You are on page 1of 13

1.

2.

3.

4. 5.

In a certain code TEAMWORK is written as NBFUJQNV and SOME is written as PTDL. How is PERSON written in that code? A. QDOOPT B. QDOMNR C. SFQMNR D. SFQOPT E. None of these How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SUBSTANCE each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three How many meaningful English words, not ending with D can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word STEADFAST using each letter only once in each word? (All letters are counted from left to right) A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three In a certain code BASKET is written as 5$3%#1 and TRIED is written as 14*#2. How is SKIRT written in that code? A. 3%*41 B. 3*%41 C. 3%#41 D. 3#4%1 E. None of these The positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 81943275 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on till the fourth and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement? A. 1 B. 9 C. 2 D. 4 E. None of these

Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 6-10) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below : M 3 # R A T 1 E J $ K @ F U 5 4 V I 6 D 8 * H N 7 2 W 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? A. TER B. U4@ C. 6DV D. J1K E. N* 7. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three 8. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? RT1 $@F 4I6 ? A. 8 * H B. 8 H N C. 8 H 7 D. D * H E. None of these 9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three 10. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement? A. V B. @ C. D. E. None of these Directions (Q. 11-15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-HR in an organisation : The candidate must (i) be at least 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 01.03.2012. (ii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline. (iii) have secured at least 65 percent marks in the Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Peronnel Management/HR. (iv) have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the Personnel/HR Department of an organisation (v) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection process. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline and at least 70 percent marks in Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in personnel Management/HR, the case is to be referred to GM HR. (b) at (iv) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least four years out of which at least two years as Deputy ManagerHR, the case is to be referred to President HR. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.03.2012. Mark answer A. if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer B. if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. Mark answer C. if the case is to be referred to President-HR. Mark answer D. if the case is to be referred to GM-HR. Mark answer E. if the candidate is to be selected. 11. Rita Bhatt was born on 25th July 1978. She has secured 62 per cent marks in Graduation and 65 per cent marks in Post Graduate Diploma in Management. She has been working for the past six years in the Personnel Department of an organisation after completing her Post Graduation. She has secured 55 per cent marks in the selection process. 12. Ashok Pradhan was born on 8th August 1980. He has been working in the Personnel Department of an organisation for the past four years after completing his Post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management with 67 percent. Out of his entire experience, he has been working for the past two years as Deputy Manager-HR. He has secured 62 percent marks in Graduation and 58 per cent marks in the selection process.

13. Alok Verma was born on 4th March 1976. He has been working in the Personnel Department of an organisation for the past six years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 66 per cent marks. He has secured 57 per cent marks in the selection process and 63 per cent marks in Graduation. 14. Swapan Ghosh has been working in the Personnel Department of an organisation for the past five years after completing his Post Graduate Degree in HR with 72 per cent marks. He has secured 56 per cent marks in Graduation. He was born on 12th May 1977. He has secured 58 per cent marks in the selection process. 15. Seema Behl has been working in the Personnel Department of an organisation for the past seven years after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 5th July 1979. She has secured 65 per cent marks in Graduation and 50 per cent marks in the selection process. Directions (Q. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends travelling in three different cars, viz. X, Y and Z with at least two in one car to three different places, viz. Delhi, Chandigarh and Agra. There is at least one female member in each car. D is travelling with G to Delhi but not in car Y. A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not travelling with either D or E. F and D are studying in the same only girls college. H, B and G are studying in the same only boys college. 16. Which of the following represents the group of females among them? A. F, C, A B. F, G, A C. D, C, A D. Data inadequate E. None of these 17. Which of the following combinations is correct? A. Delhi X C B. Chandigarh X F C. Agra Z E D. Delhi Y E E. None of these 18. In which car are four of them travelling? A. X or Z B. Y C. X or Y D. Z E. None of these 19. In which of the following cars is C travelling? A. X B. Y C. Z D. Either X or Y E. Data inadequate 20. Passengers in which car are travelling to Chandigarh? A. Y B. X C. Either X or Y D. Data inadequate E. None of these Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the questions below is given a statement, followed by a question. Read the statement carefully and answer the question that follows. 21. Statement : The State Government granted special status to the seminar on the importance of protecting the environment around us organised by the local academic body to create awareness among the citizens. Which of the following may be a probable reason for the State Governments decision? A. The Central Government has accorded highest priority to issues related to protection of environment, over all other issues. B. In the past the State Government had granted special status to such seminars C. The State Government has failed to implement measures for protecting the environment D. The local academic body made a fervent appeal for the special status E. None of these 22. Statement : Most car manufacturers have marginally reduced the price of their products despite higher input costs and increased Government duties and have promised to keep the prices at the present level for at least the next couple of months. Which of the following can be a best possible reason for the above step by car manufacturers? A. Car manufacturers have not been able to meet their sales target for the current year so far. B. The Government is planning to review taxes on the raw materials for manufacturing cars. C. The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase has picked up considerably in the recent past and profit per car has also gone up D. Car buyers are still hesitant to make their purchases and may postpone for another few months. E. Oil marketing companies are contemplating reviewing the petrol and diesel prices in order to decide future market prices. 23. Statement : The prices of vegetables and other food articles have decreased in the recent months raising hope among policy planners that the RBIs (Reserve Bank of India) tight grip on supply of liquid money in the market for controlling inflation may be eased. Which of the following may be a possible action of the above situation? A. The Reserve Bank of India may not reduce its key interest rates in near future. B. The Government may step in and make certain concessions to the common people on various issues C. The Reserve Bank of India may consider lowering certain rates to bring in more liquidity in the market. D. The RBI may wait for at least another year before taking any step. E. The RBI may collect more data from the market and wait for another four months to ensure they take the correct step.

