Plan Form 31b

PLAN Form 31B
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PLAN
4/01/i

ACT
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Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, Mathematics,
Reading, and Science. These tests measure skills
and abilities highly related to high school course
work and the ACTS. CALCULATORS MAY BE
USED ON THE MATHEMATICS TEST ONLY.
The questions in each test are numbered, and the
suggested answers for each question are lettered.
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numbered to match the questions, and the ovals in
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suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is
best. Next, locate on the answer folder the row of
ovals numbered the same as the question. Then,
locate the oval in that row lettered the same as your
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Mark only one answer to each question. If you
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For each question, make certain that you mark in
the row of ovals with the same number as the
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be scored. Your score on each test will be based
only on the number of questions you answer
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will NOT be penalized for guessing. IT IS TO YOUR
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EVEN IF YOU MUST GUESS.
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vi
1
ENGLISH TEST
30 Minutes-50 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the four passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose "NO CHANGE." In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the pas-
sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
folder. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
PASSAGE I
The Shop of the Masterji
When my family and I return to India
to go back there and visit our relatives, my mother
and her sister always try to spend an afternoon at
the shop of their favorite tailor. I can remember
spending countless hours at the tailor's shop located
in the neighborhood bazaar. The shop stands between a
2
stationery store and a shoemaker's shop near the center
2
of the bazaar.
2
Our most recent visit was a typical one. We met
with the masterji, or master tailor. As my mother explained
3
that we were looking for, I inspected some purple muslin
4
lying on the counter. Anticipating my request, he
immediately unfolded a few yards of the cloth. My mother
reached over my shoulder, fingered the material, and asked
to see another pattern. The masterji said that the fabric
1. A. NO CHANGE
B. by going back there and visiting
C. and go back to visit
D. to visit
2. Given that all the choices are true, which one provides
the most specific description of the shop itself?
F. NO CHANGE
G. When I walk through the doors of the shop, I am
enveloped by a variety of familiar sights and
smells.
H. Bolts of brightly colored cottons, linens, silks, and
rayons line the walls of the small shop.
J. The shop occupies a central location in the bazaar,
a type of market consisting of rows of small shops
or stalls.
3. A. NO CHANGE
B. tailor, as
C. tailor as
D. tailor and as
4. F. NO CHANGE
G. what
H. which
J.
it
PLAN-31B
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

5. A. NO CHANGE
B. patterns in minutes
C. patterns, in minutes;
D. patterns; in minutes,
6. Which choice is both specific and consistent with the
style of the essay?
came in twenty different patterns, in minutes, his assistant
5
had pulled down a number equaling one-half of them.
6
F. NO CHANGE
G. 50 percent of those patterns.
H. half of them.
J. some.
[1] As was customary, the tailor offered us a cup
7
of tea or a cold juice drink. [2] We sat down on a raised
platform; among the growing collection of bolts and
8
swatches of material, and the masterji sent his assistant
out to fetch the necessary refreshments. [3] I felt somewhat
overwhelmed by the array of patterns. [4] I looked and
looked and ended up with nothing at all. [5] This hampered
my ability to make any kind of a decision.
I watched my mother smooth out carefully a piece of
10
silk brocade she was thinking about buying. My aunt held
it up to her face, and together they looked in the mirror.
They tried a different piece of material and then another.
After looking at one piece, my mother shook her head, but
my aunt was insisted. Their tea cooled, a skin of milk
11
forming on its surface. They talked easily about the past
and about the future, two sisters' undistracted by the daily
12
chores and duties of their lives.
7. A. NO CHANGE
B. the usual common practice,
C. usually customary,
D. customary as usual,
8. F. NO CHANGE
G. platform. Among
H. platform: among
J. platform among
9. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this para-
graph, Sentence 4 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 1.
D. after Sentence 5.
10. The best placement for the underlined portion would
be:
F. where it is now.
G. after the word mother.
H. after the word smooth.
J. after the word piece.
11. A. NO CHANGE
B. insisted.
C. had been insisted.
D. was insistence.
12. F. NO CHANGE
G. sister's undistracted
H. sisters undistracted
J. sisters undistracted,
PLAN-318 3 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1
PASSAGE II
The following paragraphs may or may not be
in the most logical order. Each paragraph is num-
bered in brackets, and question 25 will ask you to
choose the sequence of paragraphs that makes
the essay most logical.
Charles Richard Drew: Medical Hero
[1]
In 1940, Europe was at war. German
bombs pounded British cities night and day.
Although doctors and nurses struggled to save lives,
13
many of the injured died. Hospitals desperately needed a
massive prescription of stored blood for transfusions.
14
[2]
Urgently needed cargo, the Blood Transfusion
15
Association in New York collected blood locally and
16
sent it overseas to Britain. Unfortunately, many of the
first initial shipments of blood arrived unfit for use; no one
17
had ever tried such a large-scale system of blood banking
before. The Blood for Britain program needed a strong
leader to establish the standards for the shipping and
storage of blood.
[3]
That leadership was provided by Dr. Charles Richard
Drew, an African American surgeon at Howard University
Medical School and a highly regarded expert upon blood
18
collection and preservation. He was recommended to lead
the overseas blood drive by his friend and former
13. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. Even though doctors and nurses struggled to save
lives,
B. Doctors and nurses struggled to save lives, but
C. Doctors and nurses struggled to save lives, so
D. Doctors and nurses struggled to save lives;
however,
14. F. NO CHANGE
G. large bunch
H. sizable portion
J. large supply
15. A. NO CHANGE
B. Shipped immediately,
C. Gathered by volunteers,
D. Eager to help,
16. F. NO CHANGE
G. New York, collected
H. New York; collected
J. New York. Collected
17. A. NO CHANGE
B. initial
C. very first initial
D. first beginning
18. F. NO CHANGE
G. by
H. on
J. for
PLAN-31B

