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MCAT Full-Length Tests

Dear Future Doctor, The following Full-Length Test and explanations are an opportunity to bring it all together in simulation. Do not engage in Full-Length practice until you have adequately prepared your knowledge and critical thinking skills in Subject, Topical, and Section tests. Simply g the tests is inadequate; a solid understanding of your performance through your Score Reports and the explanations is necessary to diagnose your specific weaknesses and address them before Test Day. All rights are reserved pursuant to the copyright laws and the contract clause in your enrollment agreement and as printed below. Misdemeanor and felony infractions can severely limit your ability to be accepted to a medical program and a conviction can result in the removal of a medical license. We offer this material for your practice in your own home as a courtesy and privilege. Practice today so that you can perform on test day; this material was designed to give you every advantage on the MCAT and we wish you the best of luck in your preparation. Sincerely,

Albert Chen Executive Director, Pre-Health Research and Development Kaplan Test Prep

2003 Kaplan, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by Photostat, microfilm, xerography or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc. This book may not be duplicated, distributed or resold, pursuant to the terms of your Kaplan Enrollment Agreement.


1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. B A C C B C D C B B A D B D B A B D A D 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. B D C B B B C A C A D C D B C D A A C B 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. B C D A B C C A B C B D D C A C B B A D 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. A D C B D D A C C B C C B D A D D

Passage I (Questions 16)

1. B

Since the two component forces are in serial in the Maxwell model, the elastic force is no longer applicable after time zero; and according to the equation for the viscous component, a given amount of force will continue to stretch the material as time progress. The Voight model, on the other hand, has a given length shared by both elasticity and viscosity, such that as the viscous component is stretched over time, it is also limited by the resistant elastic force that increases as the material is elongated. The correct answer is therefore choice (B).
2. A

This requires you to know the definition of Youngs modulus, which represents the stiffness of a material. It is a property of solids and therefore, does not involve viscosity. Eliminate choices (B) and (D). In order to increase stiffness, you need to increase the value of k. Based on the equation F = kx, a stiff material will require a large force to produce a small amount of deformation. Given a large F and a small x, k must be increased to increase Youngs modulus; choice (A) is correct.
3. C

According to the passage, the viscosity of the material can be attained from the equation F=v, where is the viscosity. Since the force F is given and is constant, the remaining information required is v, which is the speed of deformationchoice (C) is correct. Both choices (B) and (D) combined can allow one to evaluate the speed of elongation, but neither by itself is a sufficient.
4. C

First, work W = Fd. Given the constant force of 25 N, you need to calculate the total distance d that is stretched over the 1 second time period. First, calculate the instantaneous stretch of the elastic component, which is x = F/k after a little rearrangement of the equation provided in the passage. We then add the stretch of the viscous component in one second, which would be x=Ft/, if we substitute x/t for v (the definition for velocity). The total calculated elongation should equal 5 m for the elastic stretch plus 5 m for the viscous stretch; a total of 10 m. Substituting back to our equation for work, we get W=(25N)(10m) = 250 J. Choice (C) is correct.
5. B

At time t = 0, the viscous component has yet to come into play, since it is time-dependent. Hence, the initial elongation would simply be the elongation of the spring component, which is determined by the equation F = kx. To determine the elongation x, shuffle the equation, using F=F0 to get x=F0/k .
6. C

This model is a combination of both the Maxwell and Voight model. Though it may seem rather complex, it can be analyzed by its parts. First, it has an elastic spring in series with a Voight material. Since from the Maxwell model, you know that an elastic spring will deform instantaneously, you can narrow the answer choices to (A) and (C), where there is a short vertical component of the graph showing an instant displacement. After t = 0, the Voight material should take over with the asymptotic curve as shown in choice (C). Choice (A) is a simple spring, while choice (B) is a simple damper. Choice (D) is incorrect since it does not display an asymptotic limit , which we expect when no damper is present in series. Choice (D) represents a damper in series with a Voight material.

Passage II (Questions 712)

7. D

In the passage, you learned that the color of a coordination complex is the result of a promotion of an electron from a low-energy d orbital to a higher energy orbital. Therefore, any transition metal complex that is colorless must not be able to effect this transition. This leaves you with two possibilities: either the complex has no electrons in d orbitals or all the d orbitals are filled so no electrons can be promoted. The first possibility makes no sensethe definition of a transition metal is that it has electrons in d orbitals. Therefore, the second option is your best bet. This matches what you already know about zinc ions; they are d10, meaning that there are 10 electrons in the d orbitalsall full. Now take a look at the answer choices. (D) matches this prediction; the eg orbitals are the higher-energy orbitals in a crystal field, so if they are full, all the d orbitals are filled. This will make a promotion impossible. The complex will be colorless. Choice (A) makes no sensewhen a metal loses electrons, its properties change, so even a colorless metal could still have colored complexes once it lost electrons to become an ion. Choices (B) and (C) might seem tempting, but there is no evidence in the passage or the question stem that the crystal field splitting energy is either small or large, so there is no way to say what the frequency of light would be if an electron could be promoted. In any case, all orbitals are filled for this complex.
8. C

This question might seem daunting when you first read the stemthere are so many possibilities! Dont panic; just keep the passage information in mind as you read the answer choices. The answer choices are limited to information about color, so you know that the question is asking you to say something about the color of two solutions: a solution of K3[CrBr6] and a solution of K3[Cr(CN)6]. Now things are a lot simpler. What is the difference between these two solutions? This, too, might seem complicated, but as is often the case on the MCAT, you really only need one piece of information to answer this question correctly. That piece of information is going to come from the spectrochemical series given at the end of the passage. Take a look, and you will see that bromide and cyanide ions lie at opposite ends of that spectrum. Whatever difference there is between these two solutions, it will be related to high and low spins. As cyanide ions replace bromide ions, the solution will be changing from high spin to low spin. According to the passage, this is going to mean a larger crystal field splitting energya larger transition for an electron to make. In addition to the enlargement of the splitting, you also need to consider the fact that as the complex changes from high spin to low spin, there will be more opportunities for promotion. This is because there will be more electrons in the lower energy levels and more available orbitals into which these electrons can be promoted. There will be more promotions, so the intensity of the color will increase. Therefore, the answer is (C). (A) makes a false comparison between bromide and cyanidein CFT, most of the ligands will be negatively charged, so a negative charge will not be enough to draw parallels between pairs of ligands. (B) assumes that the ions are all in solution togetheryou know this isnt true because a complex is one unit. (D) tells you that the 0 decreases, but you know that it increases, so (D) is incorrect.

9. B

Many MCAT questions follow the pattern of this one: ask a yes or no question (or a question with two possible answers) and give two possible explanations for each. So, you can use some strategy to eliminate half the answer choices right off the bat. In this case, you can choose to eliminate both no answers, both yes answers or you can choose to eliminate wrong answers based on their explanations, then decide whether yes or no corresponds to the correct explanation. All the answer choices mention the paired or unpaired nature of electrons in a manganese complex. Thats your clue to take a look at the electron configuration of that metal ion. Mn2+ has five d electrons, so it will have unpaired electrons regardless of whether it is high or low spin. (If it is high spin, there will be five unpaired electronsone in each d orbital. If it is low spin, there will be one unpaired electron in a t2g orbital and 4 paired electrons in t2g orbitals.) Knowing that there are unpaired electrons, you can eliminate (A) and (C). Now, you need to refer to the passage or to your outside knowledge to determine whether unpaired electrons lead to paramagnetism. The passage states that a paramagnetic substance is one which contains unpaired electrons, so the answer must be (B).
10. B

The first thing to do here is to take a look at the electron configuration of the Fe2+ ion. Iron(II) has six electrons. This means that when it is high spin, it will have four unpaired electrons. When it is low spin, it will have no unpaired electrons, because all the electrons will be in the three t2g orbitals. Once all the electrons are paired, the complex will be diamagnetic; it will have lost its paramagnetic properties, so (B) is correct.
11. A

Beware of extraneous information in question stems when youre taking the MCAT! It doesnt matter whether a complex is low spin or high spin when it comes to the total number of electrons that can fill all the d orbitals. Every transition metal has five d orbitals, each of which can hold two electrons, so ten electrons would fill the d orbitals of a coordination complex. Therefore, (A) is correct.
12. D

At first, it might seem that this question makes no sense because the first compound, Mn(NO3)2, isnt a coordination complex. Dont be fooled, though; the question stem tells you that youre dealing with an aqueous solution. Therefore, it is a coordination complex with Mn(NO3)2 as the central ion and water molecules as ligands. Now your job is to compare H2O and CN with Cl. Dont fall into the next trap, eitherjust because cyanide and chloride are both negatively charged doesnt mean theyre the most similar. What you need to do is consult the spectrochemical series. Water is high spin, while cyanide is low spin. Where does chloride fall on the spectrum? It is even more high spin than water, so the complex will be high spin. Therefore, choice (D) is correct.
Passage III (Questions 1318)
13. B

The question gives a speed, a distance, and wants you to find time. Here the rate is Mach 3, which equals the ratio of the speed of the jet to the speed of sound. Since the jet is going 3 times as fast as the speed of sound, the speed of the jet is 900 m/s. The question asks the time required to fly around the circumference of the Earth.

Circum. = d (3)(1.28 107 m) 4 107 m (4 107 m) t = 9.0 102 m/s 0.5 105 s 13 hours, choice (B).
14. D

The passage mentions that the Mach number of a jet can increase as it ascends, without increasing its velocity. Since, Mach number is the speed of the jet over the speed of sound, and the speed of the jet is constant, the larger Mach number must mean a smaller speed of sound. The speed of sound is decreasing as the altitude increases. Remember that the speed of sound is inversely proportional to the density of the medium through which it is propagated. If speed decreases, density must have decreased: choice (D) is correct. Choice (A) is wrong, since the speed of sound in air does change as you change altitude. Choice (B) is incorrect since the frequency of a wave passing from one medium to another is constant. Finally, choice (C) is never implied, since the intensity of the sound wave may be different depending on whether the nose or the back is emitting the wave.
15. B

The figure indicates that the waves are building up in front of the jet. The passage states this is exactly what happens when the jet flies at the speed of sound. If choice (A) were true, the waves would be ahead of the jet. Choice (C) is illustrated in the passage and choice (D) would involve a change in the jets speed that is not illustrated by the figure.
16. A

Remember that beat frequency is the difference between frequencies of a combined sound wave. Initially, the jets start at the same place and emit identical sound waves, so there are no beats. As one jet speeds up, the Doppler effect indicates that the detector will record a smaller frequency for the sound emitted by that jet. Therefore, the frequencies of sound emitted by the two jets are now different, and a beat will be detected. So, the beat frequency increases from zero to some larger frequency.
17. B

If the two people are underwater, then the sound waves have to travel through air and then through water to reach them. Since sound travels faster in denser substances, it travels faster in water than in air. Therefore, you would expect the two people swimming to hear it first. However, we do not know how deep the people are underwater. In other words, the swimmers could be so deep underwater that the wave has so much longer to travel before it can reach them, thus even though it travels faster it may take more time to reach them then their friend. The only thing we can be sure of is that the frequency of sound is constant as it passes from one medium to another: choice (B). Finally, if frequency is constant, but speed changes between two media, wavelength must also change: choice (D) is incorrect.


As the jet decelerates, the chair experiences a force equal to its mass times acceleration. So, the spring will elongate under that force according to Hookes law: F = kx. These forces are equal, so one can say that the force on the spring is proportional to the change in speed of the chair: since, the final velocity is zero, the force is proportional to the original velocity of the jet, choice (D).
Passage IV (Questions 1924)
19. A

In Reaction 1, a proton is transferred from a carbonic acid molecule to a water molecule. Once this transfer has occurred, the bicarbonate ion has a charge of 1. Therefore, any positively charged species will be difficult to remove; charge separation is not favored by Coulombs Law. Choice (B) is incorrect because as protons are lost from carbonic acid, the concentration of bicarbonate ion increases. Choice (C) is incorrect because the molecular geometry of bicarbonate ion is not changed by losing a hydrogen ion. Choice (D) is incorrect because, while hydrogen bonds form, they do not have a significant effect on the Ka values.
20. D

Carbonate, CO32, has 24 valence electrons: 4 from carbon, 6 from each of the three oxygen atoms (18) and 2 from the negative charge on the whole ion. These will be arranged according to the following Lewis structure: O C 2-

O Using VSEPR Theory, you know that the three oxygen atoms will repel each other as much as possible; this will result in atoms that are in a plane with 120 separations. This is a trigonal planar geometry.
21. B

In the section on Experiment 2, the passage states that a dilute solution of potassium hydroxide is used. This will be basic, so the solution starts out with a blue color. From this, you can eliminate choices (C) and (D). Then, recognize that as solid carbon dioxide dissolves in the aqueous solution, it will combine with water to form carbonic acid. This will neutralize the hydroxide ions and cause the solution to become acidic. Since bromothymol blue is colorless in acidic solution, the solution will lose its blue color to become clear. The answer is (B).
22. D

The key to answering this question correctly is to write equilibrium expressions for Reactions 1 and 2. Start out by writing: -] [H3O+][HCO3 [H3O+][CO23] Ka and Ka -] [H2CO3] 1 2 [HCO3

Then, solve for hydronium ion concentration in each equation to get:

-] Ka2[HCO3 Ka1[H2CO3] [H3O+] and [H3O+] -] [CO2[HCO3 3]

Now it is clear that only choice (D) makes sense.

23. C

To calculate the equilibrium concentration of the bicarbonate ion, set up a table of values: H2CO3(aq) Initial concentration (M) Change in concentration (M) Equilibrium concentration (M) 0.034 x 0.034 x +H2O(l) H3O+(aq) 0 +x +x + HCO3(aq) 0 +x +x

Now set up the following equation: Ka

-] [H3O+][HCO3 [H2CO3]

x2 0.034 x The next step is to solve for x; this gives x = 1.2104 M. 4.3107 All the other answer choices are traps: (A) is simply the Ka2 value, (B) is the Ka1 value and (D) is the initial concentration of carbonic acid. Any of these could have been eliminated with a little thinking!
24. B

Take a look at the Lewis structure you drew for question 2. Each oxygen atom should be identical, but in the one shown, two of the oxygen atoms have single bonds to carbon, while one of them is double-bonded. Each of the oxygen atoms is equivalent, so there must be enough resonance structures to account for that. The following three resonance structures are relevant:
O C C O 2-





Discrete Questions
25. B

When light enters a medium with an index of refraction n, its speed is reduced to: 3108 m/s c v 2.25108 m/s. 4/3 n answer choice (B). Notice that answer choice (D) is impossible, as nothing can travel faster than the speed of light in a vacuum.
26. B

In a galvanic or voltaic cell, the oxidation and reduction reactions are carried out in separate compartments. These cells are used to do work, so their reactions must be spontaneous. Since they operate spontaneously, G must be negative, so the answer is (B).
27. C

When a substance sublimes, it is converted from solid to gas using the heat of its surroundings. Carbon dioxide sublimes at room temperature because the energy of the air surrounding it is sufficient to effect a phase transformation. Since the CO2 molecules are absorbing heat, entropy increases. Gases have greater entropy than solids, so the entropy change for sublimation must be positive. The answer is (C).
28. A

A gas absorbs heat and does workthis should remind you of the First Law of Thermodynamics: U Q W. So the gas in this case absorbs 900 J of heat energy, and does 600 J of work. The change in internal energy is therefore 900 600 = 300 J. Whenever an ideal gas undergoes a change in internal energy, its temperature changes as well: 2U 2(300) 3 U nRTT 100/R K, 3nR 3(2)R 2 answer choice (A).
Passage V (Questions 2933)
29. C

The first things we should take notice of upon reading the question are: This is a Roman numeral question. We should test the most popular statement first, eliminating answer choices as we go along. The question is asking about which forces do work, which means we need to understand what it means for forces to do work.

