Certified Associate in Project Management

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CA0-001
PMI
Certified Associate in ProjectManagement
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QUESTION: 1
On what is project baseline development established?
A. Approved product requirements
B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and
identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3
What is the definition of project plan execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities.
B. Performing the activities included in the plan.
C. Developing and maintaining the plan.
D. Execution of deliverables.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
What is a tool to improve team performance?
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A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-Location
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders
in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
Answer: C
QUESTION: 7
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if
performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
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B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Answer: D
QUESTION: 8
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan
is effective and current?
A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The document control plan is an outline or guide on how physical or virtual documents will be
managed throughout the life of the project. It provides a road map for tracking documents and
for adding, archiving, and removing new documentation from the process.
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking
Answer: A
QUESTION: 10
During what process is the quality policy determined?
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A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: C
QUESTION: 11
What is one of the MAJ OR outputs of activity sequencing?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Work breakdown structure update
C. Project network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
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D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today.
As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been
completed. What is the cost variance?
A. -$700
B. -$200
C. +$200
D. +$500
Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
How is quality control performed?
A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to
satisfy them.
B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and
determining corrective actions as needed.
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C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance
processes.
D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure
conformance to quality standards.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 17
As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of
total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Answer: B
QUESTION: 18
How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
Answer: C
QUESTION: 19
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:
A. Always be applied uniformly
B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. Be selected as appropriate by the project team
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D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 20
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be
employed and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
The project management processes are presented as discrete elements with well- defined
interfaces. However, in practice they overlap and interact in ways that are not completely
detailed here. Most experienced project management practitioners recognize there is more than
one way to manage a project. The specifics for a project are defined as objectives that must be
accomplished based on complexity, risk, size, time frame, project teams experience, access to
resources, amount of historical information, the organizations project management maturity,
and industry and application area. The required Process Groups and their constituent processes
are guides to apply appropriate project management knowledge and skills during the project. In
addition, the application of the project management processes to a project is iterative and many
processes are repeated and revised during the project. The project manager and the project
team are responsible for determining what processes from the Process Groups will be
employed, by whom, and the degree of rigor that will be applied to the execution of those
processes to achieve the desired project objective.
QUESTION: 21
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes
needed to meet its requirements?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
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D. Quality Planning
Answer: C
QUESTION: 22
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Cost Control
B. Quality Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Cost Budgeting
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring & Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 25
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewart-Deming
D. Delphi
Answer: C
QUESTION: 26
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Selection MethodsThere are various project selection methods practiced by the modern
business organizations. These methods have different features and characteristics. Therefore,
each selection method is best for different organizations. Although there are many differences
between these project selection methods, usually the underlying concepts and principles are the
same. Following is an illustration of two of such methods (Benefit Measurement and
Constrained Optimization methods). As the value of one project would need to be compared
against the other projects, you could use the benefit measurement methods. This could include
various techniques, of which the following are the most common.
You and your team could come up with certain criteria that you want your ideal project
objectives to meet. You could then give each project scores based on how they rate in each of
these criteria, and then choose the project with the highest score.
When it comes to the Discounted Cash flow method, the future value of a project is
ascertained by considering the present value and the interest earned on the money. The higher
the present value of the project, the better it would be for your organization.
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The rate of return received from the money is what is known as the IRR. Here again, you
need to be looking for a high rate of return from the project. The mathematical approach is
commonly used for larger projects. The constrained optimization methods require several
calculations in order to decide on whether or not a project should be rejected. Cost-benefit
analysis is used by several organizations to assist them to make their selections. Going by this
method, you would have to consider all the positive aspects of the project, which is the
benefits, and then deduct the negative aspects (or the costs) from the benefits. Based on the
results you receive for different projects, you could choose which option would be the most
viable and financially rewarding. These benefits and costs need to be carefully considered and
quantified in order to arrive at a proper conclusion. Questions that you may want to consider
asking are in the selection process are:
1. Would this decision help me to increase organizational value in the long run?
2. How long will the equipment last for?
3. Would I be able to cut down on costs as I go along?
In addition to these methods, you could also consider Choosing based on opportunity cost -
When choosing any project, you would need to keep in mind the profits that you would make if
you do decide to go ahead with the project. Profit optimization is therefore the ultimate goal.
You need to consider the difference between the profits of the project you are primarily
interested in, and the next best alternative.
QUESTION: 27
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the
defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing
this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process.
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert J udgment
B. Project Management Methodology
C. Project Management Information
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D. Project Selection Methods
Answer: A
QUESTION: 29
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions
B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints
Answer: A
QUESTION: 30
Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project
initiation through project closure?
A. Resource leveling
B. Parametric measuring
C. Pareto chart
D. Earned value
Answer: D
QUESTION: 31
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
A. Organizational Structure
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Organizational Matrix
D. Organizational Breakdown Structures
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 32
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Variance Analysis
C. Reserve Analysis
D. Stakeholder Analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 35
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Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
Answer: C
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
A. Project Quality Plan
B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?
A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure
B. Activity list and Arrow Diagram
C. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets
D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Activity definition refers to the process of parsing a project into a number of individual tasks
which must be completed before the deliverables can be considered completed. Activity
definitions rely on a number of specific input processes. These include enterprise
environmental factors, organizational process assets, the project scope statement, the work
breakdown structure, the WBS dictionary, the project management plan (which consists of the
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project scope management plan and the schedule management plan). Through use of these
inputs, the activities that will need to ultimately be completed in order to compete all of the
project objectives can be readily defined, and the activity definition can be further
accomplished through the utilization of a number of tools and techniques including
decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, expert judgment, and planning components.
The four ultimate outputs of the activity definition process are the activity list, the resulting
activity attributes, all requested changes, and any milestones. This term is defined in the 3rd
edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th.
QUESTION: 38
Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what
Project Time Management process?
A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating
Answer: D
Explanation:
Activity Resource Estimate Assumptions and Breakdown StructuresIn the Estimate Activity
Resources process, the key output is activity resource requirements. These requirements
describe the types and quantities of resources needed for each project activity.Once you know
what resources you need, you can begin to estimate the time each activity will take to
complete. In this way, the activity resource requirements list generated by the Estimate
Activity Resources process become inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process.
Activity resource requirements listThe activity resource requirements list identifies, for
tracking purposes, the activity's code in the work breakdown structure, as well as its name.
Vital to generating the project schedule, it details the resources that you've estimated you need
to complete the activity, and addresses. Resource description The Resource description
column lists each type of resource that is required for the activity. This includes human
resources, materials, and facilities. Number required The Number required column identifies
the quantity required of each resource. This value can be specified in any measurement unit,
such as hours, days, or physical number of units required. Resource assumptions Resource
assumptions are important factors to consider when devising the project schedule. Any relevant
assumptions about the resource can be included, for example resource availability, skills, or
quality. Resource availability The Resource availability column specifies when each resource
can be used. This is vital information for putting together the project schedule. Resource
dependencies The Resource dependencies column identifies factors that may affect the
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availability of resources. It's important to identify dependencies when devising the project
schedule because any change in an activity that has a dependency can affect the project
timeline.The final row of the activity resource requirements list identifies the total resources
needed for the activity. The resource totals are important in project scheduling as a base from
which to calculate the duration of the activity. Resource Assumptions - It's important to record
resource assumptions, as they can help during different stages of a project. Select each project
stage to find out how resource assumptions can help. Monitoring Recorded assumptions can
affect performance monitoring. For example, if a particular task seems to be taking too long,
looking at the assumptions can help you identify the problem. Controlling Recorded
assumptions can also help you control performance. Having used the assumptions to identify a
problem, you can now make performance adjustments so that the project can run more
efficiently. Closing Recorded assumptions can provide insights during post-project
assessments at the closing stage. For example, if you had made incorrect assumptions about
staff capabilities, looking at the assumptions helps you understand what went wrong. This can
then be recorded in the lessons learned file for the project.Failure to record assumptions can
also have an impact during the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Resource
breakdown structuresAlong with the activity resource requirements list, there's one more main
output of the Estimate Activity Resources process the resource breakdown structure.The
resource breakdown structure provides a hierarchical diagram of the resources required for a
project. This structure is visually simple, showing resource information at a glance breaks
resources into categories and resource types helps you to organize a project schedule and report
on resource utilization information. Although they look similar, a resource breakdown structure
is not the same as a work breakdown structure. A work breakdown structure, or WBS,
decomposes a project into manageable units of work. Elements in a WBS include project
phases, tasks, sub-tasks, and work packages. These represent all the activities in a project.