instructor Dr. John Beattie, head of England's Royal Air
Force Transfusion Service. Although the principles of
human blood types and blood compatibility had been
19
identified forty years earlier, it was Drew who first
demonstrated that plasma (the fluid component of blood)
could be used in some circumstances as a substitute for
whole blood. This discovery was important, because blood
plasma is easier to ship and store than whole blood.
[4]
With Dr. Drew at its head, the
20
Blood for Britain program is a success.
21
Refrigerated trucks known as bloodmobiles
22
were used by the program to transport blood
22
and plasma. After doctors in Britain were able
to organize their own blood bank, the American
Red Cross, asked Drew, to direct a national blood
23
bank program in the United States. E
19. A. NO CHANGE
B. was
C. have been
D. has been
20. F. NO CHANGE
G. it's
H. their
J. they're
21. A. NO CHANGE
B. has been a
C. experiences
D. was a
22. Given that all of the choices are true, which one would
most clearly indicate one of Dr. Drew's contributions
to the program?
F. NO CHANGE
G. Known as bloodmobiles, refrigerated trucks were
used
H. At his suggestion, refrigerated trucks known as
bloodmobiles were used
J. The program was the first to use refrigerated
trucks called bloodmobiles
23. A. NO CHANGE
B. Cross asked Drew
C. Cross, asked Drew
D. Cross asked Drew,
24. Given that all of the following are true, which one, if
added here, would most vividly describe the impact of
Dr. Drew's work for the American Red Cross?
F. Unlike Great Britain's blood collection program,
the American Red Cross's system employed full-
time staff members rather than volunteers.
G. The blood bank system developed by Dr. Drew
changed many things in the field of medicine.
H. By implementing his revolutionary ideas relating
to blood and blood plasma, Dr. Drew saved lives
not only in wartime abroad but in peacetime at
home.
J. After three months of successfully operating the
new blood bank system, Dr. Drew resigned as the
plasma project's director to become chair of
surgery at Howard University.
5 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. PLAN-31B
Question 25 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
25. Which of the following sequences of paragraphs makes
the essay most logical?
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1, 2, 4, 3
C. 1, 4, 2, 3
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
1
PASSAGE III
Volunteering Does Pay
Volunteering is one way for todays' teenagers to
26
achieve personal growth. As they plan for their adult lives.
27
The experience of helping others start teenagers on a
28
rewarding life path.
26. F. NO CHANGE
G. today's teenager's
H. todays teenagers
J. today's teenagers
27. A. NO CHANGE
B. growth; as
C. growth as
D. growth? As
28. F. NO CHANGE
G. starts
H. are starting
J. were starting
Teenagers had sorted out personal strengths and 29. A. NO CHANGE
B. were sorting
C. can sort
D. sorted
29
weaknesses, determine job preferences, and hone
marketable skills while volunteering. Young men and
women interested in health science, for example, might
volunteer at veterinary clinics, hospitals, or nursing homes.
Those intrigued with issues discussed in social studies
classes might be welcomed as volunteers at political
parties' headquarters or at the county courthouse. Sports
30
enthusiasts could work with younger players on athletic
teams or help organize activities at local recreation centers.
In addition to solidifying career interests,
volunteering allows teenagers an opportunity to develop
relationships with adults who share their interests. Adults
with experience in a particular field can offer
PLAN-31B
30. F. NO CHANGE
G. headquarters or,
H. headquarters, or,
J. headquarters;
6 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
encouragement and suggestions for a focus of study.
Established professionals may help students to be excepted
32
into an apprenticeship, locate the most appropriate work-
study program, or obtain a college scholarship.
Whether the world of work or more
schooling is the teenager's goal. Having a
33
rsum that notes volunteer experience is highly
34
beneficial. Furthermore, a personal recommendation
can provide a definite advantage over a mere list of
35
courses, taken and grade-point information.
36
Instead, personal growth comes from using one's
37
talents for the welfare of others, such as by helping a new
immigrant learn English, working to keep the environment
clean, or joining a work crew to help older people care for
31. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-
lowing true statement:
Statistics show that 54 percent of students
who performed volunteer service in high
school were still doing some volunteering two
years later.
Should this addition be made here?
A. Yes, because it indicates the ongoing importance
of volunteering.
B. Yes, because it proves that high school students
should volunteer.
C. No, because it restates information already given
earlier in the essay.
D. No, because it distracts readers from the focus of
the paragraph.
32. F. NO CHANGE
G. to be accepted
H. are excepting
J. are accepting
33. A. NO CHANGE
B. goal of having
C. goal, having
D. goal; having
34. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. says
G. lists
H. describes
J. mentions
35. A. NO CHANGE
B. can provided
C. could provided
D. providing
36. F. NO CHANGE
G. courses taken
H. courses taken,
J. courses, taken,
37. A. NO CHANGE
B. Because personal
C. Therefore, personal
D. Personal
PLAN-31B 7 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

