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SOLVED PAPERS

GATE
AEROSPACE ENGINEERING (AE)
aglaem
.com
A comprehensive study guide for GATE
CONTENTS
Introduction
Question Paper Pattern
Design of Questions
Marking Scheme
Syllabus
Previous Year Solved Papers
o Solved Question Paper 2014
o Answer Key 2014
o Solved Question Paper 2013
o Answer Key 2013
o Solved Question Paper 2012
o Answer Key 2012
Introduction
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination
conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs).
A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE
papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam
pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.
While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a
simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to
test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if
he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you
could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and
accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas
where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.
Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the
basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.
To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Question Paper Pattern
In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10
questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and
XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General
Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the
total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude
section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is
devoted to the subject of the paper.
GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For
these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the
virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Design of Questions
The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:
(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the
paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her
memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.
(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the
basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental
ideas.
(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her
knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.
(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,
diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis
question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.
Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated
assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Marking Scheme
For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong
answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions
carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total
10 marks).
Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and
30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of
questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,
choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real
number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An
appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type
questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper
Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:
Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section
1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part
A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks
and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B
(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each
(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).
XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section
contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-
total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions
may be of numerical answer type questions.
Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions
carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
XL Paper (Life Sciences)
In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15
questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)
and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions
carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers
For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative
marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong
answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a
wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical
answer type questions.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups, instructions,
critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning and data
interpretation.
Syllabus for Aerospace Engineering (AE)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
Linear Algebra: Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, eigen values and eigen
vectors.
Calculus: Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, mean value
theorems, evaluation of definite and improper integrals, partial derivatives, total
derivative, maxima and minima, gradient, divergence and curl, vector identities,
directional derivatives, line, surface and volume integrals. Theorems of Stokes, Gauss
and Green.
Differential Equations: First order linear and nonlinear equations, higher order linear
ODEs with constant coefficients, Cauchy and Euler equations, initial and boundary
value problems, Laplace transforms. Partial differential equations and separation of
variables methods.
Numerical methods: Numerical solution of linear and nonlinear algebraic equations,
integration by trapezoidal and Simpson rule, single and multi-step methods for
differential equations.
FLIGHT MECHANICS
Atmosphere: Properties, standard atmosphere. Classification of aircraft. Airplane (fixed
wing aircraft) configuration and various parts.
Airplane performance: Pressure altitude; equivalent, calibrated, indicated air speeds;
Primary flight instruments: Altimeter, ASI, VSI, Turn-bank indicator. Drag polar; take off
and landing; steady climb & descent,-absolute and service ceiling; cruise, cruise climb,
endurance or loiter; load factor, turning flight, V-n diagram; Winds: head, tail & cross
winds.
Static stability: Angle of attack, sideslip; roll, pitch & yaw controls; longitudinal stick
fixed & free stability, horizontal tail position and size; directional stability, vertical tail
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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position and size; dihedral stability. Wing dihedral, sweep & position; hinge moments,
stick forces.
Dynamic stability: Euler angles; Equations of motion; aerodynamic forces and
moments, stability & control derivatives; decoupling of longitudinal and lat-directional
dynamics; longitudinal modes; lateral-directional modes.
SPACE DYNAMICS
Central force motion, determination of trajectory and orbital period in simple cases. Orbit
transfer, in-plane and out-of-plane. Elements of rocket motor performance.
AERODYNAMICS
Basic Fluid Mechanics: Incompressible irrotational flow, Helmholtz and Kelvin theorem,
singularities and superposition, viscous flows, boundary layer on a flat plate.
Airfoils and wings: Classification of airfoils, aerodynamic characteristics, high lift
devices, Kutta Joukowski theorem; lift generation; thin airfoil theory; wing theory;
induced drag; qualitative treatment of low aspect ratio wings.
Viscous Flows: Flow separation, introduction to turbulence, transition, structure of a
turbulent boundary layer.
Compressible Flows: Dynamics and Thermodynamics of I-D flow, isentropic flow,
normal shock, oblique shock, Prandtl-Meyer flow, flow in nozzles and diffusers, inviscid
flow in a c-d nozzle, flow in diffusers. subsonic and supersonic airfoils, compressibility
effects on lift and drag, critical and drag divergence Mach number, wave drag.
Wind Tunnel Testing: Measurement and visualisation techniques.
STRUCTURES
Stress and Strain: Equations of equilibrium, constitutive law, strain-displacement
relationship, compatibility equations, plane stress and strain, Airys stress function.
Flight Vehicle Structures: Characteristics of aircraft structures and materials, torsion,
bending and flexural shear. Flexural shear flow in thin-walled sections. Buckling. Failure
theories. Loads on aircraft.
Structural Dynamics: Free and forced vibration of discrete systems. Damping and
resonance. Dynamics of continuous systems.
PROPULSION
Thermodynamics of Aircraft Gas Turbine engines, thrust and thrust augmentation.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Turbomachinery: Axial compressors and turbines, centrifugal pumps and
compressors.
Aerothermodynamics of non rotating propulsion components: Intakes, combustor
and nozzle. Thermodynamics of ramjets and scramjets. Elements of rocket propulsion.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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GATE
Previous Year Solved Papers
Aerospace Engineering AE
2012 - 14
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Solved Paper
Aerospace Engineering - AE
__________________________________________________________
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.
(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4 If y = 5x
2
+ 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3
(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of 1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal
(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5


General Aptitude - GA GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)


(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)



END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 For a real symmetric matrix [A], which of the following statements is true:
(A) The matrix is always diagonalizable and invertible.
(B) The matrix is always invertible but not necessarily diagonalizable.
(C) The matrix is always diagonalizable but not necessarily invertible.
(D) The matrix is always neither diagonalizable nor invertible.

Q.2
The series ( )

=
=
1
2
3
2
m
m
m
x
m
s converges for all x with R x 2 given by
(A) 0 = R (B) 3 = R (C) = R (D) 3 / 1 = R

Q.3
The function given by {
0 ), / 1 sin(
0 , 0

=
=
x x
x
f(x)
is
(A) Unbounded everywhere (B) Bounded and continuous everywhere
(C) Bounded but not continuous at 0 = x (D) Continuous and differentiable everywhere

Q.4
Given the boundary-value problem 1 0 , 0 < < = + |

\
|
x ky
dx
dy
x
dx
d
, with 0 ) 1 ( ) 0 ( = = y y . Then the
solutions of the boundary-value problem for 1 = k (given by
1
y ) and 5 = k (given by
5
y ) satisfy:
(A)

=
1
0
5 1
0 dx y y
(B) 0
5
1
0
1
=

dx
dx
dy
dx
dy

(C)


1
0
5 1
0 dx y y
(D)

= +
1
0
5 1
5 1
0 ) ( dx
dx
dy
dx
dy
y y

Q.5
The value of

=
1
0
4
1000 dx x I , obtained by using Simpsons rule with 2 equally spaced intervals is,
(A) 200 (B) 400 (C) 180 (D) 208

Q.6 For a NACA 5-digit airfoil of chord c, the designed lift coefficient and location of maximum
camber along the chord from the leading edge are denoted by C
L
and X
m
respectively. For
NACA12018 airfoil, which combination of C
L
and X
m
given below are correct?
(A)C
L
=0.15 and X
m
= 0.1c (B)C
L
=0.12 and X
m
= 0.2c
(C)C
L
=0.12 and X
m
= 0.18c (D)C
L
=0.15 and X
m
= 0.2c

Q.7 For inviscid, supersonic flow over a diamond shaped airfoil, shown in the figure, which statement is
correct among the following?