Project document updatesThe Estimate Activity Resources process concludes with project
document updates the final output of the process. Initially, various project documents are
used as inputs for the process. Now that resource estimation is complete, new information may
have come to light. For this reason, you may need to update documents so they reflect the latest
project information. In the process of estimating resource requirements and creating the
resource breakdown structure, it's often necessary to add or delete schedule activities that
appear in the activity list.The activity changes have a subsequent effect on activity attributes
and resource calendars. Because project activities have changed, you need to document those
changes by updating the descriptions of activities and the availability of relevant resources.
The first output of the Estimate Activity Resources process is an activity resource
requirementslist. It's important to record any assumptions you've made about resources in this
list, for use in monitoring and controlling project work, and in post-project assessments. A
second output of the process is the resource breakdown structure. This is a hierarchical diagram
that shows the resources required for the project in a visually simple way. It groups resources
by category, and can be used for organizing and reporting on resources. The final output of the
process is updates to relevant project documents, such as the activity list, activity attributes,
and resource calendars.
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QUESTION: 39
Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management
process?
A. Activity Sequencing
B. Activity Resource Estimating
C. Schedule Development
D. Schedule Control
Answer: C
QUESTION: 40
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?
A. Critical path
B. Rolling Wave
C. PDM
D. Parametric
Answer: D
QUESTION: 41
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency
purposes?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert J udgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
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Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path
method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource Leveling
C. Resource Planning
D. Resource Conflict Management
Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication
of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Performance measurements
D. Change requests
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?
A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION: 45
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
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A. Cost Control
B. Cost Budgeting
C. Cost Estimating
D. Cost Planning
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46
Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert J udgment
B. Project Management Software
C. Vendor Bid Analysis
D. Reserve Analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 47
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the
completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected:
Actual cost =$50,000
Plan cost =$45,000
Earned value =$40,000
What is the cost performance index?
A. 0.80
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25
Answer: A
QUESTION: 48
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
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A. 1.33
B. 2.00
C. 0.75
D. 0.5
Answer: A
QUESTION: 49
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
Answer: A
QUESTION: 51
Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the
project CV?
A. -$8,000
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B. -$2,000
C. $2,000
D. $8,000
Answer: B
QUESTION: 52
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
Answer: B
QUESTION: 53
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?
A. Schedule Analysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION: 54
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control Chart
C. Flowchart
D. Histogram
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 55
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control Charts
C. Pareto Chart
D. Histogram
Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control Chart
C. Run Chart
D. Pareto Chart
Answer: D
QUESTION: 57
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D
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QUESTION: 58
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Answer: A
QUESTION: 59
Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for Opportunities
C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Risk Data Quality Assessment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 60
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on
project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
Answer: D
QUESTION: 61
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
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A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
Answer: C
QUESTION: 62
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?
A. Plan contracting
B. Request seller responses
C. Select sellers
D. Plan purchase and acquisition
Answer: C
QUESTION: 63
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
Answer: A
QUESTION: 64
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
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D. Procurement audits
Answer: D
QUESTION: 65
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 66
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of
specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
Answer: D
QUESTION: 67
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
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Answer: D
QUESTION: 68
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and
subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's
business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members
and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and
quality of the work packages.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 69
A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?
A. Methodology
B. Standards
C. Constraints
D. Interdependencies
Answer: C
QUESTION: 70
Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned
combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite. Resource B's
role is that of a:
A. Project manager
B. Portfolio manager
C. Work breakdown manager
D. Program manager
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Answer: D
QUESTION: 71
Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?
A. Repetitive
B. Unique
C. No outcome
D. Permanent
Answer: B
QUESTION: 72
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:
A. process groups.
B. phase gates.
C. knowledge areas.
D. project phases.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 73
Which of the following is the definition of a project?
A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product
B. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
D. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 74
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:
A. guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.
B. methodology for managing projects.
C. guide for project, portfolio and program management.
D. standard for project, portfolio and program management.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 75
Which of the following is a Process Group?
A. Scoping
B. Budgeting
C. Closing
D. Quality
Answer: C
QUESTION: 76
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
Answer: A
QUESTION: 77
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of
changes as project time advances?
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A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stakeholders and changes versus time in the Project Life Cycle There are lots of common
features regarding project life cycles:
Most stages of the project follow one after the other and in many cases could be described in
technical way.
Expenditures and personnel engaged in the task are quite cheap at the beginning of the
project, rise in the middle phase and fall significantly in the final stage. The Picture below
shows exactly the described model.
At the beginning of the project - in initial stage the risk of failure and not to meet your goals
is very high. When this crucial period is over the project comes into an intermediate phase
where the situation is more stable and predictable.
Stakeholders have a big influence for the project's product in many technical aspects, costs
etc. at the beginning of its life cycle. However their impact become lower within duration of
the project and cost of changes and other corrections - which are low in initial phase rise
considerably as the project continues. The Picture below demonstrates clearly this situation. In
our opinion lots of project life cycles have many similar characteristics but few of them are the
same. For example some projects can consist of five stages, others with ten or more? Depend
on complexity and duration of the project. One institution's hardware testing can have one
individual testing stage whereas another organization can have more phases for this task like:
general and detailed testing, error correction, compatibility with different computers etc.
Separate life cycles can also cover these subprojects for instance: one team of engineers can
analysis and look for any defects of the product and the other team can simultaneously check
compatibility with other devices. In conclusion we recommend you to deal with every project
separately and especially at big and complex enterprises treat every phase as subproject with an
individual life cycle.
QUESTION: 78
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what
are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
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B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
Answer: C
QUESTION: 79
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
Answer: B
QUESTION: 80
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Answer: B
QUESTION: 81
When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?
A. At the start of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. During execution
D. Stakeholders have constant influence
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 82
Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the
project and ensuring its success?
A. Stakeholder management
B. Monitoring and controlling
C. Project governance
D. Project management methodology
Answer: C
QUESTION: 83
Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be
delivered either one after the other or at the same time. Which type of project phasing will
allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when product requirements are
subject to rapid change?
A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other
B. Overlapping the delivery phases
C. Delivering the products iteratively
D. Delivering all of the product at the same time
Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource
availability?
A. Functional
B. Weak
C. Balanced
D. Strong
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Answer: D
QUESTION: 85
Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?
A. Sponsor
B. Portfolio manager
C. Program manager
D. Project manager
Answer: C
QUESTION: 86
In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority
on a project?
A. Functional
B. Strong matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
QUESTION: 87
What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?
A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping
C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative
D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 88
Which is a true statement regarding project governance?
A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.
B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.
C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.
D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 89
A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?
A. Weak matrix
B. Functional
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: A
QUESTION: 90
Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved preventive action
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
Answer: B
QUESTION: 91
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
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A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Answer: C
QUESTION: 92
A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
Answer: C
QUESTION: 93
How is the process of collecting requirements defined?
A. Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives
B. Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives
C. Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives
D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives
Answer: B
QUESTION: 94
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
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C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Answer: D
QUESTION: 96
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Schedule
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Determine Budget
Answer: C
QUESTION: 97
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Communications
D. Collect Requirements
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 98
Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area?
A. Product
B. Product-oriented processes
C. Project management process groups
D. Project-oriented processes
Answer: B
QUESTION: 99
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: C
QUESTION: 100
Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not
explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?
A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base
C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C
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QUESTION: 101
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Closing
Answer: B
QUESTION: 102
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all
of the management process groups to formally complete the project?
A. Closing
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Answer: A
QUESTION: 103
Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the
project was undertaken to achieve?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: C
QUESTION: 104
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?
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A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: A
QUESTION: 105
The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Identify Stakeholders
Answer: C
QUESTION: 106
Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B
QUESTION: 107
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
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C. Project management office
D. Customer or sponsor
Answer: D
QUESTION: 108
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Procurement Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 109
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
QUESTION: 110
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how
the project's scope is managed?
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 111
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?