24. Statement : A severe cyclonic storm hit the Eastern coastline last month resulting in huge loss of life and property on the entire east coast and the Government had to disburse a considerable amount for relief activities through the district administration machineries. Which of the following may possibly be a follow up measure to be taken up by the Government? A. The Government may set up a task force to review the post relief scenario in all districts and also to confirm proper end user receipt of the relief supplies. B. The Government may set up a committee for proper disbursement of relief supplies in future. C. The Government may empower the District Magistrates to make all future disbursements of relief. D. The Government may send relief supplies to the affected people in future only after proper assessment of the damage caused by such calamities. E. The Government may not need to activate any follow up measure. 25. Statement : It has been reported in a recent study that intake of moderate quantity of milk chocolate reduces the risk of suffering from central nervous system related illnesses. Which of the following would weaken the findings of the study reported in the above statement? A. People generally prefer to eat chocolate when they are young. B. Majority of those not diagnosed with diseases related to central nervous system have stayed away from eating chocolates in their lives. C. Chocolates contain certain elements which strengthen the functions of the central nervous system. D. Majority of those suffering from central nervous system related diseases are middle aged. E. Many of those who suffer from diabetes also suffer from other major ailments. Directions (Q. 26-30) : Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed by five other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. 26. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 27. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 28. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 29. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 30. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) A. 1

(B)

(C)

(D) B. 2

(E)

(1)

(2) C. 3

(3)

(4)

(5)

D. 4

E. 5

31. A, B and C enter into a partnership. A invests some money at the beginning, B invests double the amount after 6 months and C invests thrice the amount after 8 months. If the annual profit be Rs. 27000 Cs share is : A. Rs. 9000 B. Rs. 11250 C. Rs. 10,800 D. Rs. 8625 E. None of these 32. A is twce as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work is : A. 11 B. 21 C. 28 D. 42 E. None of these 33. Each boy contributed rupees equal to the number of girls and each girl contributed rupees equal to the number of boys in a class of 60 students. If the total amount thus collected is Rs. 1600, how many boys are there in the class? A 30 B. 25 C. 50 D. Data inadequate E. None of these 34. (x% of y + y% of x) is : A. x% of y B. y% of x C. 2% of xy D. xy% of 3 E. None of these 35. Two barrels contain a mixture of ethanol and gasoline. The content of the ethanol is 60% in the first barrel and 30% in the second barrel. In what ratio must the mixtures from the first and the second barrels be taken to form a mixture containing 50% ethanol? A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 C. 2 : 3 D. 3 : 2 E. None of these 36. The angles of a convex hexagon in degrees are integers and in arithmetic progression. L and M denote the largest of these 6 angles. Then the maximum value that M can take is : A. 125 degree B. 150 degree C. 175 degree D. 179 degree E. None of these 37. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise into how many parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 E. None of these 38. The currencies in countries M and N are denoted by m and n respectively. The exchange rate in 1990 was 1 m, 0.6 n the price level in 2006 in M and N are 150 and 400 respectively with 1990 as a base of 100. The exchange rate in 2006 based solely on the purchasing power parity consideration is 1 m : A. 0.225 n B. 0.625 n C. 1.6 n D. 3.6 n E. None of these 39. The age of Mr. Bhagat in 2002 was 1/90 of his birth year. What is his age in 2006? A. 30 B. 28 C. 26 D. 22 E. None of these Directions (Q. 40-41) : The cost of fuel running the engine of an army tank is proportional to the square of the speed and Rs. 64 per hour for a speed of 16 kmph. Other costs amount to Rs. 400 per hour. The tank has to make a journey of 400 km at a constant speed. 40. The most economical speed for this journey is : A. 20 kmph B. 30 kmph C. 35 kmph D. 40 kmph E. None of these 41. The total cost for the journey at this most economical speed is : A. Rs. 6000 B. Rs. 8000 C. Rs. 10000 D. Rs. 11000 E. None of these 42. In a market research project, 20% opted for Nirma detergent whereas 60% opted for Surf Blue detergent. The rest were unsure. If the difference between those who opted for Surf Blue and those who were uncertain is 720. How many respondents were covered in the survey? A. 1800 B. 1440 C. 3600 D. Data inadequate E. None of these 43. A property tax increase was proposed by a municipal corporation and it was observed that 40% of the property owners favoured it while 80% of the non-owners of property favoured it. If 70% of voters are property owners, what is the probability that a voter selected at random would be the one favouring the increase? A. 0.80 B. 0.52 C. 0.40 D. Data inadequate E. None of these 44. A toothed wheel of diameter 50 cm is attached to a smaller wheel of diameter 30 cm. How many revolutions will the smaller wheel make when the larger one makes 15 revolutions? A. 18 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 E. None of these 45. Prof. Chatterjee bought a car and got 15% of its original price as a dealers discount. He then sold it at 20% profit on his purchase price. What percentage profit did he get on the original price? A. 2% B. 12% C. 5% D. 17% E. None of these 46. The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9 sq. metre if its length is reduced by 5m and breadth is increased by 3m. If we increase the length by 2m and breadth by 3m, the area is increased by 67 sq. metre. The length of the rectangle is : A. 9 m B. 15.6 m C. 17 m D. 18.5 m E. None of these 47. A dinner party is to be fixed for a group of 100 persons. In this party, 50 persons do not prefer fish, 60 prefer chicken and 10 do not prefer either chicket or fish. Find the number of people who prefer both fish and chicken. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 10 E. None of these 48. The average of marks obtained in 120 students was 35. If the average of passed candidates was 39 and that of failed candidates is 15, the number of candidates who passed the examination is : A. 100 B. 110 C. 120 D. 80 E. None of these 49. There are two examination halls, P and Q. If 10 students are sent from P to Q, then the number of students in each room is same. If 20 students are sent from Q to P then the number of students in P is double of that in Q. The number of students in P and Q respectively are : A. 60.40 B. 70.50 C. 80.60 D. 100.80 E. None of these 50. If a number of two digits is K times the sum of its digits, then the number formed by interchanging the digits is the sum of the digits multiplied by : A. 9 + k B. 10 + k C. 11 k D. k 1 E. None of these

