Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A

1
Chemistry Yearly Benchmark Assessment
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which of the following lists atomic orbitals in the
correct order they are filled according to the
Aufbau principle?
a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 4s 3p 3d 4p 5s
b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s
c. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 3d 4d
d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 5s
2. Both copper (atomic number 29) and chromium
(atomic number 24) appear to break the pattern in
the order of filling the 3d and 4s orbitals. This
change in pattern is expressed by
a. an increase in the number of electrons in both
the 3d and 4s orbitals.
b. a reduction in the number of electrons in both
the 3d and 4s orbitals.
c. a reduction in the number of electrons in the 3d
orbital and an increase in the 4s orbital.
d. a reduction in the number of electrons in the 4s
orbital and an increase in the 3d orbital.
3. Which of the following orbital notations for
phosphorus is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table
can be expected to have similar
a. atomic masses.
b. atomic numbers.
c. numbers of neutrons.
d. properties.
5. Down a group in the periodic table, the change in
ionization energy is due to
a. increasing electron shielding.
b. decreasing charge of the nucleus.
c. increasing neutrons in the nucleus.
d. decreasing atomic radii.
6. An element with the smallest anionic
(negative-ionic) radius would be found on the
periodic table in
a. Group 1, Period 7.
b. Group 3, Period 4.
c. Group 5, Period 3.
d. Group 17, Period 2.
7. Which of the following elements has the greatest
atomic radius?
a. Al
b. S
c. Si
d. C
8. Which electron configuration would result in the
largest negative electron affinity?
a. [He]2s
1
b. [He]2s
2
2p
2
c. [He]2s
2
2p
3
d. [He]2s
2
2p
5
9. Which ionization energy is generally the largest?
a. first ionization energy
b. second ionization energy
c. third ionization energy
d. fourth ionization energy
Name: ________________________ ID: A
2
10. The spontaneous disintegration of a nucleus into a
slightly lighter and more stable nucleus,
accompanied by emission of particles,
electromagnetic radiation, or both, is
a. nuclear fusion.
b. nuclear radiation.
c. radioactive decay.
d. nuclear fission.
11. Which statement does not describe fission?
a. A neutron starts the process.
b. Several neutrons are emitted.
c. Stable, lightweight nuclei start the process.
d. A very heavy nucleus splits into several
medium-weight nuclei.
12. Which of the illustrations below represents a fission
reaction?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
13. What does the 218 in polonium-218 represent?
a. the mass number
b. the atomic number
c. the mass defect
d. the neutron number
14. Between protons in a nucleus,
a. attraction due to nuclear force is greater than
repulsion due to electrostatic force.
b. repulsion due to electrostatic force is greater
than attraction due to nuclear force.
c. nuclear and electrostatic forces are balanced.
d. electrostatic forces are negligible.
15. Balance the following equation:
92
238
U+____
92
239
U
a.
2
4
He
b.
0
1
n
c.
1
1
H
d.
1
0
e
16. Which statement is true about half-lives?
a. Different atoms of the same nuclide have
different half-lives.
b. Each radioactive isotope has its own half-life.
c. All radioactive nuclides of an element have the
same half-life.
d. All radioactive nuclides have the same half-life.
17. Carbon-14 is useful
a. in radiometric dating.
b. as a radiation tracer.
c. to treat cancer.
d. in film badges.
18. How does the half-life of radioactive waste from
medical research compare with the half-life of
radioactive waste from nuclear reactors?
a. much shorter
b. twices as long
c. the same
d. much longer
Name: ________________________ ID: A
3
19. According to VSEPR theory, the structure of the
ammonia molecule, NH
3
, is
a. trigonal-planar.
b. bent.
c. trigonal-pyramidal.
d. tetrahedral.
20. A covalent bond is formed when two atoms
a. share an electron with each other.
b. share one or more pairs of electrons with each
other.
c. gain electrons.
d. gain and lose electrons.