A. Approved corrective actions
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
Answer: A
QUESTION: 112
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS
and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
Answer: D
QUESTION: 113
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and
perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
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QUESTION: 114
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Answer: B
QUESTION: 115
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 116
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Requested changes
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Approved change requests
Answer: D
QUESTION: 117
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Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of
the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
Answer: C
QUESTION: 118
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: D
QUESTION: 119
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A. Project boundaries
B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
Answer: A
QUESTION: 120
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet
requirements and product acceptance criteria?
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A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 121
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project document updates
C. Scope baseline
D. Product analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 122
What is an output of Control Scope?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Work performance measurements
C. Requirements documentation
D. Work performance information
Answer: B
QUESTION: 123
The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?
A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities
B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components
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C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units
D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed
Answer: B
QUESTION: 124
A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is
a method that can be used to reach a group decision?
A. Expert judgment
B. Majority
C. SWOT analysis
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B
QUESTION: 125
Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?
A. Define Scope and Define Activities
B. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources
C. Create WBS and Define Activities
D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration
Answer: C
QUESTION: 126
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Group decision making techniques
B. Project management information system
C. Alternative identification
D. Communication requirement analysis
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 127
Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Requirements documentation
C. Prototypes
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
QUESTION: 128
The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the
following processes?
A. Plan Quality
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Perform Quality Control
Answer: B
QUESTION: 129
Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirement documentation
B. Organizational process assets
C. Requirements management plan
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: D
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QUESTION: 130
Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Scope management plan
C. Project charter
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: A
QUESTION: 131
Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?
A. Delphi technique
B. Unanimity
C. Observation
D. Presentation technique
Answer: A
QUESTION: 132
Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Team
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
QUESTION: 133
Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?
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A. Product analysis
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Inspection
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Answer: C
QUESTION: 134
Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: D
QUESTION: 135
What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can
be reliably estimated and managed?
A. Work product
B. Work package
C. Project deliverable
D. Scope baseline
Answer: B
QUESTION: 136
Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?
A. Project and Product
B. Staffing and Budget
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C. Stakeholder and Customer
D. Business and Technical
Answer: A
QUESTION: 137
Plurality is a type of which of the following?
A. Group creativity techniques
B. Group decision making techniques
C. Facilitated workshops
D. Prototypes
Answer: B
QUESTION: 138
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual
completion.
B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing
the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule
delay.
D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 139
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would
normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
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C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
Answer: B
QUESTION: 140
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: C
QUESTION: 141
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late
start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
Answer: A
QUESTION: 142
What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 143
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or
expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION: 144
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV =$500
PV=$750
AC=$1000
BAC=$1200
A. 0.67
B. 1.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.50
Answer: A
QUESTION: 145
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
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D. Existing human resources and market place conditions
Answer: A
QUESTION: 146
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or
work packages?
A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
Answer: D
QUESTION: 147
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?
BAC =$100,000
PV =$50,000
AC =$80,000
EV =$40,000
A. 1.00
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
D. 0.80
Answer: D
QUESTION: 148
The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance
index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project?
A. Behind schedule and over budget
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B. Behind schedule and under budget
C. Ahead of schedule and under budget
D. Ahead of schedule and over budget
Answer: B
QUESTION: 149
EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus an
ETC (estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for
calculating EAC?
A. EAC =AC +[(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)]
B. EAC =BAC - AC
C. EAC =1 - CPI
D. EAC =EV +[1 - (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC]
Answer: A
QUESTION: 150
Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?
A. EV/PV
B. PV/EV
C. EV-PV
D. PV-EV
Answer: C
QUESTION: 151
Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other
variables to calculate estimates?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Three-point estimates
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C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: C
QUESTION: 152
Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?
A. EV-AC
B. AC-EV
C. AC+EV
D. AC/EV
Answer: A
QUESTION: 153
Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using
PERT?
CO =$7,000
CM =$10,500
CP =$11,000
A. $ 4,750
B. $ 9,500
C. $10,000
D. $11,500
Answer: C
QUESTION: 154
What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case
scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?
A. $115
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B. $138
C. $140
D. $165
Answer: C
QUESTION: 155
What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. More work was completed than planned
B. Less work was completed than planned
C. Cost overrun for completed work has occurred
D. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred
Answer: A
QUESTION: 156
Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:
A. funding limit reconciliation
B. scope baseline
C. activity cost estimates.
D. cost baseline.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 157
What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?
A. Under budget and ahead of schedule
B. Over budget and behind schedule
C. Over budget and ahead of schedule
D. Under budget and behind schedule
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 158
If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500,
what would be the cost performance index (CPI)?
A. 0.66
B. 0.8
C. 1.25
D. 1.5
Answer: C
QUESTION: 159
Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and
techniques of what process?
A. Perform Quality Control
C. Quality Planning
D. Performance Reporting
Answer: A
QUESTION: 160
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and
procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
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Answer: C
QUESTION: 161
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Answer: B
QUESTION: 162
Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices
to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to
measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 163
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Scope Management
B. Time Management
C. Communications Management
D. Quality Management
Answer: D
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QUESTION: 164
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
Answer: B
QUESTION: 165
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence
specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 166
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different
technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
Answer: D
QUESTION: 167
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Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?
A. Profitability and impact matrix
B. Expert judgment
C. Benchmarking
D. Risk categorization
Answer: C
QUESTION: 168
Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?
A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers
B. Activities, decision points, and the order of processing
C. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing
D. Actions, decision points, and activities
Answer: B
QUESTION: 169
Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change
requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?
A. Quality checklists
B. Quality metrics
C. Quality audits
D. Process analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 170
Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?
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A. Pareto chart
B. Cause and effect diagrams
C. Control charts
D. Flowcharting
Answer: A
QUESTION: 171
What is a cost of nonconformance?
A. Rework
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Testing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 172
What is included in a control chart?
A. Baseline
B. Planned value
C. Upper specification limit
D. Expenditure
Answer: C
QUESTION: 173
What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in
preventing nonconformance to requirements?
A. Cost of quality
B. Measure of design
C. Statistical control
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D. Systematic analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 174
In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12.
For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is
correct to say that the process:
A. is under control.
B. is out of control.
C. has an increasing trend.
D. has a decreasing trend.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 175
In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and
independent variables?
A. Fishbone diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: D
QUESTION: 176
A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under
which category does this cost fall?
A. Appraisal
B. Internal failure
C. External failure
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D. Prevention
Answer: D
QUESTION: 177
Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?
A. To identify quality requirements of the project
B. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them
C. To assess performance and recommend necessary changes
D. To ensure quality standards are used
Answer: C
QUESTION: 178
What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?
A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers become more involved.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 179
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
Answer: C
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QUESTION: 180
When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?
A. Clear role definition
B. Negotiation
C. Risk response planning
D. Team member replacement
Answer: A
QUESTION: 181
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
Answer: A
QUESTION: 182
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting
relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
Answer: C
QUESTION: 183
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Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success.
Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the project manager
D. Project management office
Answer: B
QUESTION: 184
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
Answer: B
QUESTION: 185
In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the
project and their formal roles and responsibilities?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 186
Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?
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A. Collaborating
B. Issue log
C. Leadership
D. Motivation
Answer: A
QUESTION: 187
Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement
rather than areas of difference?
A. Withdrawing/Avoiding
B. Forcing
C. Collaborating
D. Smoothing/Accommodating
Answer: D
QUESTION: 188
In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues
smoothly and effectively?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Answer: D
QUESTION: 189
The resource calendars document is an output of which process?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
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B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Schedule
D. Develop Project Team
Answer: B
QUESTION: 190
In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together,
develop trust, and adjust to the work habits and behavior?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 191
Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project
team is in which of the following stages of team development?
A. Storming
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 192
Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to
enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following?
A. Team training
B. Co-location
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C. Team location
D. Organization training
Answer: B
QUESTION: 193
Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following
conflict management techniques?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 194
Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and
appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of
project information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
Answer: B
QUESTION: 195
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a
timely manner?