Numerical Ability

Directions (Q. 51-54) : Study the following graph and answer the questions.

600 500 400 300 200 100 0 1996

Quantity in lakh-tins Value in crores of Rupees

1997

1998

1999

2000

51. In which year, the value per tonne was minimum? A. 1996 B. 1997 C. 1999 D. 2000 E. None of these 52. What was the approximate percent increase in export value from 1996-2000? A. 350 B. 330.3 C. 433.3 D. 533.3 E. None of these 53. What was the percent drop in export quantity from 1996 to 1997? A. 75 B. 30 C. 25 D. 40 E. None of these 54. If in 1999, the processed food tins were exported at the same rate per tin as that in 1998, what would be the value of export in 1999 (in crore of Rs.)? A. 400 B. 375 C. 352 D. 330 E. None of these Directions (Q. 55-58) : Follow the given instructions : Each Item has a question followed by two statements. Mark A. if the question can be answered by statement I alone. Mark B. if the question can be answered with the help of II alone. Mark C. if the question can be answered with the help of either statement I or II alone. Mark D. if the question cannot be answered with the help of both the statements. Mark E. if the question can be answered with the help of both the statements but not with the help of either statement itself. 55. The average of three quotations for a particular item is Rs. 120. Is the highest quotation less than or equal to Rs. 139? I. The lowest quotation is of Rs. 90. II. One of the quotation is Rs. 125. 56. How many people, read both Economic Times and Financial Express? I. Out of 300 readers, 200 read Financial Express, 220 read Economic Times and 50 read Indian Express. II. Out of total 300 readers 220 read Economic Times, 200 reads Financial Express and 50 read Neither. 57. A bus started from bus stop P, developed engine trouble and reached bus stop Q, 40 minutes late. What is the distance between the bus stops P and Q? I. The engine trouble developed after travelling 40 kms from bus stop P and the speed reduced to 1/4th of the original speed. II. The engine trouble developed after travelling 40 kms from bus stop P in 2 hours and the speed reduced to 1/4th of the original speed. 58. What is the value of prime number x? I. x + y is a two digit number > 50. II. y is a two digit number. Directions (Q. 59-60) : Refer to the following table. Given below are the win loss histories of four tennis players in three set matches and number of matches played. P Q R S Won 2-0 23 18 10 16 Won 2-1 13 16 13 14 Lost 0-2 8 13 16 13 Lost 1-2 6 8 20 17 59. If a win carries an award of Rs. 1500 and a loss of Rs. 1000 which is the largest difference in prize money earned among the four? A. Rs. 7000 B. Rs. 14000 C. Rs. 5000 D. Rs. 9000 E. None of these 60. As in the case above, what is the lowest average prize money won per match by any player? A. Rs. 1135 B. Rs. 1300 C. Rs. 1195 D. Rs. 1150 E. None of these

