EXAM 2 REVIEW 1.

The number of new problems that a manager experiences in performing his or her job is known as: A) task analyzability. B) task variety. C) continuous-process technology. D) job design. E) small-batch technology. 2. According to Woodward, which type of technology is almost completely mechanized and controlled by computers? A) Small-batch technology B) Continuous-process technology C) Task force technology D) Functional technology E) None of the above 3. The sharing and integrating of expertise within and between functions and divisions through realtime, interconnected information technology, is called: A) knowledge management B) a matrix structure C) a learning organization D) a strategic alliance E) TQM 4. The process by which managers decide how to organize the tasks that workers need to do into the jobs that are needed to produce the organization's goods or services is known as: A) job design. B) continuous-process technology. C) small-batch technology. D) mass-production technology. E) job enrichment. 5. McDonald's Corporation made a basic decision as to how to divide the tasks of the jobs of "chefs" and "food servers" in its restaurants. This was an example of: A) continuous-process technology. B) job design. C) divisional structure. D) product structure. E) matrix structure. 6. The degree to which a manager feels that his or her job is "meaningful" because of the way in which the job affects other people is known as: A) skill variety. B) feedback. C) autonomy. D) task significance. E) task identity. 7. The degree to which a job allows the worker to schedule the tasks of the job and to decide how to carry out these tasks is known as: A) autonomy. B) task identity. C) task significance. D) skill variety. E) feedback.

8. A counselor who works with the families of teenagers who are drug-dependent has __________ __________ than a worker who washes the left side of automobiles as they come through a car wash service. A) lower task significance. B) less autonomy C) less skill variety D) less task identity E) higher task significance 9. In designing an organization, if managers are grouped both by function and by product at the same time, what type of organizational structure is being used? A) Market structure B) Geographic structure C) Functional structure D) Matrix structure E) Divisional structure 10. One way organizations can keep their hierarchy flat is to: A) decrease the span of control B) increase the number of levels of management C) decentralize authority D) enlarge jobs E) decrease autonomy 11. The component of an HRM system that focuses on attempting to attract and to hire employees who have the abilities and experiences to help the organization to achieve its goals is known as: A) training. B) development. C) recruitment and selection. D) performance appraisal. E) feedback.

12. The component of an HRM system that focuses on helping managers to develop the skills and abilities that will enable them to perform their jobs successfully is: A) training and development. B) recruitment. C) selection. D) performance appraisal. E) feedback. 13. The set of activities in which managers engage to forecast the future human resource needs of their organization is known as: A) performance appraisal. B) feedback. C) human resource planning. D) recruitment. E) selection. 14. A manager hires a temporary secretary from an employment agency instead of hiring a permanent secretary. This is an example of: A) outsourcing. B) on-the-job training. C) a 360-degree appraisal. D) an RJP.

E) training. 15. When a manager changes jobs within the organization and moves to another job at the same level without any major changes in authority or responsibility, this is known as: A) walk-in recruiting. B) a lateral move. C) outsourcing. D) external recruiting. E) performance appraisal. 16. Tests that measure the personal characteristics of job applicants that are relevant to successful performance on the job are known as: A) ability tests. B) structured interview tests. C) paper-and-pencil tests. D) personality tests. E) unstructured interview tests. 17. A manager requires all applicants for a secretarial position to pass a typing test to determine the number of errors they produce and their typing speed. This is an example of: A) a personality test. B) a physical ability test. C) a role-play test. D) a performance test. E) an ad hoc test. 18. An employee learns how to do her jobs as the result of performing the jobs. This is known as: A) simulation. B) structured job interviewing. C) on-the-job training. D) performance appraisal. E) recruitment. 19. An appraisal of a subordinate by a manager in terms of that manager's perceptions of the traits, behaviors, and results produced by that subordinate is known as: A) an objective appraisal. B) a subjective appraisal. C) MBO. D) selection E) performance feedback 20. The arrangement of jobs into categories reflecting their relative importance to the organization and its goals, level of skills required, and other characteristics is called: A) pay level B) pay structure C) job analysis D) benefit structure E) chain of command 21. An evaluation by a manager of a subordinate's work that occurs twice a year and is based on measures of performance dimensions of that subordinate's job is known as: A) an informal appraisal. B) a subjective appraisal. C) an RJP. D) a formal appraisal. E) training.