their homes. The sole benefit teenagers get from
38
volunteering is knowing that they have helped someone
38
less fortunate than themselves.
38
38.
Which choice most effectively concludes the para-
graph and ties it closely to the main theme of the
essay?
F. NO CHANGE
G. Since they are not paid, volunteers have more free-
dom to do what they want in a given position.
H. Teenagers volunteer for all sorts of reasons, but
partly because they can often set their own hours
and not punch a time clock.
J. Whatever their reasons for volunteering, teenage
volunteers may not receive a paycheck, but they
are truly rewarded.
PASSAGE IV
Lure of the Wild Horses
Here at the Black Hills Wild Horse Sanctuary in
South Dakota, where some three hundred wild horses roam
39
over eleven thousand acres of mixed-grass prairie, rocky
bluffs, and dark green ponderosa pines. It's the lure of
these untamed wild horses that has brought me to this
40
place.
[1] The person who established this
sanctuaryretired rodeo hand and longtime cowboy
41
Dayton Hydeagrees to take me out to find some horses.
41
[2] We head out after lunchtime. [3] The truck climbs to
the top of a hill and stops at the edge of a wide field.
[4] His old pickup truck bounces along, negotiating
steep trails, crossing broad valleys, and twice fording
the Cheyenne River. az
There they arehorses! They lift their heads
from the grass to watch cautiously as we climb out
of the pickup. Clustered in twos and threes, they
stand with bodies touching, necks intertwined,
39. A. NO CHANGE
B. Dakota. Some
C. Dakota, some
D. Dakota. Where some
40. F. NO CHANGE
G. untrained,
H. untamed, untrained,
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
41. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the
sentence would primarily lose:
A. details that contribute to the characterization of a
person in the essay.
B. historical background information about the Black
Hills in South Dakota.
C. an explanation of the narrator's motivation for vis-
iting the sanctuary.
D. the fact that the narrator found a guide who was
available to give a tour.
42. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this para-
graph, Sentence 3 should be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. before Sentence 1.
H. after Sentence 1.
J. after Sentence 4.
PLAN-31B

1
heads draped across broad backs.
We move closer, andas if at a signalthe horses
scatter snorting loudly, a small band whirls and takes off
44
from the main herd, breaking into a spirited run down a
long ridge. Heads toss, manes fly, and hooves kicked up
45
43. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-
lowing true statement:
At first glance they appear calm, but their slim
legs and taut skin twitch with tension.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it informs the reader about the differ-
ences between domesticated and wild horses.
B. Yes, because it prepares the reader for the events
described in the next paragraph.
C. No, because it is not related to the paragraph's
focus on describing the horses.
D. No, because it is not consistent with the narrator's
interest in the horses.
44. F. NO CHANGE
G. scatter, snorting
H. scatter. Snorting
J. scatter and snorting
45. A. NO CHANGE
B. kicking
C. kick
D. will kick
a dust cloud, that shimmers golden in the sun.
46
46. F.
G.
H.
J.
NO CHANGE
cloud, that shimmers, golden
cloud that shimmers golden
cloud, that shimmers golden,
47 It's beauty ranges from grand, barren cliffs to
a s
47. Which of the following true statements, if added here,
would most effectively introduce the essay's shift in
focus to the landscape and the daydream it inspires?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48. F.
G.
H.
J.
A cool breeze rustles through the grass and trees.
This land stirs the imagination.
The truck is still parked at the edge of the field.
The remaining horses graze.
NO CHANGE
Its
Its'
It is
dainty wildflowers. Almost hidden in the tall grass. I
49
suddenly want to stay. I picture myself driving the truck on
these rough trails, searching for horses and bringing it hay
so
when winter comes. Slowly, I would gain their trust. They
would allow me to approach and run my hands along their
silky necks, nuzzling my face into theirs.
"It's getting late," Dayton says. Although I'm
reluctant to leave, I nod and climb into the truck. While
Dayton navigates our return trip, I'm already planning my
49. A. NO CHANGE
B. wildflowers almost hidden. In
C. wildflowers almost hidden in
D. wildflowers, almost hidden. In
50. F. NO CHANGE
G. those
H. these
J. them
next visit to the sanctuary.
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
9 PLAN-31B
2
MATHEMATICS TEST
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer folder.
Do not linger over problems that take too much time.
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in
the time you have left for this test.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You
may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
but some of the problems may best be done without
using a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
be assumed.
1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3. The word line indicates a straight line.
4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE. 1. The graph below shows the amount, in inches, of rain
that fell in Hendersonville during each of the calendar
years from 2000 through 2006.
Rainfall in Hendersonville
20
c-.) 10
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
year
According to the graph, in which of the following
years was the rainfall amount less than that of the
preceding year?
A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2003
D. 2004
E. 2005
2. What value of x makes 4x + 11 = 13 true?
F. 14.25
G. 6
H. 0.5
J. 0.5
K. 6
PLAN-31B
10

