO PbSO O + + + other product 1) NO
Q)
?
2 2 3 2 4
Na S O H O NaHSO + +other product 2)
2
I
R)
?
2 4 2
N H N + other product 3) Warm
S)
?
2
XeF Xe + other product 4)
2
Cl
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 2 3 1 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 1 4 2 3 D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : D
Sol.
warm
2 2 4 4 2 2
PbO H SO PbSO O H O + + +
2
Cl
2 2 3 2 4
Na S O H O NaHSO S HCl + + +
2 4 2 2
N H I N HI + +
2
XeF NO Xe NOF + +
39. The standard reduction potential data at 25
0
C is given below.
( )
0 3 2
E Fe ,Fe 0.77V
+ +
= + ;
( )
0 2
E Fe ,Fe 0.44V
+
=
( )
0 2
E Cu ,Cu 0.34V
+
= + ;
( )
0
E Cu ,Cu 0.52V
+
= +
( )
0
2 2
E O g 4H 4e 2H O 1.23V
+
( + + = +

( )
0
2 2
E O g 2H O 4e 4OH 0.40V

( + + = +

( )
0 3
E Cr ,Cr 0.74V
+
=
( )
0 2
E Cr ,Cr 0.91V
+
=
Match
0
E
of the redox pair in List I with the values given in List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists :
Sol Solutions
List I List II
P) ( )
0 3
E Fe ,Fe
+
1) 0.18V
Q) ( )
0
2
E 4H O 4H 4OH
+
+ 2) 0.4V
R) ( )
0 2
E Cu Cu 2Cu
+ +
+ 3) 0.04V
S) ( )
0 3 2
E Cr ,Cr
+ +
4) 0.83V
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 1 2 3 B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 2 3 4 D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : D
Sol. Conceptual
40. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous solution of Y as shown in List I. The
variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in List II. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
P)
( )
2 5 3
3
C H N CH COOH +
X
Y
1) Conductivity decreases and then increases
Q)
X
Y
( ) ( )
3
KI 0.1M AgNO 0.01M +
2) Conductivity decreases and then does not change much
R)
X
Y
3
CH COOH KOH +
3) Conductivity increases and then does not chnage much
S)
X Y
NaOH HI +
4) Conductivity does not change much and then increases
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 3 4 2 1 B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 3 4 1 D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : A
Sol. Conceptual
Sol Solutions
PART-III_MATHEMATICS
Section-1
41. Let
3 i
w
2
+
= and { }
n
P w : n 1,2,3,... = = . Further 1
1
H z C:Rez
2

= e >
`
)
and
2
1
H z C: Rez
2

= e <
`
)
, where C is the set of all complex numbers. if
1 1
z P H e ,
2 2
z P H e and O represents the origin, then
1 2
z Oz Z =
A)
2
t
B)
6
t
C)
2
3
t
D)
5
6
t
Ans: C,D
Sol :From diagram
1 2
2 5
z z ,
3 6
t t
=
42 If
x x 1
3 4

=
then x=
A)
3
3
2log 2
2log 2 1
B)
2
2
2log 3
C)
2
1
1 log 3
D)
2
2
2log 3
2log 3 1
Ans:- A,B,C
Sol:
3
3 2
2log 2 2
xlog3 (x 1)log4 x
2log 2 1 2 log 3
= = =

43. Let e be a complex cube root of unity with
1 e =
and
ij
P p ( =

be a
n n
matrix with
i j
ij
p
+
= e . Then
2
p 0 = , when n=
A) 57 B) 55 C) 58 D) 56
Sol Solutions
Ans:- B,C,D
Sol:
4 6 8 2n 2
2
P 0 w w w .............. w 0
+
= + + + + =
4 2n
2n
2
w (1 w )
0 w 1 n 55,58,56
1 w
= = =
44. The function ( ) f x 2x x 2 x 2 2x = + + + has a local minimum or a

local maximum at x=
A) -2 B)
2
3
C) 2 D)
2
3
Ans:- A,B
Sol: f(x) = 0 for
2
x 2, ,0,2
3
=
f(x) has extremum at
2
x 2,
3
=
45. For
a R e
(the set of all real numbers), a 1, =
( )
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
a a a
a 1
n
1 2 ... n
1
lim
60
n 1 na 1 na 2 ... na n
+ + +
=
+ + + + + + + (