22. Behavior which is performed by an employee "for its own sake" (i.e., the motivation comes from doing the work itself) is referred to as: A) extrinsically motivated behavior. B) an external locus of causality. C) intrinsically motivated behavior. D) equity behavior. E) overpayment inequity.

23. Behavior which is performed by an employee to acquire a material reward, to acquire a social reward, or to avoid punishment is referred to as: A) extrinsically motivated behavior. B) equity behavior. C) underpayment inequity. D) intrinsically motivated behavior. E) overpayment inequity. 24. A computer programmer who does her job well because she enjoys solving complicated computer problems is said to be: A) extrinsically motivated. B) negatively reinforced. C) experiencing extinction. D) intrinsically motivated. E) experiencing overpayment inequity. 25. One of the following theories specifically postulates that motivation of employees will be high when employees believe that a high level of effort on their part will lead to high performance on their part, but only when they believe that high performance leads to their attainment of outcomes which they desire (e.g. higher pay, promotion, etc.). Which theory does this? A) Expectancy theory B) Valence theory C) Hierarchy of needs theory D) Motivator-hygiene theory E) Goal-setting theory 26. An employee's perception of the extent to which his or her performance at a given level will result in outcomes the manager desires is known as: A) instrumentality. B) inequity. C) valence. D) expectancy. E) punishment. 27. The desirability to an employee of each of the outcomes available from the employee's job or organization is known as: A) instrumentality. B) expectancy. C) valence. D) equity. E) extinction.

28. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory, the highest level of needs of workers is: A) physiological needs. B) safety needs.

C) self-actualization needs. D) esteem needs. E) belongingness needs. 29. In Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory, all of the following are examples of motivator needs EXCEPT: A) interesting work. B) responsibility. C) pay. D) a sense of accomplishment. E) autonomy. 30. According to Alderfer's ERG theory, if an individual becomes frustrated at a certain level of need, the person will then: A) skip a level B) continue to pursue the need, despite frustration C) focus more on satisfying a lower level D) quit trying to satisfying any need E) become self-actualizing 31. Research suggests that ________________________ are assets for first-line and middle managers. A) need for affiliation and need for power. B) esteem and belongingness needs C) growth and relatedness needs D) need for power and need for self-actualization E) need for power and need for achievement 32. Dale, an employee of ABC Company, perceives that his outcome/input ratio is less than that of his coworker Sam. This is known as: A) overpayment inequity. B) underpayment inequity. C) the valence effect. D) positive reinforcement. E) extinction. 33. The most motivating goals are: A) specific and easy B) general and easy C) specific and difficult D) specific and easy E) specific and out of reach

34. Juanita, a manager, learns what not to do by watching the behavior and consequences of that behavior of Shaifeez, another manager. This is an example of which type of learning? A) Negative reinforcement B) Extinction C) Punishment D) Vicarious learning E) Positive reinforcement 35. The process by which one person exerts influence over others and inspires, motivates, and directs their activities is known as: A) empowerment. B) initiating structure.

C) leadership. D) consideration. E) legitimate power. 36. The authority that a manager has because of his or her position in the organizational hierarchy is known as: A) coercive power. B) legitimate power. C) reward power. D) referent power. E) expert power. 37. When a manager has the power to hire a new manager for his or her division, we say that this manager has which type of power? A) Reward power B) Referent power C) Legitimate power D) Coercive power E) Expert power 38. The ability of a manager to give or to withhold rewards to subordinates is known as: A) reward power. B) legitimate power. C) expert power. D) referent power. E) coercive power. 39. The process of giving all employees in the organization, regardless of their level of management, the authority to make decisions and to be responsible for their outcomes is known as: A) consideration. B) leadership. C) empowerment. D) initiating structure. E) task structure. 40. When a leader assigns work to a subordinate, this is an example of which type of behavior? A) Empowerment B) Initiating structure C) Consideration D) Relationship-oriented E) Expert power 41. Leadership theories that propose that the effectiveness of a leader depends on the situation in which the leader finds herself are known as: A) trait models. B) contingency models. C) empowerment models. D) path-goal models. E) leadership substitute models. 42. According to Fiedler, the extent to which the work of subordinates is clear so that they know what to do and how to do it is known as: A) consideration structure. B) task structure. C) empowerment structure. D) leader-member relations.