2
3. A list of spelling words was arranged in 3 columns,
each with the same number of words. On Tuesday
night, Chad learned all of the words in the first
column. On Wednesday night, he learned all of the
words in the second column plus 2 words in the third
column. That left him with 10 words to learn Thursday
night for the spelling test on Friday. How many words
were on the list?
A. 24
B. 27
C. 30
D. 33
E. 36
4. The ACE Rent-A-Car Company charges $25 per day to
rent a car in addition to $0.35 per mile. Let the
distance driven be x miles and let the total cost of
renting the car for 1 day be y dollars. Which of the
following is an equation for a 1-day car rental?
F. y = 0.35x + 25
G. y=25x+ 0.35
H. y = 25x + 0.35x
J. y = 25x + 35
K. y = 35x + 25
5. The coordinates of the endpoints of a certain segment
on the real number line below are 4 and 16. What is
the coordinate of the midpoint of this segment?
-1 ri I I I I I i0
4 0 4 8 12 16
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
6. The school library received a shipment of 10 boxes of
books. Each box contained 60 books, except for 1 box,
which contained 44 books. How many books did the
library receive in this shipment?
F. 584
G. 600
H. 610
J. 644
K. 704
PLAN-31B
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
7. How many vertex points does a cube have?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 18
8. The operation A @ B is defined as A + 2B. What is the
value of 12 @ 4 ?
F. 20
G. 28
H. 32
J. 36
K. 96
9. Alma is cutting a rectangular piece of wood at a 65
angle, as shown in the figure below. What is the
measure of the adjacent angle?
65/
A. 25
B. 65
C. 115
D. 120
E. 130
10. Point D is at 2 on the real number line. Point E is
7 units from D. What are all the possible positions of E
on the number line?
F. 5 only
G. 4.5 only
H. 9 and 9
J. 9 and 5
K. 9 and 5
11. Which of the following integersafter you divide it by
19, multiply that result by 7, and add 5 to that result
gives a final result that is an integer?
A. 54
B. 102
C. 128
D. 138
E. 152
PLAN-31B
12

2
12. Let x be an unknown real number. Which of the
following puts x, x 1, and x + 1 in order from least to
greatest?
F. x<x 1 <x+ 1
G. x < x + 1 < x 1
H. x-1<x<x+1
J. x+ 1 <x<x1
K. Cannot be determined from the given information
13. One long, rectangular banquet table is to be made by
placing square tables side by side. Each side of a
square table seats 1 person, so a single square table
will seat 4 people, 2 square tables placed side by side
will seat 6 people, and 3 square tables placed side by
side will seat 8 people. A minimum of how many
square tables placed side by side will seat 36 people?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 17
D. 18
E. 34
14. A child's square play mat has a perimeter of 32 feet.
What is the area, in square feet, of the play mat?
F. 8
G. 16
H. 23
J. 32
K. 64
15. 17x2 + 7x2 + 15x + 6x + 27 is equivalent to:
A. 72x6
B. 24x2 + 48x
C. 24x4 + 48x2
D. 24x2 + 21x + 27
E. 24x4 + 21x2 + 27
2
16. The regular 8-sided polygon in Figure 1 has
20 diagonals and AB is 1 of the diagonals. The regular
6-sided polygon in Figure 2 has how many diagonals?
A

Figure 1 Figure 2
F. 9
G. 12
H. 15
J. 18
K. 30
17. What value of b will make the point (3,-1) lie on the
line y = bx 7 in the standard (x.y) coordinate plane?
A. 10
B.
8
3
C. 2
8
3
E. 10
18. The first 3 elements of a pattern are shown below.
Each new element in the pattern has 1 more row and
1 more column than the element before it. Continuing
this pattern, the 10th element would consist of how
many stars?
** *** ***
* ***
****
F. 38
G. 54
H. 90
J. 100
K. 110
PLAN-31B
14

D.
2
Use the following information to answer
questions 19-21.
The Reed family, consisting of 2 adults and 3 children, has
rented a boat for 8 hours with the restriction that the driver
of the boat must be an adult. The lake in which the Reeds
are boating is a circle with a diameter of 500 yards. The
boat uses gas at an average rate of 2 gallons per hour when
pulling water-skiers and 1 gallon per hour when traveling
to and from the dock. Gas for the boat costs $2.25 per
gallon.
19. How much is spent on gas per hour when the boat is
pulling water-skiers?
A. $ 2.22
B. $ 4.50
C. $ 7.11
D. $18.00
E. $36.00
20. During the day, the Reeds parked the boat for 1 hour
and 40 minutes to have lunch. Traveling in the boat
to and from the dock took the Reeds a total of
20 minutes. The rest of the rental period, 6 hours, they
used the boat to pull water-skiers. To the nearest tenth,
how many gallons of gasoline were used during the
rental period?
F. 6.0
G. 6.3
H. 8.0
J. 12.0
K. 12.3
21. Two people can water-ski at one time. Following the
age restriction for the driver, how many different pairs
of people from the Reed family can water-ski?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 18
E. 24
PLAN-31B
2
22. A circle graph of 3 sectorsred, white, and blueis
shown below. The area of the blue sector is 25% of the
area of the circle. The ratio of the area of the red sector
to the area of the white sector is 3:2. What is the
measure of the central angle of the red sector?
E 81
G. 108
H. 135
J. 155
K. 162
23. 15(1 7)+ 91 =?
A. 39
B. 21
C. 21
D. 39
E. 49
24. What is the x-value of the ordered pair that satisfies the
system of equations below?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
y= x + 4
y = 3x 2
2
2
3
2
3
7
PLAN-31B
16

2
25. The line with equation 7x y = 4 is graphed in the
standard (x,y) coordinate plane. For all values of x,
what is the y-coordinate of a point in terms of the
point's x-coordinate?
A. 7x+4
B. 7x 4
C. 4x 7
D. 7x +4
E. 7x 4
26. The sum of the interior angle measures of a pentagon
is the same for all pentagons. For pentagon ABCDE
below, what is the measure of LE ?
E 60
G. 65
H. 70
J.
75
K. 80
27. The dimensions of the quadrilateral shown below are
in centimeters. What is the perimeter, in centimeters,
of this quadrilateral?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 19
D. 21
E. 22
PLAN-31 B 17 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
2
Use the following information to answer
questions 28-30.
The chart below shows the average monthly high
temperatures (AMHT) in degrees Fahrenheit for Madison,
Wisconsin.
Average Monthly High Temperatures for Madison, WI
90
80
7
79.2
0
70.0 60.8
60
g 50
57 6
e 40
41.5
& 30
20 25 9 303
2
10 -
0 1 I I I 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
N.. -4
month

