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# UJIAN NASIONAL

SMA/MA
Tahun Pelajaran 2004/2005
P1
BAHASA INGGRIS (D4)
PROGRAM STUDI IPA/IPS
( U T A M A )
2
MATA PELAJARAN
BAHASA INGGRIS
Program Studi : IPA/IPS
PELAKSANAAN
Hari/Tanggal : Selasa, 31 Mei 2005
Jam : 08.00 10.00
PETUNJUK UMUM
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawaban Komputer (LJK) yang
tersedia dengan menggunakan pensil 2B, sesuai petunjuk di Lembar
Jawaban Komputer (LJK).
2. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
3. Jumlah soal sebanyak 60 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 5 (lima)
pilihan jawaban.
4. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
5. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang
jelas, rusak, atau tidak lengkap.
6. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
7. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat
bantu hitung lainnya.
8. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
9. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicoret-coret, difotokopi, atau digandakan.
3
Listening Section.
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Part I
Questions 1 4
Directions:
For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear a question followed
by five statements. The questions and the statements will be spoken two times. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear the question and five statements look at the picture in your test book and choose
the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then on the answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample below.
Narrator:
Look at the picture in your test book.
What is the man doing? Sample answer
a. He is looking at the picture of the two women.
b. He is sitting in the garden holding a camera.
c. He is pointing at the two women.
d. He is taking a photograph of the women.
e. He is talking to the women.
Statement (d) He is taking a photograph of the women, best describes what you see in the
picture. Therefore, you should choose answer (d).
4
1.
2.
3.
5
4.
Part II
Questions 5 10
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear a statement or a question spoken in English, followed by five
responses, also spoken in English. The statement or question and the responses will be spoken
two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say. You have to choose the best response to each statement or question.
I do not agree

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Part III
Questions 11 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear 2 conversations. They will be spoken two times. After you
one would be the best answer to the questions you have heard.
11. a. How to get a bus.
b. How to get a taxi.
c. How far to walk.
d. How to get to the shopping center.
e. How to shop at the market.
12. a. Take a taxi.
b. Wait for a bus.
d. Go to another place.
e. Walk to the shopping center.
13. a. At a coffee shop.
b. At Rudis office
c. At Sandras office.
d. At the police station.
e. At a college.
14. a. Some tea.
b. Some soft drink.
c. Some water.
d. Some coffee.
e. Orange juice.
15. a. They are visitors.
b. They are guests.
c. They are colleagues.
d. They are officers.
e. They are friends.
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Part IV
Questions 16 20
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear 2 short texts. They will be spoken two times. After you hear
a text and the question(s) about it, read the five possible answer and decide which one would be
the best answer to the question(s) you have heard.
16. a. Albert Einstein.
b. Nobel Prize.
c. University of Zurich.
d. Hitler and his party.
e. Einsteins famous work.
17. a. In 1879.
b. In 1905.
c. In 1919.
d. In 1933.
e. In 1955.
18. a. He wanted to meet Hitler.
b. He wanted to receive the Nobel Prize.
c. He wanted to talk to other scientists.
d. He wanted to make scientific researches.
e. He wanted to continue his study.
19. a. Preparing for landing.
b. An announcement for departure.
c. A save place for landing.
d. Cabin attendants.
e. The luggage of the passengers.
20. a. On a bus.
b. On a train.
c. On a ship.
d. On an aeroplane.
e. At the airport.
This is the end of the listening section
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In this part of the test, you have to choose the best answer to each question from the alternatives
given.
The following incomplete paragraph is for questions no 54 to 56.
Fill in the blank spaces with suitable words.
According to Javanese (54), before the corpse is taken to the burial ground, his/her children
and close (55) walk ducking three times back and forth under the stretcher on which the dead
person has been (56) down.
54. a. customs
b. nation
c. country
d. ceremony
e. language
55. a. father
b. mother
c. brother
d. sister
e. relatives
56. a. sat
b. closed
c. buried
d. laid
e. stepped
57. Due to the forest fire the air in Jambi is so ... that we should wear a mask.
a. foggy
b. smoky
c. fresh
d. cloudy
e. clean
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58. People have built the dams since the earliest time to ... water.
a. arrange
b. regulate
c. manage
d. store
e. treat
59. All insecticides should be considered poisonous and should be stored well, far from
children.
The underlined word means ....
a. located
b. canned
c. used
d. kept
e. put
60. Smoke can cause damage to a childs learning ability.
The underlined word has similar meaning to ....
a. destruction
b. suffering
c. harm
d. injury
e. loss