E) charismatic leadership. 43. When leading creative workers, a manager should be: A) supportive and critical B) supportive and uncritical C) hands-off and critical D) hands-off and uncritical E) directive 44. Leadership that makes subordinates aware of their jobs importance to the organization is called: A) consideration B) empowerment C) transformational D) transactional E) path-goal leadership

45. Leaders that motivate subordinates primarily by rewarding and reprimanding are called: A) transformational B) transactional C) structured D) considerate E) intellectually stimulating 46. Which of the following should managers do to try to build the potential for synergy? A) create groups of similar individuals B) be strongly directive with the group C) appoint members with complementary skills D) avoid empowerment E) reward individual performance 47. Groups which managers set up to attempt to accomplish organizational goals are known as: A) friendship groups. B) informal groups. C) formal groups. D) top management groups. E) cross-cultural groups. 48. When a group of workers form a group so that the members can interact with each other socially both on and off the job, this is an example of which kind of group? A) Formal B) Cross-functional C) Cross-cultural D) Informal E) Virtual team 49. The group of managers who are responsible for designing the long-range strategic plan for the organization are known as: A) an informal group. B) a cross-cultural group. C) a top-management team. D) a virtual team. E) an interest group. 50. When the long-range strategic planning committee for an organization is composed of managers from engineering, R&D, production, marketing, and finance, this is known as which type of

group? A) Cross-cultural B) Informal C) Virtual team D) Cross-functional E) Command

51. The salespeople from the cosmetics department of a department store who report to the same sales manager are known as: A) an informal group. B) a virtual group. C) a cross-functional group. D) a cross-cultural group. E) a command group. 52. A group of managers work very hard to be sure that they agree on important issues instead of working toward an accurate assessment of the situation. We say that this group suffers from: A) an informal group. B) a friendship group. C) synergy. D) groupthink. E) social loafing. 53. The degree to which the work of one member of the group affects the work performed by other members of the group is known as: A) task interdependence. B) synergy. C) virtual teamwork. D) group cohesiveness. E) role making. 54. When the work of each group member is completely dependent on the work performed by the other group members, this is known as: A) virtual teamwork. B) pooled task interdependence. C) sequential task interdependence. D) social loafing. E) reciprocal task interdependence. 55. The set of behaviors and tasks that a member of the group is expected to perform because he or she is a member of the group is known as: A) group roles. B) virtual teamwork. C) synergy. D) role making. E) group cohesiveness.

56. A manager of a group encourages members of the group to take on additional responsibilities as they see the need to modify their roles within the group. This is known as: A) social loafing. B) role making. C) synergy. D) virtual teamwork. E) an interest group.

57. Close ties between the members of the group typically are formed during which one of the stages of group development? A) Forming B) Adjourning C) Performing D) Storming E) Norming 58. Shared guidelines or rules of behavior that most group members follow are called: A) sequential task interdependence rules. B) synergy. C) group norms. D) division of labor. E) task interdependence. 59. What can a manager do to discourage social loafing in a group? A) Create large groups B) Focus on recognizing the group's performance as a whole C) Downplay individual contributions D) Assign specific tasks to group members and hold them accountable for their performance E) None of the above 60. Discord which arises when the goals of different individuals are incompatible and these individuals attempt to block each other's attempts to accomplish their objectives, is known as: A) organizational politics. B) integrative bargaining. C) organizational conflict. D) benchmarking. E) top-down change. 61. One manager argues that the organization should only do the minimum amount required by law, while another argues that the organization should act in a responsible manner regarding environmental pollution beyond what the law requires. This is an example of: A) intrapersonal conflict. B) interorganizational conflict. C) intragroup conflict. D) interpersonal conflict. E) intergroup conflict. 62. Conflict that arises between members of the same department is known as: A) interorganizational conflict. B) top-down conflict. C) interpersonal conflict. D) intragroup conflict. E) intergroup conflict. 63. A manager in the marketing department feels that it should be possible to manufacture a new product at a low cost per unit, but a production manager feels that the actual costs of production will be much higher. This is an example of: A) interorganizational conflict. B) intrapersonal conflict. C) intergroup conflict. D) intragroup conflict. E) all of the above.