(A) The airfoil will experience zero lift and positive drag force
(B) The airfoil will experience positive lift and zero drag force
(C) The airfoil will experience negative lift and zero drag force
(D) The airfoil will experience positive lift and positive drag force

Aerospace - AE GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by


Q.8 Consider supersonic flow near a corner (at an angle from the horizontal) with an attached oblique
shock (at an angle with horizontal) as shown in figure. If Mach number M decreases gradually
from a high supersonic value, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) will decrease if the shock is a weak shock
(B) will decrease if the shock is a strong shock
(C) will increase for both weak and strong shocks
(D) remains unchanged for both weak and strong shocks

Q.9 The streamlines of a potential line vortex is concentric circles with respect to the vortex center as
shown in figure. Velocity along these streamlines, outside the core of the vortex can be written as,

=

2
, where strength of the vortex is

2
and r is radial direction. The value of circulation
along the curve shown in the figure is:

(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 0

Q.10 To observe unsteady separated flow in a diverging channel, bubbles are injected at each 10ms
interval at point A as shown in figure. These bubblesact as tracer particles and follow the flow
faithfully. The curved line AB shown at any instant represents:


(A) Streamline, streakline and pathline (B) Streamline and pathline
(C) Only a pathline (D) Only a streakline

Q.11 It is desired to measure the Youngs modulus and the Poissons ratio of a given homogeneous,
isotropic material. A bar of length 20cm and square cross-section (10mm 10mm) of this material is
subjected to a tensile load of 40kN. Under this load, length increases to 20.1cm while the cross-
section reduces to 9.98mm 9.98mm. Youngs modulus and Poissons ratio of the material are:
(A) 80GPa& 0.4 respectively (B) 40GPa& -0.4 respectively
(C) 80GPa& -0.2 respectively (D) 40GPa& 0.2 respectively



GATE 2014 Aerospace - AE
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by


Q.12 In general, for any given solid subjected to arbitrary loading, which of the following statements is
always true:
(A) Volume does not vary with loading (B) Mass does not vary with loading
(C) Density does not vary with loading (D) Volume, mass and density vary with loading

Q.13 Which one of the following objects with inclined face at 45

, subjected to the given stresses, are in


static equilibrium:
(A) (B)
(C)






(D)

Q.14 A damped single degree of freedom system whose undamped natural frequency,

=10Hz, is
subjected to sinusoidal external force. Power is half of the maximumfor the two frequencies of
60.9469 rad/s and 64.7168 rad/s. The damping factor associated with the vibrating system (in %) is
_______.

Q.15 The boundary conditions for a rod with circular cross-section, under torsional vibration,are changed
from fixed-free to fixed-fixed. The fundamental natural frequency of the fixed-fixed rod is k times
that of fixed-free rod. The value of k is
(A) 1.5 (B) (C) 2.0 (D) 0.5

Q.16 Match the appropriate engine (in right column) with the corresponding aircraft (in left column) for
most efficient performance of the engine.
a. Low speed transport aircraft i. Ramjet
b. High subsonic civilian aircraft ii. Turboprop
c. Supersonic fighter aircraft iii. Turbojet
d. Hypersonic aircraft iv. Turbofan
(A) a iv, b iii, c i, d ii (B) a ii, b i, c iii, d iv
(C) a i, b ii, c iv, d iii (D) a ii, b iv, c iii, d i

Q.17 For a given fuel flow rate and thermal efficiency, the take-off thrust for a gas turbine engine
burning aviation turbine fuel (considering fuel-air ratiof<<1) is
(A) Directly proportional to exhaust velocity
(B) Inversely proportional to exhaust velocity
(C) Independent of exhaust velocity
(D) Directly proportional to the square of the exhaust velocity

a
GATE 2014 Aerospace - AE
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.18 For a fifty percent reaction axial compressor stage, following statements are given:
I. Velocity triangles at the entry and exit of the rotor are symmetrical
II. The whirl or swirl component of absolute velocity at the entry of rotor and entry of stator are
same.
Which of the following options are correct?
(A) Both I and II are correct statements (B) I is correct but II is incorrect
(C) I is incorrect but II is correct (D) Both I and II are incorrect

Q.19 A small rocket having a specific impulse of 200s produces a total thrust of 98kN, out of which 10kN
is the pressure thrust. Considering the acceleration due to gravity to be 9.8m/s
2
, the propellant mass
flow rate in kg/s is
(A) 55.1 (B) 44.9 (C) 50 (D) 60.2

Q.20 The thrust produced by a turbojet engine
(A) Increases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(B) Decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(C) Remains constant with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(D) First increases and then decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio

Q.21 The moment coefficient measured about the centre of gravity and about aerodynamic centre of a
given wing-body combination are 0.0065 and -0.0235 respectively. The aerodynamic centre lies
0.06 chord lengths ahead of the centre of gravity. The lift coefficient for this wing-body is _____.

Q.22 The vertical ground load factor on a stationary aircraft parked in its hangar is:
(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) Not defined (D) 1

Q.23 Under what conditionshould a glider be operated to ensure minimum sink rate?
(A) Maximum C
L
/C
D
(B) Minimum C
L
/C
D

(C) Maximum C
D
/C
L
3/2
(D) Minimum C
D
/C
L
3/2


Q.24 In most airplanes, the Dutch roll mode can be excited by applying
(A) a step input to the elevators (B) a step input to the rudder
(C) a sinusoidal input to the aileron (D) an impulse input to the elevators

Q.25 Considering R as the radius of the moon, the ratio of the velocities of two spacecraft orbiting moon
in circular orbit at altitudes R and 2R above the surface of the moon is ________.

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26
If | |
(


=
4 3
3 3
A . Then ( ) ] [ 3 ] [ 7 ] [ det
2
I A A + is
(A) 0 (B) -324 (C) 324 (D) 6




GATE 2014 Aerospace - AE
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.27
For the periodic function given by {
0 , 2
0 , 2
) (
< <
< <
=
x
x
x f

with ) ( ) 2 ( x f x f = + , using
Fourier series, the sum + + =
7
1
5
1
3
1
1 s converges to
(A) 1
(B)
3

(C)
4

(D)
5



Q.28
Let be the boundary of the closed circular region Agiven by 1
2 2
+ y x . Then
( )

= ds xy x I
2 3
9 3 (where ds means integration along the bounding curve) is
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0

Q.29 Solution to the boundary-value problem
3 0 , 5 9
2
2
< < = + x x u
dx
u d
with 0 , 0 ) 0 (
3
= =
= x
dx
du
u is
(A) ( ) x e e
e
e
x u
x x
5
1
15
) (
3 / 3 /
2
+
+
=

(B) ( ) x e e
e
e
x u
x x
5
1
15
) (
3 / 3 /
2
+ +
+
=


(C) x
x
x u 5
) 1 cos(
) 3 / sin( 15
) ( + = (D)
3
54
5
) 1 cos(
) 3 / sin( 15
) ( x
x
x u =

Q.30
The Laplace transform L(u(t))=U(s), for the solution u(t) of the problem 0 , 1 2
2
2
> = + + t u
dt
du
dt
u d
with initial conditions
.
5
) 0 (
, 0 ) 0 ( = =
dt
du
u is given by:
(A)
2
) 1 (
6
+ s
(B)
2
) 1 (
1 5
+
+
s s
s
(C)
2
) 1 (
5 1
+

s s
s

(D)
2
2
) 1 (
1 5
+
+
s s
s


Q.31 For a steady, incompressible two-dimensional flow, represented in Cartesian co-ordinates (, ), a
student correctly writes the equation of pathline of any arbitrary particle as,

= and

= ,
wherea and bare constants having unit of (second)
-1
. If value of a is 5, the value of b is _____.
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Q.32 Figures (a) - (d) below show four objects. Dimensions and surface conditions of the objects are
shown in the respective figures. All four objects are placed independently in a steady, uniform flow
of same velocity and the direction of flow is from left to right as shown in (a). The flow field can be
considered as 2-D, viscous and incompressible. Following statements are made regarding the drag
that these objects experience.