UJIAN NASIONAL
SMK
Tahun Pelajaran 2004/2005
P1
BAHASA INGGRIS (E2)
( U T A M A )
2
MATA PELAJARAN
BAHASA INGGRIS
PELAKSANAAN
Hari/Tanggal : Selasa, 31 Mei 2005
Jam : 08.00 10.00
PETUNJUK UMUM
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawaban Komputer (LJK) yang
tersedia dengan menggunakan pensil 2B, sesuai petunjuk di Lembar
Jawaban Komputer (LJK).
2. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
3. Jumlah soal sebanyak 60 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 4 (empat)
pilihan jawaban.
4. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
5. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang
jelas, rusak, atau tidak lengkap.
6. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
7. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat
bantu hitung lainnya.
8. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
9. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicoret-coret, difotokopi, atau digandakan.
3
Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.
PART I
Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear four
short statements. These statements will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test
book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test book and choose the statement
that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
Now listen to the four statements.
a. The moon shines at night Sample answer
b. The sun shines during the day.
c. The moon travels around the sun.
d. The half moon shines brightly.
Statement (a) The moon shines at night. Best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore,
4
1.
2.
5
3.
4.
6
5.
Part II
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a question spoken in English, followed by three
responses, also spoken in English. The question and responses will be spoken two times. They
will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers
say. You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
X : Good morning, how are you?
You will also hear: Sample answer
a. Im fine, thank you.
b. Im in the living room.
c. My name is John.
The best response to the question how are you? is choice (a), I am fine, thank you.
Therefore, you should choose answer (a).
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Part III
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear five short conversations. The conversations will
not be printed in your test book. You will hear the conversation two times, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say.
followed by four answers. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on
14. What did the caller telephone the agency for?
a. Booking a seat in a bus.
b. Canceling his reservation.
c. Confirming his reservation.
d. Changing the time of his travel.
15. What does the caller want to know?
b. Mr. Zakarias health condition.
c. Method and time of product delivery.
d. Information about ABC printing House.
16. How often do the employees study?
a. Twice a week.
b. Three times a week.
c. Four times a week.
d. Five times a week.
17. How long has the woman been working with the company up until now?
a. 5 years.
b. 9 years.
c. 15 years.
d. 19 years.
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18. How long did the man live in Bandung?
a. 5 years.
b. 9 years.
c. 15 years.
d. 20 years.
19. What is the girl going to hold in her house?
a. An engagement party.
b. A University party.
c. A celebration party.
d. A Senior High farewell party.
20. What does the man want?
a. A seat in a theatre.
b. A single trip ticket.
c. A round trip ticket.
Part IV
Direction: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. Each will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and
remember what is said.
In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each short talk. The questions will
be followed by four answers. You have to choose the best answer to each question and mark it
a. Food.
b. Clothing.
c. Beverage.
d. Furniture.
22. Where should buyers go to get products?
a. Korea.
b. Market.
c. Supermarket.
d. Kriyasta Department Store.
23. What must we do to install a computer system?
a. Install it slowly and carefully.
b. Make it impossible to make mistakes.
c. Follow the set up directions in the manual.
d. Align pins in a plug with the corresponding holes.
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24. What may happen if we do not double check every connection?
a. The cables cannot be put into the correct sockets.
b. It will be impossible to make a mistake.
c. There may be short circuit.
d. The computer can not be switched on.
25. Whats basic unit of money of Spain?
a. The mark.
b. The peseta.
c. The escudo.
d. The drachma.
26. When theres a business transaction involving the three countries of France, the
Netherlands, what should they do in terms of the value of the business?
a. They should use Euros.
b. They should convert the value into francs.
c. They should convert the value into guilders.
d. They should use dollars as their common currency.
27. How many places are they planning to visit today?
a. 8 places.
b. 6 places.
c. 4 places.
d. 2 places.
28. Where can we have a spa?
a. Pengalengan.
b. Lembang.
c. Subang.
d. Mr. Udjos
29. What is Brita card?
a. A play card.
b. A bank card.
c. A student card.
d. A club membership card.
30. When is a discount facility given?
a. We have an account with any bank.
b. We make a deposit and withdrawal.
c. We buy goods on credit at every store.
d. We use a Brita Card to buy products at stores bearing Brita logo.
This is the end of the listening section
10
In this section of the test, you will have a chance to show how well you understand written
English.
For Questions 31 to 40, fill in the blanks with the most suitable word or words.
31. I dont know why they prefer ... in Menoreh Valley.
a. live
b. living
c. lived
d. to living
32. If you some more clothes, youll be broke again.
b. bought
33. Because of the heavy downpour, the party in the park had to be ....
a. called on
b. called off
c. called out
d. called for
34. ... my sister ... I saw the Indonesian Model grand final last Saturday, so we did not know
who the winner was.
a. Either or
b. Both and
c. Neither nor
d. Not only but also
35. The lady ... daughter is missing looks nervous.
a. who
b. that
c. whom
d. whose
36. Seeing my ... to leave, Tom demanded that he go along with me.
a. determine
b. determiner
c. determinant
d. determination
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37. I ... her a message that I would be late.
a. got
b. sent
d. approved
38. A week after the interview, my sister got a call from the personnel manager saying that she
... as a secretary.
a. accepts
b. accepted
c. is accepted
d. was accepted
39. Siti is a diligent and hardworking employee; ..., she has a good career advancement.
a. unless
b. although
c. therefore
d. nevertheless
40. Watch out! That man ... on the wrong side of the road!
a. drive
b. drove
c. drives
d. is driving
For Questions 41 to 50, which of the underlined words is NOT correct?
41. The laundress unintentionally tore a silk-blouse while she washed it this morning.
A B C D
42. Mr. Bloomfields ID card, whom you found yesterday, is in the filing cabinet.
A B C D
43. If the hotel service is good, the visitor would not complain.
A B C D
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44. In a world where antibiotics dont work, the simplest infection are capable of
A B C
escalating into fatal illness.
D
45. My cousins have visited the museum a few days ago and they will see the temples
A B C
next Sunday.
D
46. Even though the construction cost is very high, the new dormitory will build next year.
A B C D
47. All citizens must participation in every program to improve the national condition.
A B C D
48. The minister refused the security service and preferred traveling by myself.
A B C D
49. In my spare time, I enjoy reading, playing badminton and go fishing in the lake.
A B C D
50. His last test showed he was the quickest typist, yet he was the less accurate of all
A B C
the applicants.
D
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14
Items 54, 55, and 56 refer to the following passage
15
Questions 57 and 58 refer to the following instructions:
HOW TO CHARGE YOUR BRILLIANT Card:
1. Scratch the black area to find the digits.
2. Dial 999 or OK.
3. Press 5 to get the charge option.
4. Enter the 14 digits.
5. The amount of this voucher will be automatically added onto your BRILLIANT card.
6. To check the remaining pulse credit dial 999#.
7. Active Time: 60 days. Recharging Time: 30 days
57. How do you get the 14 digits of your brilliant card?
a. By pressing 5.
b. By dialing 999.
c. By checking the pulse.
d. By scratching the black area on the card.
58 What is the synonym of recharging?
a. Reversing.
b. Repeating.
c. Requiring.
16
I Revans Street
Miramar Wellington
New Zealand
November 15, 2004
Ms. Rita Ratnasari
Victory Hotel
Jl. Raya Selecta No. 9
Batu, Malang Indonesia
Dear Ms. R.Ratnasari,
Last month, I reserved a family room on the top floor having a mountain view in your hotel.
The reservation will be December 24 26, 2004.
I regret to inform you that my manager has suddenly cancelled my vacation due to an urgent
convention I have to attend in Singapore. We will not, therefore, be able to spend our holiday
in Indonesia. For this reason, we would like to cancel our booking.
I hope that we can travel to Indonesia and stay at your hotel some time in the future.
Yours sincerely,
Ryan OHara
Questions 59 and 60 refer to the following letter:
59. Whom is the letter directed to?
a. The receptionist of the hotel.
b. The duty manager of the hotel.
c. The general manager of the hotel.
d. The reservation manager of the hotel.
60. What is Ms. Rita Ratnasari expected to do after reading the letter?
a. To travel to Indonesia.
b. To send a hotel brochure.
c. To attend the convention.
d. To cancel the booking.