When an object is displaced a certain distance d through the actions of a force F, pointing in the direction of the displacement, then the work done on the object by the force is W = Fd. When the force points in the opposite direction to the displacement, the work done is negative: this force isnt adding energy to the system, its removing energy from the system; the force is resisting attempts to displace the object. When an applied force is perpendicular to the displacement, then the work done by that force on the object is zero. It might be tempting to go ahead and work out on your own which forces are doing work on the lower box, but remember: this is an MCAT question, not a homework question. Jump immediately to the statements and evaluate them. Statement I appears in the most answer choices, so start there. Does the applied force F do work on the lower box? Yesthe lower box is displaced to the right (in Figure 1), and force F points to the right. Eliminate choice (D). What about the weight of the upper box, in statement II? Strictly speaking, the weight of the upper box acts on the upper box, not the lower box. So statement II is false, leaving choice (C) as the correct answer. For completeness, lets check that statement III is true. The contact force C is the force due to friction on the upper box due to the lower box. It points to the right (think about it: its the force that causes the upper box to accelerate to the right, so C had better point to the right.) Since the lower box exerts contact force C on the upper box to the right, by Newtons third law, the upper box must exert contact force C to the left on the lower box. Since this force points opposite to the direction of displacement, it does work on the lower box.
30. A

A moments reflection on this problem should lead you to realize that whether or not the upper box slides is a function of friction. Static friction exists between the two boxes as they accelerate; the passage gives you the coefficient of static friction as m. In general, when does one object slide with respect to the other? When the static frictional force needed to counterbalance the applied force reaches and then passes its maximum value, N. What is the normal force N in this situation? The vertical force that the lower box exerts on the upper box. Since the upper box is not accelerating in the vertical direction, the normal force is balanced by its weight, and N = m2g. So the maximum value of the static frictional force is m2g, and the correct answer is choice (A).
31. D

We need to determine what additional information would be necessary to determine the speed of the boxes at some time t. This is a kinematics problemin all kinematics problems, begin by figuring out what you already know. The passage indicates that the boxes start from rest, so v0 = 0. From kinematics: vf = v0 + at. Since were given the time elapsed in the problem, and the acceleration a is given in the passage, we have all we need. The correct answer is choice (D).


Now that the top box is sliding, the motion of both boxes is no longer identical. This problem can be analyzed in great detail, but that is not necessary to answer this question correctly. The structure of the answer choices indicates to us that we need to figure out two things: Does the acceleration of the bottom box increase or decrease? Does the acceleration of the top box increase of decrease? Your gut instinct may be to think well, once the top box starts sliding, it should fall off the back, so the top box must be slowing down. Go with that instinctthe physical scenario in this passage is in line with everday experiences, so you can trust your gut. Thinking physically about the scenario in this problem will back up our gut reaction. The top box begins to slide when the contact force between the boxes switches over from static friction to kinetic friction. Since the coefficient of kinetic friction is generally less than the coefficient of static friction, the force of kinetic friction is less than the maximum force due to static friction. As the contact force is now smaller, the impediment to the forward motion of the lower box is lessened, while simultaneously, the force that pushes the upper box forward with respect to the ground is lessened as well. The acceleration of the upper box decreases, and the acceleration of the lower box increases, answer choice (C).
33. D

We are told in the problem that the mass of the lower box is three times the mass of the upper box, and then asked to compare the current acceleration of the system to the acceleration of the lower box if the top box were removed. Lets start with the motion of the system of boxes. The only external force on the system of boxes is F, so the acceleration a must satisfy F = (m1+m2)a. Since m1 = 3m2, 3 F a = 4 m1 . After the top box is removed, the force F is applied only to the box with mass m1. The new acceleration of the system, a, is F/m1, which is 4/3 times the old acceleration. Choice (D) is correct. Note that you could have eliminated answer choices (A) and (B) right away by realizing that removing mass from the system while keeping the force constant was going to increase the acceleration by some amount.


Passage VI (Questions 3439)

34. B

When youre asked about the spontaneity of a reaction, you should immediately think of the Gibbs free energy, DG. This eliminates choices (A) and (D). You know that a reaction with a negative Gibbs free energy is spontaneous, so the answer is (B).
35. C


Titanium is bonded to two oxygen atoms in TiO2, as shown in the Lewis dot structure above. Each oxygen has a charge of 2, so titanium must have a charge of +4.
36. D

You are asked to characterize the type of reaction you are given. Choices (A) and (B) both involve redox chemistry. You know these cant be correct because the oxidation state of Ti does not change from reactants to products; it is +4 in both cases. This leaves you with (C) and (D). The transfer of chloride ions from titanium ion to the aqueous acid form might lead you to label this an exchange reaction, but (D) is a better choice. The fundamental aspect of this process is the reaction between liquid water and titanium tetrachloride. Whenever a substance reacts with water, it is a hydrolysis reaction.
37. A

Once titanium has lost all four of its valence electrons, it has the electronic configuration of argon, [Ar]. (C) or (D) would apply if titanium had not yet lost its electrons by ionization.
38. A

Titanium dioxide forms spontaneously according to Reaction 1. It is very unlikely that this stable compound would undergo a corrosion reaction to form a gaseous tetraoxide. The other three reactions, however, all involve the formation of one of two stable substances: solid titanium or titanium dioxide. The reaction in choice (B) is extremely similar to Reaction 2 as shown in the passage; just substitute chlorine for bromine. The reaction in (C) forms solid titanium, which will drive the reaction because of the stability of titanium. The reaction in (D) is very similar to Reaction 1, substituting bromine for chlorine, so it is not unlikely.
39. C

Consider statement (I) first since it appears most often in the answer choices. Is humidity going to affect Reaction 1? Most certainlythe reaction is between titanium tetrachloride and water, so humid conditions will make this reaction more favorable. Therefore, it will not inhibit the reaction. Any choice that contains statement (I) should be eliminated. (Notice that just by doing this, you are already done because only choice (C) does not contain statement (I).) Now examine statement (II). Will performing the reaction in the presence of a base affect the reaction? Since acid is produced, the presence of a base will drive the equilibrium to the right. Therefore, it will not inhibit production of titanium dioxide. Finally, consider statement (III). Will performing the reaction in the presence of hydrogen gas affect the production of titanium dioxide? A side reaction similar to Reaction 2 is very likely to occur here: TiCl4(g) 2H2(g)Ti(s) 4HCl(g)

This will reduce the amount of titanium dioxide produced, so statement (III) is the only one that applies.
Passage VII (Questions 4044)
40. B

There are two bright maxima, at 400 nm and 600 nm. To employ the formula given in the passage, we need to know what the wavelengths of those two sources are inside the film: 400 nm 600 nm 233 nm, 400 nm. 1.5 1.5 So, inside the film, m d 2 d m1 (400)/2 200m1, 800/3 d m2 ( 2 ) 400/3 m2 The question is, which integer pair m1, m2 yield the same d? By trial and error, you can see that m1 = 2 and m2 = 3 yields a depth of 400 nm, choice (B).
41. B

Answer choice (D) is certainly wrong, as nothing prevents light from entering a medium with a higher index of refraction at any angle. Similarly, choice (C) is wrong, because the phaseshift that wave undergo on reaching a boundary with a higher index of refraction doesnt depend on the angle of incidence. Choice (B) is correct. The formula assumes that the rays are coming in close to the vertical. If they were coming in shallow, the path length through the film would no longer be 2d, but something much longer.

What determines the degree to which light is refracted? Snells Law, n1 sin1 n2 sin2. The angle of refraction has no dependence at all upon the wavelength of the light, so choices (A) and (B) are incorrect. In fact, weve already stated the correct answer: choice (C). Choice (D) is incorrect: its because the indices of refraction are different that refraction occurs at all.


Are all the conditions for the soap bubble the same as those for the thin film? No. The thin film is layered between a medium of lower index of refraction, and a layer with a higher index of refraction. A soap bubble is surrounded on air on both sides. One of the rays isnt going to undergo a phase shift, and so the equation no longer applies to constructive interference. Answer choice (D) is correctits ray 2 that meets the second soap-air boundary.



There are two fringes between 400 nm and 700 nmthe visible spectrum, when white light is shone upon a film with d = 900 nm. Using the equation from the passage, 2d 1800 nm = . m m Only two values of m yield wavelengths in the visible spectrum: m=3, and m=4. Consequently, 600 nm and 400 nm can be seen. The correct answer is choice (A).
Passage VIII (Questions 4550)
45. B

Remember ROYGBIV (red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet). Red is the lowest energy and violet is the highest energy. As energy increases, the wavelength gets shorter. So potassium, which emits violet light, emits a higher energy, shorter wavelength of light than does sodium (yellow light).
46. C

The passage states that the yellow produced by sodium generally washes out all other colors in the firework. So the presence of sodium (in the form of sodium perchlorate) will eliminate the desired red color. Consequently, sodium perchlorate would not be a good oxidizer. (A) and (B) are wrong because the reactivity of sodium and potassium are not at issue, the reaction is between the perchlorate and the fuel, not the cation and the fuel. (D) is the exact opposite of what is stated in the passage.
47. C

The reaction is a redox reaction, indicating that at least two atoms are going to change oxidation states. Al produces a 3+ ion (see periodic table), indicating that either (A) or (C) is correct (oxygen is a 2 ion). (B) and (D) have Al with a +4 charge and can therefore be eliminated. (A) is not balanced (too many Al atoms, not enough O atoms), leaving only (C).
48. A

The passage states that the composition melts upon ignition, which allows them to react. So the act of melting from a solid to a liquid allows the reaction to begin. Choice (A) is truesolid reactants do not mix and therefore cannot react. When the reactants are melted, they mix and begin to react. We also know from common sense that (B) is falseyou can go to the store and buy fireworks, right? (C) is tempting, but we are told that dextrin is used to bind the reactants together, not keep them in separate compartments. (D) is completely false; dextrin is not used as an inhibitor.
49. B

Red is a longer wavelength (ROYGBIV) and therefore less energetic form of light than green light. So the difference between energy levels in the strontium atom is less than in the barium atom. The electrons are excited from the s to the d orbital (level 5 in strontium, level 6 in barium), not from s to s. So the correct answer is (B).



The passage states that ignition melts the reactants. So (C) makes sense: melting the oxidizer and fuel allows them to mix and begin reacting. (A) is false because the dextrin is not used to separate the oxidizer and fuel. (B) is false because we know that the reaction generates heat and is therefore exothermic. (D) is false because the redox reaction between the oxidizer and fuel causes the oxidizer to release its oxygen, not the heat from the fuse.
Discrete Questions
51. B

The magnetic force on a current-carrying wire is: FILB(1 A)(3 m)(0.5 T)1.5 N. We can eliminate choices (C) and (D). Now you can use the right-hand rule to determine the direction of the force: your fingers point with the moving charges, up the page. Curl your fingers in the direction of the field, out of the page. Your thumb now points to the rightthat is the direction of the force. Choice (B) is correct.
52. D

The magnetic quantum number indicates how an orbital behaves in an electric field. This should immediately point you to (D). The shape of the electron cloud is determined by the magnetic quantum number. The radial size of an electron cloud is determined by the principal quantum number (A). The number of valence electrons about a nucleus and the number of protons in the nucleus are determined by the location of the element on the periodic table.
53. D

When the weight of the mass is in balance with the restoring force from the spring, then: mg (2 kg)(10 m/s2) kx mg k 333 N/m, x 0.06 m choice (D).
54. C

The oxidation number of chromium in Cr2O72 is 3. This may be calculated as follows: the oxidation number of oxygen in Cr2O72 is 2. There are seven oxygen atoms, resulting in a charge of 14. The overall charge of the ion is 2, leaving +12 for the two chromium atoms. Each has a charge of +6. The difference between +6 and +3 is 3, choice (C).

As the two sounds are 3 Hz apart, that is the beat frequency (fb f1 f2). So the beats occur three times per second, or once every one-third of a second: 0.33 s. The correct answer is choice (A).



In order to answer this question, ask yourself what is meant by expanded octet. An expanded octet is an atom that is surrounded by more than the usual eight electrons. In order to determine which compound has an expanded octet, draw the Lewis structures for each answer choice:

Clearly, POCl3 has 10 electrons around the phosphorus atom, so (C) is the correct answer.
Passage IX (Questions 5762)
57. B

The current is running up and down the antenna. When current runs up the antenna, point your thumb upwards and curl your fingers in the direction of the field. In this case, in a circle around the antenna. When the current points down, point your thumb down: now the magnetic field circles the antenna in the other direction. The correct answer is choice (B).
58. B

A negatively charged particle will, inside an electric field, experience a force opposite to the field direction. Since the field points upwards, the electron will be forced downwards: the answer is choice (B).
59. A

This is a classic MCAT Physics question, asking you to derive a property of an electromagnetic wave. In this case, you are given the wavelength and asked to produce the period. From the wavelength, we can derive the frequency: c 3108 f 6 107 Hz. 5 1 7 8 The period is the reciprocal of the frequency: T 6 10 1.7 10 s, answer choice (A).
60. D

The intensity of an electromagnetic wave is a function of the amplitude, which is increased by boosting the power. There is no connection to the length of the antenna rods (choice (C)), nor is there a connection between power and frequency (A) or period (B). However, increasing the voltage of the AC generator will increase the power of the signal (P = IV), resulting in a higher intensity. The correct answer is choice (D).