61. Why do fighter planes fly at great heights? A. to escape from birds B. to cross the sound barrier C. to overcome gravitational force D. to escape detection by radar E. None of these 62. Which of the following is the main advantage of ASBA with the applicants for share allotment? A. ASBA applicant has got secured allotment of shares B. ASBA applicant has got certain preference in allotment of shares as compared to general applicants C. ASBA applicant need not remit the fund for allotment of shares, he/she will do so after shares are alloted to him/her D. ASBA Applicants deposit/OD account is not debited, only the funds are blocked for the same and he/she continues to avail interest till the shares are allotted to him/her E. None of these 63. Mullaperiyar Dam which was recently in news, is located in which of the following States? A. Maharashtra B. Karnataka C. Andhra Pradesh D. Kerala E. Tamil Nadu 64. Like telephone/Mobile number portability, the Ministry of Finance/RBI is now also considering to provide bank account number portability to bank customers. Which of the following would it mean? A. Any customer/account holder can withdraw cash from any other Bank through his/her own cheques drawn on other bank even without ATM B. Any borrower can draw funds from his/her loan account from any other bank also C. The account number of any account holder will remain the same even if he/she is getting his/her account transferred to another bank also. D. Bank customers would have the facility of mobile Banks to withdraw cash nearby his/her place E. None of these 65. The total number of Kisan Credit Card holder farmers in our country is ________ A. 8 Crores B. 10 Crores C. 5 Crores D. 7.5 Crores E. 6 Crores 66. NRE deposit is ________ A. Non Resident External deposit B. Non Resident Extra deposit C. Non Resident Exchange deposit D. Non Refundable External deposit E. Non Resident Extended deposit 67. What is offshore banking? A. It is a bank located in the sea (i.e. island) B. It is a bank located in SEZ C. It is a bank located in a neighbouring country D. It is a bank located outside the country of residence ofthe depositor E. Offshore banking is basically dealing in foreign exchange 68. Which of the following is correct? A. Illiterates cannot open any account in a bank B. Illiterate women cannot open any account in a bank C. Illiterates can open saings bank accounts in a bank D. Advance can be granted to a minor E. Adance can be grained to a minor if he is of sound mind 69. As per newspaper reports western countries are going to impose sanctions on which of the following OPEC countries as it is said that it is trying to make a nuclear bomb? A. Kuwait B. Iraq C. Iran D. Saudi Arabia E. Angola 70. The Reliance Industries Ltd. (RIL) has decided to return some KG fields to the Government of India was the news in some major newspapers. What is the major production in KG fields owned by RIL? A. Crude oil B. Gas C. Coal D. Iron ore E. Gold ore and Diamonds 71. None convertible debentures are ________ A. Debt instruments which acquire equity status at the issuers option. B. Debt instruments which acquire equity status at the investors option. C. Debt instruments which acquire equity status with the permission of Registrar of Companies. D. Debt instruments which acquire equity status on maturity. E. Debt instruments which retain their debt character and cannot acquire equity status. 72. Indias Dipika Pallikal and Sarah Cardwell of Australia recently played an international match in Chennai. Both of them are ________ A. Badminton players B. Golf players C. Chess players D. Squash players E. Table tennis players 73. IRDA norms will boost online distribution - was the news in some major newspapers. This means online distribution of which of the following will boost up? A. Bank products B. Insurance policies/products C. Licenses to open new banks/branches of eisting banks D. Licenses to operate 2G/3G spectrums E. Permits for export of iron ore 74. Lajja is a book written by ________ A. Salman Rushdie B. Taslima Nasreen C. Sunil Ganguli D. Rabindranath Tagore E. Bimal Mitra 75. Assembly Elections took place in which one of the following States recently? (in February 2013) A. Madhya Pradesh B. Maharashtra C. Tripura D. Punjab E. Tamil Nadu