Ujian Nasional
Tahun 2006
Bahasa Inggris

Listening section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four
parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Part I
Questions 1 and 2
Directions:
For each question, you will see five pictures in your test book and you will hear a dialogue followed by a question.
The dialogues and the questions will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
When you hear the question, look at the pictures in your test book and choose picture that suits the statement in the
dialogues. Then on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample
below.
Tape Script:
Man : Could you tell me what time the meeting will start?
Woman : The meeting will start at 2 p.m.
Narrator: Which picture illustrate the statement?
Gambar
Picture (a) illustrates the dialogue. Therefore, you should choose (a)
UN-SMA-06-01
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V

UN-SMA-06-03
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V

Part II
Questions 3 to 7 Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several incomplete dialogues each followed by a question. The incomplete
dialogues and the questions will be spoken two times. After you hear an incomplete dialogue and the question, read
the five possible answers in your test book then decide which one would be the best response to complete the
dialogue.
UN-SMA-06-03
A. Sure I will
B. You are welcome
C. OK, nice to meet you
D. That sounds interesting
E. See you some other time

UN-SMA-06-04
B. I am proud of your sister
C. You must be very upset
D. Congratulations
E. Not at all

UN-SMA-06-05
A. So do I
B. 1 had to watch TV
C. Oh, I got upset with her
D. That's very kind of you
E. It was very good indeed

UN-SMA-06-06
A. I want to get a job
C. It's just for fun
D. Yes, it's all right
E. That's OK

UN-SMA-06-07
A. English
B. With pleasure
C. School library
D. Students and teachers
E. Two cups of coffee, please

Part III
Questions 8 to 11 Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several dialogues. They will be spoken two' times. After you
and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you've just heard.
UN-SMA-06-08
A. The woman's father
B. The woman
C. The man's father
D. The man
E. The man and the woman's father

UN-SMA-06-09
A. Pleasure
B. Gratitude
C. Satisfaction
D. Uncertainly
E. Dissatisfaction

UN-SMA-06-10
A. She feels disappointed
B. She feels guilty
C. She hates the man
D. She feels happy
E. She likes the man

UN-SMA-06-11
A. He offers help
C. He expresses sympathy
D. He refuses the invitation
E. He accepts the invitation

Part IV
Questions 12 to 15 Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some short texts. They will be spoken two times. After you
hear a text and the questions about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would
be the best answer to the question you've heard.
UN-SMA-06-12
A. Dance teams
B. A gamelan orchestra
D. A gamelan orchestra and dance teams.
E. A gamelan orchestra and traditional costumes

UN-SMA-06-13
A. They are not traditional dances.
B. They are performed in religious events.
C. They are very similar to Balinese dances.
D. They are performed at several ceremonies.
E. They are less energetic than Balinese dances.