(i) Drag of object (a) is more than the drag of object (d)
(ii) Drag of object (a) is less than the drag of object (d)
(iii) Drag of object (b) is more than the drag of object (c)
(iv) Drag of object (c) is more than the drag of object (b)
(v) Drag of object (a) is more than the drag of object (b)
Choose the correct combination of statements from the options given above:
(A) (i), (iii), (v) (B) (ii), (iv), (v) (C) (i), (iv), (v) (D) (i), (iii)

Q.33 A student needs to find velocity across a stationary normal shock. He measures density and
pressure across the shock as shown in the figure below. 1bar = 10
5
Pa. (No shock table is needed
for the calculations). The value of u
1
in m/s is ____.




Q.34 For inviscid, compressible flow past a thin airfoil, shown in the figure, free-stream Mach number
and pressure are denoted by

and

respectively. Ratio of pressure at point A and

is 0.8
and specific heat ratio is 1.4. If the Mach number at point A is 1.0 and rest of the flow field is
subsonic, the value of

is



(A) 2.95 (B) 0.79 (C) 1.18 (D) 0.64


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Q.35 A student can measure free-stream velocity of a low-speed wind tunnel using a
i. Pitot tube alone aligned with the flow direction.
ii. Pitot tube aligned with the flow direction with static pressure measurement at an
appropriate position on the tunnel wall.
iii. Pitot tube aligned with the flow direction along with barometer pressure reading of the
outside ambient.
iv. Pitot static tube alone aligned with the flow direction.
Considering the above statements, which of the following options is correct?
(A) (i) only (B) (i) & (ii) (C) (ii) & (iv) (D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

Q.36 Induced velocity w at a point =
1
along the lifting line can be calculated using the formula
(
1
) =
1
4

1
.
Given

2
+

2
= 1, where,

and sare given in figure below.


For theabove semi-elliptic distribution of circulation, , the downwash velocity at any point
1,
for
symmetric flight can be obtained as, (
1
) =

4
[ +
1
], where =
1

.
Which of the following options is correct if the induced drag is

(given
1

=

2
)


(A)I=0 and

=
8

(B)I= 1 and

=
8


(C)I=0 and

2
8
(D)I= 1 and

2
8


Q.37 Two overflowing water reservoirs are connected with a100m long pipe of circular cross-section (of
radius, R = 0.02m), such that height difference h remains constant as shown in the figure below.
The centerline velocity in the pipe is 10m/s. The velocity profile inside the pipe over the entire
length is =

2
4

2
, where,

is a constant pressure gradient along the pipe length,


x is measured from theleft end of the pipe along its central axis and r is radial location inside the
pipe with respect to its axis.(Given data: Density and kinematic viscosity of water are 1000kg/m
3

and 1x10
-6
m
2
/srespectively; acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s
2
).
If all other losses except the frictional losses at the pipe wall are neglected, the value of h in meter
is ____.


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Q.38 A 1.8m long steel beam of rectangular cross section (10mm 6mm) is simply supported with a
length of 1.2m between the supports and an overhang of 0.3m on either side. Youngs modulus for
the material of the beam is 200GPa. For a 50N load applied at the center of the beam, magnitude of
the slopeof the beam at tip S is _______.



Q.39 There are 2 designs proposed for a shaft of length l, with a torque carrying capacity of T.Design I is
a solid circular cross-section shaft of diameter30mm. Design II is a thin-walled circular shaft of
average diameter 40mm. Thickness of the wall in Design II has to be determined such that
maximum shear stress is the same in both the designs for the given torque T(so that same material
can be used for manufacturing both the shafts). Ratio of mass of shaft using Design Ito the mass of
shaft using Design II is



(A) 2.68 (B) 5.36 (C) 1.79 (D) 3.58

Q.40 A structural member of rectangular cross-section 10mm 6mm and length 1m is made of steel
(Youngs modulus is 200GPa and coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 10
6
/

). It is rigidly
fixed at both the ends and then subjected to a gradual increase in temperature. Ignoring the three
dimensional effects, the structural member will buckle if the temperature is increased by


which is


(A) 19.74 (B) 9.87 (C) 78.96 (D) 39.48

Q.41 A gas cylinder (closed thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel) of diameter 30cm and wall thickness
1mm is subjected to a design maximum internal pressure of 5bar (0.5MPa). The material used for
manufacturing this cylinder has a failure stress of 260MPa. Assuming von Mises failure criterion,
the factor of safety (with respect to maximum allowable stress) for this cylinder is
(A) 2.8 (B) 2.0 (C) 6.9 (D) 4.0

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Q.42 A cantilevered beam is subjected to a parabolic distribution of shear traction at the right edge while
the top and bottom surfaces are traction free. To solve this problem, following Airys stress
function is proposed: =
1
+
2

3
+
3

2
+
4

3
. This is an admissible Airys
function that would satisfy the bi-harmonic equation as well as the boundary conditions if and only
if

(A)
1
= 0,
2
= ,
3
= 0,
4
=

3
2
(B)
1
= ,
2
=

3
2
,
3
= 0,
4
= 0
(C)
1
= 0,
2
= 0,
3
= ,
4
=

3
2
(D)
1
= ,
2
=

3
2
,
3
= 0,
4
= 0

Q.43 1kg mass is hanging from a spring of stiffness 500N/m attached to a massless,symmetric beam of
length 0.6m, moment of inertia about the bending axis = 8.33 10
10

4
and Youngs modulus
E=210GPa as shown in the figure. The fundamental natural frequency (in rad/s) of the system is



(A) 3.24 (B) 20.36 (C) 22.36 (D) 3.56

Q.44 A single degree of freedom system is vibrating with initial (first cycle) amplitude of 5cm. The
viscous damping factor associated with the vibrating system is 2%. Vibration amplitude of the fifth
cycle (in cm) is
(A) 1.65 (B) 4.41 (C) 2.67 (D) 3.02

Q.45 A cruise missile with an ideal ramjet engine is flying at Mach 4.0 at an altitude where the ambient
temperature is 100K. Considerratio of specific heats = 1.4 and specific gas constant R = 287J/kgK.
If the stagnation temperature in the combustion chamber is equal to 2310K, the speed of the exhaust
gases (in m/s) is _____________.

Q.46 A gas turbine engine is operating under the following conditions:

Stagnation temperature at turbine inlet 1350 K
Stagnation pressure at the turbine inlet 10 bar
Static temperature at turbine exit 800 K
Velocity at turbine exit 200 m/s
Total-to-total efficiency of turbine 0.96
(ratio of specific heats) 1.33
C
P
(specific heat at constant pressure)

1.147 kJ/kgK

The stagnation pressure (in bar) in the nozzle (considering isentropic nozzle) is equal to _______.

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Q.47 Air at a stagnation temperature of 300K (ratio of specific heats, = 1.4 and specific gas constant R
= 287 J/kgK) enters the impeller of a centrifugal compressor in axial direction. The stagnation
pressure ratio between the diffuser outlet and impeller inlet is 4.0. The impeller blade radius is 0.3
m and it is rotating at 15000 rev/min. If the slip factor
s
(Ratio of tangential component of air
velocity at the blade tip to the blade tip speed) is 0.88, the overall efficiency (total-to-total) of the
compressor (in %) is ___________.


Q.48 A stationary two stage rocket with initial mass of 16000kg, carrying a payload of 1000kg, is fired in
a vertical trajectory from the surface of the earth. Both the stages of the rocket have same specific
impulse, I
sp
, of 300s and same structural coefficient of 0.14. The acceleration due to gravity is
9.8m/s
2
. Neglecting drag and gravity effects and considering both the stages with same payload
ratio, the terminal velocity attained by the payload in m/s is __________________.