Then a=
A) 5 B) 7 C)
15
2
D)
17
2
Ans:- B,D
Sol: -
1
a
0
1
n
0
x dx
1 2 1 17
Lt a 7 or
(a 1) (2a 1) 60 2
(a x)dx
= = =
+ +
+
}
}
46. Circle(s) touching x-axis at a distance 3 from the origin and having
an intercept of length
2 7
on y-axis is (are)
A)
2 2
x y 6x 8y 9 0 + + + = B)
2 2
x y 6x 7y 9 0 + + + =
C)
2 2
x y 6x 8y 9 0 + + = D)
2 2
x y 6x 7y 9 0 + + =
Ans:- A,C
Sol Solutions
Sol:
2 2 2
x 2gx c (x 3) x 6x 9 + + = = +
2
2 f 9 2 7 f 4 = =
47. Two lines
1
y z
L : x 5,
3 2
= =
o
and
2
y z
L : x ,
1 2
= o =
o
are coplanar. Then
o can take value(s)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Ans:- A,D
Sol: lines are x - 5 = 0, 2y (3 )z 0 + o =
x , (2 )y z 0 = o o + =
since lines are coplanar
0 3 2
0 1 2 0
5 0 0
o
o =
o
2
( 5)( 5 4) 0 1,4 o o o + = o =
48. In a triangle PQR, P is the largest angle and
1
cosP
3
=
. Further the
incircle of the triangle touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at N,L and
M respectively, such that the lengths of PN, QL and RM are con-
secutive even integers. Then possible lengths of the sides of the
triangle is (are)
A) 16 B) 18 C) 24 D) 22
Ans:- B,D
P
R
Q
N
M
L
2K
2K+2
2K+4 2K+2
2K+4
2K
Sol Solutions
Sol:
2 2 2
1 (4k 4) (4k 4) (4k 6)
cosP
3 2(4k 2)(4k 4)
+ + + +
= =
+ +
2 2 2 2 2
2
(2k 1) (2k 2) (2k 3) 4k 4 k 1
4
8(2k 1)(2k 2) 4(2k 1)(k 1) 2k 3k 1
+ + + +
= = =
+ + + + + +
2 2
3k 3 2k 3k 1 = + +
2
k 3k 4 0 =
(k-4)(k+1)=0
k =4
sides: 18, 22
But B D options are correct
Section-2
(Paragraph Type)
Let
1 2 3
S S S S , = where
{ }
1 2
z 1 3i
S z C: z 4 ,S z C: Im 0
1 3i
(
+
= e < = e >
` (
)
and
{ }
3
S z C: Rez 0 = e >
49. Area of S=
A)
10
3
t
B)
20
3
t
C)
16
3
t
D)
32
3
t
50.
z S
min1 3i z
e
=
A)
2 3
2
B)
2 3
2
+
C)
3 3
2
D)
3 3
2
+
Sol: Q.No.: 49 & 50
2 2 2
1
S x y 4 = + < ,
2 m
(x 1) i(y 3)
S I 0
1 3i
(
+ +
= >
(

3(x 1) y 3 0 3x y 0 + + > + >
3
S x 0 = >
Sol Solutions
P(1,-3)
x
y
3
t
3x y 0 + =
49 Ans:- B
Area of
2 2
1 1
S 4 4 20
4 2 3 3
t t
= t + =
50. Ans:- C
min 1 3i z = perpendicular distance from (1, -3)
the line
3x y 0 + =
3 3
3 3
2 2