UN-SMA-06-14
A. Birthrate
B. Social problems
C. World population
D. Population in Indonesia
E. Family planning program

UN-SMA-06-15
A. It has reached not more than 200 million.
B. It introduces the family planning program.
C. It causes many problems.
D. It grows very slowly.
E. It increases rapidly.

This is the end of the listening section
Text l
This text is for questions 16 and 17
We are announcing today that we are bringing the Milestone and Ever Green brands even closer
together. Effective as of December 5, 2005, our official name will be:
GREEN MILES WEST
The substitution of "West" in our name-replacing "California"- is the result of an agreement we
reached with California Gardening Association, following a protest over the original use of
"California" in our name. We hope this does not create any confusion among our loyal
consumers. While this represents a change from our initial name introduction, it does not change
the quality of products we offer to our consumers.
UN-SMA-06-16
Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the text?
A. The corporate offices were protested
B. The loyal consumers created an official name for the company.
C. There was a conflict between Green Miles West and Milestone
D. The quality of products will be different from the former products.
E. The name "Green Miles West" will be effective as of December 5, 2005.

UN-SMA-06-17
it does not change the quality of the products we offer ..." (Paragraph 4).
The underlined word means ...
A. take
B. lose erase
C. alter
D. erase
E. throw

Text 2
This text is for questions number 18
Cinema Quiz Cartoon News
1. Teenager
3. Children
50 %
10 %
0 %
20 %
30 %
20 %
20 %
10 %
80 %
10 %
50 %
0 %

UN-SMA-06-18
From the table above we can conclude that... shows are mostly watched by children.
A. quiz
B. news
C. talk
D. cinema
E. cartoon

Text 3
This text is for questions 19 to 22
University of Cambridge
Do you plan to study abroad? Don't hesitate. Welcome to Cambridge University. Cambridge
University, an institution of higher education, is the second oldest university in Great Britain
after the University of Oxford. It is located in the city of Cambridge.
The University of Cambridge is a system of faculties, departments, and 31 independent
colleges. You know, although the colleges and the university per se are separate corporations, all
are parts of an integrated educational entity. The university examines candidates for degrees
during their residencies and at the conclusion of their studies. The colleges provide their students
with lodgings and meals, assign tutors, and offer social, cultural, and athletic activities. Every
student at the University of Cambridge is a member of a college.
Let's see its academic year. The academic year is divided into three terms of approximately
eight weeks each: Michaelmas (autumn), Lent (late winter), and Easter (spring). Students
required to study under supervisor are usually members of the college's faculties who maintain
close relationships with small groups of students in their charge and assist them in preparing for
university exams.
UN-SMA-06-19
The author's purpose of writing the text is ...
A. to review a particular education system
B. to commemorate a particular college
C. to define a particular academic year
D. to explain a particular way to study
E. to describe a particular institution

UN-SMA-06-20
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The academic year is held in four seasons in a year.
B. Students in colleges are not members of the university
C. Students must not be in their residence during the terms.
D. The students of Cambridge University have holidays in summer.
E. University of Oxford is younger than University of Cambridge

UN-SMA-06-21
A. an integrated educational entity.
B. social activities in the university.
C. the system in Cambridge University.
D. the examination for candidates' degrees.
E. the criteria for the membership of the university.

UN-SMA-06-22
"The colleges provide their students with lodgings and meals, assign tutors and offer ..."
(Paragraph 2).
The underlined word means ...
A. dormitories used for studying in groups
B. places offered for doing some business
C. spaces needed for discussion
D. houses needed for taking a rest
E. rooms rented to stay in

Text 4

Text 5
This text is for questions 27 to 30
The polar bear is a very big white bear. We call it the polar bear because it lives inside the
Arctic Circle near the North Pole. There are no polar bears at the South Pole.
The polar bears live at the North Pole. There is only snow, ice, and water. There is not any land.
These bears are three meters long, and weigh 450 kilos. They can stand up on their back legs
because they have very wide feet. They can use their front legs like arms. The polar bears can
swim very well. They can swim 120 kilometers out into the water. They catch fish and sea
animals for food. They go into the sea when they are afraid.
People like to kill the polar bears for their beautiful white coats. The governments of
Canada, the United States, and Russia say that no one can kill polar bears now. They do not want
all of these beautiful animals to die.
UN-SMA-06-27
What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The size of polar bears.
B. Where polar bears live
C. The habitat of polar bears.
D. Why people hunt polar bears.
E. A brief description of polar bears.