General Knowledge, Current Affairs

76. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of Debit Card? A. No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery B. No interest earning for banks C. Works like a normal withdrawal D. Can be used at ATM and POS E. 45 days credit is given to the card holder 77. Banks issue a letter to beneficiary on behalf of its constituents like guarantee for making payment on their behalf on fulfillment of its terms and conditions. What is this arrangement known in banking context? A. Line of Credit B. Loan to Client C. Loan on Credit D. Loan against Credit E. Letter of Credit 78. As per Fnancial Inclusion drive one of the following Banks introduced Tiny Cards with Biometric identification. Which of the following is that Bank? A. Central Bank of India B. Oriental Bank of Commerce C. Indian Bank D. State Bank of India E. Bank of Maharashtra 79. Who among the following is the recipient of the Padma Vibhushan given in 2013? A. Late (Dr.) Bhupen Hazarika B. S Haider Raza C. Sri Javed Akhtar D. Sri Amitabh Bachchan E. Smt. Ambika Soni 80. Under the liberalised scheme of interest subsidy, Government of India provides interest subsidy on housing loan at the rate of ________ A. 0.50% B. 1.00% C. 2.00% D. 2.00% + 1.00% for prompt repayment E. None of these 81. When a Bank provides a loan for purchase of white goods, it is categorised as ________ A. Consumption loan B. White Goods loan C. Consumer Durable loan D. Working Capital E. Bridge Loan 82. India has decided to acquire Rafale Fighter planes for its airforce wing. Which country is going to supply Rafale fighter planes? A. Italy B. Britain C. Canada D. France E. Germany 83. The rate below hich banks cannot generally lend is called as ________ A. Base rate B. Floor rate C. Repo rate D. Call money rate E. Ceiling rate 84. As per the data released by the Union Health Ministry (of India) the infant mortality rate is lowest in ________ A. Tamil Nadu B. Maharashtra C. Goa D. Uttar Pradesh E. Madhya Pradesh 85. Dada Saheb Phalke Awards are given by the Ministry of ________ A. Social Welfare B. Corporate Affairs C. Home Affairs D. Human Resurce Development E. Information and Broadcasting 86. Which of the following is not a type of Cheque? A. Crossed cheque B. Blank cheque C. Speed cheque D. Bearer cheque E. Order cheque 87. Who among the following personalities announced in Februrary 2013 to set aside at least 20 per cent of his familys wealth for education? A. Shiv Nadar B. Lord Swaraj Paul C. Azim Premji D. Ratan Tata E. None of these 88. The Union Budget 2013-2014, presented in Parliament on 28 February 2013 said : We stand in solidarity with our girl children and women. And we pledge to do everything possible to empower them and to keep them safe and secure. What is the name of that fund which has been created with a government contribution of Rs. 1000 crore? A. Jyoti Fund B. Damini Fund C. Nirbhaya Fund D. Aisha Fund E. None of these 89. The Railway Budget 2013-2014 explicitly talked about providing free Wi-Fi facility on several trains to cater to the increasing aspirations and requirement of certain customers. Who are those customers? A. Working professionals B. Youth C. Working women D. Foreigners E. None of these 90. As per a recent study which was released in February 2013, life on Earth faces danger from a catastrophic Super volcano which seismologists say is due to erupt in A. 50 million years B. 100 million years C. 200 million years D. 300 million years E. None of these

Computer Knowledge
91. The name a user assigns to a document is called a(n) ________ A. File name B. Program C. Record D. Data 92. A ________ is an electronic device that process data, converting it into information. A Processor B. Computer C. Case D. Stylus 93. ________, are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use. A. Control words B. Reserved words C. Reserved keys D. Control structures 94. What are the two types of output devices? A. Monitor and printer B. Storage disk (floppy, CD) C. Keyboard and D. Windows 2000, Windows NT E. None of these 95. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is A. dragging B. dropping C. right - clicking D. shift - clicking 96. Connections to the Internet using a phone line and a modem are called ________ connections. A. Digital B. Dial-up C. Broadband D. Dish E. None of these E. None of these E. None of these Mouse