= =
Paragraph for Questions 51 and 52
A box
1
B contains 1 white ball, 3 red balls and 2 black balls. An-
other box
2
B contains 2 white balls, 3 red balls and 4 black balls.
A third box
3
B contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5 black
balls.
51. If 1 ball is drawn from each of the boxes
1 2
B ,B and
3
B , the probabil-
ity that all 3 drawn balls are of the same colour is
A)
82
648
B)
90
648
C)
558
648
D)
566
648
52. If 2 balls are drawn (without replacement) from a randomly se-
lected box and one of the balls is white and the other ball is red,
the probability that these 2 balls are drawn from box
2
B is
A)
116
181
B)
126
181
C)
65
181
D)
55
181
Sol Solutions
Sol: Q.No.: 51 & 52
B
1
B
2
B
3
1e 2e 3e
3R 3R 4R
2B
6
4B
9
5B
12
51. Ans:- A
Prob = www (or) RRR (or) BBB
=
1 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 5 82
6 9 12 6 9 12 6 9 12 648
= + + =
52. Ans: D
9
2
6 9 12
2 2 2
1 2 3
55 3 C
Prob
1 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 4
181
3 C 3 C 3 C
= =

+ +
Let
| |
f : 0,1 R (the set of all real numbers) be a function. Suppose
the function f is twice differentiable, ( ) ( ) f 0 f 1 0 = = and satisfies
( ) ( ) ( ) | |
x
f " x 2f ' x f x e ,x 0,1 + > e .
53. Which of the following is true for 0<x<1 ?
A) ( ) 0 f x < < B) ( )
1 1
f x
2 2
< <
C) ( )
1
f x 1
4
< <
D) ( ) f x 0 < <
54. If the function ( )
x
e f x
assumes its minimum in the interval

| |
0,1 at
1
x
4
=
, which of the following is true ?
A) ( ) ( )
1 3
f ' x f x , x
4 4
< < <
B) ( ) ( )
1
f ' x f x ,0 x
4
> < <
C) ( ) ( )
1
f ' x f x ,0 x
4
< < <
D) ( ) ( )
3
f ' x f x , x 1
4
< < <
Sol Solutions
Sol: Q.No.: 53 & 54
53 Ans: D
11 1 n
f (x) 2f (x) f (x) e + >
x 11 1
e (f (x) 2f (x) f (x) 1
+ >
x 11
e g (x) 1
>
11
g (x) 0 >
g(x) 0 x (0,1) < e
x
e f (x) 0 x (0,1)
< e
f (x) 0 x (0,1) < e
54. Ans: C
x
g(x) e f (x)
=
1 x 1
g (x) e (f (x) f (x)) 0
= =
at x = 1/ 4
From graph
1
0 x
4
< <
g(x) is decreasing
1
g (x) 0 <
x 1 1
e (f (x) f (x) 0 f (x) f (x) 0
< <
1
f (x) f (x) <
Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola
2
y 4ax = . The tangents to
the parabola at P and Q meet at a point lying on the line
y 2x a,a 0 = + >
55. Length of chord PQ is
A) 7a B) 5a C) 2a D) 3a
56. If chord PQ subtends an angle
u
at the vertex of
2
y 4ax = , then
tanu =
A)
2
7
3
B)
2
7
3
C)
2
5
3
D)
2
5
3
Sol Solutions
Sol:
55. Ans:- B
1
a t a
t
| |
=
|
\ .
,
2
1
t 1
t
=
,
2
1 1
t t 4 5
t t
| | | |
+ = + =
| |
\ . \ .
2
1
PQ a t 5a
t
| |
= + =
|
\ .
56. Ans:- D
1 2
2 2
m , m 2t
1
t
t
= = =
,
2
2t
2 1 2 t
tan t 5
1 4 3 t 3
| |
+
|
\ . | |
u = = + =
|
\ .
Section-3
57. A l i ne L : y mx 3 = + meets y- axi s at E(0,3) and the arc of the parabol a
2
y 16x,0 y 6 = s s at the point ( )
0 0
F x ,y . The tangent to the parabola at ( )
0 0
F x ,y
intersects the y-axis at ( )
1
G 0,y . The slope m of the line L is chosen such that the
area of the triangle EFG has a local maximum.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I List II
P) m = 1)
1
2
Q) Maximum area of
EFG A
is 2) 4
R)
0
y = 3) 2
S)
1
y = 4) 1
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 1 2 3 B) 3 4 1 2
C) 1 3 2 4 D) 1 3 4 2
Ans:- A
Sol Solutions
Sol:
2 2 3
1
(3 4t)4t 2(3t 4t )
2
A = =
2
d 1
0 6t 12t 0 t
dt 2
A
= = =
1 2
t
2
8t 3 4 3
m [slope] 1
1
4t
4
4
=