UN-SMA-06-28
What is the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Polar bears are very big animals
B. The polar bears are tame animals
C. Polar bears live at the North Pole
D. There are no polar bears at the South Pole
E. Polar bears are hunted because of their beautiful white coats

UN-SMA-06-29
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about a polar bear?
A. A polar bear weighs 450 kilos.
B. A polar bear is three meters long.
C. A polar bear catches fish for food.
D. A polar bear goes into the sea when it is angry.
E. A polar bear can swim 120 kilometers out into the water.

UN-SMA-06-30
A polar be; goes into the sea when it is afraid. The underlined word is closest ii meaning to ...
A. shy
B. angry
C. scared .
D. furious
E. shocked

UN-SMA-06-31
Tia : You look so sad. What has happened to you?
Mia :My mother was angry because I came home late last night.
You'd better ask for her apology and admit that you've done a mistake.
From the dialogue we know that Tia gives ... to Mia.
A. an idea
C. an opinion
D. a surprise
E. information

UN-SMA-06-32
Ana : What did you buy at the grocery store yesterday?
Anto : What did you say?
Ana : I wanted to know what you ... at the grocery store yesterday.
E. have bought

UN-SMA-06-33
Dito : Excuse me ...,?
Diah : Oh, of course. Here it is!
A. Can you help me
B. Could you do this me
C. Could you do me a favor
D. May I borrow your dictionary
E. Would you mind opening the door

UN-SMA-06-34
Mia : Mother, I've got a scholarship from Monash University in Australia.
Mother : Thank God. It's really unbelievable!
The underlined expression shows ...
A. anxiety
B. surprise
C. pleasure
D. uncertainty
E. satisfaction

UN-SMA-06-3
Mrs. Tia : What are you doing on Saturday?
Mrs. Hera : I'm going to see a new play with some students. Would you join us?
Mrs. Tia : I'd like to but Ill take my kinds to 'Game Zone'.
The underlined utterance expresses ...
A. A, denial
B. refusal
C. pleasure
D. approval
E. disagreement

UN-SMA-06-36
Mother : ..., but don't forget to share it with your sister.
A. Of course
B. I don't know
C. But it is so urgent
D. Listen, don't bother her
E. You are kidding, I can't

UN-SMA-06-37
Andy : What seems to be the trouble? ....?
Indy : Of course. I need your help. The file cannot be printed out.
C. Why don't you ask me
D. Could you do me a favour
E. Would you mind helping me

UN-SMA-06-38
Meity : Have you finished writing the article?
Novy : Not yet. But I ... writing it by next month.
A. finish
B. would finish
C. have finished
D. will have finished
E. should have finished

UN-SMA-06-39
Roby : We will have a party for my sister's birthday next Sunday. Would you like to come. Ira?
Ira : I'd love to. It must be a wonderful party.
The underlined expression is used to express ...
B. intention
C. C invitation
D. satisfaction
E. suggestion

UN-SMA-06-40
Andi : It seems that you enjoy listening to 'dangdut' music.
Agus : You're right ...
A. I dislike it.
B. It makes me sick.
C. I hate 'dangdut'.
D. I am annoyed with it.
E. I like 'dangdut' very much.

UN-SMA-06-41
Ardi : As you know our economic condition is unstable. Do you think our government can solve
this problem soon?
Badri : I think it is very unlikely. It seems that everything is worsening.
From the underlined words we know that it is ... for the government to improve the economic
condition in the near future.
A. agreeable
B. improbable
C. uncertain
D. predictable
E. beneficial

UN-SMA-06-42
Willy : This cake is very delicious. Did you make it yourself?
From the underlined utterance we know that Betty ... the cake
E. ordered someone to make

UN-SMA-06-43
Yudi : You look tired. Lack of sleep?
Nazar : Yes. I wish I had gone to bed earlier, but I couldn't.
From the underlined sentence we conclude that Nazar...
A. went to bed late
B. went to bed early
E. had gone to bed early

UN-SMA-06-44
Sue : I know you got a bad mark for the English test. What's wrong with you?
Chris: If I ... dial there was a test, I would have prepared for it well,
A. know
B. knew
D. have known
E. would know

UN-SMA-06-45
Brenda : The road is too busy and the vehicles are running so fast.
Auntie : ...
B. Beware of pick pockets
C. Take care of the vehicles
D. Whatever you do, do it carefully
E. Be careful when crossing the road

UN-SMA-06-46
Tsunamis wash ashore often with disastrous effect such as severe flooding, loss of lives due to
drowning and damage to property.
The synonym of the underlined word is ...
A. destructive
B. suspicious
C. sufficient
D. harmless
E. ultimate

UN-SMA-06-47
Some drugs taken in large quantities cause permanent brain damage.
The opposite of the underlined word is ...
A. lasting
B. forever
C. restricted
D. unlimited
E. temporary

UN-SMA-06-48
"It's 12 now. The workers will be dismissed for lunch."
The antonym of the underlined word is ...
A. gathered
B. rejected
D. executed
E. terminated

UN-SMA-06-49
His dry cleaning business is flourishing; he has opened two more branches this year. The
underlined word means to be ...
A. luxurious
B. plentiful
C. beneficial
D. productive
E. successful

UN-SMA-06-50
A tsunami is a very large sea wave that is ... by a disturbance along the ocean-1 floor.
A. composed
B. mobilized
C. generated
D. influenced
E. appreciated