A. Contract management
B. Performance reporting
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C. Project status reports
D. Information distribution
Answer: D
Explanation:
The project management term or phrase that is used for the purposes of representing the project
management process that focuses on taking the facts and happenings in regards to a particular
project and disseminating this information to all of the relevant parties, with a particular focus
on providing information to those who have a financial stake in the ultimate outcomes of the
project. These methods of information dissemination can come in means including regularly
scheduled conferences and or meetings, regularly scheduled conference calls in which some or
all members of the project team participate, informal written communications such as periodic
updates via email and of other short form, less formal means of communications, as well as
formal reports that may or may not have been requisite to the completion of the project.
Information distribution is essential to assuring that the financial stakeholdersare fully aware of
the progress throughout as it helps to assure no surprises arise at the time that deliverables are
expected to be final. This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th.
QUESTION: 196
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process
asset updates are all outputs of which process?
A. Risk response planning
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Performance reporting
D. Manage stakeholders
Answer: C
QUESTION: 197
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 198
Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project
information?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Answer: C
QUESTION: 199
Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process
assets are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Risk response planning
B. Manage stakeholders
C. Scope definition
D. Performance reporting
Answer: B
QUESTION: 200
What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Performance Reportingis the process for "collecting and distributing performance information"
like "status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting" (comp.PMBOK3, p. 221): On
the base of the collected performance information concerning scope, schedule, cost and quality
this process generates the reports which are distributed to the stakeholders (comp.PMBOK3, p.
231). Basicly one can determine four types of reports:
Forcast reports for describing future trends
Progess reports for describing trends from past to presence
Status reports for describing actual status
Variance reports for describing differences between the planned baseline and the real data
QUESTION: 201
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: B
QUESTION: 202
What information does the stakeholder register contain?
A. Communication model
B. Identification information
C. Communication method
D. Identification plan
Answer: B
QUESTION: 203
Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project?
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A. Requirements, influence, and functional department
B. Interest, requirements, and functional role
C. Requirements, expectations, and influence
D. Interest, expectations, and influence
Answer: D
QUESTION: 204
Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations
process?
A. Issue log
B. Change register
C. Stakeholder register
D. Interpersonal skills
Answer: D
QUESTION: 205
When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being
used?
A. Time series method
B. Casual method
C. Econometric method
D. J udgmental method
Answer: D
QUESTION: 206
Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?
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A. Push
B. Decode
C. Pull
D. Duration
Answer: B
QUESTION: 207
Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?
A. Project management plan
B. Report performance
C. Communications requirements analysis
D. Communication methods
Answer: D
QUESTION: 208
A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product
according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month.
Which tool or technique is used in this case?
A. Expert judgment
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
Answer: D
QUESTION: 209
There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the
sponsor. How many communication channels are there?
A. 21
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B. 28
C. 36
D. 42
Answer: C
QUESTION: 210
ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved
stakeholder issues. Team member morale is low. Who is primarily responsible for the project
being at risk?
A. Team members who have low morale
B. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project
C. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations
D. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations
Answer: C
QUESTION: 211
When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most
effectively?
A. Push
B. Interactive
C. Parallel
D. Pull
Answer: D
QUESTION: 212
What are assigned risk ratings based upon?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Assessed probability and impact
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C. Expert judgment
D. Risk Identification
Answer: B
QUESTION: 213
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or
action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning
Answer: A
QUESTION: 214
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require
near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
Answer: C
QUESTION: 215
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 216
When does risk monitoring and control occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
Answer: C
QUESTION: 217
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
A. Risk monitoring and controlling
B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 218
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of
the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 219
What is one of the objectives of project risk management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be
put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 220
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk
to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
Answer: C
QUESTION: 221
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 222
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project
objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
D. Interviewing
Answer: D
QUESTION: 223
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: D
QUESTION: 224
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
Answer: B
QUESTION: 225
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Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement
Management?
A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers
B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers
Answer: A
QUESTION: 226
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan
Procurements Process?
A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 227
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is
the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
Answer: C
QUESTION: 228
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
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A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
Answer: C
QUESTION: 229
A contract change control system defines which of the following?
A. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied
B. Process by which the procurement can be modified
C. Process by which the procurement can be obtained
D. Process by which the procurement can be disposed
Answer: B
QUESTION: 230
In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the
contract work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance
objectives as set forth in the contract?
A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee
C. Firm-fixed-price
D. Fixed-price-incentive-fee
Answer: B
QUESTION: 231
Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?
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A. Executive management
B. Project members
C. Project manager
D. Contract administrator
Answer: A
QUESTION: 232
In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional costs above the
price ceiling becomes the responsibility of the performing organization?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP)
B. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)
C. Cost-Reimbursable Contracts
D. Time and Materials Contracts (T&M)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 233
The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. contract type.
B. sponsors.
C. project manager.
D. stakeholders.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 234
Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B Company A will pay a
fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved. For which type of
contract have they subscribed?
A. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)
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B. Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)
C. Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)
D. Time and material contracts (T&M)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 235
Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement
Management Process?
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Answer: D
QUESTION: 236
Which project management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement
requirements and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract?
D. Conduct Procurements
Answer: C
QUESTION: 237
Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a
considerable period of years?
A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)
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C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF)
D. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 238
The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the
following processes?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Answer: C
QUESTION: 239
Final product transition is an output of which process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: B
QUESTION: 240
Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally
manage approved changes and baselines within a project?
A. Project management information system
B. Configuration management system
C. Change control board
D. Project management plan
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 241
The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?
A. Procurement management plan
C. Project scope document
D. Project charter
Answer: D
QUESTION: 242
Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board?
A. Describes how changes are managed.
B. Approves or rejects change requests.
C. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change.
D. Describes how changes are documented.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 243
Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the
project?
A. Project charter
B. Contract
C. Business case
D. Project statement of work
Answer: D
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QUESTION: 244
Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the
project management plan are part of which process?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risk
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: A
QUESTION: 245
Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and
expectations?
A. Project charter
C. Project statement of work
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A
QUESTION: 246
The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following
processes?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Direct and Manage Project Execution
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 247
Who authorizes a project?
A. Sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Project team
D. Buyer
Answer: A
QUESTION: 248
Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: D
QUESTION: 249
A business case is an input to which of the following processes?
B. Define Scope
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Project Management Plan
Answer: C
QUESTION: 250
What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?
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A. Functional requirement
B. Status report
C. Customer need
D. Defect repair
Answer: D
QUESTION: 251
The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of
processes?
A. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated Change
Control
B. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase
C. Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Costs
D. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan
Answer: A
QUESTION: 252
What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project closure?
A. Customer acceptance
B. Statement of work
C. Product report
D. User manual
Answer: A
QUESTION: 253
Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?
A. Parametric estimating
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B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Top-down estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: A
Explanation:
An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other
variables (for example, square footage in construction, lines of code in software development)
to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration. This
technique can produce higher levels of accuracy depending upon the sophistication and the
underlying data built into the model. An example for the cost parameter is multiplying the
planned quantity of work to be performed by the historical cost per unit to obtain the estimated
cost.
QUESTION: 254
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule
activities?
A. Schedule development
B. Activity sequencing
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
Answer: B
QUESTION: 255
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned
in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 256
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
Answer: C
QUESTION: 257
Which is the duration of the project?
A. 63
B. 65
C. 66
D. 70
Answer: D
QUESTION: 258
Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?
A. Decomposition
B. Project management software
C. Applying lead and lags
D. Expert judgment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 259
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What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration,
budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating
the same parameter or measure for a future project?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Three-point estimates
Answer: B
QUESTION: 260
Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project's critical
path schedule activities with activity date information?
A. Schedule table
B. Schedule network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Milestone chart
Answer: B
QUESTION: 261
Which is the total float for the activity G?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: C
QUESTION: 262
Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?
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A. End-to-end
B. Finish-to-end
C. Start-to-end
D. Start-to-start
Answer: D
QUESTION: 263
In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete is
100 days, the optimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days, what is
the expected duration in which the activity will be completed?
A. 90 days
B. 100 days
C. 110 days
D. 660 days
Answer: C
QUESTION: 264
Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?
A. Three-point estimating
B. Organizational process asset
C. Analogous estimating
D. Reserve analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 265
What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate
techniques?
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A. Uses contingency reserves
B. Less costly and time consuming
C. Can be applied to segments of work
D. More accurate
Answer: B
QUESTION: 266
Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process?
A. Alternative analysis
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Resource breakdown structure
Answer: C
QUESTION: 267
In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the
activities?