Q.49 An aircraft is flying at Mach 3.0 at an altitude where the ambient pressure and temperature are 50
kPa and 200 K respectively. If the converging-diverging diffuser of the engine (considered
isentropic with ratio of specific heats, = 1.4 and specific gas constant R = 287 J/kgK) has a throat
area of 0.05 m
2
, the mass flow rate through the engine in kg/s is
(A) 197 (B) 232 (C) 790 (D) 157

Q.50 A cryogenic rocket has a specific impulse of 455s and characteristic velocity of 2386 m/s. The
value of thrust coefficient for this rocket is
(A) 1.78 (B) 1.73 (C) 1.87 (D) 1.95

Q.51 For a given airplane with a given wing loading executing a turn in the vertical plane, under what
conditions will the turn radius be minimum and the turn rate be maximum?
(A) Highest possible C
L
and lowest possible load factor
(B) Lowest possible C
L
and lowest possible load factor
(C) Lowest possible C
L
and highest possible load factor
(D) Highest possible C
L
and highest possible load factor

Q.52 Lift-off distance for a given aircraft of weight W is S
LO
. If the take-off weight is reduced by 10%,
then the magnitude of percentage change in the lift-off distance (assume all other parameters to
remain constant) is _______.
Q.53 Which of the following design parameters influence the maximum rate-of-climb for a jet-propelled
airplane?

P. Wing loading
Q. Maximum thrust-to-weight ratio
R. Zero-lift drag coefficient
S. Maximum lift-to-drag ratio
(A) P and Q alone (B) P, Q, R and S (C) P, Q and S alone (D) Q, R, and S alone


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Q.54 Consider the following four statements regarding aircraft longitudinal stability:

P. C
M,cg
at zero lift must be positive
Q. C
M,cg
/
a
must be negative (
a
is absolute angle of attack)
R. C
M,cg
at zero lift must be negative
S. Slope of C
L
versus
a
must be negative

Which of the following combination is the necessary criterion for stick fixed longitudinal balance
and static stability?
(A) Q and R only (B) Q, R, and S only (C) P and Q only (D) Q and S only

Q.55 Data for a light, single-engine, propeller driven aircraft in steady level flight at sea-level is as
follows: velocity V

= 40m/s, weight W = 13000N, lift coefficient C


L
= 0.65, drag coefficient C
D
=
0.025 + 0.04C
L
2
and power available P
av
= 100,000J/s. The rate of climb possible for this aircraft
under the given conditions (in m/s) is
(A) 7.20 (B) 5.11 (C) 6.32 (D) 4.23


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE 2014 Aerospace - AE
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GATE 2014 - Answer Keys
General Aptitude GA
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 5 1300 to 1300 9 D
2 B 6 D 10 B
3 D 7 B
4 C 8 180 to 180
Aerospace Engineering AE
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 20 D 39 A
2 B 21 0.45 to 0.55 40 B
3 C 22 D 41 D
4 A 23 D 42 D
5 D 24 B 43 B
6 A 25 1.2 to 1.25 44 D
7 D 26 A 45 1880 to 1881
8 B 27 C 46 1.10 to 1.25
9 D 28 D 47 74 to 76
10 D 29 A 48 6050 to 6250
11 A 30 B 49 D
12 B 31 -5.01 to -4.99 50 C
` B 32 C 51 D
14 2.95 to 3.05 33 1705 to 1720 52 18 to 20
15 C 34 B 53 B
16 D 35 C 54 C
17 B 36 C 55 B
18 B 37 0.99 to 1.01
19 C 38 0.12 to 0.13
Paper specific instructions:


1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.



GATE 2013 Aerospace - AE

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100
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GATE 2013 Solved Paper
Aerospace Engineering - AE
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1
The directional derivative of the function
2 2
( , )
5
x xy
f x y
+
= in the direction

2 4 i j a =

at
( , ) (1,1) x y =

is

(A)
1
5
(B)
2
5

(C) 0
(D)
1
5




Q.2
The value of
5
2
4
2
4 21
x
dx
x x
+
+
}
is
(A) ln 24 11 (B) ln 12 11 (C) ln 2 (D) ( ) ln 12 11


Q.3
At 0 x = , the function y x =

is
(A) continuous but not differentiable
(B) continuous and differentiable
(C) not continuous but differentiable
(D) not continuous and not differentiable


Q.4 One of the eigenvectors of the matrix

1 1 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
A
| |
|
=
|
|

\
is
1
1
1
v
(
(
=
(
(

.

The corresponding eigenvalue is ____________




Q.5 Which one of the following is the most stable configuration of an airplane in roll?
(A) Sweep back, anhedral and low wing
(B) Sweep forward, dihedral and low wing
(C) Sweep forward, anhedral and high wing
(D) Sweep back, dihedral and high wing





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Q.6 Which one of the following flight instruments is used on an aircraft to determine its attitude in
flight?

(A) Vertical speed indicator
(B) Altimeter
(C) Artificial Horizon
(D) Turn-bank indicator



Q.7 A supersonic airplane is expected to fly at both subsonic and supersonic speeds during its whole
flight course. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Airplane will experience less stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
(B) Airplane will feel no change in pitch stability
(C) Airplane will experience more stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
(D) Pitch stability cannot be inferred from the information given


Q.8 Which one of the following is favorable for an airplane operation?
(A) Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing
(B) Tail wind both in cruise and landing
(C) Head wind both in cruise and landing
(D) Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing


Q.9 Which one of the following is TRUE with respect to Phugoid mode of an aircraft?
(A) Frequency is directly proportional to flight speed
(B) Frequency is inversely proportional to flight speed
(C) Frequency is directly proportional to the square root of flight speed
(D) Frequency is inversely proportional to the square root of flight speed


Q.10 The x and y velocity components of a two dimensional flow field are,
2 2 2 2
,
y x
cx
v
y x
cy
u
+
=
+
= , where c is a constant. The streamlines are a family of

(A) hyperbolas (B) parabolas (C) ellipses (D) circles







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Q.11 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a supersonic flow?

(A) Over a gradual expansion, entropy remains constant
(B) Over a sharp expansion corner, entropy can increase
(C) Over a gradual compression, entropy can remain constant
(D) Over a sharp compression corner, entropy increases


Q.12 Consider a compressible flow where an elemental volume of the fluid is o0 , moving with velocity
V

. Which one of the following expressions is TRUE?



(A)
1 D
V
Dt
o0
o0
V =


(B)
1
( )
D
V
Dt
o0
o0
V V =


(C)
1 DV D
Dt Dt
o0
o0
V =


(D)
1
( )
D
V V
Dt
o0
o0
V =




Q.13 Consider a thin flat plate airfoil at a small angle o to an oncoming supersonic stream of air.
Assuming the flow to be inviscid,
2
d
l
C
C
is
(A) zero
(B) independent of o
(C) proportional to o
(D) proportional to
2
o


Q.14 The critical Mach number for a flat plate of zero thickness, at zero angle of attack, is _________




Q.15 A damped single degree-of-freedom system is vibrating under a harmonic excitation with an
amplitude ratio of 2.5 at resonance. The damping ratio of the system is ______________



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Q.16 The cross-section of a long thin-walled member is as shown in the figure. When subjected to pure
twist, point A








(A) does not move horizontally or axially, but moves vertically
(B) does not move axially, but moves both vertically and horizontally
(C) does not move horizontally, vertically or axially
(D) does not move vertically or axially, but moves horizontally

Q.17 The channel section of uniform thickness 2mm shown in the figure is subjected to a torque of
10 Nm. If it is made of a material with shear modulus of 25 GPa, the twist per unit length in
radians/m is _________







300mm
600mm
300mm
A
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Q.18 The stiffened cross-section of a long slender uniform structural member is idealized as shown in the
figure below. The lumped areas at A, B, C and D have equal cross-sectional area of 3 cm
2
. The
webs AB, BC, CD and DA are each 5 mm thick. The structural member is subjected to a twisting
moment of 10 kNm. The magnitudes of the shear flow in the webs, q
AB
, q
BC
, q
CD
, and q
DA
in kN/m
are, respectively




(A) 20, 20, 20, 20
(B) 0, 0, 50, 50
(C) 40, 40, 0, 0
(D) 50, 50, 50, 50


Q.19 Consider two engines P and Q. In P, the high pressure turbine blades are cooled with a bleed of 5%
from the compressor after the compression process and in Q the turbine blades are not cooled.
Comparing engine P with engine Q, which one of the following is NOT TRUE?