D4-P12-2007/2008 Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
1 DOKUMEN NEGARA
SANGAT RAHASIA
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Program Studi : IPA/IPS/Bahasa/Keagamaan
Hari/Tanggal : Rabu, 23 April 2008
Jam : 08.00 10.00
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawabam Ujian Nasional (LJUN) yang tersedia
dengan
menggunakan pensil 2B sesuai petunjuk LJUN.
2. Hitamkan bulatan di depan nama mata ujian pada LJUN.
3. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
4. Jumlah soal sebanyak 50 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 5 (lima) pilihan jawaban.
5. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
6. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang jelas, rusak,
atau
tidak lengkap.
7. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
8. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat bantu hitung
lainnya.
9. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
10. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicorat-coret.
PETUNJUK UMUM
PELAKSANAAN
MATA PELAJARAN
D4-P12-2007/2008 Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
2 DOKUMEN NEGARA
SANGAT RAHASIA
Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand
spoken
English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Part 1
Question: 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or question spoken in English. The
dialogues or
questions will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say.
decide which
one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample
question.
You will hear:
Man : How about exercising tomorrow morning?
Woman : Alright. Pick me up at six.
Youll also hear:
Narrator : What will the man do?
A. Do exercise at 6.
B. Go with six women.
C. Take exercise alone.
D. Leave the woman alone.
E. Come to the womens house.
The best answer to the question is Come to the womans house
Therefore, you should choose answer (E).
1. A. She cut herself quite badly.
B. She wasnt given any help.
C. She cried while slicing onions.
D. She sliced the onions hurriedly.
E. She was going to make fried rice.
2. A. Do his assignment.
B. See a book fair.
D. Offer the woman a book.
E. Go to the womans house.
3. A. To buy a novel.
C. To lend a novel.
D. To go to a bookstore.
E. To finish reading a novel.
B A C D E
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4. A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
5. A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
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Part II
Questions: 6 10
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear a statement or a question spoken in English, followed by
four
responses, also spoken in English. The statement or question and the responses will be
spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what
the speakers says. You have to choose the best response to each statement or question.
Now listen to a sample question:
You will hear:
Woman : Good morning, John. How are you?
Man :
You will also hear:
A. I am fine, thank you.
B. I am in the living room.
C. Let me introduce myself.
D. My name is John Travolta.
The best answer to the question How are you? is choice (A), I am fine, thank you.
Therefore you should choose answer (A).
Part III
Questions: 11 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologues will be spoken
two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what
the speakers say.
decide
which one would be the best answer to the questions you have heard.
11. A. Goose hunting.
B. An unfaithful dog.
C. An unusual accident.
D. A mathematics teacher.
E. Chambers County Policeman.
B A C D E
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12. A. Arthur.
B. Houston.
D. Perry Price.
E. Joe LaRive.
13. A. It lies on high land.
B. It is densely populated.
C. It lies on a flat low plain area.
D. The climate is hot and humid.
E. It is at the mouth of the Ciliwung River.
14. A. Jamess pet dog.
B. Muggss characteristics.
C. Muggss strange behavior.
D. The night when Muggs died.
E. Browny, the Cocker Spaniel.
15. A. Andre.
B. Muggs.
C. James.
D. Browny.
E. George.
The text is for questions 20 to 23.
Some of the worlds finest roads make use of bodies of water. They are called canals.
Canals are man made waterways. They are usually straight and narrow. But they are filled
with water. They connect rivers and lakes, oceans and lakes, rivers and rivers, and oceans
and
oceans so that boats and ships can go from one to the other.
Most canals are used for transportation. Barges, boats, and ships carry goods over canals.
Some are used to irrigate land or to carry sewage from large cities. Canals also reduce the
cost of
shipping goods and offer travel short cuts,
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Canals even go over hills and mountains. But you know that water cant flow up a hill; so
how can the water and boats in a canal go up a hill?
Something called a lock is used. It is a giant tank. The tank is big enough to hold a long
boat. The boat floats into the tank, and the doors behind it are closed to lock the boat in
there. Then
more water is let into the tank. When the tank is full of water, the tank door in front of the
boat is
opened and the boat floats out. The boat floats higher and higher as the water rises. It floats
either
out into a higher part of the canal or into another tank or lock, which will lift it still higher.
To go down the hill on the other side, the boat enters a lock that is full of water. As the water
is let out of the lock, the boat will float lower and lower. So locks make it possible for boats
or ships
to move from one water level to another.
B. waterways
C. water transportation
D. worlds finest canals
21. Why do people build canals?
A. To lift boats.
B. To rise water.
C. To store sewage.
D. To hold a giant tank.
E. To connect rivers, lakes, and oceans.
22. According to the text, the canals join together the following EXCEPT
A. rivers and lakes
B. oceans and lakes
C. rivers and rivers
D. rivers and oceans
E. oceans and oceans
23. They are straight and narrow like some roads. (Paragraph 2).
The antonym of the underlined word is
A. flat
B. rough
C. bumpy
D. indirect
E. winding