21. Which is the correct Lewis structure for C
2
H
4
?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22. What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?
a. AlSO
4
b. Al
2
SO
4
c. Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
d. Al(SO
4
)
3
23. What is the formula for dinitrogen trioxide?
a. Ni
2
O
3
b. NO
3
c. N
2
O
6
d. N
2
O
3
24. What is the correct formula for the compound
platinum(VI) fluoride?
a. PtF
3
b. PtF
6
c. Pt
6
F
2
d. Pt
6
F
25. Compared with molecular bonds, the strength of
intermolecular forces is
a. weaker.
b. stronger.
c. about the same.
d. too variable to compare.
26. The reason the boiling point of water (H
2
O) is
higher than the boiling point of hydrogen sulfide
(H
2
S) is partially explained by
a. London forces.
b. covalent bonding.
c. ionic bonding.
d. hydrogen bonding.
27. The structure of which of the following compounds
suggests that it has the highest boiling point?
a. CH
4
b. CO
2
c. NaCl
d. O
2
28. The diversity of organic compounds is so great
because carbon
a. has many allotropes.
b. has many isotopes.
c. compounds have many isomers.
d. compounds are very reactive.
29. All organic compounds contain
a. sulfur.
b. water.
c. carbon.
d. oxygen.
30. The ability of carbon to form long chains and rings
of covalently bonded atoms is known as
a. hybridization.
b. catenation.
c. saturation.
d. isomerization.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
4
31. Hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms form only
single bonds and are arranged in a ring are called
a. cycloalkanes.
b. alkynes.
c. alkenes.
d. aromatic hydrocarbons.
32. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown
below?
a. 2,3-dibromopentane
b. 1,2-dibromopentane
c. 2,3-dibromopropane
d. 1,2-dibromopropane
33. A compound that has a triple bond between two
carbon atoms is called an
a. alkane.
b. alkyne.
c. alcohol.
d. alkene.
34. To balance a chemical equation, it may be
necessary to adjust the
a. coefficients.
b. subscripts.
c. formulas of the products.
d. number of products.
35. Which equation is not balanced?
a. 2H
2
+O
2
2H
2
O
b. 4H
2
+2O
2
4H
2
O
c. H
2
+H
2
+O
2
H
2
O+H
2
O
d. 2H
2
+O
2
+H
2
0
36. When the formula equation
Fe
3
O
4
+Al Al
2
O
3
+Fe is correctly balanced
the coefficient of Fe is number
a. 3.
b. 2.
c. 7.
d. 9.
37. The complete balanced equation for the reaction
between zinc hydroxide and acetic acid is
a. ZnOH +CH
3
COOH ZnCH
3
COO +H
2
O.
b. Zn(OH)
2
+CH
3
COOH Zn +2CO
2
+3H
2
O.
c. Zn(OH)
2
+2CH
3
COOH Zn(CH
3
COO)
2
+
2H
2
O.
d. Zn(OH)
2
+2CH
3
COOH Zn(CH
3
COO)
2
+H
2

+O
2
.
38. What is the balanced equation for the combustion
of sulfur?
a. S(s) +O
2
(g) SO(g)
b. S(s) +O
2
(g) SO
2
(g)
c. 2S(s) +3O
2
(g) SO
3
(s)
d. S(s) +2O
2
(g) SO
4
2
(aq)
39. The formulas for the products of the reaction
between sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid are
a. Na
2
SO
4
and H
2
O.
b. NaSO
4
and H
2
O.
c. SI
4
and Na
2
O.
d. S +O
2
and Na.
40. When a cup of hot chocolate cools from 90
0
C to
80
0
C, which of the following is happening to the
molecules of the liquid?
a. Their rate of motion is decreasing.
b. Their valence electrons are being lost.
c. Their positions are becoming fixed in crystals.
d. Their average distance from adjacent molecules
is increasing.
41. In an exothermic reaction, heat flows into the
surroundings because
a. the potential energy of the chemicals increases.
b. the kinetic energy of the chemicals decreases.
c. the chemical potential energy is converted into
heat energy.
d. the chemical kinetic energy is converted into
heat energy.