The change in potential energy in moving a charge q across a potential V is:

UqV. In this case, to move the charge +ne across potential V will require an amount of work equal to the change in potential energy of the charge: W U (ne)(V) neV. answer choice (A). Notice that the length of travel has no effect on the work donelike any conservative force, its only the initial and final states that count.
62. D

Another classic MCAT Physics problem: the MCAT loves power. Always remember that power is energy per unit time. In this case, we are given the power and the time, and asked to compute the energy: E P t E Pt (50000 W)(60 s) 3 10 6 J 3 MJ, answer choice (D). If the magnetic field now points from right to left, then the magnetic force on the current is going to be out of the page (fingers point up the page (v); fingers curl to the left (B); thumb points out of the page (F)). The charges are going to separate across the depth of the strip instead of the width. In this case, the electric field that forms will also run along the depth, instead of the width. Since the behavior of the charge carriers does change, choice A is incorrect. It is true that the electric field no longer runs along the width of the strip, so answer choice B is correct. The electric field doesnt point in the opposite direction (C), and we know that a new Hall voltage is created, in this case along the depth of the strip instead of the width (D).
Passage X (Questions 6367)
63. C

This question asks whether a reaction will go to completion. By inspection of the answer choices, you know that the key to answering correctly will be to determine whether the reactants are present in stoichiometric amounts or whether a limiting reagent issue will arise. So, the first thing to do is recognize that choice (A) may be eliminated immediately; Reaction 2 has a 6:1 ratio of sodium to iron oxide, so equimolar amounts of the two will not cause the reaction to go to completion. The next thing to do is begin your treatment of the limiting reagent problem. Calculate the molar amounts of Na(l) and Fe2O3(s) by performing dimensional analysis, using the values youre given along with the stoichiometry of the reaction: mol NaN3 106 g NaN3 65 g NaN3 1.63 mol NaN3


Now that you know the number of moles of sodium azide, youll want to calculate the resulting number of moles of elemental sodium: 2 mol Na 1.63 mol NaN3 2 mol NaN3 1.63 mol Na Now youre ready to take a look at the iron oxide present in the reaction chamber: mol Fe2O3 35 g Fe2O3 159 g Fe2O3 0.2 molFe2O3 The next step is to compare the stoichiometry of Reaction 2 with the molar amounts you just calculated. Do this by dividing 1.63 by 0.22. If the quotient is greater than 6 (the molar ratio of sodium to iron oxide in Reaction 2) then iron oxide is the limiting reagent. If the quotient is less than 6, sodium is the limiting reagent. If the quotient is equal to 6, then stoichiometric amounts of reactant are present, and the reaction will go to completion. 1.63 mol Na 0.22 mol Fe2O3 7.4 This is greater than 6; excess sodium is present. Therefore, choice (C) is correct.
64. B

In this case, the meaning of root mean square speed is not important; this is a pure calculation question. However, you should know that root-mean-square speed is a measure of the typical speed of molecules in a gas at thermal equilibrium. To calculate the root-mean-square speed, use the following formula: 3RT , urms M where R is the ideal gas constant, T is the temperature of the system in Kelvins, and M is the molar mass of the gas in kilograms per mole. Since the answer choices are conveniently given in terms of RT, you only need to determine the molar mass of nitrogen to answer this question correctly. The molar mass of nitrogen is approximately 28 grams per mole, so choice (B) is correct.
65. D

This is a conceptual question, designed to test your knowledge of the ideal gas law and its applications. At a high altitude such as that of Mt. Shasta, the pressure will be lower than it is at sea level. However, the temperature is slightly lower at high altitudes, so you have to take that into account as well. Take a look at the Ideal Gas Law to see how these two factors will affect the volume of the experimental balloon: PVnRT Manipulate the equation to examine the effects of pressure and temperature: nRT V P Notice that a decrease in pressure and a decrease in temperature will cause competing effectslowering the pressure causes an increase in volume, while lowering the temperature causes a decrease in volume. Only (D) conveys this appropriately.



This question indirectly tests your knowledge of reaction mechanisms. The key to answering it correctly is knowing how a catalyst works. A catalyst is a substance that takes part in a chemical reaction and speeds it up, but undergoes no permanent change itself. How does a catalyst speed up a reaction? It does this by lowering the activation energy of the reaction. This will be manifest in the height of the peak between products and reactants in the energy profile. Therefore, choice (D) is correct. Choice (A) is wrong because the energy of the products will not be higher than that of the reactants; the reaction is spontaneous, so products are lower in energy than reactants. Choice (B) is also wrong, because the activation energy will be lower with a catalyst, not higher. Choice (C) is wrong because the final potential energy of the products is not equal to the potential energy of the reactants.
67. A

The MCAT expects you to know that substances in their elemental states have oxidation numbers equal to zero. Therefore, the product, elemental iron (Fe) will have an oxidation number of zero. This allows you to eliminate choices (C) and (D). Now, you just need to determine the oxidation number of iron in iron oxide. Since oxygen has a charge of 2 and there are three of them, the iron atoms must balance the charge with +6. There are two iron atoms in iron oxide, so each must have a charge of +3.
Passage XI (Questions 6872)
68. C

The amount of work done by a force over a distance is W = Fd. In this case, however, there are no forces or distances available. But since you have both the starting (10 m/s) and ending (0 m/s) speed, you can apply the work-energy theorem to this problem. The amount of work done by friction is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the object: 1 (0.5)(10)2 25 J KEi 2 KEf 0 J. Therefore, the total work done by friction is choice (C), 25 J.
69. C

The disk that started at 4 m/s decelerated to 0 m/s in 1.2 seconds, according to the table in experiment 1. Using kinematics, 0 4 vf v0 2 a t 1.2 3.3 m/s , answer choice (C).



The surface with the largest coefficient of kinetic friction will be the one who put a stop to the disk the quickest. However, you must compare apples to apples: each of the pucks must start with the same initial speed. You must use the data from experiment 1 for a starting speed of 4 m/s, since experiment 2 uses only 4 m/s as a starting speed. Surface A actually stops the disk the quickest among the four; choice (B) is the correct answer.
71. C

It might be tempting to reason that the heavier the mass, the higher the acceleration will be. But while its certainly true that the frictional force goes up with mass, the acceleration is mass independent. For example, the normal force on a disk equals the disks weight: N = mg. Consequently, the force of friction is mg. Since this is the force that provides the acceleration, Newtons second law indicates that: ma mg a g The acceleration is mass-independent, and the correct answer choice is (C).
72. C

The disk started at 4 m/s and came to a stop in about one second, so the deceleration was about 4 m/s2. Kinematics tell us: 1 2 at (4)(1)(0.5)(4)(1)2 2 m, d v0t + 2 answer choice (C).
Discrete Questions
73. B

The MCAT loves to ask about systems being studied; these are considered in relation to the surroundings. A closed system is one for which energy can be exchanged with the surroundings while matter is kept separate. Therefore, choice (B) is correct. Dont get thrown off by choice (C); it is similar to the correct answer but gives just the opposite conclusion. Choice (A) is incorrect because this is the definition of an isolated system. Choice (D) describes an open system, so it is also incorrect. Again, choice (B) is correct.
74. D

The excess pressure that affects a submerged object is hydrostatic gauge pressure, gh, where is the density of the fluid. At a depth of 2 m, in a fluid with a density of 1.2 g/cm3, the hydrostatic pressure is: kg 2 P gh 1200 m3 (10 m/s )(2 m) 24000 Pa,

which is close to answer choice (D).



Solubility is affected by a number of factors, including temperature, the solvent, the addition of other substances and in the gas phase, pressure. Therefore, only choice (A) does not affect solubility. Think of a glass of water as the solvent and table salt as the substance being dissolved. If you heat the water, more salt will dissolve, so choice (C) must be incorrect. If you used a different solvent with a lower polarity than water, less salt would dissolve, so choice (B) must be incorrect. If you add another solute, the solubility of the salt will change, so choice (D) must be incorrect. However, once the solution is saturated with salt, adding more salt will not change its solubility, so (A) is the correct answer.
76. D

It might be easiest to handle this question by using conservation of energy. The initial energy is all kinetic, and the final energy is all potential: KEi PEf 1 (100)(v)2 (100)(10)(20) 2 v2 400 v 20 m/s. The correct answer is choice (D).
77. D

Ice melts at 0C. This means that as it is heated, it undergoes a phase transition. During the phase transition, the temperature of a substance does not change; eliminate (C). Since the chemist only heats the ice for a moment, not all of the ice can melt. Therefore, you can eliminate choices (A) and (B). Hence, the answer is (D).



78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. B B D B D B B C A A C A C B B B 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. C A D C A A 110. D 111. A 112. C 113. C 114. A 115. B 116. D 117. C 118. B 119. B 120. D 121. A 122. B 123. B 124. D 125. D 126. C 127. D 128. A 129. C 130. A 131. C 132. C 133. B 134. A 135. D 136. B 137. A

100. A 101. C 102. C 103. A 104. C 105. A 106. C 107. B 108. D 109. A


Passage I (Questions 7883)

Topic and Scope: The oceans thermohaline circulation and how disruptions in the circulation patterns might cause dramatic climate changes Paragraph 1 explains the importance of the ocean in climate patterns and introduces the concept of thermohaline circulation. Paragraph 2 describes the factors involved in the sinking of the water. Paragraph 3 discusses some possible environmental changes that could alter the delicate balance that keeps the thermohaline circulation going.
78. B

Scan for the phrase and study its context to answer this logic question. Dont get bogged down in the science. At the beginning of paragraph 2, the author describes how prevailing wind patterns increase evaporation rates of surface waters in the North Atlantic. Note that the question proposes a decrease in prevailing winds in the Northern Hemisphere. To answer this question you need to apply this information to the answer set. Choice (A) restates the information contained in the passage while (B) contradicts it. It is logical that if the winds decrease then the evaporation rate will also decrease. This makes (B) the correct answer. (C) is incorrect because a change in the winds would cause some kind of change in evaporation rates. (D) refers to continental runoff and precipitation which are mentioned in the next sentence but not relevant to the question. These factors do not relate to winds.
79. B

Reread the section around line 55 to prepare to answer this question. The question stem asks you why the author chose to provide an example of a change in the salinity of part of the ocean. You know that the passages purpose is to explain the creation of deep-water and stress its importance in global climate. Choice (B) addresses the passages purpose and allows the author to stress the fragility of thermohaline circulation. (A) is too general and strays from the passages purpose. (C) is a faulty use of detail. Continental run-off decreases the salinity of the ocean by adding freshwater. (D) is a Distortion since a drop in salinity would occur in the ocean, not in the atmosphere.
80. D

To tackle this question, evaluate how the author views climate change. In both paragraphs 1 and 3 the author mentions how a disruption in the thermohaline circulation could have a detrimental effect on climate. Choice (D) paraphrases the main purpose of the passage and is the correct answer. (A) is a faulty use of a detail. The author mentions water cascading off the continental shelf to illustrate how deep water is created. (B) is a detail contained within the passage and may look like a tempting answer. Refer to the question stem, which asks what scientific analysis would be most relevant for climate change. You are looking for a big picture answer. Precipitation totals may be interesting but wont tell scientists much by themselves. (C) is way outside the scope of the passage. Human evolution has not even been mentioned in passing.



This is a detail question. Identify and reread the section of the passage concerning the density of North Atlantic waters and remember that you want the answer that the passage contradicts or does not support. Density is a function of salinity and temperature. Paragraph 2 states that atmospheric absorption of heat, choice (C), increases density. Prevailing wind patterns (A) increase evaporation rates which increase density. Continental runoff (D) affects water density by lowering salinity. The only answer that is not mentioned is (B), which is a Distortion of a detail mentioned in paragraph 3. Water in the North Atlantic doesnt receive warm water from the North. In any case, any water coming from the North would be coming from the North Pole and be cold.
82. D

This inference question hits you with a lot of details so remember not to be intimidated by the answer choices. Choice (A) is too extreme. The author stresses the importance of the thermohaline circulation but discusses both the North Atlantic and the Southern Ocean. The author would not endorse research focused on only one part of the ocean. (B) is a Distortion of a detail in the passage. The last sentences of paragraph 2 discuss the thermocline and how tidal action cause the mixing of oceanic waters. (B) contradicts the information contained in the passage. (C) is opposite; while the passage doesnt provide how disruption of the thermohaline circulation would change climate, the author makes it clear that it would alter world climate. (D) is the correct answer. It touches on the passages purpose, which is to discuss deep-water formation and how its interruption could alter climate.
83. B

Study the context of the section mentioned in the question. This sentence appears in paragraph 2. The scope of this paragraph concerns the factors involved in creating the oceans dense, deep water, and this question asks you to evaluate why the author mentions the Atlantics salinity. Notice that the author uses a superlative to describe the Atlantics salinity. Its the saltiest of all high-latitude waters. Choice (B) is correct since the authors use of a superlative reinforces the importance of salinity, and the passage describes how salinity and temperature cause water to sink. (A) is FUD, misusing a detail found near line 21. The atmospheres absorption of heat decreases the temperature of the water and does not relate to its salinity. (C) is never mentioned in the passage. While the passage mentions wind patterns and evaporation, (D) states that the author mentions salinity in order to discuss the factors involved in wind patterns and evaporation rates. Thats wrong and does not address the question.
Passage II (Questions 8490)

Topic and Scope: The need to implement national standards in teaching and the means to do so. Paragraph 1 discusses the need for guidelines and the difference between setting them and implementing them. Paragraphs 2 and 3 discuss why schools cant currently implement standards. Paragraphs 4, 5 and 6 list the authors recommendations: paragraph 4 teacher education, paragraph 5 teacher salaries, and paragraph 6 continuing education.



Although choice (D) may seem tempting, it is in fact a Distortion of the recommendation made in the final paragraph; the purpose of the comparison to doctors and lawyers is not to show that it is important for teachers to remain current. The author does not address anywhere in the passage whether teachers should be accorded the same respect as doctors or lawyers (C) or whether they should all be on the same pay scale (A). Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
85. C

The authors assertion throughout the passagein fact, the main idea in this passageis that national science standards are useful only when teachers have the strong content knowledge and necessary supplies to use them effectively. Choice (C) is the only answer here that works. While (A) and (B) are probably true, the fact that students did better on their tests strengthens neither of these assertions. There is no evidence for (D) in the passage.
86. A

It would be a stretch to assume that older, more experienced teachers would be an obstacle to instituting national standards, so choice (A) is correct here. All of the other choices involve issues that are specifically mentioned as impediments to the success of national standards teachers avoiding topics out of ignorance, lack of proper equipment, and not holding teachers responsible for their continuing education.
87. A

The author discusses how important continuing education is for teachers and how these teachers need to be held accountable for their knowledge base. There is no evidence in the passage to suggest that graduate schools can force higher payscales for teachers (B) or that they can improve equipment (D). (C) would be correct only if those with science backgrounds are choosing to enter other fields despite the fact that they have been enrolled in teacher graduate schools.
88. C

According to the passage, national standards can do more harm than good if they require teachers to teach things that either the teachers dont know or for which there are not adequate classroom resources. Hence, choice (C) is correct. Nowhere in the passage is it suggested that teachers can determine their own curriculum regardless of national standards (D), nor does the term national standards imply that the standards would not be implemented across the whole country (B).
89. A

In order for national standards to be implemented, teachers need training, maintains the author, so choice (A) is correct. The author would certainly not support the immediate implementation of national standards (D), nor allowing teachers to omit teaching what they did not understand (C). In addition, it is probably not a reasonable assumption that just because teachers should be retrained like doctors and lawyers, they should get paid like doctors and lawyers as well (B).
90. C

The author would agree that what is tested has a lot to do with what is taught in the classroom, and it is possible that the testing will drive the classroom instruction. Yet new tests cannot improve teaching unless teachers are in place who can live up to the new expectationsthus, choice (C) is correct. It does not stand to reason that the teachers should take the same tests as the students (D), even if the author would probably agree that some sort of teacher assessment would be important.