E. None of these E. Both B and C

97. To access a mainframe or super computer, users often use a ________ A. Terminal B. Node C. Desktop D. Handheld E. None of these 98. A Web site address is a unique name that identifies a specific ________ on the Web. A. Web browser B. PDA C. Web site D. Link E. None of these 99. Every component of your computer is either A. hardware or software B. software of CPU/RAM C. application software or system software D. input devices or output devices E. None of these 100. To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you press the ________ key. A. num lock B. caps lock C. arrow lock D. shift E. None of these 101. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page appear, both on the screen and in printed form. A. Editing text B. Inserting tables and indexes C. Formatting text D. Proofing documents E. Print Preview 102. The ________ performs simple mathematics for the CPU. A. ALU B. DIMM C. BUS D. Register E. None of these 103. A word in a web page that when clicked, opens another document is called A anchor B. hyperlink C. reference D. URL E. None of these 104. The ________ of software contains lists of commands and options. A. title bar B. menu bar C. formula bar D. tool bar E. None of these 105. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are known as ________ A. Hardware B. Networked Software C. Shareware D. Application E. None of these 106. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit? A. Read instructions B. Execute instructions C. interpret instructions D. direct operation E. None of these 107. =SUM(B1:B2) is an example of a ________ A. Function B. Formula C. Cell address D. Value E. None of these 108. A ________ is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table. A. Spreadsheet B. Presentation C. Database D. Webpage E. None of these 109. What is the storage area for email messages called? A. A folder B. A directory C. A mailbox D. The hard disk E. None of these 110. Documents converted to ________ can be published to the Web. A. A.doc file B. http C. machine language D. HTML E. None of these 111. Click ________ check box of transition in a slide group of an animation tab if you want to move a slide automatically after stipulated time. A. Transition timer B. Automatically after C. Transition after D. Automatic timer E. None of these 112. If you do not want to select any option after opening a menu then click menu title again or press key ________ to close the menu. A. Shift B. Tab C. Escape D. F1 E. None of these 113. ________ view shows how the contents on printed page will appear with margin, header and footer. A. Draft B. Full Screen Reading C. Outline D. Page Layout E. None of these 114. ________ may be included in other folder while making hierarchical structure folder. A. Manifolder B. Tiered folder C. Sub-folder D. Object E. None of these 115. All of the following are included in typical computer programming language which are in use currently Except A. C++ B. java C. visual Basic NET D. machine language E. None of these 116. What happens when you press Ctrl+V key? A. A capital V letter is typed into you document at the cursor point B. The selected item is pasted from the clipboard C. The selected item is pasted to the clipboard D. The selected drawing objects are distributed vertically on the page E. None of these 117. When you graph an picture in document, then you computer holds the data in ________ A. Restore file B. Backup drive C. Clipboard D. Memory E. None of these 118. Title bar, ribbon, status bar, view and document workspace is factors of ________ program of Words. A. Windows B. Browser C. Explorer D. Website E. None of these 119. C, BASIC, COBOL and Java are example of ________ languages. A. Low-level B. Computer C. System programming D. High-level E. None of these 120. A ________ is a microprocessor based computing device. A. Personal computer B. Mainframe C. Workstation D. Server E. None of these

English Language (with Special emphasis on Grammar, Vocabulary and Comprehension)


Directions (Q. 121-130) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. (121) over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognised are dail being violated, (122) in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interests. Violations of these rights have (123) new problems in humna social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have (124) peoples lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to (125) the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic daa and systems, computer related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights, (126), threats to critical infrastructure and national interests arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist activities are of growing (127) . The harm incurred to businesses, governments and individuals in those countries in which the internet is used (128), is gaining in (129) and importance, while in other countries; cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for government services, health care, trade, and banking. As users start losing (130) in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial. 121. A. Entire B. Lot C. Great D. All E. Much 122. A. scarcely B. whether C. and D. for E. hardly 123. A. created B. bent C. pressured D. risen E. stopped 124. A. distanced B. affected C. exaggerated D. advanced E. cropped 125. A. engage B. conflict C. war D. combat E. struggle 126. A. But B. More C. Addition D. Beside E. Further 127. A. concern B. nature C. pattern D. important E. matter 128. A. really B. figuratively C. widely D. never E. tandem 129. A. fear B. days C. positivity D. width E. scope 130. A. tracks B. measure C. confidence D. mind E. grip Directions (Q. 131-135) : Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. 1. It is not wonder that a majority of these excluded and low-achievers come from the most deprived sections of society. 2. They are preisely those who are supposed to be empowered through education. 3. With heightened political consciousness about the plight of these to-be-empowered people, never in the history of India has the demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today. 4. They either never enrol or they drop out of schools at different stages during these eight years. 5. Of the nearly 200 million children in the age group between 6 and 14 years, more than half do not complete eight years of elementary education. 6. Of those who do complete eight years of schooling, the achievement levels of a large percentage, in language and mathematics, is unacceptably low. 131. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 6 132. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 133. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3 E. 2 134. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 135. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 2 E. 1 Directions (Q. 136-140) : In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence. 136. Facts spoke louder than words at the Company meeting where the Director tried to paint a rosy picture of the Companys financial health. A. Too many facts related to the good financial health of the Company were presented during the meeting. B. The Company was not doing well financially despite the Director saying otherwise. C. The Director was very loud while presenting the facts about the Companys financial health during the meeting. D. The facts stated in the meeting supported the Directors claims of good financial health of the Company. E. The Company was doing exceptionally well financially, despite the Director saying otherwise.

137. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had killed the goose that lay the golden egg. A. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had left her speechless. B. Kajal had ruined her chances of success by picking a fight with Sakshi in office. C. Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with Sakshi in office. D. Kajal had hurt Sakshi by picking a fight with her in office. E. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had missed getting the golden egg. 138. I let the chips fall where they may and do not worry too much about what I want to do next. A. I take calculated risks. B. I let others do what they want and do not interfere. C. I am clumsy. D. I do not try to control my destiny. E. I prefer chaos to calm. 139. After trying hard to convince Narendra to change his ways, Raman realised that a leopard cannot change its spots. A. Raman realised that Narendra would never change his ways. B. Raman realised that Narendra was helpless. C. Raman realised that he was not good at convincing others. D. Raman realised that Narendra would change his ways soon. E. Raman realised that someone else was forcing Narendra to act in a certain way. 140. Before starting work on our new project, our mentor told us to not count our chickens before they hatched. A. Our mentor warned us against being over confident about achieving success. B. Our mentor asked us to meticulously count the chicken first and then the eggs. C. Our mentor warned us against being over-enthusiastic in implementing the project. D. Our mentor warned us about all the challenges that lay ahead of us. E. Our mentor informed us about the prizes that we would get on succeeding. Directions (Q. 141-150) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No error, the answer is E. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 141. The third season of (A)/the popular television show will ends (B)/on a grand note with (C)/celebrities dancing and having fun. (D)/No error (E) 142. The website, which does not (A)/accept advertisements and is funded (B)/entirely by donations, describes itself (C)/as the fifth most popular website on the planet. (D)/No error (E) 143. As sharing crime statistics for (A)/the year 2011, the Commissioner admitted that (B)/there had been an undue delay in (C)/ the setting up of an anti-narcotics cell. (D)/No error (E) 144. The Moon may be the best place (A)/to look for allens as their (B)/footprints on their surface would (C)/last far longer than radio signals. (D)/No error (E) 145. The judge advised the government to (A)/have metered autorickshaws across the state while (B)/recounting his personal experience where an autorickshaw driver (C)/made him to wait and also demanded Rs. 100. (D)/No error (E) 146. The Company aims (A)/to nearly double (B)/its revenues on the back (C)/of a strongest product pipeline. (D)/No error (E) 147. The woman that had (A)/kidnapped a child has now (B)/been apprehended and is being (C)/held in the citys jail. (D)/ No error (E) 148. Rose growers in (A)/the city are walking up (B)/to the benefits (C)/of collective action. (D)/No error (E) 149. The Minister will have (A)/a tough task on his hands (B)/where three different recommendations (C)/for this years rate reach his desk. (D)/No error (E) 150. The current economic scenario (A)/could possibly undo (B)/the growth that followed (C)/the economic liberalisation of 1991. (D)/No error (E) Directions (Q. 151-160) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in BOLD to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. In India, innovations is emerging as one of the most important rubrics in the discoure on how to bring about greater and more consistent economic and social development. One observes steadily growing investments in R & D across the country, the setting up of national and state innovation bodies, as well as the introduction of government sponsored innovation funds. There have also been several conferences and debates on innovation and how to best promote and accomplish it in India, and a number of articles on the subjects, written for newspapers and magazines, as well as more informal platforms like online forums and blogs. Academic engagement and Indian authorship on the subject have also exploded in the last five years. Despite widespread agreement on the importance of innovation in India, there are wide gulfs between different conceptions of innovation and the path India should take towards securing benefits through investments in innovation. Many Indian conversations around innovation begin by talking about jugaad, that uniquely Indian approach to a temporary fix when something complex, like an automobile or a steam engine stops working. However, many observers have pointed out that while jugaad is certainly innovative, it is a response to the lack of an innovation culture-more a survival or coping mechanism at a time of need than a systematic methodology to effectively address a wide-ranging, complex set of problems.