= = = =
m 1 P 4 =
,
1 1
Q (1) 1 Q 1
2 2
= = ,
0
y 4 R 2 = ,
1
y 2 S 3 =
A is the correct option
58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I List II
P)
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
2
1 1
4
2 1 1
cos tan y ysin tan y
1
y
y cot sin y tan sin y

| |
| |
+
|
+
|
+ |
\ .
\ .
1)
1 5
2 3
Q) If cosx cosy cosz 0 sinx siny sinz + + = = + + then possible 2)
2
value of
x y
cos
2
| |
|
\ .
is
R) If
cos x cos2x sinxsin2xsecx cosxsin2xsecx cos x
4 4
t t | | | |
+ = + +
| |
\ . \ .
cos2x
then possible value of secx is 3)
1
2
S) If
( ) ( ) ( )
1 2 1
cot sin 1 x sin tan x 6 ,x 0

= = , then possible value 4) 1
of x is
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 3 1 2 B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1 D) 3 4 1 2
Ans:- B
Sol Solutions
Sol: cosx +cosy +cosz =sinx +siny +sinz
x x, y 120 x, z 240 x = = + = +
0
x y 1
cos cos60
2 2
= = , S)
( )
( )
1 2 1
cot sin 1 x sin tan x 6

=
2 2
x x 6
1 x 1 6x
=
+
,
2 2 2
1 5
1 6x 6 6x 12x 5 x
2 3
+ = = =
B is correct answer
59. Consider the lines
1
x 1 y z 3
L : ,
2 1 1
+
= =

2
x 4 y 3 z 3
L :
1 1 2
+ +
= =
and the
planes
1 2
P :7x y 2z 3,P :3x 5y 6z 4 + + = + = . Let ax by cz d + + = be the equa-
tion of the plane passing through the point of intersection of lines
1
L and
2
L , and perpendicular to planes
1
P and
2
P
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists :
List I List II
P) a= 1) 13
Q) b= 2) -3
R) c= 3) 1
S) d= 4) -2
P Q R S
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 4 1 3
Ans:- A
Sol Solutions
Sol: (a, b, c) =(3, 5, -6) x (7, 1, 2) =(1, -3, -2)
A is the correct option
60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List - I List - II
P) Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a,b 1) 100
and
c
is 2. Then the volume of the parallelepiped
determined by vectors ( ) ( )
2 a b ,3 b c and ( ) c a is
Q) Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a,b 2) 30
and
c
is 5. Then the volume of the parallelepiped determined by
vectors ( ) ( )
3 a b , b c + + and ( ) 2 c a + is
R) Area of a triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors 3) 24
a
and
b
is 20. Then the area of the triangle with adjacent
sides determined by vectors ( )
2a 3b + and ( )
a b is
S) Area of a parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by 4) 60
vectors
a
and
b
is 30. Then the area of the parallelogram with
adjacent sides determined by vectors ( )
a b + and
a
is
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 2 3 1 B) 2 3 1 4
C) 3 4 1 2 D) 1 4 3 2
Ans:- C
Sol:
2
V 6 a b b c c a 6 a b c 6 4 24 ( ( = = = =

P 3
C is correct answerThis section contains 10 Multiple Choice questions. Each Ques-
tion has Four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of Which Only One is correct

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is exactly known and the error in

are constant (given). Clearly dd decreases with increase in

c and hence R does not vary linearly with T

O is used, the power

at 298K. The solubility (in mol/L) of

44. The function ( ) f x 2x x 2 x 2 2x = + + + has a local minimum or a

assumes its minimum in the interval

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