(A) Turbine inlet temperature is higher for engine P
(B) Specific thrust is higher for engine P
(C) Compressor work is the same for both P and Q
(D) Fuel flow rate is lower for engine P

Q.20 The mass flow rate of air through an aircraft engine is 10 kg/s. The compressor outlet temperature
is 400 K and the turbine inlet temperature is 1800 K. The heating value of the fuel is 42 MJ/kg and
the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. The mass flow rate of the fuel in kg/s is
approximately ___________



Q.21 For a given inlet condition, if the turbine inlet temperature is fixed, what value of compressor
efficiency given below leads to the lowest amount of fuel added in the combustor of a gas turbine
engine?

(A) 1 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.85 (D) 0.8



A
B
C
D
200mm
500mm
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Q.22 A gas turbine engine is mounted on an aircraft which can attain a maximum altitude of 11 km from
sea level. The combustor volume of this engine is decided based on conditions at

(A) sea level (B) 8 km altitude (C) 5.5 km altitude (D) 11 km altitude



Q.23 Consider the low earth orbit (LEO) and the geo synchronous orbit (GSO). Then
(A) V A requirement for launch to LEO is greater than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
lower than that of GSO
(B) V A requirement for launch to LEO is lower than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
lower than that of GSO
(C) V A requirement for launch to LEO is greater than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
greater than that of GSO
(D) V A requirement for launch to LEO is lower than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
greater than that of GSO

Q.24 Which one of the following shows the CORRECT variation of stagnation temperature along the
axis of an ideal ram jet engine?


(A)

(B)

(C) (D)



Q.25 A rocket motor has a chamber pressure of 100 bar and chamber temperature of 3000 K. The
ambient pressure is 1 bar. Assume that the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. Also
assume that the flow in the nozzle is isentropic and optimally expanded. The exit static temperature
in K is

(A) 805 (B) 845 (C) 905 (D) 945

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Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26
Let
2 2 2

( ) ( )
S
I y zi z xj x yk xi yj zk dS = + + + +
}}
, where S denotes the surface of the sphere of unit
radius centered at the origin. Here

, and i j k denote three orthogonal unit vectors. The value of I is
____________



Q.27
Given that the Laplace transform, L
1
( )
at
e
s a
=

then L
( )
5
3 sinh5
t
e t =
(A)
2
3
10
s
s s
(B)
2
15
10 s s
(C)
2
3
10
s
s s +
(D)
2
15
10 s s +



Q.28 Values of a, b and c, which render the matrix

1 1
3 2
1
0
3
1 1
3 2
a
Q b
c
(
(
(
(
=
(
(
(

(



orthonormal are, respectively
(A)
1 1
, , 0
2 2

(B)
1 2 1
, - ,
6 6 6

(C)
1 1 1
, ,
3 3 3

(D)
1 2 1
, , -
6 6 6



Q.29
A function y(t) satisfies the differential equation
2
2
2 0
d y dy
y
dt dt
+ = and is subject to the initial
conditions ( 0) 0 y t = = and ( 0) 1
dy
t
dt
= = . The value of ( 1) y t = is

(A) e (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) -1


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Q.30 A glider is launched from a 500m high hilltop. Following data is available for the glider: Zero lift
drag coefficient
0
0.02
D
C = , aspect ratio 10 AR = and Oswald efficiency factor e = 0.95. The
maximum range of the glider in km is _________


Q.31 Which one of the following criteria leads to maximum turn rate and minimum radius in a level turn
flight?
(A) Highest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
(B) Lowest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(C) Highest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(D) Lowest possible load factor and highest possible velocity

Q.32
Consider an airplane with rectangular straight wing at dihedral angle
0
10 I = . Lift curve slope of
wing airfoil section (constant over the whole span of the wing) is 5.4/ .
l
c rad
o
= The roll stability
derivative,
l
C
|
in per radian is __________


Q.33 Consider one-dimensional isentropic flow at a Mach number of 0.5. If the area of cross-section of a
streamtube increases by 3% somewhere along the flow, the corresponding percentage change in
density is ________


Q.34 The potential flow model for a storm is represented by the superposition of a sink and a vortex. The
stream function can be written in the ( u , r ) system as ln
2 2
r u
t t
A I
= + , where
2
100 m /s A = I = . Assume a constant air density of 1.2 kg/m
3
. The gauge pressure at a distance of
100 m from the storm eye is

(A)
(B)
2
1.2
t
(C)
2
1.2
2t
(D)
2
1.2
4t


Q.35 Three identical eagles of wing span s are flying side by side in a straight line with no gap between
their wing tips. Assume a single horse shoe vortex model (of equal strength ) for each bird. The
net downwash experienced by the middle bird is
(A)
s t
I
(B)
2 s t
I
(C)
3 s t
I
(D)
4
3 s t
I



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Q.36 Streamline pattern of flow past a cylinder is shown in the figure below. The oncoming flow is
steady, irrotational and incompressible. The flow is from left to right. Bernoullis equation
CANNOT be applied between the points


(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 5 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 5 and 6



Q.37 Consider a supersonic stream at a Mach number M=2, undergoing a gradual expansion. The stream
is turned by an angle of 3

degrees due to the expansion. The following data is given.

M v (Prandtl-Meyer function)
1.8 20.73
1.9 23.59
2.0 26.38
2.1 29.10
2.2 31.73
2.3 34.28
2.4 36.75

The Mach number downstream of the expansion is
(A) 1.88 (B) 2.00 (C) 2.11 (D) 2.33


1
2
3
4
5
6
GATE 2013 Aerospace - AE
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Q.38 The idealized cross-section of a beam is comprised of four identical booms connected by shear
webs. The beam is subjected to a bending moment H as shown in the figure. The inclination of the
neutral axis to the x-axis in degrees is




(A) 45 CW (B) 45 CCW (C) 26.6 CW (D) 63.4 CCW


Q.39 A composite circular shaft is comprised of a steel core surrounded by an aluminum annulus,
perfectly bonded to each other as shown in the figure. If it subjected to a pure torque, which one of
the following statements is TRUE?



(A) Only shear stress is continuous across the steelaluminum interface
(B) Only shear strain is continuous across the steelaluminum interface
(C) Both shear stress and shear strain are continuous across the steelaluminum interface
(D) Both shear stress and shear strain are discontinuous across the steelaluminum interface

Q.40 A horizontal rectangular plate ABCD is hinged at points A, B and C. AC and BD are diagonals of
the plate. Downward force P is applied at D. The upward reactions R
A
, R
B
, and R
C
at points A, B
and C, respectively, are
(A) indeterminate
(B) P, -P, P
(C) 0, P, 0
(D) P/3, P/3, P/3

2a
M
a a
x
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Q.41 In the steel structure (Youngs modulus = 200 GPa) shown in the figure, all members have a
circular cross-section of radius 10 mm. Column BD is pinned at B and D. The support at A is
hinged. The minimum value of load P at which the column BD may buckle in Newtons is
approximately ____________


Q.42 The thin rectangular plate has dimensions Lbt. It develops a stress field corresponding to an
applied bending moment M as shown in the figure. A valid Airys stress function is



(A)
3
3
2M
x
tb
(B)
3
3
2M
y
tb
(C)
( )
3 3
3
2M
x y
tb
+ (D)
4
3
2M
y
tb



Q.43 A cantilever beam of negligible mass is 0.6 m long. It has a rectangular cross-section of width
8 mm and thickness 6 mm and carries a tip mass of 1.4 kg. If the natural frequency of this system
is 10 rad/s, Youngs modulus of the material of the beam in GPa is ________




x
M
M
L
b
2m
D
1m
1m
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Q.44 A simply supported beam with overhang is loaded by uniformly distributed load of intensity q as
shown in the figure. The bending moment at the mid-point of AB is


(A)
2
sagging
16
qL
(B)
2
hogging
16
qL
(C)
2
3
hogging
16
qL
(D)
2
3
sagging
16
qL


Q.45 Thrust of liquid oxygen - liquid hydrogen rocket engine is 300 kN. The O/F ratio used is 5. If the
fuel mass flow rate is 12.5 kg/s, the specific impulse of the rocket motor in Ns/kg is
(A) 3800 (B) 4000 (C) 4200 (D) 4400


Q.46 In a 50 % reaction axial compressor stage, the local blade velocity is 300 m/s and the axial
component of velocity is 100 m/s. If the absolute inlet flow angle
1
= 45
o
, the work per unit mass
done on the fluid by the stage in kJ/kg is
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60

Q.47 Consider two rockets P and Q fired vertically up with identical specific impulse and a payload of
2 kg. Rocket P has 2 identical stages, and each stage has 200 kg of propellant and 20 kg of
structural weight. Rocket Q has a single stage with 400 kg of propellant and 40 kg of structural
weight. Neglecting drag and gravity effects, the ratio of the change in velocity of P to that attained
by Q is
(A) 1.13 (B) 1.23 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.43
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: Data for an airplane are given as follows: weight 30 W kN = ,
thrust available at sea-level
0
4000 T N = , wing planform area
2
30 S m = , maximum lift coefficient
max
1.4
L
C = , and drag coefficient
2
0.015 0.024 .
D L
C C = + Assume air density at sea-level
3
1.22 / kg m

= .