A. Finish-to-start
B. Applying leads and lags
C. Activity-on-node
D. Dependency determination
Answer: A
QUESTION: 268
During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?
A. Activity name, dependencies, assumptions
B. Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name
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C. Activity ID, assumptions, constraints
D. Activity name, WBS ID, activity description
Answer: B
QUESTION: 269
Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Dependency determination
C. Schedule network template
D. Applying leads and lags
Answer: A
QUESTION: 270
Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?
A. What-if scenario analysis
B. Benchmarking
C. Variance analysis
D. SWOT analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 271
Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 272
Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the
question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. What is
the critical path duration for the given schedule network?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25
Answer: D
QUESTION: 273
Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the
question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. What is
the total float on path BEG?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
QUESTION: 274
If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned
Value (EV)?
A. $0.2
B. $5
C. $44
D. $66
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Answer: D
QUESTION: 275
What is the status of a project if the Cost Performance Index is 1.25 and the Schedule
Performance Index is 0.75?
A. Under budget and behind schedule
B. Over budget and ahead of schedule
C. Under budget and ahead of schedule
D. Over budget and behind schedule
Answer: A
QUESTION: 276
Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis?
A. Activity list and activity attributes
B. Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
C. Schedule data and activity resource requirements
D. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
Answer: B
QUESTION: 277
The risk register contains which of the following?
A. Identified risks and potential responses
B. Identified risks and updates to scope baseline
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk related contract decisions
Answer: A
Explanation:
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ARisk Registeris aRisk Managementtool commonly used inProject Managementand
organizational risk assessments. It acts as a central repository for all risks identified by the
project or organization and, for each risk, includes information such as risk probability, impact,
counter-measures, risk owner and so on. It can sometimes be referred to as a Risk Log
QUESTION: 278
Which of the following is an input to identify risk?
B. Scope management plan
C. Communication management plan
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
QUESTION: 279
Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the
project?
A. Expected monetary value analysis
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B
QUESTION: 280
Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?
A. Identify Risks
B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 281
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?
A. Monitor and Control Risks
B. Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: A
QUESTION: 282
What is risk tolerance?
A. Ability to manage risks
B. Willingness to accept varying degrees of risks
C. Ability to mitigate risks
D. Willingness to develop a risk management plan
Answer: B
QUESTION: 283
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:
A. probability distribution.
B. decision tree diagram.
C. sensitivity analysis.
D. modeling and simulation.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 284
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Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Mitigate
Answer: C
QUESTION: 285
An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?
A. Identifying causes of risks
B. Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks
C. Developing a resource plan
D. Developing schedule
Answer: A
QUESTION: 286
Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Perform quality assurance
D. Perform quality control
Answer: A
QUESTION: 287
What should a project manager do with low-priority risks?
A. Ignore low-priority risks
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B. Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks
C. Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks
D. Increase the contingency reserve
Answer: B
QUESTION: 288
Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks?
A. Risk categorization
B. SWOT analysis
C. Risk register categorization
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
Answer: B
QUESTION: 289
The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new
risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur. This is an
example of which type of risk response strategy?
A. Mitigate
B. Accept
C. Avoid
D. Transfer
Answer: B
QUESTION: 290
The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks,
the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk. This
new risk is which of the following types of risk?
A. Secondary
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B. Primary
C. Residual
D. Tertiary
Answer: A
QUESTION: 291
What is the first step in preparing the risk register?
B. Quantitative risk analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: D
QUESTION: 292
What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as
planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective
management and meet strategic business objectives.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 293
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
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D. After resources have been released
Answer: C
QUESTION: 294
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management
knowledge area?
A. Time management
B. Cost management
C. Scope management
D. Human resources management
Answer: A
QUESTION: 295
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
Answer: B
QUESTION: 296
What are the components of the "triple constraint"?
A. Scope, time, requirements
B. Resources, time, cost
C. Scope, management, cost
D. Scope, time, cost
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Answer: D
Explanation:
TheProject Management Triangle(called alsoTriple Constraint) is a model of the constraints of
project management. It is often used to illustrate that project management success is measured
by the project team's ability to manage the project, so that the expected results are produced
while managing time and cost. Like any human undertaking, projects need to be performed and
delivered under certain constraints. Traditionally, these constraints have been listed as "scope,"
"time," and "cost". These are also referred to as the "Project Management Triangle," (also
known as the "Iron Triangle") where each side represents a constraint. One side of the triangle
cannot be changed without affecting the others. A further refinement of the constraints
separates product "quality" or "performance" from scope, and turns quality into a fourth
constraint.
QUESTION: 297
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Answer: B
QUESTION: 298
What do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional and project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
Answer: A
QUESTION: 299
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
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A. Staffing level is highest at the start.
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 300
What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same.
D. Has no bearing.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 301
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Contract administration
B. Direction and management of project execution
C. Create WBS
D. Qualitative risk analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 302
Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communication management plan
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C. Requested changes
D. Communication requirement plan
Answer: C
QUESTION: 303
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or other
result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
A. Develop project management plan
B. Develop project charter
C. Develop preliminary project scope statement
D. Scope planning
Answer: B
QUESTION: 304
Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring & Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Answer: B
QUESTION: 305
What process determines which risks might affect the project?
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 306
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Develop project charter.
D. Create WBS.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 307
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the
project work is known as what?
A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Work Performance Information Part of the executed project management plan includes the
routine collection of work performance information. The information gathered is important,
and is useful as input data for quality control measures and programs. It is also useful when
audits, quality reviews, and process analyses are conducted. This is especially true of work
performance information collected which includes technical performance measures, project
deliverables status, required corrective actions, and performance reports. Pertinent work
performance Information is essential to the project management plan and includes, but is not
limited to:
Status information on schedule progress.
Whether deliverables have been completed, or not.
Start and finish status of schedule activities.
Quality standards expectation results.
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Authorized costs vs. costs incurred to date.
Estimated completion time for scheduled activities in progress.
Percentage of physical completion of in-progress schedule activities.
Experience based knowledge acquired, documented, and posted to knowledge base.
Details of resource utilization.
Gathering and analysis of work performance information is essential to the project
management plan and should be considered a priority. Work performance information
contributes to the efficient use of resources, identifies potential trouble spots and problems, and
serves as an effective project management tool. This term is defined in the 3rd and the 4th
edition of the PMBOK.
QUESTION: 308
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 309
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
Answer: D
QUESTION: 310
When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?
A. When the project is initiated.
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B. As an output of the scope verification process.
C. When the project is closing.
D. In the contract closure process.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 311
During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed
project scope?
A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Scope control
D. Close project
Answer: B
QUESTION: 312
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 313
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk
category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
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D. Risk category
Answer: B
QUESTION: 314
Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?
A. Templates, forms and standards
B. Change requests
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Project assumptions
Answer: C
QUESTION: 315
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
Answer: C
QUESTION: 316
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?
A. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - D
B. Begin - A - B - C - D - E - End
C. Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - D
D. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 317
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources
into account?
A. Network reserve analysis
B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method
Answer: B
QUESTION: 318
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without
changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.
B. The critical path will have positive total float.
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 319
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for
estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 320
Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work-
days. What should be your concern?
A. There is a cost under run.
B. There is a cost overrun.
C. May not meet deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 321
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team
members?
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility matrix
Answer: D
QUESTION: 322
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures.
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources.
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses.
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive
proposal.
Answer: D
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QUESTION: 323
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the
priority of identified risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
Answer: B
QUESTION: 324
In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Monitor and control project work
Answer: B
QUESTION: 325
A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
Answer: B
QUESTION: 326
A contract cannot contain _____________.
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A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A contract can contain other options available.
QUESTION: 327
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the written statement of
project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables
QUESTION: 328
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one
vendor because it doesn't have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which
selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.
QUESTION: 329
______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
QUESTION: 330
Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps
to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Answer: A
Explanation:
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps
to prevent further occurrence.
QUESTION: 331
Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
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A. Rough order of magnitude
B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: A
Explanation:
The rough order of magnitude is the least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25 percent to
+75 percent.
QUESTION: 332
Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.
QUESTION: 333
What is a corrective action?