83.3

81.0

72.1
43.9
30.7
28. The median of the AMHT is found by averaging the
AMHT for which 2 months?
F. January and December
G. April and May
H. April and October
J. June and July
K. June and August
29. The greatest increase in AMHT from one month to the
next is the change from:
A. January to February.
B. February to March.
C. March to April.
D. April to May.
E. May to June.
30. The formula C =
9
F 32) can be used to convert the
temperature measured in degrees Fahrenheit, F, to the
temperature measured in degrees Celsius, C. Which of
the following is closest to Madison's AMHT for
September, in degrees Celsius?
F. 8.1
G. 22.3
H. 40.1
J. 57.8
K. 72.1
PLAN-31 B
18

2
31. Which of the following expressions represents the
greatest value?
A. 4 + 4(44 )
B. 42
C. 45 + 4
D. 4(44 )
E. 42(43 ) 4
32. Penny is making a model of the Parthenon in Athens,
Greece, for a class project. When viewed from the
front as shown in the figure below, Penny's model has
8 columns holding up a triangular piece that has a base
of 30 cm and a height of 4.6 cm. Penny is going to
paint the front side of the triangular piece. What is the
area, to the nearest 0.1 square centimeter, of the front
side of this triangular piece?
4.6 cm
30 cm
F. 19.6
G. 21.2
H. 34.6
J. 69.0
K. 138.0
33. A farmer keeps 2 goats in a 50-foot-by-25-foot
rectangular field. Each goat is on a chain that is
anchored to a stake in the ground, and each goat can
reach 10 feet in all directions from its stake. The
2 stakes are positioned so that each is at least 10 feet
from every edge of the field and at least 20 feet from
the other stake. Which of the following is closest to the
area, in square feet, of the portion of the field that
these goats CANNOT reach?
A. 620
B. 935
C. 1,125
D. 1,185
E. 1,230
PLAN-31B
2
34. The number 8,120 can be written in scientific notation
as 8.12 x 103 . In a certain sequence, the first term is
8,120 x 10, the second term is 8,120 x 10 2 , and the
third term is 8,120 x 10 3 . Which of the following
represents these three terms in scientific notation?
F. 8.12 x 102 , 8.12 x 10 1 , 8.12 x 10
G. 8.12 x 104 , 8.12 x 105 , 8.12 x 106
H. 8.12 x 1003 , 8.12 x 1,0003 , 8.12 x 10,0003
J. 80.12 x 103, 800.12 x 103, 8, 000.12 x 10 3
K. 8.12 x 103 , .812 x 103 , .0812 x 103
35. In the diagram below, BE is parallel to CD, BE is
perpendicular to AC, B is on AC, and E is on AD.
What is the measure of LA ?
A
A. 5
B. 10
C. 18
D. 25
E. 50
36. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below,
1 coordinate unit represents 1 mile. The coordinates of
2 airports are given. Diego is flying from one airport to
the other. Which of the following is closest to the
distance, in miles, between the 2 airports?
y
(22, 34)
(4, 9)