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The text is for questions 24 and 25
24. What is the announcement about?
A. A school debate.
B. A school competition.
C. A debate competition.
D. Extracurricular activities.
E. Participants of the debate.
25. According to the text the competition
A. is only for students with good English.
B. is in the form of spoken arguments.
C. is in the form of written arguments.
D. will be held after school hours.
E. will run for two days.
The text is for questions 33 and 34
We, a mining consultant company, are looking for
A SENIOR SECRETARY
_ Female, graduated from a reputable university
_ Min. 5 years of work experience
_ Good command of English (oral & written)
_ Computer literate (min. Word, Excel, Internet)
Please submit your complete application, resume & recent photograph not more than 10
days
HRD PT CITRA ENERGY DEVELOPMENT
Wisma Emha Jln. Wijaya I No. 11A, Kebayoran Baru, Jakarta Selatan 12170
Fax no. 021-7207978
only short listed candidates will be notified
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33. What is the text about?
A. Wisma Emha.
B. A job vacancy.
C. A senior secretary.
D. An application letter.
E. PT Citra Energy Development.
34. The following are the requirements asked EXCEPT
A. Five years experience.
B. Able to operate a computer.
C. Able to speak and write in English.
D. A graduate from a reputable university.
E. Application letter should be sent ten days after this ads.
The text is for questions 38 to 40.
Breaking and Entering is an unusual film. Will and Sandy are two architects working on a
major urban renewal project in the Kings Cross section in London. The area is unsafe and
such a project. Will and Sandy move their offices into a nearby vacant warehouse.
Will has to deal with constant burglaries at his new office. One night, he saw Miro trying to
break into the building. He chased Miro to his run down apartment block and watched him
his mother, Amira, a Bosnian immigrant who makes a living tailoring clothes. Soon, Will
meet
Amira and they begin an affair. And Amira learns that Will holds the key of her sons future.
How
far will this mother go to protect her son? Breaking and Entering is a very enteristing film,
but it is
almost entirely character driven. This is not a bad thing although in the film we are exposed
to a
story or action driven.
Anthony Minghella, the director, creates some of the most believable, interesting characters
these actors have ever played. It is almost painful to watch them on their journey. Each of
characters makes decisions affecting how their lives will play out, or change and these
decisions
and actions affect the story. The characters arent reacting to the story. They are changing
it.
38. The text is mainly about
A. a review of a new film, Breaking and Entering.
B. the process in making the new film, Breaking and Entering.
C. an amusing story dealing with experience in different ways.
D. an account of an unusual or amusing incident retold by the film.
E. the description how the film is accomplished through a series of steps.
39. Will and Sandy move their offices into a nearby vacant warehouse. (Paragraph 1).
The antonym of the underlined word is
A. empty
B. fulfilled
C. covered
D. occupied
E. luxurious
40. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the text?
A. Miro is one of the burglars who tried to break into Wills new office.
B. Will has to deal with consultant burglaries at his new office.
C. Miro is Amiras son, a Bosnian immigrant who makes a living by tailoring clothes.
D. The area where the two architects work is unsafe and ready for a renewal project.
E. Minghella, the critic, creates some of the most interesting characters the actors have
ever
played.
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D4-P45-2008/2009 Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
1 DOKUMEN NEGARA
SANGAT RAHASIA
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Program Studi : IPA/IPS/Bahasa/Keagamaan
Hari/Tanggal : Selasa, 21 April 2009
Jam : 08.00 10.00
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawabam Ujian Nasional (LJUN) yang tersedia
dengan
menggunakan pensil 2B sesuai petunjuk LJUN.
2. Hitamkan bulatan di depan nama mata ujian pada LJUN.
3. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
4. Jumlah soal sebanyak 50 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 4 (empat) dan 5 (lima)
pilihan
jawaban.
5. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
6. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang jelas, rusak,
atau
tidak lengkap.
7. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
8. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat bantu hitung
lainnya.
9. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
10. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicorat-coret.
PETUNJUK UMUM
PELAKSANAAN
MATA PELAJARAN
D4-P45-2008/2009 Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
2 DOKUMEN NEGARA
SANGAT RAHASIA
LISTENING SECTION
Part 1
Question: 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or questions spoken in English. The
questions
and the dialogues will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so
you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
After you listen to a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and
decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a
sample
question.
You will hear:
Man : Sally, I lost my wallet. May I borrow fifty thousand rupiahs?
Woman : Sure. Here you are.
Narrator : You will also hear : What will the woman do?
A. Leave the man alone.
B. Drive the man home.
C. Find the lost wallet.
D. Lend the man money.
E. Borrow the mans wallet.
The best answer to the question is Lend the man money.
Therefore, you should choose answer (D)
1. A. The womans health problem.
B. A troublesome woman.
C. The womans new bag.
D. The womans anxiety.
E. The poor woman.
2. A. Herbal medicine.
B. Some medicine.
C. Fresh herbal.
D. Cool drink.
E. The doctor.
3. A. Finishing the assignment.
B. Doing the offices job.
C. Going to the office.
D. Going for a walk.
E. Writing a letter.
B A C D E
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B. Lending the book.