64. A marketing manager prefers shorter production runs of a few hundred units in order to deliver the product more quickly to a key customer, while the production manager prefers longer runs of thousands of units in order to drive the cost per unit down. This is an example of: A) incompatible goals. B) overlapping authority. C) scarce resources. D) top-down change. E) distributive justice. 65. In XYZ Corporation, production managers are evaluated for their success in driving costs down, while marketing managers are evaluated on the basis of customer satisfaction. The conflict that occurs when overtime hours are needed in order to deliver the product at the time promised by the marketing department is based on: A) scarce resources. B) incompatible reward systems. C) top-down change. D) benchmarking. E) overlapping authority. 66. A group of students in a marketing class is assigned to a product development team which is responsible for a class presentation, and one of the team members fails to complete his or her part of the development of the presentation. This is an example of: A) overlapping authority. B) controlling the agenda. C) scarce resources. D) status inconsistency. E) task interdependence. 67. At Acme Explosives, two department heads are competing for funding of equipment which each of them feels is necessary for their subordinates to perform their jobs successfully. This is an example of: A) functional conflict resolution. B) status inconsistency. C) scarce resources. D) task equity. E) incompatible reward systems. 68. When each of the parties in conflict is willing to "give-and-take" until a reasonable solution to the conflict occurs, this is known as: A) collaboration. B) distributive negotiation. C) win-lose negotiation. D) lose-lose negotiation. E) compromise. 69 When the parties in conflict attempt to resolve the conflict without making concessions but, instead, attempt to resolve their differences in ways which leave all parties better off, this is known as: A) compromise. B) win-lose negotiation. C) lose-lose negotiation. D) collaboration. E) top-down change. 70. Two managers from Acme Explosives who are in conflict because one likes to take risks and the other likes to avoid risks are made to realize this difference in their management styles. This is an

example of a conflict management strategy called: A) benchmarking. B) organizational politics. C) increasing awareness of the sources of conflict. D) job rotation. E) increasing diversity awareness. 71. When an African-American feels singled out in a group of white workers, a conflict management strategy that can be used successfully would be: A) benchmarking. B) increasing diversity awareness. C) top-down management. D) bottom-up management. E) none of the above. 72. Managers at ABC Company are in conflict because of overlapping areas of authority, and senior management attempts to solve this problem by clarifying the chain of command for specific activities. This is an attempt to reduce conflict by: A) altering the source of conflict. B) controlling the agenda. C) negotiation. D) distributive negotiation. E) all of the above. 73. When two parties in conflict focus on each other's shortcomings instead of focusing on solving the problem, this is an example of: A) emphasizing superordinate goals. B) emphasizing subordinate goals. C) focusing on interests instead of demands. D) focusing on the people instead of the problem. E) all of the above. 74. Managers gain power through valuable knowledge and expertise that allows them to perform activities that few others can perform within their organization. This is known as: A) making oneself irreplaceable. B) being in a central position. C) controlling uncertainty. D) building alliances. E) generating resources. 75 The process by which a manager attempts to increase the ability of his or her subordinates to understand changing conditions is known as: A) organizational learning. B) organizational conflict. C) benchmarking. D) conflict resolution. E) unobtrusive learning. 76. Top managers at Mediocre Company decide to restructure the organization without consulting middle-level managers and then move quickly to implement their decision before resistance to the change can begin. This is an example of: A) overlapping authority. B) bottom-up change. C) top-down change. D) negotiation. E) distributive justice.