> x
0
F. 7
G. 13
H. 17
J. 31
K. 43
PLAN-31B
20

2
37. In the figure below, R, S, T, and U are the vertices of a
rectangle in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. What
is the area, in square coordinate units, of pentagon
RSTUV ?
A. 27.5
B. 31
C. 55
D. 67.5
E. 80
38. Congruent isosceles triangles AABC and AADC are
shown below with AB a AC a. AD. The measure of
LABC is x. What is the measure of LBAD ?
A
B
F. (360 4x)
G. (360 2x)
H. (360 x)
J. (180 2x)
K. (180 x)
PLAN-31B
2
39. The shaded region shown below in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane is the set of points that are inside a
circle centered at the origin with radius 4 coordinate
units. Which of the following is an inequality for this
shaded region?
y
A. X
2
+ y
2
< 16
B. X
2
+ y
2
16
C. x2 + y2 > 16
D. X
2
+ y
2
< 4
E. X
2
+ y
2
4
0
N
40. For all real numbers a and b that satisfy a b > 0,
which of the following expressions equals I b al ?
F. V
G. 2a
H. b a
J. a +b
K. a b
END OF TEST 2
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
PLAN-31B
22
3
READING TEST
DIRECTIONS: There are three passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer folder. You may refer to the passages as often as
necessary.
Passage I
PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from the novel
Black Girl in Paris by Shay Youngblood (2000 by Shay
Youngblood).
Authors James Baldwin, Langston Hughes,
Richard Wright, Gabriel Garcia Marquez and Milan
Kundera all had lived in Paris as if it had been part of
their training for greatness. When artists and writers
5 spoke of Paris in their memoirs and letters home it was
with reverence. Those who have been and those who
still dream mention the quality of the light, the joie de
vivre (enjoyment of life), the pleasures of the senses, a
kind of freedom to be anonymous and also new. I
10 wanted that kind of life even though I was a woman and
did not yet think of myself as a writer. I was a
mapmaker.
I remember the long, narrow room, the low slanted
ceiling, the bare whitewashed walls, the spotted, musty
15 brown carpet. I am there again. It's as if I have some-
body else's eyes. The Paris through the round window
at the foot of my bed looks as if it were painted leaf by
leaf and stone by stone with tiny brushstrokes.
Before I left home I cut my hair close to my scalp
20 so I could be a free woman with free thoughts, open to
all possibilities. I was making a map of the world. In
ancient times maps were made to help people find food,
water, and the way back home. I needed a map to help
me find love and language, and since one didn't exist,
25 I'd have to invent one, following the trails and signs
left by other travelers. I didn't know what I wanted to
be, but I knew I wanted to be the kind of woman who
was bold, took chances, and had adventures. I wanted
to travel around the world. It was my little-girl dream.
30 For once I slept without dreaming. I woke up when
the plane touched down on the runway. As we taxied
along the runway I pulled my small French-English dic-
tionary out of my bag to look up in the phrase section
how to take a cab. Across the aisle from me was a
35 young woman who had slept through most of the flight.
She wore jeans and a black sweater and held a Museum
of Modern Art gift bag in one hand. I assumed she was
American.
"It's my first time in Paris. What's the best way to
40 get to the city? Is there a bus?"
"We can share a taxi if you like. Where are you
going?" Her French accent was a surprise.
"I don't know. I was going to ask the driver for a
hotel. I don't have much money."
45 She looked at me as if I was crazy.
"You don't know anyone?"
I shook my head.
"It will be very difficult to find something not
expensive." She said that the students would be arriving
50 for classes that week.
"Many of the hotels not too dear will be . . .
complet. You understand?"
I quickly flipped through my dictionary and
learned that the hotels would be full, no vacancies.
55 "My name is . . . Je m'appelle Eden."
"Delphine. Come," she commanded. We got up
and joined the line of passengers exiting the plane.
Charles de Gaulle airport was a maze of lines, people
talking fast, signs I couldn't understand, and every-
60 where, guards. Then I began to be a little afraid of what
I had done. I didn't know anyone, my French was prac-
tically nonexistent, and I had only enough money to
last a few weeks until I found a job. But there was no
going back. I took a deep breath and followed Delphine
65 to baggage claim.
1. Based on the passage, the narrator would most likely
rate her skill in speaking French when she first arrived
in Paris as:
A. excellent; she's easily able to express her thoughts
and feelings to Delphine in French.
B. good; she's able to share most of her thoughts and
feelings with Delphine in French.
C. adequate; with some help from a dictionary, she's
able to speak to Delphine in French most of the
time.
D. poor; even with the help of a dictionary, she's
barely able to speak to Delphine in French.
3
2. In the context of the passage, the main purpose of lines
1-9 is to describe:
F. some novels that use Paris as a setting.
G. a typical day in Paris for a tourist.
H. what intimidated the narrator about Paris.
J. what drew the narrator to Paris.
3. The "other travelers" mentioned in line 26 are most
likely:
A. typical tourists in Paris.
B. the narrator and Delphine.
C. the narrator's role models.
D. people on the plane with the narrator and
Delphine.
4. Which of the following best captures the idea behind
the narrator's statement that Delphine's "French accent
was a surprise" (line 42)?
F. From the way Delphine spoke and acted, the narra-
tor had assumed that Delphine was from Europe
but not from France.
G. From Delphine's clothing and bag, the narrator
had assumed that Delphine was an American visi-
tor to Paris.
H. Because Delphine seemed to know Paris so well,
the narrator had assumed that Delphine had lived
in the city for a long time.
J. Because Delphine had been silent during most of
the flight, the narrator had assumed that Delphine
wouldn't speak to her.
5. The situation the narrator describes in the last para-
graph leaves her feeling:
A. confused, anxious, and determined.
B. annoyed, tired, and bitter.
C. surprised, amused, and curious.
D. amazed, talkative, and optimistic.
6. The narrator's statement "I am there again" (line 15)
most nearly means that she:
F. has recently returned to Paris to visit Delphine and
other friends.