A. An action that brings future project events Into alignment with the project plan
B. An action to correct something in the project
C. An action to prevent something in the project
D. Corrective action is not related to project
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project
plan
QUESTION: 334
Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain
B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMBOK describes assumptions as "factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be
true, real, or certain."
QUESTION: 335
A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
B. Index
C. sow
D. Project History
Answer: A
Explanation:
A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties.
QUESTION: 336
You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two
project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving
the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the
meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. What type
of organizational structure you are working in?
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A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Strong Matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
Balanced matrix: Power is shared between both Functional and Project Manager. In this case
you include the functional manager in the meeting therefore it is Balanced matrix organization.
QUESTION: 337
You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM
failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?
A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding
B. Confront the person immediately
C. Ignore the rumours
D. âss the rumours along
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding.
QUESTION: 338
Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?
A. The project manager
B. The project sponsor
C. The Team lead
D. The nianagement
Answer: B
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Explanation:
The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter.
QUESTION: 339
In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: B
Explanation:
In PMBOK, the seller is External to the project team.
QUESTION: 340
Project Quality Management includes:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Prevention over inspection
C. Continuous improvement
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project Quality Management includes : Customer satisfaction, Prevention over inspection,
Continuous improvement, Management responsibility
QUESTION: 341
You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is
expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is
the BAC?
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A. $-00,000
B. $200,00
C. $50,000
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budgeted cost), which is $200,000.
QUESTION: 342
A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan.
QUESTION: 343
A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan.
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QUESTION: 344
Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)
D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA)
diagramming method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as activity-
on-node (AON) diagramming method
QUESTION: 345
Create Procurement document is done in _______.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process.
QUESTION: 346
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of ____________.
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
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C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need. Cost benefit analysis,
scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of benefits
measurement methods when selecting a project. Best Option is A.
QUESTION: 347
Most change requests are a result of _______.
A. Value added change (enhancements)
B. Schedule constraints
C. Regulatory constraints
D. Improvement to the project scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (enhancements).
QUESTION: 348
Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. QA manager
D. Validation engineer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project manager is ultimately responsible for the project quality.
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QUESTION: 349
The end of the project comes after which of the following?
A. Project charter
B. F'na' deliverable
C. Schedule
D. QA activities are done
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project will close after final deliverable.
QUESTION: 350
The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the
following best describes product description?
A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the
project customer
B. The product description defines the contracted work
C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project
customer
QUESTION: 351
During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another
way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but
may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.
A. Alternative identification
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B. "'sâssessment
C. Alternative selection
D. Product analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Alternative identification is a planning process to find alternatives to completing the project
scope.
QUESTION: 352
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A. Project task
B. wrl<package
C. sow
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.
QUESTION: 353
Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project
B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the overall
project
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QUESTION: 354
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage
B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Answer: A
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project
manager is assigned to a project During the initiation stage.
QUESTION: 355
Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
Answer: B
Explanation:
Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization.
QUESTION: 356
A requirement document is an input of __________ process?
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A requirement document request is an input to Define Sco
QUESTION: 357
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?
A. Direct ar|d Indirect
B. Tactical and Strategic
C. Management and Project
D. 0n|y Tactical
Answer: A
Explanation:
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it should
include both direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on comparisons that are
equal.
QUESTION: 358
Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?
A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process
B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project Charter
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Define Scope - Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process, Project
Charter and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects, lesson
learned)
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QUESTION: 359
Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a
project?
A. RACI mAl,x
B. sow
C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only lists
types of resources and timing.
QUESTION: 360
_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
A. ISO
B. CAPM
C. pMI
D. iscn
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
QUESTION: 361
The work breakdown structure is ________.
A. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces
B. Set and does not change throughout the project
C. Needed as part of the project charter
D. [Needed as part of the project scope statement
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which
organizes and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor
details.
QUESTION: 362
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI =EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
QUESTION: 363
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You
have assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or
her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Pi'ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full
authority to assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project.
Strong Matrix: The project manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff.
Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with
Functional Manager. Functional: In this organization Project Manager has least power and all
management is taken care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer.
QUESTION: 364
At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project
B. ûst before the end of the project
C. QA Phase
D. Execution phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project.
QUESTION: 365
From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor.
QUESTION: 366
Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?
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A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a
project total.
B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the
current project.
C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.
D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the
costs to arrive at a project total. It is more accurate.
QUESTION: 367
Which is not part of Project Plan?
A. Project Scope Management Plan
B. Schedule Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are part of Project Plan except project charter.
QUESTION: 368
Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution
and Control phase?
A. Information management
B. Maintain scope statement
C. Maintain Charter
D. Maintain Closing document
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Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control
phases of the project is the management of information.
QUESTION: 369
Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively
determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?
B. Funding limit reconciliation
C. Reserves analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Parametric Estimating: Estimating the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively
determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate.
QUESTION: 370
You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP
(Request for proposal) is done in _______.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RFP (Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process.
QUESTION: 371
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Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?
A. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the
organizational goals
B. Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the
organizational goals
C. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Strategic planning determines which projects will be choose or sponsor in order to achieve the
organizational goals. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and
funded.
QUESTION: 372
The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of
________.
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality rules
D. CMM
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Ishikawa diagram, the control charts, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of
basic tools of quality control.
QUESTION: 373
Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?
A. Acceptance
B. shaie
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C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acceptance is when no change to the project is made for a risk. A contingency can be set aside
to offset the impact of the risk.
QUESTION: 374
Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?
A. Project justification
B. Project product
C. Project manager authority
D. Project objective
Answer: C
Explanation:
The project charter provides the project manager with authority.
QUESTION: 375
What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are
increased from 5 to 10?
A. 35
B. 5
C. 15
D. 75
Answer: A
Explanation:
Delta =n*(n-1)/2 - n1*(n1-1)/2 where n =individuals and n1 =new individuals 10-45 =35 No
of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n =individual
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QUESTION: 376
Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the
__________.
A. Initiation Process
B. Project closer Process
C. Estimation Process
D. Closing process
Answer: A
Explanation:
Collect Requirements process starts in "Project Planning Phase" and uses the outputs of the
Initiation Process.
QUESTION: 377
You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that
your project __________.
A. Has ended before its stated objective
B. 's st'" cunning but missing resources
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated
objectives.
QUESTION: 378
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates
for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?
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D. Analogous estimating
Answer: B
Explanation:
costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous
estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar
project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using
project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per
square meter).
QUESTION: 379
Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Leader
C. Sponsor
D. Project Team
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager is responsible for the creation of the final project plan.
QUESTION: 380
Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?
A. Project manager
B. QA manager
C. Project planner
D. Team 'ead
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Project manager has the responsibility for Plan Quality.
QUESTION: 381
Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.
A. Written down
B. Understandable
C. Not understandable
D. No need to write
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assumptions that are not written down are the most dangerous.
QUESTION: 382
Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Senior Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project sponsor must have the authority to select and fund the project.
QUESTION: 383
Which of the following statement is true about project charter?
A. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders
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B. Announces who is the project engineer
C. Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end
D. Announces who is the project sponsor
Answer: A
Explanation:
project charter: The project charter formally authorizes the project, assigns the project
manager, and gives a high-level definition of the projects and its deliverables.
QUESTION: 384
Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?
B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. WBS
Answer: D
Explanation:
WBS is NOT inputs of close project process.
QUESTION: 385
Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive
Answer: B
Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.
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QUESTION: 386
__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using
the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates.
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Progressive elaboration
C. Milestone detail planning
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near
future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their
starting dates.
QUESTION: 387
Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?
A. Updating risk register
B. Determining risk roles and responsibilities
C. Identifying risk categories
D. Developing a risk management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Updating the risk register first happens in Identify Risks phase. Determining risk roles and
responsibilities, Identifying risk categories and developing a risk management plan are part of
Plan Risk Management.
QUESTION: 388
PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship.
A. Buyer or seller
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B. Vendor or seller
C. Purchasing
D. Sellino-
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMI discusses procurement focusing on the buyer or seller relationship
QUESTION: 389
Administrative closure is the process that ________.
A. Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project
B. Collects user acceptance of the project product or service
C. Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative closure: Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project
QUESTION: 390
You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility?