42. An endothermic reaction is one where
a. heat is transferred from the surroundings into a
system.
b. heat is transferrred from a system into the
surroundings.
c. kinetic energy is transformed into potential
energy.
d. there is not transfer of heat.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
5
43. What is the mass of 0.240 mol glucose, C
6
H
12
O
6
?
a. 24.0 g
b. 43.2 g
c. 180.16 g
d. 750. g
44. What is the percentage composition of CF
4
?
a. 20% C, 80% F
b. 13.6% C, 86.4% F
c. 16.8% C, 83.2% F
d. 81% C, 19% F
45. What is the percentage of iron in iron(III) chloride,
FeCl
3
? The molar mass of FeCl
3
is 162.2 g/mol.
a. 25.00%
b. 34.43%
c. 61.17%
d. 65.57%
46. For the reaction represented by the equation Mg +
2HCl H
2
+MgCl
2
, calculate the percentage yield
of magnesium chloride if 100. g of magnesium
react with excess hydrochloric acid to yield 330. g
of magnesium chloride.
a. 71.8%
b. 74.3%
c. 81.6%
d. 84.2%
47. In the formation of silicon carbide represented by
the chemical equation SiO
2
(s) +3C(s) SiC(s) +
2CO(g), 8 mol of each reactant are available for the
reaction. What substance is the excess reactant?
a. SiO
2
(s)
b. C(s)
c. SiC(s)
d. CO(g)
48. If, in the reaction A +B C +D, the quantity of B
is insufficient to react with all of A,
a. A is the limiting reactant.
b. B is the limiting reactant.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
49. Catalysts affect reaction rates by
a. forming an activated complex with lower
energy.
b. broadening the energy barrier.
c. increasing the activation energy.
d. changing the net thermodynamics of the
reaction.
50. Which factor(s) can influence the rate of a reaction?
a. surface area
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. All of the above
51. Activation energy is
a. the energy required to form the activation
complex.
b. the net energy difference between the products
and reactants.
c. the heat of reaction.
d. free energy.
52. Which of the following statements best describes
what happens to water during evaporation?
a. The temperature of the water increases until the
water molecules react with nitrogen in the air.
b. Water molecules on the surface overcome
intermolecular forces and change into the gas
phase.
c. Water molecules on the surface come in contact
with air molecules and are pulled into the gas
phase.
d. The temperature of the water increases until the
water molecules separate and form oxygen and
hydrogen gas.
53. The intermolecular forces between particles are
a. weaker in solids than in liquids.
b. stronger in gases than in solids.
c. equal in strength in gases and in liquids.
d. stronger in liquids than in gases.
54. Forces holding particles together are strongest in a
a. solid.
b. liquid.
c. gas.
d. vapor.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
6
55. Two gases have the same temperature but different
pressures. The kinetic-molecular theory does not
predict that
a. molecules in both gases have the same average
kinetic energies.
b. molecules in the low-pressure gas travel farther
before they collide with other molecules.
c. both gases have the same densities.
d. all collisions of the molecules are elastic.
56. If a gas with an odor is released in a room, it can
quickly be detected across the room because it
a. diffuses.
b. is dense.
c. is compressed.
d. condenses.
57. What causes a gas to exert pressure?
a. collisions
b. density
c. temperature
d. elevation
58. The volume of a gas is 400.0 mL when the pressure
is 1.00 atm. At the same temperature, what is the
pressure at which the volume of the gas is 2.0 L?
a. 0.5 atm
b. 5.0 atm
c. 0.20 atm
d. 800 atm
59. Why could the pressure of a sample of gas at a
constant volume fall 75 mm Hg?
a. The container exploded.
b. The temperature increased.
c. The temperature decreased.
d. The volume increased.
60. The volume of a sample of oxygen is 300.0 mL
when the pressure is 1.00 atm and the temperature
is 27.0C. At what temperature is the volume 1.00
L and the pressure 0.500 atm?
a. 22.0C
b. 45.0C
c. 0.50 K
d. 227C
61. Why would a camper near the top of Mt. Everest
find that water boils at less than 100C?
a. There is greater atmospheric pressure than at
sea level.
b. The flames are hotter at that elevation.
c. There is less atmospheric pressure than at sea
level.
d. The atmosphere has less moisture.
62.
The cooling curve for a pure substance as it
changes from a liguid to a solid is shown above.
The solid and the liguid coexist at
a. point Q only.
b. point R only.
c. all points on the curve between Q and S.
d. all points on the curve bewtween R and T.