G. has recently returned to Paris to inspect the room
she'd lived in years before.
H. is reliving the experience of being in Paris.
J. is reliving the experience of flying to Paris.
7. According to the passage, one reason Delphine thinks
it will be difficult for the narrator to find a suitable
hotel in Paris is that:
A. the narrator's standards for hotels are much too
high.
B. returning students will have filled up many of the
affordable hotels.
C. the narrator doesn't have enough money for even a
low-quality hotel.
D. even the expensive hotels will be full this time of
year.
8. In the passage, Eden is the name of:
F. the narrator.
G. a neighborhood in Paris.
H. one of Delphine's longtime friends.
J. a hotel in Paris.
3
Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the article
"Where the Wild Things Are" by Barbara Ehrenreich (2000 by
Worth Media L.L.C.).
Sports fans don't usually attract much attention,
but in a trend almost unnoticed by sports commentators
and sociologists, fans have been expressing themselves
in more colorful ways. Soccer fans worldwide were
5 generally the trendsetters, having been the first to paint
their faces and decorate themselves head to toe in
masks, ribbons, scarves, and massive headgear. Most
spectacularly, they engage in synchronized displays
during the game.
10 In the last two decades, the trend toward
participation has spread to American sports events,
especially football, baseball, and basketball. What
motivates fans to become part of the show?
One possibility is that fans are rebelling against
15 their appointed role as spectators in sports that were
once much more participatory. Medieval European
football pitted whole villages against each other and
involved "everyone . . . male and female, adult and
child, rich and poor, laity and clergy," as sports histo-
20 rian Allen Guttmann has written. He has speculated that
today, "as sports become more commercialized and
bureaucratized, fans may feel the need to say 'We're
part of this, too."
But the specific forms of display undertaken by
25 modern fans recall a tradition more ancient than sports:
the organized festivities, both secular and religious, of
preindustrial societies throughout the world. Almost
universally, these have involved masking, costuming,
dancing, and feasting, all of which are in abundance at
30 today's sports stadiums. Face painting is a form of
masking; synchronized motions like the Wave a kind of
dance. When commentators complain that today's
demonstrative fans are turning the game into a "carni-
val," they only betray their ignorance of history: Carni-
35 val was in fact the traditional setting for medieval
sports such as wrestling, bull running, and archery.
Only remnants of the European festive tradition
survived into the modern era. Beginning in the 16th
century, authorities moved to suppress popular festivi-
40 ties on the grounds that they were disorderly, indecent,
un-Christian, and, especially as the Industrial Revolu-
tion gained ground, an extravagant waste of time. Feast
days were cancelled and raucous celebrations were
transformed into prayer vigils. Sports fell under attack.
45 The result today is a culture fairly desolate of
joyous communal ritual. Sports enjoyed a revival in the
late 19th century, but only because they were seen as a
fine source of nationalistic values; later they were
encouraged largely as a tame form of "entertainment."
50 In today's multi-billion-dollar sports industry, it no
longer takes a village to score a touchdown.
Hence, perhaps, the attempts by fans to transform
sports events into an occasion for communal festivity
where else, in a culture of cubicles and malls, can you
55 lose yourself so completely in a transient community of
like-minded others?
Unfortunately, English lacks a word, or even a
graceful phrase, for the desire for ebullient self-
expression and excited merger with the crowd. What
60 today's demonstrative fans are telling us is that it
cannot be suppressed forever.
9. Details in the passage most strongly suggest that the
author considers the actions of today's sports fans:
A. inconsequential.
B. disagreeable.
C. understandable.
D. generous.
10. Which of the following questions is NOT directly
answered by the passage?
F. Why have sociologists paid little attention to fan
behavior at today's sporting events?
G. How do some fans express themselves at current
sporting events?
H. What are some sports that were typically sched-
uled during Carnival?
J. Why have authorities in the past felt the need to
suppress participation in sporting events?
11. Which of the following activities mentioned in the pas-
sage best illustrates the type of "participation" referred
to in line 11?
A. Playing a game of football
B. Doing the Wave during a game
C. Writing professional sports commentary
D. Watching a game on television
12. According to the passage, in contrast to the profes-
sional sporting events of today, the football game
played in medieval Europe:
F. included a wider variety of people.
G. resulted in more injuries.
H. lacked a set of rules.
J. rarely occurred during holiday festivities.
13. If the fifth paragraph (lines 37-44) were deleted, the
passage would primarily lose information about:
A. authorities expelling some fans from European
sporting events in the 16th century.
B. fans preferring to attend prayer vigils instead of
sporting events.
C. European sporting traditions continuing in today's
stadiums.
D. authorities preventing people from engaging in
popular celebrations.
14. The idea presented in the seventh paragraph (lines
52-56) can best be described as:
F. a fact confirmed by the passage's quotation from
Guttmann.
G. a fact validated by the passage's claim that billions
of dollars are spent in the sports industry.
H. an opinion held by the sports commentators
referred to in the passage.
J. a theory presented by the author to explain sports
fans' behavior.
15. In the passage, the author criticizes commentators who
complain about some sports fans because she believes
these commentators:
A. spend too much time talking about fan behavior.
B. need to focus more on the game being played and
less on the athletes.
C. don't understand the history of sporting events.
D. don't realize the athletes need fans' enthusiasm to
win the game.
16. As it is used in line 33, the word demonstrative most
nearly means:
F. rowdy and flamboyant.
G. instructive and knowledgeable.
H. affectionate and warmhearted.
J. honest and brutal.
PLAN-31 B