Passage III (Questions 9198)

Topic and Scope: Folk art and fine art; specifically, what is similar and what is different in practice and appreciation of these two types of art. Paragraph 1 introduces the notions fine art and folk art, and suggests that the distinction be recognized as a convention of language, rather than as intrinsic to each of two essentially distinct forms of art. Paragraph 2 asserts that fine artists had a tendency, at least at first, to consider more traditional art as inferior to their own creations. Paragraph 3 defines primitive art, affirms it gained perceived value sooner than naive art, and expresses the authors hypothesis regarding why this was so (primitive art was more easily valued, for its historical significance). Paragraph 4 defines folk art and introduces the notion that one of the key principles for appreciation of folk artthat appropriate standards are not the same as those appropriate for evaluation of fine artis also applied to the appreciation of modern art. Paragraph 5 introduces the notion that a characteristic normally identifying folk art can also be a characteristic of fine artdifferent styles exist, and indicates how that characteristic is treated differently by those who are oriented toward the fine arts than by those who are oriented toward folk arts. Paragraph 6 questions the importance of a distinction proposed by some: that folk art may be distinguished from fine art in that it has a practical purpose. Paragraph 7 explains how fine art and folk art differ, in terms of their appeal to the viewer.
91. B

Paragraph 4 defines folk art as the art of a people, springing from their customary way of life. Choice (B) is correct because it is a paraphrase of this definition, and thus provides a basis to infer that works of folk art would be more likely than works of fine art to meet this criteria. (C) is opposite to what would be correct. (D) is an incorrect inference. The passage does not provide a basis to infer that several works of folk art would be likely to be of less aesthetic value than several works of fine art. (A) is a Distortion. Although the passage indicates that that folk art was disparaged by early fine artists, it does not indicate that folk art is likely to be misunderstood by viewers today. (A) is also inconsistent with the statement in the last paragraph that folk art tends to have direct appeal and simple charm.
92. B

The first cave paintings can be defined as primitive art (statement II) based on the definition in the first sentence of paragraph 3. This sentence also indicates that primitive art is a type of folk art (statement I) and that it contrasts with naive art. Thus, the passage indicates that cave paintings cannot be considered both primitive and naive, and choice (B), I and II only, is correct.



The passage does not explicitly state why the exhibition at the National Gallery was greeted with disapproval, questioning, and cynicism. However, the reason can be inferred from the context of the statement. The earlier part of the paragraph refers to maturation, and the Mark Twain quote is an ironic statement. Clearly, the change in Twains assessment of his father was not actually due to what his father had learned in seven years, but due to Twains maturation. Choices (A) and (B) are possible reasons why those who attended the exhibit were not impressed. Which is more likely in this context? Is it the curators of the exhibit or the attendees who are most likely to have lacked a mature sense of the artistic value of folk art? If it was primarily the curators, then it is necessary to infer that the public would have had the capacity to appreciate the artistic work of particularly valuable folk art (had it been displayed), which is not supported by anything in the passage. Those who attended the exhibit are analogous to the young Mark Twain; it is their assessment that the passage refers to. Thus, the best inference is choice (B). (C) is not supported by the passage. If fine artists had exercised undue influence on the gallery, it would be more likely that the exhibit would not have been shown at all. (D) is a Distortion of the passage. Although the sentence in question refers to folk painting, it does not indicate that the paintings were on canvas rather than, for example, on furniture.
94. C

This question is best answered by an elimination strategy. Choice (A) cannot be correct because naive art and modern art are defined in a mutually exclusive way in lines 3235 of paragraph 4. (B) cannot be correct because of how primitive art is defined in the first sentence of paragraph 3. (D) cannot be correct because of how folk art is defined in the first sentence of paragraph 4. This leaves (C). The passage indicates that the fine arts have conventions and that modern artists choose to violate contemporary rules of the fine arts. This implies that the rules of fine art are not static. Thus, it is not inconsistent with the passage to conclude that the rules of modern art could evolve, and a piece of modern art that violates todays rules could be accepted as fine art in fifty years.
95. A

By contrasting the close relationship of folk art with the traditional culture of an area to the close association of the fine arts with sophisticated urban centers, the passage focuses on the social context (statement I) in which the artists skill was developed. The intention of the artist (statement II) is not relevant to distinguishing folk art from fine art. Rather, the intention of the artist is related to distinguishing modern art from folk art and modern art from the rest of fine art. While the country of origin of the masks that served as a model for Picassos Les Demoiselles dAvignon is mentioned in the paragraph, country of origin is not focused on as a way of distinguishing fine art from folk art.
96. D

Since the author mentions that the a distinction between fine art and folk art postdated the first cave paintings and that primitive art is part of the history of art, the author can be inferred to agree that folk art and fine art share a common origin, choice (D). The passage mentions both similarities and differences between folk art and fine art, but provides no support for an overall judgment that they are more different than they are similar (A). (B) is a Distortion of the passage. While the second paragraph of the passage makes reference to the maturation of fine art, it also likens the early stages of fine art to adolescence. (C) is inconsistent with the passages focus on specific criteria which distinguish folk art and fine art.



Since the passage indicates that folk art springs naturally from the customary way of life and beliefs of the people of a region, artists living in the same area would be likely to be stylistically similar. In contrast, the passage indicates that styles of fine art are likely to diffuse to other areas. Thus, choice (C) is correct. While the tendency of younger artists to learn from skilled adults (A) is certainly characteristic of folk art, the passage provides no basis for this being less true in the fine arts. (B) is inconsistent with the statement in the passage that folk art springs naturally from customary way of life and beliefs. (D) is only partly true, since sophisticated techniques are not associated with folk art.
98. A

The referenced statement follows, and questions, a sentence in which the fact that folk art is often executed as a decoration to objects of practical value is presumed to represent a fundamental distinguishing characteristic of folk art. Since the referenced statement challenges this presumption on the basis of economic constraints, the implication is that economic constraints are a consideration more external to the artist than his other artistic decisions. Why would this be so? Choice (A) is most directly related to this point. It focuses directly on how economics may force the artist to choose objects that also have practical value. The remaining choices relate in some way to the economics of artistic life, but are not as directly related to the artists choice of working surface.
Passage IV (Questions 99104)

Topic and Scope: The passage proposes that there is a problem with the plurality system of voting in multi-candidate contests and describes two alternative systems. Paragraph 1 suggests that the type of system used for casting and tabulating votes can affect the outcome of an election and influence what candidates will run for office. Paragraph 2 describes the plurality system of voting. Paragraph 3 describes the Borda count, an alternative to the plurality system of voting. Paragraph 4 describes approval voting, another alternative to the plurality system. Paragraph 5 expresses both the authors hope that an alternative system might be adopted and also the authors belief that this would be beneficial.
99. A

The argument assumes that voters considered Taft and Roosevelt (former and incumbent Republican presidents) similar, and that Taft voters would not have switched to Wilson and Roosevelt voters would not have switched to Wilson. However, the passage does not state that both were Republicans at the time they ran for election in 1912. Furthermore, similarity between candidates can be assessed on many different parameters. Absent evidence that actual Taft or Roosevelt voters would have voted (in a two candidate race) for the other of the two, rather than for Wilson (statement III), must be considered an assumption. Statement I is not an assumption because it is not clear from the passage what role party affiliation played in the election, particularly since the passage does not identify Roosevelts affiliation at the time of the 1912 election. Statement II contradicts the authors explicit statement, i.e., if Taft and Roosevelt split a majority of the popular vote, by definition they collectively received more votes than Wilson, who must have received a minority of the popular vote. The correct answer is choice (A).


The passage mentions the 1912 Presidential election as an example of choice (A). There is no example of an election in which a different voting system produced a different outcome (B), a sophisticated voter voted for his second choice (C), or a change in voting system had an impact on what candidates ran for office or what viewpoints they represented (D).
101. C

In using the 1912 election as an example of the points made in the preceding two sentences, the author implies that Roosevelt and Taft were similar to each other and that they split the vote that either one, if opposed only by Wilson, would have received. The passage explicitly states that Roosevelt and Taft split a majority of the popular vote. Thus, under the premises of the passage Roosevelt would have received Tafts votes, had Taft not run, and this would have constituted a majority of the votes cast. Thus, statement I is implied. Had a Borda count been used, the authors premises indicate that Wilson would have been third choice of both Roosevelt and Taft voters, while Roosevelt and Taft would have been ranked second choice by each others voters. If there were only the three candidates, Roosevelt and Taft would have received two points from each voter who ranked them first and one point from those who ranked them second. Wilson would have received two points from each voter who ranked him first, but would have had no voters who ranked him second. The implication is that Wilson would have lost under a Borda count. Statement II is not implied because the passage does not take any position on whether or not the voters in the 1912 election were sophisticated; the passage does not provide a basis to infer that voters viewed either Roosevelt or Taft as unable to win.
102. C

To weaken an argument, a piece of information often attacks an assumption made in the argument. In this case, the argument assumes that Roosevelt and Taft were considered similar, and would thus have been ranked second choice by each others voters. Evidence that Roosevelt was more similar to Wilson than to Taft would undermine this assumption. Thus, choice (A) weakens the argument by providing evidence of a measure by which Roosevelt could be considered more like Wilson than like Taft. (B) weakens the argument by providing evidence of a way in which Roosevelt and Taft could be considered quite different from one another. (D) provides evidence to infer that Wilson might have been able to produce a majority for the Democrat party in 1912 if opposed only by either Roosevelt or Taft, since Wilson was subsequently able to do so in 1916, when opposed by only one other major candidate. (C) is outside the scope of the argument and neither strengthens nor weakens it.
103. A

The passage uses the phrase those in serious contention to make a distinction among candidates in an election. The passage as a whole focuses on voting systems, rather than on characteristics of candidates. The only answer that makes sense in the context of the passage is that the distinction is between candidates who are more likely to win (those in serious contention) and those less likely to win (not in serious contention). While, in a different context, the phrase could reflect the attitude, energy, or moral commitment of the candidate, none of these alternative meanings makes sense in the context of the distinctions on which the passage focuses.
104. C

Since approval voting provides the opportunity to vote for more than one candidate, it is reasonable to assume that those who favor the system in a particular election probably would be relatively happy with more than one candidate winning the election. Conversely, those who have one strongly preferred candidate who is markedly different from the rest might hope that plu28

rality voting would give them an advantage, since the similar candidates might split the votes of voters who were opposed to their preferred candidate. Thus, the correct inference is choice (C). Since we dont know what system the students are already used to, there is no basis to assume that preference for plurality reflects a resistance to change (A). There is nothing in the passage to indicate that students who are more mathematically inclined (B) would prefer the plurality system of voting.
Passage V (Questions 105110)

Topic and Scope: The New Historicism approach to history, followed by a complaint about the way history constantly changes its approaches. Paragraph 1 introduces New Historicism. According to the author, this historical approach uses several different academic disciplines to create something called thick description, where scholars study entire cultures, and compare the works of major authors to nearly unknown writers. Paragraph 2 tells us about some of the positive results of the New Historicism, as well as some of the initial criticisms. Paragraph 3 tells us about the main backlash against the New Historicists. The New Historicists, critics claim, have overemphasized the cultural unity of past cultures, and thus overemphasized the importance. Paragraph 4 seems to go a little off track, as the author criticizes the tendency of historians to switch their approaches to writing history every few years ago. The result, says the author, is that this casts doubt on earlier historical approachesif we got rid of them so quickly, how good were they?
105. A

Were told that New Historicism was first used by scholars studying Renaissance Italy, but it doesnt follow that New Historicism necessarily clarified any problems in the field. Choice (C) is a major trap answer, since it does appear later in the passage. However, (C) is what some critics say about New Historicism. We dont know if this is an actual fault, or even if our author agrees with that point. Since the passage later criticizes the critics (confusing, isnt it?), we might even guess that the author is not in complete agreement with New Historicisms critics. (D) appears to be true of historians in general, not simply the New Historicists. (A), the correct answer, can be found in the second paragraph, where were told that the work of the New Historicists heightened both popular and academic interest.
106. C

Choice (A) certainly sounds good, since the author complains that only history appears to change its techniques so frequently. But the main argument here isnt so much that history changes techniques more frequently than other disciplines, but that history needs to change at all. The author seems to be arguing for a complete halt, or at least a slowdown, in the swift change of historical approaches. (C), which argues that these changes are necessary in order to form historical judgements, is the best answer to that argument. Of the other choices, (B) is tempting, but the author is complaining about historians in general, not merely the New Historicists, when she complains that historians no longer make historical judgements. (D) is off the mark. The issue isnt so much whether New Historicism is going strong or not, but why historians feel the need to constantly change their academic approaches.



The author tells us that the New Historicists study marginalized and understudied groups, including pornographers, so (D) is clearly out. The New Historicists also try to study works in the context of other works from the era, so (A) and (C), where two contemporary works are compared, is also out. But because the New Historicists focus on marginalized groups, theyre probably not too likely to study the ruling group of any area.
108. D

Because history isnt an actual science, it lacks a single disciplinary approach, the point expanded in the rest of the paragraph. The author never contrasts history and hard sciences such as physics directly, so choice (A) is out. The author also never suggests that economists, anthropologists and historians can even use the same methods used in the hard sciences, so she cant be criticizing scholars for not using these methods. The same thing goes for (C), especially since the paragraph never urges any of these scholars to try a more straightforward, objective approach.
109. A

The passage tells us that the new scholars (not the New Historicists, but the scholars who followed them) study the same groups as their predecessors. Since the New Historicists studied marginalized groups, we can infer that the new scholars are probably studying them too. So statement I is correct, and we can toss out choice (C). Statement II is definitely tricky, since the passage notes that, like the New Historicists, these new scholars study the same marginalized groups. But thats not necessarily the same flaw. The flaw for the New Historicists was that they assumed all cultures had some sort of cohesion; the flaw of the backlash scholars is that they arent really studying anything new. As far as statement III goes, we dont know whether or not the backlash provided any new historical insights, so we cant infer that, either.
110. D

The answer cant be choice (B), since the passage never claims that the New Historicists unfairly concealed anything, let alone the uniqueness of Dante, only that their approach often clouded the uniqueness of canonical textsnot quite the same thing. The author never says, as in (A), that the backlash against the New Historicism lacks all claim to originality, only that its flawed. (C) wouldnt necessarily be inconsistent with the authors admiration. Since the author, however, seems to be against the need for this historical backlash against the New Historicists, admiring a book from this backlash seems pretty inconsistent.
Passage VI (Questions 111116)

Topic and Scope: How animals map their environments. Paragraph 1 discusses the basic dichotomy between moving and unmoving objects. Paragraph 2 discusses why animals cant use their own body movements to map. Paragraph 3 gives an example, a desert ant. Paragraph 4 Explains why that any isnt really mapping. Paragraph 5 gives other examples of animals that store food to relocate it later. Paragraph 6 describes experiments being done to learn more about animal mapping.