Q.48 Stall speed of the airplane in m/s is

(A) 17.36 (B) 34.22 (C) 45.52 (D) 119.46


Q.49 Minimum and maximum speeds of the airplane in level flight condition at sea-level in m/s are
respectively

(A) 17.36 and 180 (B) 17.36 and 34.22
(C) 34.22 and 119.46 (D) 17.36 and 119.46

L L/2
A B q
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Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: An aircraft is flying at Mach number M = 1.5, where the
ambient temperature is 250 K. The stagnation temperature of gases at the entry to the nozzle is 800 K. The
nozzle is choked and always under expanded. Assume the molecular weight of the exhaust gases to be 29,
the ratio of specific heats to be 1.4 and the universal gas constant is 8314 J/kmol-K.

Q.50 For which one of the nozzle exit Mach numbers given below is the propulsive efficiency highest?

(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5

Q.51 For which one of the nozzle exit Mach numbers given below is the thrust highest?
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5



Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: Circulation theory of lift is assumed for a thin
symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack . Free stream velocity is U.

Q.52 If the circulation at the quarter chord (c/4) of the airfoil is
1
I , the normal velocity is zero at

(A) c/4 (B) c/2 (C) 3c/4 (D) all points on the chord







Q.53 A second identical airfoil is placed behind the first one at a distance of c/2 from the trailing edge of
the first. The second airfoil has an unknown circulation
2
I

placed at its quarter chord. The normal
velocity becomes zero at the same chord-wise locations of the respective airfoils as in the previous
question. The values of
1
I and
2
I are respectively
(A)

4 2
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o (B)

2 2
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o
(C)

2 1
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o (D)

4 4
,
3 3
cU cU t o t o

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Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: A wing-body alone configuration airplane with a
wing loading of
2
1000 /
W
N m
S
= is flying in cruise condition at a speed V = 90m/s at sea-level (air density
at sea-level
3
1.22 / kg m

= ). The zero lift pitching moment coefficient of the airplane is


0
0.06
wb
mac m
C C = = and the location of airplane aerodynamic center from the wing leading edge is
0.25 .
ac
X c = Here c is the chord length.

Q.54
The airplane trim lift coefficient
L trim
C is


(A) 0.502 (B) 0.402 (C) 0.302 (D) 0.202

Q.55
Distance of center of gravity of the aircraft (
CG
X ) from the wing leading edge is
(A) 0.447c (B) 0.547c (C) 0.547c (D) 0.25c


General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 If S X S and 8 11 then which of the following options is TRUE?
(A)
3
5

X


8
5


(B)
3
11

X


5
8


(C)
3
11

X


8
5


(D)
3
5

X


8
11


Q.57 The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you.

Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?
(A) is wanting

(B) wants

(C) want

(D) was wanting

Q.58 Mahatama Gandhi was known for his humility as
(A) he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India.

(B) he worked for humanitarian causes.

(C) he displayed modesty in his interactions.

(D) he was a fine human being.

GATE 2013 Aerospace - AE
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Q.59 All engineering students should learn mechanics, mathematics and how to do computation.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
water: pipe::
(A) cart: road (B) electricity: wire
(C) sea: beach (D) music: instrument

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Q.61 Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by I = 8u - S2 t, where t (time)
is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec?
(A) (1, 3/2) (B) (1/2, 1)

(C) (1/2, 3/2) (D) (1, 3)

Q.62 In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents
respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a
randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability
that it was manufactured by M2?
(A) 0.35 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4

Q.63 Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011.

Country Number of
Tourists
USA 2000
England 3500
Germany 1200
Italy 1100
Japan 2400
Australia 2300
France 1000

Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in
2011?
(A) USA and Japan

(B) USA and Australia

(C) England and France

(D) Japan and Australia


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Q.64 If |-2X + 9| = S then the possible value of |-X| - X
2
would be:
(A) 30 (B) -30 (C) -42 (D) 42


Q.65 All professors are researchers
Some scientists are professors

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments:
(A) All scientists are researchers

(B) All professors are scientists

(C) Some researchers are scientists

(D) No conclusion follows



END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE 2013 Aerospace - AE
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GATE 2013 - Answer Keys
Aerospace Engineering AE
Q. No Key/Range Q. No Key/Range Q. No Key/Range
1 D 23 B 45 B
2 A 24 B 46 A
3 A 25 A 47 B
4 0 26 0 48 B
5 D 27 B 49 C
6 C 28 D 50 A
7 C 29 A 51 D
8 A 30 9 to 10 52 Marks to All
9 B 31 C 53 Marks to All
10 A 32 -0.23 to -0.24 54 D
11 B 33 1 55 C
12 A 34 D 56 B
13 B 35 C 57 C
14 1 36 C 58 C
15 0.2 37 C 59 D
16 Marks to All 38 A 60 B
17 0.12 to 0.13 39 B 61 C
18 D 40 B 62 C
19 D 41 1900 to 2000 63 C
20 0.3 to 0.35 42 B 64 B
21 D 43 70 65 C
22 D 44 A
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
_________________________________________________________

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.

2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the
examination.

3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button
next to the selected option.


4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 Q.30, all the other
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

6. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

7. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 Q.30. For all 1
mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark
will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair,
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for
wrong answer to the second question.

9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.
________________________________________________________________________________________

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.
Registration Number
AE



Name
Signature

Verified that the above entries are correct.
Invigilators signature:

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2012 Solved Paper
Aerospace Engineering - AE

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 The constraint A
2
= A on any square matrix A is satisfied for
(A) the identity matrix only. (B) the null matrix only.
(C) both the identity matrix and the null matrix. (D) no square matrix A.

Q.2
The general solution of the differential equation
2
2
2 0
d y dy
y
dt dt
+ = is
(A)
2 t t
Ae Be

+ (B)
2t t
Ae Be

+ (C)
2t t
Ae Be

+ (D)
2 t t
Ae Be +

Q.3 An aircraft in trimmed condition has zero pitching moment at
(A) its aerodynamic centre. (B) its centre of gravity.
(C) 25% of its mean aerodynamic chord. (D) 50% of its wing root chord.

Q.4 In an aircraft, constant roll rate can be produced using ailerons by applying
(A) a step input. (B) a ramp input.
(C) a sinusoidal input. (D) an impulse input.

Q.5 For a symmetric airfoil, the lift coefficient for zero degree angle of attack is
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

Q.6 The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when
(A) the freestream Mach number is sonic.
(B) the freestream Mach number is supersonic.
(C) the Mach number somewhere on the airfoil is unity.
(D) the Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic.

Q.7 The shadowgraph flow visualization technique depends on
(A) the variation of the value of density in the flow.
(B) the first derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(C) the second derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(D) the third derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.

Q.8 The Hohmann ellipse used as earth-Mars transfer orbit has
(A) apogee at earth and perigee at Mars. (B) both apogee and perigee at earth.
(C) apogee at Mars and perigee at earth. (D) both apogee and perigee at Mars.