Another specifically Indian approach to innovation that has entered into wide currency of late is so-called frugal innovation, deemed by many to be the most appropriate for the Indian context. In its midterm assessment of the 11th five-year plan, the Planning Commission stressed the need for innovation in India in order to accelerate its growth and to make growth more inclusive as well as environment went on to say that India needs more frugal innovation that produces more frugal cost products and services that are affordable by people at low levels of incomes without compromising the safety, efficiency, and utility of the products. The country also needs processes of innovation that are frugal in the resources required to produce the innovations. The products and processes must also have frugal impact on the earths resources. Two people formulated a similar theory called the More-from-Less-for-More (MLM theory of Innovation) theory of Innovation, which advocates a focus on innovations that allow for more production using fewer resources but benefit more people. Under this rubric come products that are more affordable versions of existing technologies. While both frugal innovation and the MLM theory are certainly valueable in terms of bringing affordable products and services to a greter number of people, and may even of considered a necessary first step on Indias innovation path, they barely graze the surface of what innovation can accomplish. That is, innovation is capable of bringing about complete paradigm-shifts and redefining the way we perceive and interact with the world. Take the cell phone, for example : it revolutionized communication in a previously inconceivable way, provided consumers with a product of unprecedented value and created an entirely new market. The cell phone was a result of years of directed, intentional innovation efforts and large investments, and would not have ever been created it the people responsible simply set out to make the existing telephone cheaper and more accessible to all. Jugaad and frugal innovation may be indicative of the Indian potential for innovativeness, this potential is not utilised or given opportunity to flourish due to the lack of an enabling culture. Indias many diverse and complex needs can be met only through systematic innovation, and major shifts have to first take place in our educational institutions, government policies and commercial firms in order for such an innovation-enabling culture to come about. The one thing that Indias innovation theorists have not said is that the absence of a culture of innovation is intrinsically linked to many of the most intractable problems facing India as a nation. These include poor delivery of government services, inadequate systems of personal identification and the absence of widely available financial services for rural poor, health and sanitation failures. This list can go on. Cumulatively, the inability of India as a nation, society and economy to adequately provide for its own population no longer reflects a failure of implementation, but rather of a failure of innovation, for there are not immediately-available off-the-shelf solutions that would make it possible for these grand challenges facing India to be redressed. Rather, we need to look at these intractable problems from the more sophisticated and empowering lens of innovation, for them to begin to be solved. 151. Which of the following depict/s the growing importance of innovation in India? 1. Increased investment in research. 2. Initiation of Government backed funds for innovation 3. Increase in number of conferences arranged and articles written on innovation. A. Only 2 B. Only 1 and 2 C. Only 3 D. Only 2 and 3 E. All 1, 2 and 3 152. Which of the following best describes the MLM theory of innovation? A. Maximise output by using least number of resources and benefiting a small number of people. B. Maximise resource utilisation and cost thereby benefit maximum number of people. C. Minimise output and resource utilisation, yet benefit the maximum number of people. D. Benefit most number of people through least usage of resources and maximum output. E. Benefit most number of people through maximum usage of resources and minimising cost. 153. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage? A. Innovation At Its Best B. India And The Elixir Called Innovation C. Innovation Around The World vis-a-vis India And Other Neighbouring Countries D. Worldwide Developments In Innovation E. Innovation - The History 154. What tone is the author employing in the entire passage to get his message across? A. Pessimistic B. Sarcastic C. Urgent D. Informative E. Dubious 155. Why, according to the author, is India unable to adequately provide for its people? A. Failure to implement schemes and initiatives meant for the Indian populace. B. Absence of regulatory authorities to oversee the implementation process. C. Failure to innovate in order to find solutions. D. Lack of governmental schemes and initiatives to redress the challenges faced by India. E. Hesitance of the Indian people in trying out different schemes provided by the Government for upliftment. 156. Why, according to some people, is Jugaad not the answer to Indias problems? A. Many a times this methodology backfires leading to further complications. B. Jugaad provides only cheap solutions to all problems. C. It is reactive and not a proactive and organised method of finding solutions to problems. D. It can provide solutions to only simple problems and not complex ones. E. None of these
W h i l e

Directions (Q. 157-158) : Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in BOLD as used in the passage. 157. REDRESSED A. addressed B. equalised C. restored D. redone E. rearranged 158. CURRENCY A. notes B. usage C. money D. cash E. value Directions (Q. 159-160) : Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words printed in BOLD as used in the passage. 159. LACK A. presence B. sufficient C. charisma D. adequacy E. dearth 160. INCONCEIVABLE A. visible B. truthful C. incredible D. apparent E. complex

1. 6. 11. 16. 21. 26.

C D E D A E

2. 7. 12. 17. 22. 27.

D E C E A E

Reasoning Ability 3. B 8. B 13. A 18. E 23. C 28. C Numerical Ability 33. D 38. A 43. B 48. A 53. C 58. D

4. 9. 14. 19. 24. 29.

A C D B B E

5. 10. 15. 20. 25. 30.

A E E A E A

31. 36. 41. 46. 51. 56.

A D B C A B

32. 37. 42. 47. 52. 57.

B A A A D B

34. 39. 44. 49. 54. 59.

C C C D D A

35. 40. 45. 50. 55. 60.

B D A C E C

61. 66. 71. 76. 81. 86.

D A E E C C

62. 67. 72. 77. 82. 87.

D E D E D A

General Knowledge, Current Affairs 63. D 64. 68. C 69. 73. B 74. 78. D 79. 83. A 84. 88. C 89. Computer Knowledge 93. D 98. C 103. B 108. C 113. D 118. A

C C B B C B

65. 70. 75. 80. 85. 90.

B A C B E C

91. 96. 101. 106. 111. 116.

A E E D B B

92. 97. 102. 107. 112. 117.

B A A B C D

94. 99. 104. 109. 114. 119.

A A B C C D

95. 100. 105. 110. 115. 120.

C A D D D A

English Language (with Special emphasis on Grammar, Vocabulary and Comprehension) 121. D 122. B 123. A 124. B 125. D 126. E 127. A 128. C 129. E 130. C 131. E 132. E 133. C 134. B 135. E 136. B 137. B 138. A 139. A 140. A 141. B 142. E 143. A 144. C 145. D 146. D 147. C 148. A 149. C 150. C 151. E 152. D 153. B 154. B 155. C 156. C 157. A 158. B 159. D 160. D