The passage clearly states that navigational errors would multiply rapidly in an kinesthetic system because small movements would throw the system off; this supports choice (A). There is no evidence to support (B) or (C). (D) is contradicted by other information in the passage.
112. C

This question requires you to consider what events are more likely or easier than others. There is no reason to suspect that it is easier to remember many objects than one object, and common sense suggests that the reverse is likely true; this goes against choices (A) and (B). Also, common sense suggests that one object could more easily be moved than several objects could, contradicting (D). (C) is the correct answer.
113. C

In an experiment, you must alter variables one at a time to see what each ones individual contribution is; this is choice (C). If you did them all at once, that would actually be a new experiment, lending no support to (A). There is no evidence for (B) and (D).
114. A

If in every instance animals operate similarly, it is reasonable to assume that something about animals requires them to act that way. This would eliminate choice (C). (D) is contradicted by information in the passage. There is no reason to think that the muscles, themselves, perform any computations, so (B) is out. (A) is the best choice.
115. B

Choice (B) is the best answer because it takes into account the fact that animals need to use these cues from a distance. (C) is directly contradicted by information in the passage. There is no evidence for (A) and (D).
116. D

If we find that every example of something operates similarly, then it is reasonable to assume that a newly found example will operate in the same way. This would eliminate choice (A). So, we would assume that this animal will find food the way other animals do, by a configuration of landmarks, (D).
Passage VII (Questions 117124)

Topic and Scope: The benefits of fairy tales in comparison to modern safe childrens stories Paragraph 1 introduces the underlying psychoanalytic aspects present in the simplistic plots of fairy tales, and presents the thesis that such polemical tales actually are more effective for helping children to deal with basic issues of life and death than are modern stories. Paragraph 2 develops this thesis by discussing the polarization of the existential dilemma as it is present in fairy tales. By presenting good and evil so clearly, fairy tales allow children to better comprehend the differences than if the issues were more ambiguous or true to life. Paragraph 3 continues this discussion and addresses parents concerns about childrens fears and emotions, claiming that fairy tales provide children with an outlet for dealing with their anxieties and even gives them solutions to such struggles in ways that children can understand.



The final sentences in paragraph 3 attest to the fact that the fairy tale addresses itself directly to anxieties and fears, just like choice (C). (A) is the opposite of the third sentence in paragraph 2; (B) is the opposite of the last few sentences of paragraph 1, which claim that safe stories do not discuss death, aging, limits of existence, or the wish for eternal life; and (D) is a Distortion of part of paragraph 3 where parents fears, and their relation to different types of stories, are discussed.
118. B

Paragraph 1 lays out the argument that fairy tales present children with conflicts between good and evil, and that Freuds recommendation to struggle against odds to find meaning in life is encapsulated by these types of stories. Choice (A) is outside the scope, since the validity of psychoanalytic examination of literature is not at issue. (C) is a Distortion of the differences between modern stories and fairy tales, as described in paragraphs 1 and 2. (D) contradicts the first sentence of the paragraph, which clearly implies that the dark side of humanity does exist and should be acknowledged.
119. B

The author professes that children gain comfort from the typical fairy tale endings, but that they can also discern that living happily ever after should not be taken literally, suggesting that children are able to discriminate between fiction and reality in the meaning of the fairy tale (B). Choice (A) is a Distortion of the final sentence of the passage, and a FUD, misusing the statement made in lines 78 that struggling against what seem like overwhelming odds can give meaning to life. (D) is too extreme, with the word always, and is a Distortion of the first sentence of Paragraph 3. (C) is a Distortion of the middle part of the final paragraph, which discusses parents discomfort with their childrens fears or negative emotions.
120. D

Moral lessons and values are never mentioned directly by the author as a benefit of the polarities in fairy tale plots. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are all discussed in paragraph 2 as support of the main idea expressed in the first sentence of the paragraph that fairy tales state an existential dilemma briefly and pointedly.
121. A

By stating that children need the symbolic suggestions of fairy tales in order to understand life and death issues and mature properly, the author suggests that parents may not be able to provide this type of instruction to their own children. Choice (B) does not give any indication as to whether or not the fictional representations lead to a deeper understanding of good and bad. (C) is outside the scope, since childrens own instinctive responses are never mentioned. (D) is opposite and would undermine the authors assertion, since it would in fact disprove the central thesis of the passage.
122. B

The central thesis of the passage is that traditional fairy tales are more beneficial to childrens growth and development than modern stories that attempt to provide safe plots and characters, implying that such modernization is in fact detrimental to childrens maturation. Choices (A) and (D) are outside the scope, since the passage never discusses the intentions of the authors of childrens stories, nor the utopic lives presented in many fairy tales and the effects of such perfection on child readers. (C) is the opposite of the authors belief that the inclusion of evil characters in fairy tales is a useful and necessary element of fairy tales.


Safe stories paint an overly rosy picture of life, and choice (B), a paraphrase of the authors point, smacks the nail on the head. The other choices all sound positive, whereas the author says nothing good about modern stories. Safe stories dont deal with problems (A) and they fail to depict struggles between good and evil (C). (D) describes a theme that, the author suggests, is characteristic of fairy tales.
124. D

This is a common type of Evaluation question. Why does the author mention Freud and his prescription? The author is using the reference to state an idea (major struggles are fundamental to living) which is central to his own argument about fairy tales. (C) may have been tempting, but Freuds prescription is not an analogy; its simply a view that accords with the authors. If you were hesitant about (C), that should have been a signal that something was not quite right. By contrast, (D) is clear-cut. (A) is inconsistent with the passage; the authors purpose is to counterpose Freuds idea to the dominant cultural attitude. (B), like (C), sounds murkyit just doesnt fit. No contradiction is being exposed.
Passage VIII (Questions 125131)

Topic and Scope: Threats to wetlands, current protection methods, and problems with their effectiveness. Paragraph 1 relates the history of wetlands conversion in the mid-19th and mid-20th centuries. Paragraph 2 provides a detailed list of wetlands functions and benefits which have been lost, and which could have been achieved with less wetland loss through regional planning, stronger regulation, and greater public understanding of wetland values. Paragraph 3 discusses the current obstacles to wetland protection laws and programs, including both governmental and private efforts to prevent the continued erosion and loss of these environmentally important areas. Paragraph 4 explains why the current approach, using stringent permit guidelines that do not distinguish by wetland types or values, is ineffective and offers an alternative strategy, based on regional management and prioritization of the most severely-threatened areas. The author implies that this second method would be more effective.
125. D

The third sentence of paragraph 2 declares that budget concerns cause limits on the acquisition of new wetlands for preservation, and the Emergency Wetlands Resources Acts is mentioned as an example of a stop-gap acquisition measure that is constrained by the small amount of federal funds allocated for wetlands protection. Choice (B) is opposite, since the authors contention is that federal funds are insufficient for wetlands preservation. (C) is outside the scope, and (B) is a FUD from the second sentence of paragraph 2.
126. C

Choices (A) and (D) are directly mentioned in Paragraph 1, in the second and last sentences of the opening paragraph. (B) is implied in the final sentence of paragraph 2, which contends that public health benefits have been lost to agricultural forestry and development enterprises


of all kinds. (C) is a Distortion of this same sentence since no mention is made of either an increase in rezoning of wetlands nor of the impact of industry on the conversion of wetlands.
127. D

The author describes only two strategies for protecting wetlands, the present approach and an alternative strategy, in the first and third sentences of paragraph 4. For this reason, choice (A) is a Distortion of the information in these sentences. (B) is a Distortion of the authors criticism of the present approach, and FUD of the stringent permit guidelines mentioned in the first sentence of the paragraph. (C) is a Distortion of the phrase Cooperating federal, state, and local interests and also uses extreme language by claiming that such collaboration is the only way to reach the goal of wetlands preservation.
128. A

The author suggests that federal, state, and local interests need to be considered, and that although no general federal authority currently exists for the protection of wetlands systems, several authorities do exist which could develop this conservation plan (last three sentences of paragraph 4), which infers that these organizations would cooperate for the purpose of wetlands protection. Choices (B) and (C) both contain extreme language (never and only). (D) is halfright and half-wrong, since the author never mentions that any areas of wetlands should be exempt from protective regulations.
129. C

Statement I is implied in the middle of paragraph 3, with the phrase qualitatively important but quantitatively limited, which suggests that an increase in wetlands purchases by private groups and trusts would benefit wetlands protection. Statement II is implied in the final sentence of the paragraph, which declares that the marketplace does not generally recognize the public benefits of wetlands, indicating that increased recognition of these benefits might bring about a change in business decisions and behaviors. Statement III is a Distortion of the first sentence of paragraph 4.
130. A

Government and private acquisitions are mentioned in paragraph 3. The author says the first will always be limited by severe budget constraints and will save only a small percentage of remaining wetlands. The second offers quantitatively limited protection. Protection by private developers, in paragraph 4, is also treated pessimisticallyonly some developers have tried to combine protection and profit, and the marketplace generally does not favor such an approach. The most straightforwardly pessimistic choice (A) is the one you want. (B) makes a distinction among the three strategies that the passage does not support. (C) makes a recommendationfurther studythat doesnt appear in the passage. (D) sounds okay until the end the author never suggests that any policy will actually reverse the trend. All these choices are straightforwardly wrong and your only problem should be with their wordiness. Try not to get bogged down in minutiae, and to go straight to the key idealike reverse in (D)that makes each one wrong.
131. C

Just after mentioning severe budget constraints that limit government acquisition, the author states that the Emergency Wetlands Resources Act (EWRA) allocates only $40 million per year in federal funding for wetland purchases. So, the EWRA is an example illustrating the preceding generalization, which is rephrased in choice (C). (A) incorrectly focuses on the need for legislation to save American wetland areas. Although the EWRA is undeniably a piece of

legislation, it is clearly meant to illustrate the problem of inadequate federal funding, not the lack of helpful environmental legislation per se. (B) is way off the mark; the author never accuses the federal government of interfering with state government efforts. Choice (D) is similarly misleading. Although paragraph 4 says the marketplace generally fails to recognize the benefits of wetlands, the author never implies that theres a widespread perception that wetlands are not worth saving, or that the EWRA would be evidence of it.
Passage IX (Questions 132137)

Topic and Scope: Binary star systems and the discovery, composition and development of symbiotic stars. Paragraph 1 introduces a scientific curiositybinary star systems whose radiation emission does not fit that pattern of that of other binary stars. Paragraph 2 provides a potential explanation for this unusual radiation pattern, and supports this explanation with scientific evidence about the discovery and composition of symbiotic star pairs. Paragraph 3 continues to describe the structure of symbiotic stars, and concludes with the possibility that symbiotic stars may mark a brief phase in the evolution of certain binary systems. Paragraph 4 presents some theories about the development of symbiotic stars, and concludes with suggestions about the evolutionary course of symbiotic pairs, based on conjecture about other binary systems.
132. C

Paragraph 2 clearly states that photographic plates only revealed the giant star in a symbiotic pair, but that newer satellite-borne instruments can detect ultraviolet radiation that cannot be detected by instruments on the ground. Without these types of instruments, scientists were unable to study symbiotic stars, since they didnt really understand what the star formations were. Choice (A) is FUD of information in paragraph 4, which tells us that the phase must be extremely brief, perhaps as short as a million years. (B) is a Distortion of the information mentioned in paragraph 2. (D) is FUD of the sentence in paragraph 4 that tells us there is a comparatively small number of known symbiotics in our galaxy.
133. B

The final sentence of the passage contains the reference to red giants and Mira variables, and finishes with a conclusion about the mass of the original cloud from which a symbiotic system is formed. Choice (A) is FUD of the last sentence in paragraph 2although symbiotic stars do exist outside of our galaxy, this question is only concerned with a specific reference found in paragraph 4, so anything from other parts of the passage is incorrect, even outside the scope, for this particular question. (C) is outside the scope because there is no size comparison made in paragraph 4. And (D) is a Distortion of the previous sentence in paragraph 4, which declares that the evolutionary course of a binary system is predeterminedthis sentence refers to binary systems in general, and not just to giant stars, as the answer choice does.



Paragraph 2 described the structure of symbiotic stars, which together travel around a common center, not around each other. Choice (B) is stated at the end of paragraph 1; (C) is stated in the second sentence of paragraph 3; and (D) is stated at the first sentence of paragraph 4.
135. D

Paragraph 3 ends with a concluding sentence indicating that Symbiotic stars may therefore represent a transitory phase in the evolution of certain types of binary systems. Choice (A) is outside the scope, since the usefulness of research methods is never discussed. (B) is outside the scope as well, for dangers of radiation are not mentioned in the passage. (C) is a Distortion of parts of paragraphs 3 and 4, and uses extreme language with the terms all and must.
136. B

The recurrent outburst of a nova are used as a comparison to the outbursts that occur with symbiotic stars as a way of explaining a certain process observed in the latter that is similar to a well-documented and understood process that occurs with a nova. Choice (A) is outside the scope for this question, since the contrast made between symbiotic stars and other binary stars occurs earlier in paragraphs 1 and 2. (C) is FUD, since the mention of the nova does not prove the existence of matter transfer, which is described in the final sentence of paragraph 3. (D) is a Distortion of the previous sentence in paragraph 3, which claims only that symbiotic stars emit flares, not that all binary systems do so.
137. A

Paragraph 4 tells us that the course of a binary system is predetermined by the initial mass and angular momentum of the gas cloud within which binary stars are born, so that binary stars must begin inside this cloud, which has both mass and motion. Choice (B) is a Distortion of the final sentence of paragraph 3, which mentions transfer of matter from the larger partner to the smaller. (C) is a Distortion of the second sentence of paragraph 4, for this sentence actually is a hypotheticalif all binaries of modest mass normally pass through a symbiotic phase in their evolutionand the answer choice does not contain this all-important word if but instead turns this hypothetical statement into a definitive fact. Likewise, (D) is a Distortion of the first sentence of the passage, which tells us only that there are several hundred million binary systems estimatedand thus theoretically detectable on sky-survey photographs. Again, the answer choice here is formulated as a statement of fact, whereas the original sentence in the passage is much less certain.