Q.9 The governing equation for the static transverse deflection of a beam under an uniformly distributed
load, according to Euler-Bernoulli (engineering) beam theory, is a
(A) 2
nd
order linear homogenous partial differential equation.
(B) 4
th
order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(C) 2
nd
order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(D) 4
th
order nonlinear homogenous ordinary differential equation.

Q.10 The Poissons ratio, of most aircraft grade metallic alloys has values in the range:
(A) 1 0 (B) 0 0.2 (C) 0.2 0.4 (D) 0.4 0.5

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Q.11 The value of k for which the system of equations 2 1; 2 8 3 x y kz x ky z + + = + + = has no
solution is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.12
If ( ) u t is a unit step function, the solution of the differential equation
2
2
( )
d x
m kx u t
dt
+ = in
Laplace domain is
(A)
2
1
( ) s ms k +
(B)
2
1
ms k +
(C)
2
s
ms k +
(D)
2 2
1
( ) s ms k +


Q.13
The general solution of the differential equation 2 0
dy
y
dx
= is
(A) 0 y x C + =
(B) 0 y x C + = (C) 0 y x C + = (D) 0 y x C + =

Q.14 During the ground roll manoeuvre of an aircraft, the force(s) acting on it parallel to the direction of
motion
(A) is thrust alone. (B) is drag alone.
(C) are both thrust and drag. (D) are thrust, drag and a part of both weight and lift.

Q.15 An aircraft in a steady climb suddenly experiences a 10% drop in thrust. After a new equilibrium is
reached at the same speed, the new rate of climb is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.16 In an aircraft, the dive manoeuvre can be initiated by
(A) reducing the engine thrust alone. (B) reducing the angle of attack alone.
(C) generating a nose down pitch rate. (D) increasing the engine thrust alone.

Q.17 In an aircraft, elevator control effectiveness determines
(A) turn radius.
(B) rate of climb.
(C) forward-most location of the centre of gravity.
(D) aft-most location of the centre of gravity.

Q.18 The Mach angle for a flow at Mach 2.0 is
(A) 30
o
(B) 45
o
(C) 60
o
(D) 90
o


Q.19 For a wing of aspect ratio AR, having an elliptical lift distribution, the induced drag coefficient is
(where C
L
is the lift coefficient)
(A)
L
C
AR

(B)
2
L
C
AR

(C)
2
L
C
AR

(D)
2
2
L
C
AR


Q.20 Bernoullis equation is valid under steady state
(A) only along a streamline in inviscid flow, and between any two points in potential flow.
(B) between any two points in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
(C) between any two points in inviscid flow, and only along a streamline in potential flow.
(D) only along a streamline in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
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Q.21 The ratio of flight speed to the exhaust velocity for maximum propulsion efficiency is
(A) 0.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

Q.22 The ideal static pressure coefficient of a diffuser with an area ratio of 2.0 is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0

Q.23 A rocket is to be launched from the bottom of a very deep crater on Mars for earth return. The
specific impulse of the rocket, measured in seconds, is to be normalized by the acceleration due to
gravity at
(A) the bottom of the crater on Mars. (B) Mars standard sea level.
(C) earths standard sea level. (D) the same depth of the crater on earth.

Q.24 In a semi-monocoque construction of an aircraft wing, the skin and spar webs are the primary
carriers of
(A) shear stresses due to an aerodynamic moment component alone.
(B) normal (bending) stresses due to aerodynamic forces.
(C) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces alone.
(D) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces and a moment component.

Q.25 The logarithmic decrement measured for a viscously damped single degree of freedom system is
0.125. The value of the damping factor in % is closest to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Q.26
The integration
1
3
0
x dx

computed using trapezoidal rule with 4 n = intervals is ____.



Q.27 An aircraft has a steady rate of climb of 300 m/s at sea level and 150 m/s at 2500 m altitude. The
time taken (in sec) for this aircraft to climb from 500 m altitude to 3000 m altitude is ____.

Q.28 An airfoil generates a lift of 80 N when operating in a freestream flow of 60 m/s. If the ambient
pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 290 K respectively (specific gas constant is 287 J/kg-K),
the circulation on the airfoil in m
2
/s is ____.

Q.29 A rocket motor has combustion chamber temperature of 2600 K and the products have molecular
weight of 25 g/mol and ratio of specific heats 1.2. The universal gas constant is 8314 J/kg-mole-K.
The value of theoretical c* (in m/s) is ____.

Q.30
The mode shapes of an un-damped two degrees of freedom system are { } 1 0.5
T
and
{ } 1 0.675
T
. The corresponding natural frequencies are 0.45 Hz and 1.2471 Hz. The maximum
amplitude (in mm) of vibration of the first degree of freedom due to an initial displacement of
{ } 2 1
T
(in mm) and zero initial velocities is ____.
GATE 2012 Aerospace - AE
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Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Q.31 The n
th
derivative of the function
1
3
y
x
=
+
is
(A)
1
( 1) !
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+

+
(B)
1
1
( 1) !
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+
+

+
(C)
( 1) ( 1)!
( 3)
n
n
n
x
+
+
(D)
( 1) !
( 3)
n
n
n
x

+


Q.32 The volume of a solid generated by rotating the region between semi-circle
2
1 1 y x = and
straight line y = 1, about x axis, is
(A)
2
4
3
(B)
2
1
4
3
(C)
2
3
4
(D)
2
3
4


Q.33
One eigenvalue of the matrix
2 7 10
5 2 25
1 6 5
A


=



is 9.33. One of the other eigenvalues is
(A) 18.33 (B) 18.33 (C) 18.339.33i (D) 18.33+9.33i

Q.34 If an aircraft takes off with 10% less fuel in comparison to its standard configuration, its range is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.35 An aircraft has an approach speed of 144 kmph with a descent angle of 6.6
o
. If the aircraft load
factor is 1.2 and constant deceleration at touch down is 0.25g (g = 9.81 m/s
2
), its total landing
distance approximately over a 15 m high obstacle is
(A) 1830 m. (B) 1380 m. (C) 830 m. (D) 380 m.

Q.36 An aircraft is trimmed straight and level at true air speed (TAS) of 100 m/s at standard sea level
(SSL). Further, pull of 5 N holds the speed at 90 m/s without re-trimming at SSL (air density = 1.22
kg/m
3
). To fly at 3000 m altitude (air density = 0.91 kg/m
3
) and 120 m/s TAS without re-trimming,
the aircraft needs
(A) 1.95 N upward force. (B) 1.95 N downward force.
(C) 1.85 N upward force. (D) 1.75 N downward force.

Q.37 An oblique shock wave with a wave angle is generated from a wedge angle of . The ratio of the
Mach number downstream of the shock to its normal component is
(A) sin() (B) cos() (C) sin() (D) cos()

Q.38 In a closed-circuit supersonic wind tunnel, the convergent-divergent (C-D) nozzle and test section
are followed by a C-D diffuser to swallow the starting shock. Here, we should have the
(A) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser throat.
(B) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the diffuser
throat.
(C) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser
throat.
(D) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the
diffuser throat.
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Q.39 A vortex flowmeter works on the principle that the Strouhal number of 0.2 is a constant over a wide
range of flow rates. If the bluff-body diameter in the flowmeter is 20 mm and the piezo-electric
transducer registers the vortex shedding frequency to be 10 Hz, then the velocity of the flow would
be measured as
(A) 0.1 m/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 100 m/s

Q.40 The stagnation temperatures at the inlet and exit of a combustion chamber are 600 K and 1200 K,
respectively. If the heating value of the fuel is 44 MJ/kg and specific heat at constant pressure for
air and hot gases are 1.005 kJ/kg.K and 1.147 kJ/kg.K respectively, the fuel-to-air ratio is
(A) 0.0018 (B) 0.018 (C) 0.18 (D) 1.18