A. Quality in the organization
B. Acquiring HR resources for the project team
C. Overall responsibility for risk on the project
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Senior management is responsible for quality in the organization
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QUESTION: 391
Project success can be achieved only if:
A. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.
B. The project sponsor leads the initiatives.
C. The project manager is an expert in managing resources.
D. Team members like project manager.
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is no project for the sake of spending money. There is a clear link between the project
deliverables and the business strategy.
QUESTION: 392
You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire a
new employee and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow's hierarchy of
needs, what needs level he most likely is at?
A. Social need
B. Physical need
C. Safety and security
D. Security
Answer: A
Explanation:
as new to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. This comes under
Social need.
QUESTION: 393
Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure?
A. c'ose contracts
B. Lessons learned documentation
C. Deliverable acceptance
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D. Scope statement
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are output of contract closure: Close contracts,Contract file,Lessons learned documentation
and Deliverable acceptance.
QUESTION: 394
The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.
A. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project
B. Announce project risks
C. Not consider risks affecting the company
D. Announce project deliverables
Answer: A
Explanation:
The risk management process group serves as the road map used to reduce its impact on the
project.
QUESTION: 395
ISO Stands for __________.
A. International Organization for Standardization
B. International Standardized Organization
C. 'n Standardized Organization
D. Indiana Standardized Organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO Stands for International Organization for Standardization.
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QUESTION: 396
The project baseline is _______.
A. Original plans plus the approved changes
B. Important in the project initiation phase
C. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
D. Original plans and the approved major changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project baseline: original plans plus the approved changes.
QUESTION: 397
Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive
Answer: B
Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.
QUESTION: 398
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or
results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Procurement Management is groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products,
services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
QUESTION: 399
You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope,
what you do with the old original scope?
A. Save the old versions
B. No need to save old version
C. Scrap the old version
D. Old version is not required
Answer: A
Explanation:
All the version you should keep in version control system.
QUESTION: 400
Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?
A. Quality baseline
B. Quality management plan
C. Process improvement plan
D. QA checklist
Answer: A
Explanation:
The quality baseline documents the quality objectives for the project.
QUESTION: 401
Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are
recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
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A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Function of the project manager is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are
recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
QUESTION: 402
Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBS template
C. sow acceptance
D. Rework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION: 403
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. sow
C. Project Charter
D. Project Scope Statement
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the WBS.
QUESTION: 404
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are
participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n =individual. In this case 5*(5-1)/2 =10
QUESTION: 405
Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources?
B. P'sk breakdown structure
C. Organizational breakdown structure
D. Resource breakdown structure
Answer: A
Explanation:
The resource breakdown structure organizes all resources in a hierarchical structure, allowing
for cost tracking also.
QUESTION: 406
If a project with a CPI of 0.8, what you tell?
A. The project is consuming more resources than anticipated.
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B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then
estimated. CPI =EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)
QUESTION: 407
Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?
A. Control Scope
B. Manage project team
C. Quality control
D. Manage Scope statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope, schedule, and Control Costs can all result in corrective action, but not preventive action.
QUESTION: 408
_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.
A. Project plan
B. sow
C. WBS
D. Strategic planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project plan is the road map for the execution of the project.
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QUESTION: 409
You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team
members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to
earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory
A. Hierarchy of needs
B. Expectancy theory
C. Achievement theory
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy
theory
QUESTION: 410
Which of the following are input of close project process?
B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are inputs of close project process.
QUESTION: 411
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project
B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
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D. Formally authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope
initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
QUESTION: 412
Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. The P'oject contract
D. Project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.
QUESTION: 413
Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.
A. Has become part of the business processes
B. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
inclusion mode: Has become part of the business processes. A contract cannot contain
___________.
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QUESTION: 414
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project
B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope
initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
QUESTION: 415
Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood
A. Project Manager
B. Sender
C. Project coordinator
D. Sponsor
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receipt and message is
understood, and the receiver needs to ensure that the sender received the acknowledgement.
QUESTION: 416
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F'xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. "'s^'s nc* 'elated to price
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well
defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well
defined
QUESTION: 417
participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION: 418
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.
QUESTION: 419
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You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell
when you are done?
A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably
estimate required resources and duration.
B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to
keep the WBS balanced.
C. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one
DAY.
D. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in
one WEEK.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably
estimate required resources and duration.
QUESTION: 420
If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI =EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
QUESTION: 421
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
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Answer: A
Explanation:
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less then
estimated; so doing good. Option A is BEST fit for this CPI =EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual
cost
QUESTION: 422
What are the inputs for Initiation process?
A. Product description and Strategic plan
B. Selection criteria
C. Historical information
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Inputs for Initiation process : Product description Strategic plan Selection criteria Historical
information
QUESTION: 423
Which of the following are parts of project scope management?
A. Verify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
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There are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect
Requirements Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope
QUESTION: 424
Project scope is _____________.
A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service
B. The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions
C. Part ftne project charter
D. Part of sow
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project scope : The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service. The
work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.
QUESTION: 425
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is
expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the
equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off
each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. Zero
Answer: A
Explanation:
The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of
the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 =$600
QUESTION: 426
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Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?
A. Executive Communication
B. Risk Management
C. Quality Management
D. Scope Statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Executive Communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project
plan.
QUESTION: 427
Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.
A. Beginning
B. Closing
C. Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Stakeholder influence is greatest at the beginning of the project
QUESTION: 428
Which of the following is not part of project scope management?
A. Verify Scope
C. Create WBS
Answer: D
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Explanation:
e are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect Requirements
Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope
QUESTION: 429
You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within
one year. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Schedule
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. Planning process
Answer: C
Explanation:
A project that must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints. A is incorrect
since the condition does not offer a schedule. B is incorrect because the condition is not an
assumption. D is also incorrect because this is not a planning process.
QUESTION: 430
The project management plan:
A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated
B. Steps needed to complete a project task
C. Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project
D. Includes project charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Management Plan: The project management plan provides the overall plan for
executing, monitoring, and controlling, closing the project.
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QUESTION: 431
Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?
B. Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA)
diagramming method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as activity-
on-node (AON) diagramming method
QUESTION: 432
What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?
A. CPF
B. CPFF
C. CPIF
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Three common types of cost-reimbursable contracts are CPF, CPFF, and CPIF Cost-Plus-Fee
(CPF), Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) and Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF).
QUESTION: 433
Information should be communicated to __________.
A. Everyone in the communication plan
B. Everyone on the team
C. Sponsor
D. Team 'eacl
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Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control
phases of the project is the management of information. All Information should be
communicated to everyone in the communication plan.
QUESTION: 434
You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This
means that your project __________.
A. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
B. Will be closed due to lack of resources
C. Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business
Answer: C
Explanation:
A project that ends in integration mode is the type of project where its resources are being
assigned to other areas.
QUESTION: 435
You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of
the costs involved with an upcoming project. Rather, this CAPM is constructing a WBS that
does not include all the tasks necessary to get the project done. What you should do?
A. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the
project
B. Confront the other project manager immediately
C. Mail t0 PMI headquarters
D. Ignore it
Answer: A
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Explanation:
You can talk to the CAPM about the WBS changes. If he or she refuses to change the WBS,
you have a responsibility to go to stakeholders and voice your concerns.
QUESTION: 436
Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. The P'oject contract
D. Project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.
QUESTION: 437
You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be
changed after the contract is signed is ___________.
A. Bad practice
B. Unprofessional practice
C. Bacl fr both tne buyer and seller
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is both bad and unprofessional to knowingly offer an estimate that is incorrect
QUESTION: 438
In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
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B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: A
Explanation:
In PMBOK, the buyer is Internal to the project team.
QUESTION: 439
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates
B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates. Define
a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility
assignments.
QUESTION: 440
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the
characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder's review
C. p'an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Answer: A
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Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is
called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed
fashion.
QUESTION: 441
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements
and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION: 442
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
B. Develop the project charter
C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur during
project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is the best
option.
QUESTION: 443
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You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities,
activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process have
you left out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity
Resources.
QUESTION: 444
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis
B. Scope Baseline
C. P'sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource
consumption versus planned
QUESTION: 445
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis'* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.