138. C 139. B 140. B 141. D 142. A 143. D 144. D 145. A 146. B 147. A 148. D 149. B 150. B 151. A 152. A 153. D 154. B 155. B 156. C 157. B 158. C 159. C 160. D 161. D 162. B 163. D 164. A 165. C 166. B 167. D 168. C 169. A 170. A 171. C 172. A 173. D 174. C 175. A 176. C 177. D 178. D 179. A 180. C 181. A 182. B 183. D 184. B 185. C 186. B 187. A 188. D 189. C 190. B 191. C 192. A 193. D 194. B 195. D 196. A 197. B 198. D 199. B 200. D 201. C 202. B 203. C 204. C 205. B 206. D 207. C 208. A 209. A 210. C 211. C 212. D 213. B 214. B


Passage I (Questions 138143)

138. C

Theoretically, medication that inhibits the production of gastric acid, choice (A), would not allow for the proper environment for both the release of cobalamin from its complex with food components and the binding of cobalamin with R-protein. Remember that every enzyme has optimal conditions (pH, temperature) under which it operates. So choice (B) would also affect the absorption of cobalamin since the pancreas is a major source of the bicarbonate that allows for an alkaline environment in the duodenum, without which the enzymatic dissociation of the cobalamin-R-binder complex would not be possible. Bile, however, is not a necessary component of this process, though it is indispensable in the absorption of lipids and other nutrients. Choice (D) would result in a person without an ileum, and the ileum is where the cobalamin-IF complex is actually absorbed. Recall that the small intestine is composed of three segments first the duodenum, second is the jejunum, and third is the ileum, which then connects to the first part of the colon.
139. B

A person given this supplement would only depend on the latter steps discussed in the first paragraph of this passage; one would still require both an absorptive surface (ileum) with the specific receptor and transcobalamin to transport the absorbed vitamin to the liver and red blood cells. Thus, a person with a transcobalamin deficiency would still suffer from a lack of cobalamin despite such a supplementation, and choice (B) is correct. Pernicious anemia is briefly mentioned at the end of the passage and is characterized by absent or deficient IF. So a supplement such as the proposed one would treat cobalamin deficiency due to this disorder; thus, choice (A) is incorrect. The same holds for choices (C) and (D), which would both affect earlier steps and which could both be bypassed by this supplement.
140. B

Recall that myelin is a major factor in the speed of neuronal transmission. Myelin acts to insulate the axon and allow increased speed of propagation of an action potential down a given axon. (It does not, however, affect the other major factorsynaptic transmission of a message from neuron-to-neuron.) Also, recall that myelin is composed of one type of cell in the peripheral nervous systemthe Schwann cell, and a different cell type in the central nervous system the oligodendrocyte. The question describes an experiment being done at a site of the peripheral nervous system, which is composed of all parts of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord proper. The passage states that cobalamin deficiency causes demyelination, so you can assume that slower transmission in this case is due to a defect of the myelinating cells of the peripheral nervous system; choice (B), not choice (A), is correct. The nodes of Ranvier are the areas of the axon between the myelinated segments which are devoid of myelin; this unmyelinated space is obviously not a site of demyelination; thus choice (C) is incorrect. Lastly, the dendrites are the receivers of inter-neuronal transmission; there is no mention of a defect of synaptic transmission in cobalamin deficiency, and choice (D) is incorrect.
141. D

Control of involuntary muscle groups falls within the autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system, choice (B), as opposed to the somatic division, choice (D) which controls only voluntary muscle action. Both the autonomic and somatic divisions are subsets of the peripheral nervous system, choice (A). The nervous system can also be divided into those cells that relate sensory information from the internal or external environment (afferent neurons) and those that bring reflexive or processed information to the effectors (such as muscle) in response to the sen38

sory information gathered (efferent neurons). Think of the alphabet: a before e to help remember this sequence. Communication to the sphincter muscles described in the question stem is via efferent neurons by definition; thus, efferent neurons could be involved in this effect of cobalamin deficiency.
142. A

Recall that the purines are adenine (A) and guanine (G)PURe As Gold. The transcription process that will be most affected will be the one that must produce mRNA from the most As and Gs, or the DNA segment with the most Ts and Cs, respectively. Thus, choice A is correct. Choices B and D also have some Ts and Cs, but much fewer than the segment given as choice A. Choice C is incorrect because DNA is made of the four bases A, T, C, G; uracil (U) is only found in RNA.
143. D

Lipid digestion begins once food reaches the small intestine, choice (B); the stomach has no role in this process. Bile produced by the liver, choice (A), is secreted into the first part of the small intestine (the duodenum) where it begins to emulsify and break down lipids into smaller, more soluble units. These emulsified units are then acted on by lipases from the pancreas, choice (C), which break down the lipids further into free fatty acids. Fatty acids can then be absorbed by the cells lining the small intestine.
Passage II (Questions 144149)
144. D

A sharp peak at 1735 cm1 is indicative of a carbonyl, and a peak at 2800 cm1 indicates a C-H stretch. These peaks would be present both in isoamyl acetate and in acetic acid. However, acetic acid would not be present in the final solution because the student extracted the reaction mixture with sodium bicarbonate. Therefore, the compound giving rise to the carbonyl and C-H stretches is most likely isoamyl acetate. The wide boiling point range and the presence of an OH stretch (broad band at 3200 cm1) indicate the presence of some impurity. The passage states that the student forgot to dry the compound with anyhdrous sodium sulfate. This suggests that water is present which agrees with the O-H stretch.
145. A

Le Chteliers Principle states that if reactant is added, the reaction will be driven to product. Similarly, if product is removed, the reaction will be driven to product. The boiling point of isoamyl acetate is ~140C according to the passage. The boiling point of water is 100C. For this reason, if one product is to be removed by distillation, the product removed must be water. Removing water by another method, such as by adding a dehydrating material, will also work. Isoamyl acetate cannot be distilled from the solution because isopentyl alcohol and acetic acid would distill with it. (i.e. replace water with isopentyl alcohol and acetic acid)
146. B

Sodium bicarbonate is a base and will consequently deprotonate an acid. In this case, acetic acid will be deprotonated because it is the only acid in solution. The resulting salt (acetate) is water-soluble and so will be separated from the hydrophobic product. Addition of water would, in fact, drive the reaction toward formation of products. Isopentyl alcohol is completely used in the reaction because it is the limiting reagent (remember acetic acid is used in excess!). Isoamyl acetate is hydrophobic and will not dissolve in aqueous solution.



The carbonyl carbon is electrophilic (eliminate choice (B)). The electron-withdrawing effects of the chloride ion make the carbonyl more electrophilic than acetic acid making it more susceptible to nucleophilic attack by the alcohol. Esterification is an addition-elimination reaction so no carbocation is formed (eliminate choice (C)) and an SN1 reaction does not take place (eliminate choice (D)). We recognize that the reaction is similar to the one depicted in Equation 4, except with a different alkene. First, we need to determine the correct structure, then we apply the reaction to the compound.
148. D

An extreme shift such as 11.2 ppm is likely due to a carboxylic acid such as acetic acid. Also suspect acetic acid because it is used in excess in the reaction. Again, isopentyl alcohol is unlikely, because it is the limiting reagent in the reaction and because the hydroxyl hydrogen in most alcohols is usually found around 5-6 ppm. Water usually does not appear in nmr spectra, and if it does it is a very broad peak due to extensive hydrogen bonding. Acetyl chloride would not be found in the reaction mixture because it was not used in this reaction.
149. B

This question is essentially asking which compound has the lowest boiling point and which the highest. Compounds that exhibit the most hydrogen bonding have the highest boiling points, those with the least hydrogen bonding have the lowest boiling points. Octane clearly has the least hydrogen bonding and so has the lowest boiling point. It will therefore distill first. Alcohols have more hydrogen bonding than esters (alcohols have an O-H group, esters do not). Noctyl alcohol has the highest boiling point and will distill last.
Passage III (Questions 150154)
150. B

Glucagon is the only hormone that is not lipid-soluble like steroid hormones, and therefore glucagon will not cross the lipid bilayer. Water-soluble hormones require membrane receptors in order to conduct the signal. Lipid-soluble hormones, on the other hand, can cross the lipid bilayer and bind to cytoplasmic or nuclear receptors. Of the answer choices given, aldosterone, testosterone, and estrogen are all lipid-soluble steroid hormones, which are derived from cholesterol.
151. A

The net effect of the Na+/K+ pump is to transport one ion out of the cell, thereby lowering intracellular osmolarity. Placement of an animal cell into a hypertonic environment creates a tendency for water to leak out of the cell because of high extracellular osmolarity. To prevent water loss from the cell, the Na+/K+ pump will slow down the rate of ion exchange, thereby maintaining cellular osmolarity. Note that this process has nothing to do with need. It occurs automatically, since a hypertonic solution around the cell would decrease the concentration gradient such that there would be a significantly lower draw on ions to leave the cell. Choice (B) is incorrect because a hypotonic medium outside the cell will increase the rate of ATP entry. Choices (C) and (D) are incorrect because both channels dissipate the function of the pump, causing it to consume more ATP.
152. A

The passage states that the small bleached region regains its fluorescence after the fluorescently labeled molecules exchange places with bleached molecules. The rate at which this

exchange occurs is directly dependent on the diffusion rate of the fluorescently labeled molecules. Since the lipids diffuse faster than proteins, the rate of lipid exchange is greater than the rate of protein exchange. It will thus take longer for the bleached region to recover if proteins are labeled instead of lipids. The answer is choice (A).
153. D

To answer this question one must be familiar with the mechanism of enzyme action. An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by lowering its activation energy, which essentially means lowering the potential energy of the transition state intermediate. During their transfer from one layer of the bilayer to the other, lipid molecules represent the transition state from reactants (lipids on one side) to products (lipids on the other side). Incorrect answer choices can be eliminated using the knowledge that enzymes do not modify the free energy or the enthalpy of reactants and products. Choice (A) is incorrect because if lipid molecules were stabilized after their transfer then the free energy or enthalpy of products would be lowered. Choice (B) is incorrect because destabilization of lipid molecules before their transfer means that the free energy or the enthalpy of the reactants is raised. Choice (D) is correct.
154. B

Since valinomycin permits passive transport of K+ across a membrane, K+ moves down its concentration gradient and out of the vesicle. When K+ exits the vesicle, it carries a positive charge, lowering the overall charge of the vesicles interior. The correct answer is (B).
Passage IV (Questions 155160)
155. B

The key to answering this question is realization that G protein-coupled receptors are transmembrane protein molecules and thus must be synthesized by ribosomes associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. Ribosomes that are associated with ER synthesize all proteins that have to cross the membrane, e.g., transmembrane, lysosomal or excreted proteins. This occurs because it is energetically unfavorable to insert a finished protein molecule into the membrane and the cell meets the challenge by inserting the protein into the membrane as it is being synthesized. Choice (B) is correct.
156. C

Since selective bradykinin antagonists block pain mediated only by bradykinin, one must presume that pain mediated by other molecules such as ATP and protons must be intact. The elements of the pain transduction pathway that are shared by bradykinin and other pain producing stimuli must thus be operating, while the elements that are used only by bradykinin can be inhibited. Among the given answer choices, choice (C) presents a model where only pain mediated by bradykinin will be inhibited. Choices (A) and (D) can be eliminated because in both scenarios pain will be augmented rather than inhibited. Choice (B) presents a model where pain mediated by a broad range of stimuli, not just bradykinin, will be diminished. Choice (C) is correct.
157. B

The passage states that activation of the G protein-coupled receptors leads to an activation of a signaling pathway that dampens nociceptive response. Since the question stem indicates that adenylyl cyclase is activated in response to binding of endogenous stimuli to the G protein-coupled receptors, one can deduce that adenylyl cyclase is one of the enzymes that mediates dampening of the nociceptive response. This means that if adenylyl cyclase is constitutively active then nociceptive response will be diminished; i.e., the response to the endogenous pain stimuli will be reduced. Choice (B) is correct.


The passage states that below pH 7, protons augment nociceptor activation by thermal, chemical or mechanical stimuli. This indicates that the threshold for activating nociceptors in response to various stimuli is reduced under acidic conditions. Thus, the thermal stimulus generated by an actively respiring muscle can be augmented by acidity and become sufficiently strong to activate nociceptive neurons. Choice (A) is incorrect because the passage states that protons can directly activate nociceptive neurons only at pH values lower than 6. Choices (B) and (D) are unsupported by the passage. Choice (C) is correct.
159. C

The action of opiates must account for the inhibition of postsynaptic neurons in the spinal cord. Among the listed answer choices all but choice (C) present a scenario that will actually lead to activation of the postsynaptic neurons. Choices (A) and (B), for example, will lead to an increase in the number of excitatory neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft, thereby stimulating postsynaptic neurons. In choice (D), opiates activate sodium channels, which inevitably leads to depolarization of the postsynaptic neurons. Choice (C), on the other hand, describes a mechanism that can explain the inhibitory effect of opiates. Inhibition of cation channels in postsynaptic neurons can prevent activation of those neurons in response to excitatory stimuli. This mechanism is also described in the passage for the dampening of nociceptive signaling in response to pain producing stimuli. Choice (C) is correct.
160. D

The passage states that G protein-coupled receptors are involved in dampening of the nociceptive signaling in response to endogenous pain stimuli. Thus if the G protein-coupled receptors are blocked the sensation of pain will be increased rather than diminished. Choice (D) is correct.
Discrete Questions (Questions 161164)
161. D

Oxaloacetate is the molecule regenerated at the end of the citric acid cycle. Oxaloacetate combines with acetyl CoA, choice (A), produced during pyruvate decarboxylation to form citrate, choice (B). Malate, choice (C), is the molecule that precedes oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle. Since oxaloacetate is the molecule regenerated at the end of the citric acid cycle, choice (D) is correct.
162. B

During the S phase, each chromosome is replicated to produce two identical sister chromatids joined by a centromere. Although the cell contains twice as much genetic materials as it did prior to the S phase, because the chromatids have not yet separated, the cells are still 2N, even at the end of the S phase. Thus choice (B), 2N, is correct.
163. D

Hydrogen bromide adds to alkenes in the presence of peroxides with a regioselectivity opposite to that predicted by Markovnikovs rule; anti-Markovnikov addition is observed and the less-substituted alkyl bromide is the major product. The reaction is a free-radical chain process in which a bromine atom adds to the double bond in the first propagation step. The intermediate formed has the structure shown in choice (D). Choice (C) is incorrect because the more substituted (Markovnikov) addition product would be formed. Choice (A) is incorrect because the free radical is on the same carbon as the bromine. Choice (B) is incorrect because the bromine is missing from the intermediate.