63.
The heating curve shown was generated by
measuring the heat flow and temperature for a
solid as it was heated. The slope of the
__________ segment corresponds to the heat
capacity of the liquid of the substance.
a. AB
b. BC
c. CD
d. DE
e. EF
Name: ________________________ ID: A
7
64. Which of the following is at equilibrium when
undissolved solute is visible?
a. a saturated solution
b. an unsaturated solution
c. a supersaturated solution
d. All of the above
65. As temperature increases, solubility of gases in
liquids
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. can increase or decrease.
d. is not affected.
66. All of the KBr that will dissolve in a solution has
dissolved, and several undissolved crystals remain
on the bottom of the beaker. The solution is
a. saturated.
b. supersaturated.
c. unsaturated.
d. at the incorrect pressure to dissolve the solid.
67. A substance that is not soluble in a polar solvent is
most likely
a. nonpolar.
b. ionic.
c. polar.
d. hydrogen bonded.
68. Two immiscible substances are
a. water and ammonia.
b. water and ethanol.
c. carbon tetrachloride and benzene.
d. benzene and water.
69. Which of the following is an example of a polar
solvent?
a. carbon tetrachloride
b. benzene
c. water
d. gasoline
70. Colligative properties depend on
a. the identity of the solute particles.
b. the concentration of the solute particles.
c. the physical properties of the solute particles.
d. the boiling point and freezing point of the
solution.
71. Electrolytes affect colligative properties differently
than do nonelectrolytes because electrolytes
a. are volatile.
b. have lower boiling points.
c. produce fewer moles of solute particles per
mole of solute.
d. produce more moles of solute particles per
mole of solute.
72. As electrolyte concentration decreases,
freezing-point depression
a. approaches the value calculated by assuming
complete ionization.
b. gets farther from the value calculated by
assuming complete ionization.
c. remains exactly equal to the value calculated by
assuming complete ionization.
d. approaches 0C.
73. What is the molarity of a solution that contains
0.202 mol KCl in 7.98 L solution?
a. 0.0132 M
b. 0.0253 M
c. 0.459 M
d. 1.363 M
74. An NaOH solution contains 1.90 mol of NaOH, and
its concentration is 0.555 M. What is its volume?
(molar mass of NaOH =40.00 g/mol)
a. 0.623 L
b. 0.911 L
c. 1.05 L
d. 3.42 L
75. How many grams of CaCl
2
(molar mass =110.98
g/mol) are needed to prepare 1.00 L of a 1.00 M
solution?
a. 1.00 g
b. 40.08 g
c. 75.53 g
d. 110.98 g
76. Which of the properties listed below is not
characteristic of an acid?
a. a sour taste
b. a slippery feel
c. the ability to conduct an electric current
d. reactivity with metals
Name: ________________________ ID: A
8
77. The pH scale generally ranges from
a. 0 to 1.
b. 1 to 1.
c. 0 to 7.
d. 0 to 14.
78. Which of the following is a polyprotic acid?
a. HCl
b. H
2
SO
4
c. HNO
3
d. HF
79. Which statement about Arrhenius bases is false?
a. Some are ionic hydroxides.
b. They dissociate in solution to release hydroxide
ions into the solution.
c. They increase the concentration of hydrogen
ions in aqueous solution.
d. Some react with water and remove a hydrogen
ion, leaving hydroxide ions.
80. A substance that ionizes nearly completely in
aqueous solutions and produces H
3
O
+
is a
a. weak base.
b. strong base.
c. weak acid.
d. strong acid.
81. HCl is a strong acid. When it combines with water,
the conjugate of HCl will be a
a. weak base.
b. weak acid.
c. strong base.
d. strong acid.
82. What is the correct name for the acid CH
3
COOH?
a. carbonic acid
b. carbonate acid
c. acetic acid
d. acetous acid
83. The formula for phosphoric acid is
a. HPO
4
.
b. H(PO
4
)
2
.
c. H
2
PO
3
3.
d. H
3
PO
4
.
84. What is the correct acid name for an aqueous
solution of HClO
4
?
a. hypochlorous acid
b. chlorous acid
c. chloric acid
d. perchloric acid