D. Discussing the book.
5.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
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Part II
Questions: 6 10
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear some dialogues and a question spoken in English,
followed by
four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and question and the responses will
be
spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say. You have to choose the best response to each
question.
Now listen to a sample question:
Man : I got a bad result in my test.
Woman : What! You failed again?
Man :
A. Let me try again.
B. I am fine, thank you.
C. Dont worry, Ill move.
D. Sorry, Ive disappointed you.
Narrator : The best answer to the question You failed again? is choice (D), Sorry, Ive
disappointed you.
Therefore you should choose answer (D).
B A C D
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Part III
Questions: 11 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken
two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what
the speakers say.
decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
11.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
12. A. A fairy god mother.
B. The barleycorn seed.
C. The beautiful flower.
D. Thumbelina, a tiny little girl.
E. A poor man who lived in the forest.
13. A. In a valley.
B. In the forest.
C. In a flower pot.
D. On a farmers field.
14. A. 400 480 kg
B. 400 680 kg
C. 480 600 kg
D. 680 880 kg
E. 880 1500 kg
15. A. In the Arctic Ocean.
B. In the Indian Ocean.
C. In the Pacific Ocean.
D. In the North Atlantic Ocean.
E. In the South Atlantic Ocean.
This is the end of the listening section
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Text 1
.
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Text 2
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Text 3.
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Text 4
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Text 5
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Text 6
Text 7
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Text 8
This following text is for questions 39 to 41.
39. What is the text about?
A. A week tour to Italy.
B. A job vacancy in Hotel Cannero.
C. Three day tour to Eropean countries.
D. A healthy and clean environment.
E. The description on Cannero Riviera.
A. All who are fit and healthy.
B. Those who can serve foreigners.
C. All who meet the requirements mentioned.
D. The educated people who can handle service jobs.
E. Those who can speak two foreign languages.
41. Those who are accepted to work for the hotel
A. are mostly Italians
B. will get accommodation
C. are under the control of Maria Carla
D. will take control of each department
E. will start working between March and October
Hotel Cannero
28051 Cannero Riviera, Italy
Phone: 323788046
Waiters / Waitresses (2), Swimming Pool Attendants, Bar Staff.
Around \$ 150 per week. 12 hours per day, 6 days week. Free board and
accomodation. Knowledge of German, Italian or French required. Period of work
3 or 6 months between end of March and end of October. Applicants should be
fit and healthy, organized and clean. Applications from 25 March to the end and
send to Maria Carla at the above address.
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Text 9
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Text 10
The following text is for questions 45 to 47.
45. The text reported
A. Shafiq, a Singaporean supervisor
B. S.S.Dhillon, the lawyer in magistrate court
C. an Indonesia maid who was jailed for two months
D. an Indonesia maid who was working in Singapore
E. a Singaporean supervisor who was jailed because of striking his maid
46. When did Shafiq physically abuse the woman?
A. Between June and October 2002.
B. On several occasion.
C. On October 31st.
D. On June 22nd.
E. Any time.
47. Why did Shafiq punch Winarti on her back? She was accused of
A. taking much time for herself
B. leaving her work
C. working carelessly
D. daydreaming
E. being lazy
SINGAPORE: A supervisor was jailed for two months for repeatedly striking his
Indonesia maid on the head and back with a television remote control, news report said on
Thursday.
abused the woman on several occasions between June and October 2002, The Straits said.
The magistrates court heard that Shafiq, 31: began striking Winarti, 22, about a
month after she started working for him.
He hit her on the head with the TV sets remote control because he was unhappy
with her work. On one occasion, he punched her on the back after accusing her of
daydreaming.
S.S.Dhillon, Shafiqs lawyer, said his client had become mad when he saw his
daughters face covered as she laid in bed.
He said his client thought the maid had put the child in danger. DPA
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Text 11.
The following text is for questions 48 to 50.
48. How often did the writer eat a day?
A. Three times.
B. Seldom.
C. Twice.
D. Never.
E. Once.
49. mitigation team chief Alwi Shihab. (Paragraph 1)
The synonym of the underlined word is
A. decreaser
B. lightener
C. reliever
D. developer
E. writer
50. What is the writers occupation?
A. A social worker.
B. A volunteer.
C. A journalist.
D. A presenter.
E. A TV reporter.
I usually woke up at 8 a.m. and went to the press center to check the daily schedule
of briefings and press conferences, usually held by the United Nations officials or disaster
mitigation team chief, Alwi Shihab.
Ii was challenging to visit different refugee to find soft stories, human interest
stories. Then, I went back to the press center in between to cover the press conferences of
the day.
It was heart breaking when I saw these survivors fight for food and secondhand
clothing, which they said were limited and inadequate. Emerging to a glaring, full noon, it
was time to go back to the press center to write stories and race against time, always fearing
that the internet connection would come crashing down.
And after everything was done, only then I remembered to eat. Most times, I only
ate once a day because you always had to rush and it was difficult to find food. You had to
travel quite far, about a 30-to 45- minute trip by car to find fresh food.