Uracil is a nucleotide found only in RNA. Transcription is the process whereby information coded in the base sequence of DNA is transcribed into a strand of mRNA. RNA contains the nucleotide uracil (U) rather than thymine (T), so the process of transcription requires the presence of uracil. Translation is the process whereby mRNA codons are translated into a sequence of amino acids. Mitosis is the process of cellular division that results in the formation of two daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other and to the parent cell. Conjugation is the temporary joining of two organisms via a tube called a pilus, through which genetic material is exchanged. Choice (A) is the correct answer.
Passage V (Questions 165170)
165. C

The isomer of the product that is formed is controlled by the position of attack of the electrophile on the benzene ring. Two major factors influence this. As in all other mechanisms, a mechanism step proceeds to give the most stable product if there are no other overriding factors. (An example of an overriding factor would be the C-H/C-LG periplanar requirement for the E2 reaction.) Since the electrophilic attack affords a carbocation, the attack leading to the most stable carbocation is favored. Attack at any position leads to a carbocation with at least three resonance structures. In the specific example of this question, X = CH3, is an electron-donating group. The best carbocation in the ortho and para cases is tertiary, while the best carbocation in the meta case is secondary. Based on carbocation stability, we predict attack at the ortho and para positions to be favored over meta attack. (If the X group can share lone pairs through resonance then the ortho and para carbocations can have a fourth resonance structure, further improving their stability over the meta carbocation.) The X group disfavors attack at the ortho position because it is more crowded than the meta or para positions. Resonance generally dominates, so the carbocation stability issue is more important than the steric effect. Thus the order of attack when X = CH3 or any other electron-donating group is: para (most) > ortho > meta (least). Electron-donating groups are therefore termed ortho/para directors.
Ortho attack:
X E+ X H E + + X H E X + H E

Meta attack:
X E+ H X + E H + E + H E X X

Para attack:
X X X + + E+ E H E H E H + X



Electrophilic attack on the benzene ring disrupts aromaticity and forms a carbocation, and thus requires a powerful electrophile. Molecular bromine is not sufficiently electrophilic to overcome aromaticity; thus, choice (A) is incorrect. A more powerful electrophile is needed. The AlBr3 serves to increase the electrophilicity of the bromine by strongly polarizing the Al-Br bond, thus increasing the amount of positive charge on the bromine by decreasing its electron density. This is the first step of the mechanism shown. (In cases where an arenium ion with a full octet resonance structure is produced, the bromine may be sufficiently electrophilic by itself.) Choice (D) is incorrect because AlBr3 is regenerated in the reaction. Rather, HBr is the byproduct. When X is a electron-withdrawing group, it destabilizes an adjacent carbocation by increasing the net positive charge on that carbon. This occurs in the carbocations resulting from ortho and para attack, but not from meta attack. In this case the order of attack is meta > para > ortho. Electron-withdrawing groups are termed meta directors.
CH3 CH3 CH3 + Br 3Al Br Br Br H Br AlBr 3 Br HBr + AlBr3






Reaction rate is controlled by the rate-determining step (rds) of the mechanism. For EAS, this step is attack of the electrophile on the aromatic ring. This is the rds because aromaticity is sacrificed. Since the rds involves electrophilic attack, factors which make the benzene ring a better nucleophile will increase the rate of reaction (e-donating groups also produce more stable cations). The OCH3 group is a strong e-donating group which increases the e-density of the benzene ring making it a better nucleophile. CH3 is a weaker e-donating group than OCH3. NO2 is an e-withdrawing group and thus nitrobenzene (III) is a weaker nucleophile than benzene (IV).
168. C

Side-chain halogenation takes place under conditions that favor the formation of radicals (e.g. UV light). The halogen dissociates to produce halogen atoms and then the halogen atoms initiate chains by abstracting hydrogens of the methyl group:


Step 1: Br2 UV light 2 Br

Step 2: Chain Propagation CH3 + Br Benzyl radical Step 3: CH2 + Benzyl radical Br2 Benzyl halide CH2Br + Br CH2 + HBr

Abstraction of a halogen from the methyl group of toluene produces a benzyl radical. The benzyl radical then reacts with a halogen molecule to produce a benzyl halide and a halogen atom. Steps 2 and 3 repeat. Choices (A) and (D) are incorrect because, whereas many aryl halides are UV-sensitive, exposure to UV light over short periods of time wouldnt lead to significant decomposition. If Choice (C) were correct, the carbocation intermediate must capture a nucleophilic bromide ion instead of losing a proton. Capture of a proton does not restore aromaticity whereas deprotonation does. This provides a significant driving force for deprotonation over capture of chloride ion.
169. A

In an EAS reaction, the rate-determining step is electrophilic attack on the benzene ring (not deprotonation of the aromatic ring) because it results in loss of aromaticity. The purpose of AlBr3 is to increase the electrophilic nature of Br2 by polarizing the Br-Br bond. H2OBr+ is a stronger electrophile (better able to accept electrons) because the bromine bears a positive charge (it is electron deficient). Also, H2O is an excellent leaving group. Thus, Answer B is correct. H2OBr+ is an ion and is therefore highly soluble in H2O compared with Br2 (Answer D incorrect).
170. A

The mechanism of an EAS reaction involves two steps. This automatically eliminates choices (B) and (C) which are potential energy diagrams for one-step reactions. The rate determining step is the first step which involves electrophic attack and carbocation formation. Step 2 involves deprotonation and restoration of aromaticity which produces a product much more stable than the carbocation intermediate, and more stable than the starting materials since the reaction proceeds spontaneously. Thus choice (A) is correct.


Passage VI (Questions 171175)

171. C

To answer this question correctly you must know the relative intracellular and plasma concentration of various components in the blood. Since fluoride causes hemolysis, it allows intracellular components to mix with plasma, thereby raising plasma concentration of intracellular components. Potassium is found in high concentration inside cells and in low concentration outside cells due to the action of Na+/K+ ATPase. Thus during hemolysis, the plasma concentration of K+ will be raised significantly. Choice (A) is incorrect because Na+ is present mostly in the plasma. Choice (B) is incorrect because albumin is a plasma protein. Choice (D) is incorrect because after bicarbonate ion is made inside red blood cells, it diffuses into plasma.
172. A

From Figure 1, you can see that glucose concentration changes from approximately 4.8 to 3 mmol/L in 8 hours. The net change of glucose concentration was thus 4.8 3 = 1.8 mmol. The average rate of disappearance is simply the slope of the line and is equal to (1.8 mmol/L)/8 hr which is approximately 1/4. This corresponds with answer choice (A).
173. D

The beginning of the third paragraph states that D,L-glyceraldehyde is an antiglycolytic agent and one can infer that it will inhibit a glycolytic enzyme. Choice (A) is incorrect because the passage is discussing the effects of D,L-glyceraldehyde on blood after it was collected from patients. D,L-glyceraldehyde will thus have no influence on insulin secretion by the pancreas. Choice (B) is incorrect because if D,L-glyceraldehyde is an antiglycolytic agent the last thing it will do is increase the rate of glycolysis. Choice (C) is not only unsupported by the passage, but also incorrect because if D,L-glyceraldehyde increased the rate of glucose synthesis then an analysis would provide an overestimate of plasma glucose concentration thus rendering D,Lglyceraldehyde unsuitable as preserving agent.
174. C

Table 1 shows that creatinine concentration values for blood treated with D,L-glyceraldehyde are significantly different from those obtained from blood with no additives. D,L-glyceraldehyde will thus interfere with measurements of creatinine. Choices (A), (B) and (D) are incorrect because for urea, calcium and potassium there is almost no difference in concentration values obtained with and without D,L-glyceraldehyde.
175. A

The last sentence of the passage states that the L stereoisomer was responsible for all or most of the antiglycolytic activity of the racemic mixture. Since 30 mmol/L of racemic D,L-glyceraldehyde will have 50% or 15 mmol/L of the L isomer, 15 mmol/L of pure isomer will be required to have the same effect. Choice (A) is correct.
Passage VII (Questions 176180)
176. C

Succinylcholine competes with acetylcholine for the receptor (paragraph 2) and causes a depolarization (activator). In contrast, vecuronium competes but does not cause a depolarization and is classified as a competitive inhibitor. The correct answer is choice (C).



Decreased heart rate and increased salivation are signs of parasympathetic activity; edrophonium increases parasympathetic activity (paragraph 4). Choices (A) and (C) are signs of increases in sympathetic activity. Choice (B) is incorrect because atropine (a parasympathetic blocker) would not be expected to interfere with edrophoniums neuromuscular effects.
178. D

Loss of the acetylcholine receptors, choice (A), would not allow the impulse to be transmitted to the skeletal muscle cells. As in spinal cord injury, severing motor neural axons, choice (B), would also prevent impulse transmission. Preventing calcium ion release, choice (C), within the muscle cells would prevent calcium binding to troponin; this will cause the actin-binding site to remain covered. Downregulating the acetylcholinesterase gene would result in hyperexcitation rather than paralysis. The correct answer is choice (D).
179. A

Succinylcholine binds to the receptor and causes a depolarization (paragraph 2). Succinylcholine depolarizes muscle cells individually as the succinylcholine reaches them. It is the channels remaining open that causes the subsequent paralysis. Choice (B) describes allosteric binding (induced fit type). Choice (C) is incorrect because although succinylcholine does bind and prevent ACh from binding, the very binding of succinylcholine causes a depolarization. Choice (D) is false because succinylcholine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (paragraph 1) and would not suppress brain activity. The correct answer is choice (A).
180. C

This experiment suggests that curare interferes with transmission of the signal to contract rather than contraction itself. Because the muscle is able to contract with an external electrical depolarization, the muscle cell contraction apparatus must be intact. This rules out any elements of this apparatus (statement III), leaving only elements related to signal transmission (statements I and II). Differentiation between statements I and II is impossible without further experimentation. The correct answer is I and II only, or choice (C).
Passage VIII (Questions 181186)
181. A

The alkene in choice (A) is favored over that of choice (B) since it has more substituents on the double bond. Alkene A has three substituents while alkene B has only two. The stability of an alkene is directly related to the number of substituents. Choices (B) and (C) are incorrect since, in each case, one alkene has fewer substituents than the other. Choice (C) is incorrect because the alkenes have different substituents and consequently are formed in different amounts. Choice (D) is incorrect because relative product distribution can be predicted according to the alkene substitution pattern.
182. B

2-Methyl-2-butene and 2-methyl-1-butene are constitutional isomers. The two alkenes have the same molecular formulas but the atoms are bonded in different arrangements. Choice (A) is incorrect because configurational isomers are stereoisomers (enantiomers or diastereomers). The atoms are bonded in the same manner but have different arrangements in space. However, molecules cannot be transformed into one another by rotation around single bonds. Choice (D) is incorrect since conformers have different arrangements of atoms in a molecule according to rotation around single bonds. Choice (D) is incorrect because diastereomers are configurational isomers or stereoisomers.


The reaction is a second-order reaction that proceeds in one step. 1-Bromooctadecyl bromide is a primary halide that reacts with a good nucleophile (ethoxide ion) through a transition state involving a pentacoordinted carbon atom. The substitution product (the ether) is formed via an SN2 mechanism (substitution, nucleophilic, bimolecular), and the elimination product (the alkene) is formed via an E2 mechanism (elimination, bimolecular). Choice (A) is incorrect since the reaction does not proceed through a carbocation intermediate as SN1 substitution (substitution, nucleophilic, unimolecular) and E1 (elimination, unimolecular) mechanisms indicate. Choices (B) and (C) are incorrect because substitution and elimination reactions are either both unimolecular or both bimolecular, never a combination of the two.
184. B

The tert-Butoxide ion is very bulky when compared to the methoxide ion. Steric considerations reveal that removal of a proton to form the elimination product is achieved more easily than attack of the electrophilic carbon center to give the substitution product. Choice (A) is incorrect since tert-butoxide ion is actually much more basic than methoxide ion. This higher (not lower) basicity also significantly contributes to the product outcome. Choice (C) is incorrect because the time and temperature differences are minimal when compared to the steric and basicity differences of the nucleophiles.
185. C

The best solvent choice is dimethylformamide since it is a polar, aprotic solvent. The solvent has no protons to participate in hydrogen bonding and, consequently, the nucleophile (cyanide ion) is not solvated and is therefore a much more powerful nucleophile. Choices (A), (B) and (D) are incorrect because water, methanol, and formamide have hydrogens that participate in hydrogen bonding and solvate the nucleophile. The nucleophilic power of the cyanide ion would be reduced thus slowing the reaction.
186. B

An anion is a better nucleophile than the corresponding neutral compound since the electrons on the anion are not as tightly held. Therefore, the electrons of the anion are more easily shared than those of the neutral compound. Choice (A) is incorrect because a more electronegative species is less nucleophilic. The more electronegative species has a tighter hold on its electrons and does not share them as easily. Choice (C) is incorrect since larger atoms are better nucleophiles. In larger atoms, the outer electrons are further from the positively-charged nucleus and so are less tightly held. The electrons are more easily shared and so the atom is a better nucleophile. Choice (D) is incorrect since the more polarizable a species is, the more nucleophilic it is. Polarizability is directly related to the magnitude of the force with which the electrons are attracted to the nucleus. When the electrons are more loosely held the atom is more polarizable and its electrons are more easily shared.
Discrete Questions (Questions 187191)
187. A

Chondrocytes are the specialized cells that secrete chondrin, which forms a firm but elastic matrix to form cartilage. Epiphyses arent actually cells. Rather, they are the rounded, dilated ends of the bone. The diaphysis is the long, cylindrical shaft in between the epiphyses. Osteoblasts are the cells that help build bone and function antagonistically to osteoclasts, which are the cells that help break down bone. Thus, choice (A) is correct.