QUESTION: 446
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements
and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
QUESTION: 447
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as
possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the WBS
has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans are not a
likely input to the initiation process
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QUESTION: 448
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project
execution process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes
B. Validate deliverables
C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented but
monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
QUESTION: 449
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The contract
must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration
B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and notary
public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the start date is
not needed for all contracts.
QUESTION: 450
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A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
Answer: A
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less
money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI =EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)
QUESTION: 451
Which is the most risky phase of a project?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Execution
D. Control
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Planning phase is the phase with the least risk attached. The Execution phase of the project
is when you are using your resources at their highest level .
QUESTION: 452
Lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project?
A. At the project conclusion
B. At key milestones
C. When risk events occur
D. When sponsor want
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Although lessons learned should be held at project conclusion, they should be held throughout
the project any time.
QUESTION: 453
What are the outputs of Initiation process?
A. Project charter and PM assigned
B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions
QUESTION: 454
Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities?
A. Human resources management plan
B. Project charter
C. Aplan
D. Project management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project
roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION: 455
You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are
working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12
million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an
example of which of the following?
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A. Internationalization
B. Budget constraint
C. Management constraint
D. Quality constraint
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of a budget constraint. The budget must not exceed $12 million.
QUESTION: 456
You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have
done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be
accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which
of the following?
A. Risk
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. Budget
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of an assumption because estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms
meet the requirements like (wooden coated). A and C are incorrect because the scenario did not
describe a risk or constraint.
QUESTION: 457
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to
predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?
D. Analogous estimating
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Answer: A
Explanation:
costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous
estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar
project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using
project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per
square meter).
QUESTION: 458
Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.
A. Transfer
B. Acceptances
C. Mitigation
D. Contingency
Answer: A
Explanation:
Purchasing insurance means transfer the risk to third party.
QUESTION: 459
How many communication channels exist in a team of 10 members?
A. 45
B. 10
C. 30
D. 20
Answer: A
Explanation:
formula (N)(N - 1)/2 where N =no of people. Therefore calculation is (10*9)/2.
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QUESTION: 460
The primary output of the project closing process ____________.
A. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing
B. Lessons learned
C. To get customer and sponsor approval
D. Milestone list
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary output of the project closing process is to formalize and distribute all the
information pertaining to the closing of the project.
QUESTION: 461
Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-
start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?
B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) supports finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-
start, and start-to-finish dependencies.
QUESTION: 462
Which of the following best describes project scope?
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions
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B. The description of the project deliverables
C. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project
and to assign resources to the tasks
D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
project scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified
features and functions.
QUESTION: 463
In which phase you define the final deliverable?
A. Closing
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Initiation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project will close after final deliverable. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase.
QUESTION: 464
The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called
___________.
A. Project time management
B. Control Schedule
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Control Schedule: The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project
schedule.
QUESTION: 465
Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team in a
fourth country. What tool would optimize communication?
A. Extranet-based electronic document repository
B. Manual filing system
C. War loom
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
An electronic document repository allows all team members access to the documents,
regardless of location.
QUESTION: 466
Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________.
A. Quality
B. Scope
C. Integration
D. Procurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the
project.
QUESTION: 467
Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as
________.
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A. Verify Scope
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Measurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Verify Scope is the process of formally accepting the deliverable of a project or phase. A is
incorrect because EVM measures project performance. C is incorrect because quality control is
concerned with the correctness of the work, not the acceptance of the work. QA is incorrect
because this described the quality program for the organization as a whole.
QUESTION: 468
_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F'xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well
defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well
defined.
QUESTION: 469
You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase.
There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow
for best outcome?
A. Supporting
B. Delegating
C. Coaching
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D. Directing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Situational leadership style is coaching. Coaching is best fit for this situation.
QUESTION: 470
When the version control numbers should change?
A. Any change occurs
B. Major changes are made
C. Any change related to scope only
D. Only if minor changes are made
Answer: A
Explanation:
If any change occur, the version control numbers should change.
QUESTION: 471
participating?
A. 45
B. 12
C. 10
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION: 472
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Market conditions are a part of ________.
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Project management concerns
C. Organizational process assets
D. Cost factor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement.
QUESTION: 473
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of:
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need.
QUESTION: 474
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. PBS
B. Project Scope statement
C. WBS Template
D. Constraints
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Output of Define Scope is Project Scope statement.
QUESTION: 475
The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.
A. Contract
B. Responsibilities
C. WBS
D. Identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
The buyer and seller are bound by the contract.
QUESTION: 476
Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:
A. Contract change control system
B. Contract negotiation
C. Payment system
D. Performance rating
Answer: B
Explanation:
Contract negotiation is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration.
QUESTION: 477
Which describes how cost variances will be managed?
A. Cost management plan
B. Cost baseline
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C. Cost estimate
D. Chart of accounts
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed.
QUESTION: 478
A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
Answer: B
QUESTION: 479
A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:
A. Develop Project Management Plan process
B. Control Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Estimate Costs process
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost
management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.
QUESTION: 480
__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
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B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to
predict costs (e.g., price per square foot).
QUESTION: 481
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project
schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable
project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical
analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management
software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
QUESTION: 482
Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.
A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert
J udgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the
project.
QUESTION: 483
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively.
The mean is _____.
A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
Answer: A
Explanation:
mean =(20+30+40)/3=30
QUESTION: 484
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is
expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the
equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written
off each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. $100
Answer: A
Explanation:
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A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item,
minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is
(5000-2000)/5=$600.
QUESTION: 485
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBStemplate
C. SOW acceptance
D. Rework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION: 486
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,
responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION: 487
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
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B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram
Answer: C
QUESTION: 488
A Change Control Board should be _______?
A. flexible
B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.
QUESTION: 489
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely
affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Answer: D
Explanation:
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
QUESTION: 490
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?
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A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .
QUESTION: 491
Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or
service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
QUESTION: 492
A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be
_____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Statistically independent
QUESTION: 493
Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project
budget?
A. Management Contingency Reserve
B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Answer: A
Explanation:
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is
Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project
cost baseline.
QUESTION: 494
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Dedicated project team
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dedicated project team
QUESTION: 495
Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?
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A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
QUESTION: 496
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.
B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common
framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 497
A Project Scope Management includes :
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify
Scope and Control Scope
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QUESTION: 498
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have
maximum influence at Initial stage.
QUESTION: 499
An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists
between two activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c
Answer: C
QUESTION: 500
A change requests can occur due to:
A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above
Answer: D
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QUESTION: 501
Another term for top down estimating is:.
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
Answer: A
QUESTION: 502
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities
Answer: A
QUESTION: 503
The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 504
A project plan is:
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A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the
authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 505
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B
QUESTION: 506
When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. As early in the project as feasible.
B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 507
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?
A. Product analysis
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B. Expert J udgment
C. Alternative Identification
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 508
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and
budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on
schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance
percentage in this case?
A. -50%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 20%
Answer: A
QUESTION: 509
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project
nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of
the project.
D. a and b
Answer: A
QUESTION: 510
A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and
mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
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A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative
Answer: C
QUESTION: 511
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls
Answer: B
QUESTION: 512
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
Answer: A
QUESTION: 513
Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the
Develop Human Resource Plan process:
A. Risk Management activities
B. Activity Resource requirements
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C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities
Answer: B
QUESTION: 514
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Answer: A
QUESTION: 515
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Answer: A
QUESTION: 516
A Trend Analysis is best described as:
A. Examining project performance over time
B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 517
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do :
A. An analysis of the critical path
B. A forwards pass
C. A backwards pass
D. a and g
Answer: C
QUESTION: 518
Which is not included in Performance improvements :
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked
B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviours
D. Improvements in team capabilities
Answer: A
QUESTION: 519
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days,
what is the PERT weighted average?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 6.3
D. 6.1
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 520
A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope
management plan prepared?
A. Initiation
C. Define Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: A
QUESTION: 521
Project scope is:
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b
Answer: A
QUESTION: 522
The planning processes are:
A. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define Activities
B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management
C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
D. Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract
administration
Answer: A
QUESTION: 523
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A Resource Leveling is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: A
QUESTION: 524
A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:
A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
D. Response Development
Answer: B
QUESTION: 525
An example of a project is:
A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building
D. Providing technical support
Answer: C
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