Q.41 A solid propellant of density 1800 kg/m
3
has a burning rate law r = 6.65 x 10
-3
p
0.45
mm/s, where p
is pressure in Pascals. It is used in a rocket motor with a tubular grain with an initial burning area
of 0.314 m
2
. The characteristic velocity is 1450 m/s. What should be the nozzle throat diameter to
achieve an equilibrium chamber pressure of 50 bar at the end of the ignition transient?
(A) 35 mm (B) 38 mm (C) 41 mm (D) 45 mm

Q.42 A bipropellant liquid rocket motor operates at a chamber pressure of 40 bar with a nozzle throat
diameter of 50 mm. The characteristic velocity is 1540 m/s. If the fuel-oxidizer ratio of the
propellant is 1.8, and the fuel density is 900 kg/m
3
, what should be the minimum fuel tank volume
for a burn time of 8 minutes
(A) 1.65 m
3
(B) 1.75 m
3
(C) 1.85 m
3
(D) 1.95 m
3


Q.43 The propellant in a single stage sounding rocket occupies 60% of its initial mass. If all of it is
expended instantaneously at an equivalent exhaust velocity of 3000 m/s, what would be the altitude
attained by the payload when launched vertically?
[Neglect drag and assume acceleration due to gravity to be constant at 9.81 m/s
2
.]
(A) 315 km (B) 335 km (C) 365 km (D) 385 km

Q.44
The Airy stress function,
2 2
x xy y = + +

for a thin square panel of size l l automatically
satisfies compatibility. If the panel is subjected to uniform tensile stress,
o


on all four edges, the
traction boundary conditions are satisfied by
(A) / 2; 0; / 2.
o o
= = = (B) ; 0; .
o o
= = =
(C) 0; / 4; 0.
o
= = = (D) 0; / 2; 0.
o
= = =

Q.45 The boundary condition of a rod under longitudinal vibration is changed from fixed-fixed to fixed-
free. The fundamental natural frequency of the rod is now k times the original frequency, where k is
(A)
1
2
(B) 2
(C)
1
2

(D) 2

Q.46 A spring-mass system is viscously damped with a viscous damping constant c. The energy
dissipated per cycle when the system is undergoing a harmonic vibration X
d
Cos t is given by
(A)
2
d
c X (B)
2
d
X (C)
d
c X (D)
2
d
c X

Q.47 Buckling of the fuselage skin can be delayed by
(A) increasing internal pressure.
(B) placing stiffeners farther apart.
(C) reducing skin thickness.
(D) placing stiffeners farther and decreasing internal pressure.
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Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A wing and tail are geometrically similar, while tail area is one-third of the wing area and distance between
two aerodynamic centres is equal to wing semi-span (b/2). In addition, following data is applicable:
0.3, 1.0, 0.08/ deg., 2.5 , 30 , 0, 1.
ac
L L M t
C C c m b m C

= = = = = = = The symbols have their usual


aerodynamic interpretation.
Q.48 The maximum distance that the centre of gravity can be behind aerodynamic centre without
destabilizing the wing-tail combination is

(A) 0.4 m (B) 1.4 m (C) 2.4 m (D) 3.4 m

Q.49 The angle of incidence of tail to trim the wing-tail combination for a 5% static margin is
(A) 1.4
o
(B) 0.4
o
(C) 0.4
o
(D) 1.4
o


Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
A thin long circular pipe of 10 mm diameter has porous walls and spins at 60 rpm about its own axis. Fluid
is pumped out of the pipe such that it emerges radially relative to the pipe surface at a velocity of 1 m/s.
[Neglect the effect of gravity.]
Q.50 What is the radial component of the fluids velocity at a radial location 0.5 m from the pipe axis?

(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.1 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 10 m/s

Q.51 What is the tangential component of the fluids velocity at the same radial location as above?
(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.03 m/s (C) 0.10 m/s (D) 0.31 m/s
Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
Air at a stagnation temperature of 15
o
C and stagnation pressure 100 kPa enters an axial compressor with an
absolute velocity of 120 m/s. Inlet guide vanes direct this absolute velocity to the rotor inlet at an angle of
18
o
to the axial direction. The rotor turning angle is 27
o
and the mean blade speed is 200 m/s. The axial
velocity is assumed constant through the stage.
Q.52 The blade angle at the inlet of the rotor is

(A) 25.5
o
(B) 38.5
o
(C) 48.5
o
(D) 59.5
o


Q.53 If the mass flow rate is 1 kg/s, the power required to drive the compressor is
(A) 50.5 kW (B) 40.5 kW (C) 30.5 kW (D) 20.5 kW

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:
A thin-walled spherical vessel (1 m inner diameter and 10 mm wall thickness) is made of a material with
500MPa
Y
= in both tension and compression.
Q.54
The internal pressure
Y
p at yield, based on the von Mises yield criterion, if the vessel is floating in
space, is approximately

(A) 500MPa (B) 250MPa (C) 100MPa (D) 20MPa

Q.55 If the vessel is evacuated (internal pressure = 0) and subjected to external pressure, yielding
according to the von Mises yield criterion (assuming elastic stability until yield)
(A) occurs at about half the pressure
Y
p . (B) occurs at about double the pressure
Y
p .
(C) occurs at about the same pressure
Y
p .
(D) never occurs.
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General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

I ___ to have bought a diamond ring.
(A) have a liking (B) should have liked
Q.56
(C) would like (D) may like

Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

Food prices ___ again this month.
(A) have raised (B) have been raising
Q.57
(C) have been rising (D) have arose

Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

The administrators went on to implement yet another unreasonable measure, arguing that
the measures were already ___ and one more would hardly make a difference.
Q.58
(A) reflective (B) utopian (C) luxuriant (D) unpopular

Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

To those of us who had always thought him timid, his ___ came as a surprise.

Q.59
(A) intrepidity (B) inevitability (C) inability (D) inertness

The arithmetic mean of five different natural numbers is 12. The largest possible value among the
numbers is
Q.60
(A) 12 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60


Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Two policemen, A and B, fire once each at the same time at an escaping convict. The probability
that A hits the convict is three times the probability that B hits the convict. If the probability of the
convict not getting injured is 0.5, the probability that B hits the convict is
Q.61
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.40

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The total runs scored by four cricketers P, Q, R, and S in years 2009 and 2010 are given in the
following table:
Player 2009 2010
P 802 1008
Q 765 912
R 429 619
S 501 701

The player with the lowest percentage increase in total runs is
Q.62
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

If a prime number on division by 4 gives a remainder of 1, then that number can be expressed as
(A) sum of squares of two natural numbers
(B) sum of cubes of two natural numbers
(C) sum of square roots of two natural numbers
Q.63
(D) sum of cube roots of two natural numbers

Two points (4, p) and (0, q) lie on a straight line having a slope of 3/4. The value of (p q) is Q.64
(A) -3 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4

In the early nineteenth century, theories of social evolution were inspired less by Biology than
by the conviction of social scientists that there was a growing improvement in social
institutions. Progress was taken for granted and social scientists attempted to discover its
laws and phases.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above
passage?

Social scientists
(A) did not question that progress was a fact.
(B) did not approve of Biology.
(C) framed the laws of progress.
Q.65
(D) emphasized Biology over Social Sciences.


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER


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GATE 2012 - Answer Keys
Aerospace Engineering AE
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 23 C 45 A
2 C 24 D 46 A
3 B 25 D 47 A
4 D 26 0.26 to 0.27 48 B
5 B 27 13 to 14 49 A
6 C 28 1.1 to 1.2 50 A
7 C 29 1430 to 1440 51 Marks to All
8 C 30 2 52 Marks to All
9 B 31 A 53 Marks to All
10 C 32 A 54 D
11 C 33 A 55 C
12 A 34 B 56 C
13 D 35 Marks to All 57 C
14 D 36 B 58 D
15 B 37 A 59 A
16 C 38 B 60 C
17 C 39 B 61 A
18 A 40 B 62 B
19 B 41 B 63 A
20 A 42 B 64 C
21 C 43 D 65 A
22 Marks to All 44 A
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