Helper T cells activate B cells and other T cells through the secretion of lymphokines. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign antigens. Suppressor T cells downregulate B and T cell activity against antigens. T cells are not, however, responsible for recognizing antigen upon secondary exposure to it. Rather, that is the job of memory B cells. There is a class of memory T cells, but their job is to proliferate and produce a large number of cytotoxic T cells upon secondary exposure. Choice (D) is correct.
189. C

If the normal X chromosome is denoted by X+, and the X chromosome with the gene for hemophilia is denoted by Xh, a female who is a carrier for hemophilia has a genotype of X+Xh, while a male who is a hemophiliac has a genotype of XhY. Utilizing a Punnett square, it may be determined that the genotypes of their offspring are 1 X+Xh, 1 XhXh, 1 X+Y, 1 XhY. Thus, of the female children, 1/2 are carriers of the gene for hemophilia, and 1/2 are hemophiliacs. Thus, 50% of the female children of a hemophilia carrier female and a hemophiliac male will be hemophiliacs. This corresponds with answer choice (C).
190. B

Imines are formed from the reaction of an aldehyde or ketone and a primary amine. The imine in the correct answer choice (B) is formed by the reaction of propanal and methylamine. O CH3CH2CH + CH3NH2 CH3CH2CH NCH3

Choice (A) is incorrect because it is an amine, not an imine. Choice (C) is an enamine, formed by the reaction of an aldehyde or ketone with a secondary amine. Choice (D) is a carbinolamine. Carbinolamines are intermediates in the formation of imines; the carbinolamine in choice D would spontaneously lose water to form the imine in the correct answer (B). OH CH3CH2CHNHCH3
191. C


Electron withdrawal stabilizes the conjugate base of a carboxylic acid, the carboxylate ion, and thus the acidity of a carboxylic acid is increased by the presence of an electron-withdrawing group such as chlorine. The proximity of the electron-withdrawing group to the carboxyl group determines the degree of stabilization of the carboxylate ion. Thus the conjugate base of acid I is stabilized to the greatest extent, and I is the strongest acid. Acid III, having a chlorine on the carbon, is stronger than acid II where there is no chlorine present.


Passage IX (Questions 192196)

192. A

Based on paragraph 2 of the passage, we know that dark adaptation involves an increase in sensitivity. The results of the experiment, however, show a descending threshold curve. Based on the definition of threshold intensity, one should deduce that the threshold is inversely proportional to sensitivity. Hence, the curve demonstrating the greatest increase in sensitivity is also the curve showing the greatest drop in threshold. The answer is curve A, which shows the greatest reduction in threshold intensity between 0 and 40 minutes after the onset of darkness.
193. D

Based on the first paragraph of the passage, we learned that cones are more active in brighter conditions and rods are more active in darker conditions. We are also told in the final paragraph that there is a dominance of cone sensitivity above the rod-cone break (the first phase) and a dominance of rod sensitivity at intensities below the break (the second phase). The passage does not suggest that only one kind of photoreceptor is responsive at different light intensities. Therefore, cones are more sensitive than rods in bright conditions. The correct answer is choice (D).
194. B

As explained above, rod sensitivity is dominant during the second phase of the adaptation. As the curves proceed from A to D (with lower pre-adapting intensities), one can see that the second phase occurs earlier and earlier in time until curve D, at which point there is no longer a visible cone adaptation phase. However, note that this does not mean that cones do not adapt at low pre-adapting intensities (or that rods do not adapt at high pre-adapting intensities), as suggested by choices (C) and (D). The graphs show a total sensitivity that is defined by the most sensitive photoreceptor. In other words, at low pre-adapting intensities, the rods are more sensitive so the curve follows rod sensitivity. At high pre-adapting intensities, the cones are at first more sensitive than cones but become less after the cone-rod break, thus showing a rod-cone break at the inflection point.
195. D

Such a subject lacks functional cones. If you understand that the first phase of adaptation is the cone-dominant phase, you should realize that a person without cones will only have the roddominant phase of adaptation. Another way to tackle this question is to see that all the curves with the exception of curve D have an inflection point.
196. A

Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all correct in this question. The first part of the adaptation curve demonstrates a predominance of cone adaptation, which is faster than rod adaptation. Rod adaptation occurs more slowly, but takes over after 10 minutes and achieves a higher sensitivity, as demonstrated by the lower threshold. An absolute threshold is indeed reached such that any darker light is simply imperceptible by the human eye under any lighting conditions. Choice (A) is incorrect because sensitivity of the photoreceptor depends on the lighting condition (cones are more sensitive in bright light) or time in the dark during dark adaptation (cones are more sensitive at first but becomes less sensitive over time). Though the absolute sensitivity of rods may be higher, choice (A) is too much of a generalization to be a correct statement.


Passage X (Questions 197202)

197. B

The narrow melting point range obtained for the recrystallized sample suggests the unknown is a pure compound (Choice (A) incorrect). The presence of excess H2O in the sample would cause a lowering of the melting point, therefore choice (D) is possible. Qualitative tests rule out acetaminophen as the identity of the unknown, however (negative Hinsberg Test for 2 amine) so choice (D) must be incorrect. The only explanation consistent with the qualitative test results is choice (B). Salicylic acid (mp 156-158C) is the hydrolysis product of acetylsalicylic acid. OH O O Salicylic acid Choice (C) is incorrect because esters are more prone to hydrolysis than amines.
198. D


The mechanism for the Williamson ether synthesis is an SN2 reaction involving two steps: Initially, the acetaminophen reacts with carbonate to form the corresponding phenoxide ion: HOC6H4NHCOCH3 + CO32

+ HCO3

The phenoxide then acts as the nucleophile in the SN2 reaction with ethyl iodide to form phenacetin:




A chiral carbon has four different groups attached to it. Of the compounds in Table 1, Ibuprofen is the only one that contains a chiral center. The IUPAC name for Ibuprofen is ()-2-(isobutyl phenyl) propionic acid. CH3 H C CH3 Ibuprofen CH2 CH3 CH * O HO



This question is asking if the Hinsberg method is useful for identifying an amine as either 1, 2 or 3. In other words, does the Hinsberg test give different VISIBLE results depending on whether an amine is 1, 2 or 3? The best way to tackle this question is to replace the 2 amine in the Hinsberg equation from the passage with 1 and 3 amines. Recall the chemistry of amines and decide when (and if) precipitates will form. The passage states the Hinsberg Test is conducted in aqueous base. The amine immediately reacts if it is 1 or 2 with the resulting HCl being neutralized by the base. The passage tells you that sulfonamide derivatives of 2 amines are usually insoluble solids (neutral compounds!). You should recognize that the sulfonamide derivative of a 1 amine will be acidic and will dissolve in aqueous base. Acidification of this solution will then precipitate the sulfonamide of a 1 amine. Because of the heterogeneous nature of this system, the rate at which the sulfonyl chloride reagent is hydrolyzed to the sulfonic acid is relatively slow. So the correct answer is choice (D). The Hinsberg Test is useful for distinguishing 1, 2 and 3 amines. As shown in the following equations, 1 and 2 amines react to give sulfonamide derivatives with loss of HCl, whereas 3 amines do not give any isolable products other than the starting amine. In the latter case a quaternary onium salt may be formed as an intermediate, but this rapidly breaks down to liberate the original 3 amine. acidic hydrogen

H R N H Cl




1o amine



O S O HCl NaCl R

Na N


water-insoluble (precipitate)

water-soluble salt (clear solution)


R R N R Cl

O S O 2 NaOH NaCl 2 H2O R

R N R Na


3o amine insoluble

starting amine insoluble HCl

R R N R Cl

H quaternary ammonium salt (soluble)


The Ferric chloride test does not involve oxidation or reduction (Choices (A) and (B) incorrect) but relies on acid-base chemistry. Iron remains in the +3 oxidation state. Pyridine is a base and reacts with the HCl which is generated in the reaction to form pyridine(HCl). The neutralization provides the driving force for the ligand exchange since the reverse reaction is prevented.
202. B

The IUPAC name for acetaminophen is N-(4-hydroxyphenyl) acetamide. 4-hydroxy benzoic acid is the IUPAC name for salicylic acid which is the hydrolysis product of acetylsalicylic acid (IUPAC name is 2-acetoxy benzoic acid). Choice (C) is therefore incorrect.
Passage XI (Questions 203208)

The first experiment showed that male mice deficient in -galactosyltransferase are infertile, while the second experiment showed that sperm derived from such mice dont bind eggs as effectively as sperm from the or the wild type strains. Both of these experiments thus support Hypothesis 2 and suggest that -galactosyltransferase is required for effective sperm-egg binding. Choice (A) is incorrect because such a conclusion cannot be drawn from the experiments described in the passage. Strain , for example, can have a number of defects that would render this strain incapable of reproducing outside the laboratory conditions. Choice (B) is incorrect because the second experiment shows that some strain sperm do attach to eggs. Choice (D) is incorrect because such a conclusion can not be drawn based on the information in the passage. Choice (C) is correct.



Strain a lacks -galactosyl residues because it is deficient in functional -galactosyltransferase, which attaches -galactosyl residues to oligosaccharides.

According to Hypothesis 1 those -galactosyl residues must be present on the egg surface in order for sperm-egg binding to occur. Thus if -galactosyl residues were essential for spermegg attachment (i.e. Hypothesis 1 were true), then eggs from strain a mice would be defective and strain females would be infertile. The reason sperm will be unaffected by -galactosyltransferase mutation is because sperm surface doesnt contain -galactosyl residues, but (according to Hypothesis 1) contains protein that binds those residues. Hence strain sperm would be capable of attaching to normal eggs that express -galactosyl residues. Choice (C) is correct.

If reagents that change the specificity of -galactosyltransferase for its substrate also inhibit sperm-egg interaction, then this would support the essence of Hypothesis 2 which states that sperm-egg binding is mediated by -galactosyltransferase and its substrate. Choice (A) would not support nor contradict Hypothesis 2, which discusses sperm-egg attachment and not fertilization. Choice (C) would contradict Hypothesis 2, according to which N-acetyl-glucosaminyl is a substrate for -galactosyltransferases and its removal must interfere with sperm-egg attachment. Choice (D) would also contradict Hypothesis 2 because if -galactosyltransferase is the true sperm binding protein then excess of this enzyme would bind to the zona pellucida and prevent the sperm from attaching to an egg. Choice (B) is correct. According to Hypothesis 1, -galactosyl residues are important in sperm-egg binding. Consequently the observation that the removal of -galactosyl residues from ZP3 does not effect sperm-egg binding would undermine Hypothesis 1. Choice (A) would support Hypothesis 1 because strain eggs dont express -galactosyl residues on their surface and according to Hypothesis 1 shouldnt be fertile. Choices (B) and (C) would neither support nor contradict Hypothesis 1. Choice (D) is correct.



The experiment described in the question stem is designed to isolate sperm proteins that bind to ZP-3. The isolated peptide turned out to be a 56-kDa peptide, the same peptide that was suggested by Hypothesis 1 to be the protein on the sperm surface that binds ZP3. Hence the experimental observation will support Hypothesis 1, and choice (C) is correct.
208. A

A competitive inhibitor is a substance that binds the active site of a protein thereby preventing it from interacting with its normal substrate. One important characteristic of a competitive inhibitor is its resemblance to the actual substrate. Among the given answer choices only oligosaccharides with N-acetyl-glucosaminyl and -galactosyl residues resemble the substrates that bind -galactosyltransferase and Sp56 respectively. To decide between choices (A) and (B), one must look at the experimental evidence. The experiments described in the passage provide evidence in support of Hypothesis 2. Therefore the best candidate for a competitive inhibitor must be a molecule that interferes with the receptor-ligand interaction of molecules described in Hypothesis 2, namely the -galactosyltransferase and an oligosaccharide with N-acetyl-glucosaminyl residues. Since an exogenous supply of oligosaccharides with N-acetyl-glucosaminyl residues will bind -galactosyltransferase on the sperm surface and thereby prevent the attach54

ment of the sperm to the ZP3, choice (A) must be the correct answer. Choices (C) and (D) are incorrect because antibodies typically inhibit the action of proteins in a noncompetitive fashion, i.e. they often do not bind the active site.
Discrete Questions (Questions 209214)
209. A

The reaction is an example of acid-catalyzed esterification, also known as Fischer esterification. The mechanism involves nucleophilic addition to the carbonyl group, followed by elimination of the leaving group. The nucleophile is the oxygen atom of methyl alcohol. O CH318OH + C6H5COH OH C6H5COH
18OCH 3

C6H5C18OCH3 + H2O O

As the reaction shows, the oxygen atom of the alcohol (18O in this problem) becomes the singly-bonded oxygen atom of the ester product. Choice (A) is therefore the correct answer to the problem. Choice (B) is incorrect because the isotope label in on the carbonyl oxygen of the ester. Choice (C) is incorrect because it is not an ester. Choice (D) is incorrect because the isotope label is on the oxygen atom of water, not the ester.
210. C

The compound shown in the problem is an aldopentose. This can be seen readily be examining the structure in its open-chain form. CH HO HO H O H H OH CH2OH

Sugars belong to the D series when the hydroxyl group on the highest-numbered stereogenic center is in the same configuration as D-glyceraldehyde, that is, on the right. In a pentose it is the configuration of the C-4 hydroxyl group (answer choice (C)) that determines the D or L configuration of the sugar. Choice (A) is incorrect because the direction of optical rotation does not determine absolute configuration. A D sugar can rotate plane-polarized light either in the (+) or the () direction. Choice (B) is incorrect because the configuration at the anomeric carbon determines whether the cyclic hemiacetal form of the sugar is + or , not D or L. Choice (D) is incorrect because C-5 is not a stereogenic center in a five-carbon sugar (pentose).



Be sure to expand parentheses and correctly identify the longest chain in order to assign a systematic (IUPAC) name to a compound. Remember that the longest chain of carbon atoms need not just be from left to right across the page, but can go around corners. Begin numbering at the end of the chain closest to the first substituent.
7 6 5 4 2 1

8 9 3


This reveals methyl groups on carbons 2, 4, and 7 of a 9-carbon chain. Thus the stem of the name is nonane and the correct name is 2,4,7-trimethylnonane. Choices (A), (B), and (D) incorrectly identify the longest chain; it is 9 carbons, not 6 (hexane) or 8 (octane).
212. D

DNA is composed of 4 nucleotides: cytosine (C), thymine (T), adenine (A), and guanine (G). Cytosine base pairs with guanine via three hydrogen bonds, and thymine base pairs with adenine via two hydrogen bonds. Thus, a strand of DNA that contains more (C) and (G) would have a higher melting point than one with less (C) and (G), since there are more hydrogen bonds to be broken. Looking at the answer choices, choices A and B contain 2 G-C (or C-G) pairs, choice C contains 3 G-C (or C-G) pairs, and choice D contains 4 G-C (or C-G) pairs. Thus the strand with the highest melting point is the strand shown in choice D.
213. B

Increasing concentrations of hydrogen ion in the blood result in a low pH, which decreases hemoglobins affinity for oxygen. Increasing concentrations of carbon dioxide in the blood also decrease hemoglobins affinity for oxygen. The increased concentration of oxygen in the alveolar capillaries promotes oxygen uptake in the lungs. Thus, statements I and II decrease hemoglobins affinity for oxygen, while statement III increases hemoglobins affinity for oxygen. The correct answer is therefore III only, or choice (B).
214. B

The three primary germ layersectoderm, endoderm, and mesodermare formed during gastrulation. Muscles and the heart are derived from the mesoderm. The pancreas is formed from the endoderm. The spinal cord and skin are derived from the ectoderm. Thus the correct answer is choice (B).