3
Passage III
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the article "The
Secret of the Stradivarius Sound" by Dana Wall (2002 by
Newsweek, Inc.).
A Stradivarius violin is a highly prized violin made by Antonio
Stradivari, who in the mid-1600s established a stringed-
instrument shop in Cremona, Italy. His interpretation of design
for the violin has served as a model for violinmakers for
centuries.
When I was a boy, my father told me he could do
anything he wanted to do. I believed him. Dad said he
wanted to become the first photographer in Sioux City,
Iowa, to develop color prints. He did, and his prints
5 were displayed for weeks at the local camera store.
When I was 13, I said I wanted an "Olson-60"
gasoline engine for my balsa-wood model airplanes.
Dad said he could build it for me. He borrowed my
friend's motor, took measurements, made wooden parts,
10 cast them in aluminum and turned the pieces on his
lathe until they fit. He purchased only a spark plug, the
gas tank and a rubber fuel line.
When I was 16, Dad looked closely at the violin I
played and announced that he wanted to make one. He
15 read about violinmaking, then became a violinmaker at
the age of 43. He bought the tools and materials from a
local stringed-instrument repairperson, leased a small
storefront and set Mom up as the shopkeeper, while he
worked until 3 p.m. at the local telephone company.
20 From 3:15 p.m. until he decided to quit for the
day, Dad was at his shop. He retired from the phone
company 17 years later and continued to make violins,
violas and at least one cello. He sold and rented his
instruments to students and repaired stringed instru-
25 ments for area musicians.
Dad often speculated about the superiority of
Stradivarius violins. He'd occasionally read a magazine
or newspaper article in which an expert claimed it was
the unique varnish that gave those instruments their
30 beautiful sound. Dad argued that chemists could ana-
lyze and duplicate the varnish, if that were the answer.
Other experts said it was the craftsmanship, but Dad
said if that were the case, modern technology would
allow us to fashion exact duplicates of Stradivari's
35 works.
One of Dad's friends once asked him which kinds
of woods were used in making a fiddle. When Dad
explained that the top of a violin was made of spruce,
his friend said he had an old chunk of spruce he might
40 be interested in.
The friend explained that this was not just any
piece of wood. He had found it when he was fighting
below an ancient monastery at Monte Cassino in Italy
during World War II. As he scrambled through the
45 ruins, he picked up a section of timber less than two
feet long to keep as a souvenir. When he returned
home, he put the wood on a storage shelf in his base-
ment, where it had stayed for the last 20 years. Dad's
eyes widened when he heard the story.
50 The violin with the Monte Cassino spruce top was
Dad's masterpiece. He had discovered on his own what
many experts now agree is the secret of the Stradivarius
sound: it was the wood itself that resonated so beauti-
fully. The abbey at Monte Cassino was first built in
55 529; the last reconstruction had been done in 1349. Dad
reasoned old Stradivari had access to spruce that had
cured for centuries, perhaps ancient timbers from a
ruined medieval castle or cathedral.
Leo Kucinski, the venerable conductor of the
60 Sioux City Symphony Orchestra, was one of Dad's
many musician friends. The maestro stopped at the
violin shop almost weekly to talk and to play the Monte
Cassino violin. So did others. But Dad would never sell
it.
17. The author does NOT suggest which of the following
as a trait he admires in his father?
A. His talent as a violin player
B. His love of a challenge
C. His skill in designing violins
D. His capacity to reason and analyze
18. It is clear from the passage that Dad has created all of
the following items EXCEPT:
F. several color photographic prints.
G. a gasoline engine for a model airplane.
H. several stringed instruments.
J. the wooden body of a model airplane.
19. According to the passage, which of the following
events occurred first in Dad's life?
A. He hears a friend's story about a piece of Monte
Cassino spruce.
B. He announces that he would like to make a violin.
C. He retires from his job at the local telephone
company.
D. He repairs stringed instruments for area musicians.
20. The main purpose of the first three paragraphs (lines
1-19) is to allow the author to describe several
instances in which his father was able to:
F. persuade the author to explore a new hobby.
G. educate himself to prepare for a new responsibility
at his job.
H. accomplish exactly what he wanted to do.
J. convince skeptical neighbors, friends, and cowork-
ers that he was a skilled craftsman.
3
21. The passage most strongly suggests that Stradivari
constructed the top of his violins using wood:
A. from the ruins of the abbey at Monte Cassino.
B. that was similar to the timber Dad's friend found
at Monte Cassino.
C. that varied dramatically and seemingly randomly
in type, age, and origin.
D. from ruined castles and cathedrals that had been
first constructed around 1300.
22. It is clear from the passage that for at least a short time
as a teenager. the author:
F. played the violin.
G. practiced making violins.
H. repaired stringed instruments with his father.
J. researched the secret of the Stradivarius sound.
23. The passage implies that Dad ran his shop with the
help of:
A. Mom only.
B. Mom and the author.
C. one of his musician friends and the author.
D. no one; he ran the shop by himself.
24. According to the passage, in his shop Dad made:
F. more cellos than violas.
G. many violas but only a few special violins.
H. about the same number of violins, violas, and
cellos.
J. many more violins and violas than cellos.
25. The last paragraph suggests all of the following about
Dad's Monte Cassino violin EXCEPT that:
A. the story of the violin was well known by musi-
cians in Sioux City.
B. Dad welcomed the company of a musician who
stopped at his shop to play the violin.
C. Dad invited musicians from the orchestra to
borrow the violin for special performances.
D. at least one person had offered to buy it.
END OF TEST 3
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
PLAN-31B
29
4
SCIENCE TEST
DIRECTIONS: There are five passages in this test. Each
passage is followed by several questions. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question and
fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. You
may refer to the passages as often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
Three common coat colors in domestic catsblack,
orange, and tortoiseshell (a mixture of black patches of
fur and orange patches of fur)are affected by Gene B.
Gene B has 2 alleles. Allele B results in orange fur, and
Allele b results in black fur. A researcher observed that
coat color is not inherited in the pattern that would be
expected if Gene B were located on an autosomal chromo-
some (any chromosome other than X or Y). To determine
how coat color is inherited in cats, the researcher con-
ducted 2 crosses.
Cross 1
An orange male cat and a black female cat were mated
multiple times to produce 29 offspring. Table 1 shows the
phenotype and gender of the resulting offspring.
Table 1
Coat color Male Female
phenotype offspring offspring
Orange 0 0
Black 14 0
Tortoiseshell 0 15
Cross 2
A tortoiseshell female offspring from Cross 1 and a
black male cat were mated multiple times to produce
60 offspring. Table 2 shows the number of male and female
offspring with each coat color, and the percent of offspring
with each coat color.
Table 2
Coat color
phenotype
Male
offspring
Female
offspring
Percent of
offspring
Orange
Black
Tortoiseshell
12
18
0
0
15
15
20
55
25
The researcher concluded that Gene B is located on
the X chromosome (it is sex-linked) and determined the
genotype(s) responsible for each coat color (see Table 3).
Table 3
Coat color Genotype(s)
Orange
Black
Tortoiseshell
XBXB or XB Y
XbXb or XbY
XBXb
Note: X indicates the X chromosome
and Y indicates the Y chromosome.
1. Suppose a breeder wanted to produce only black cats.
Based on Table 3, which of the crosses listed below
would produce only black cats?
I. XbY
x
XBXB
II. XbY x XbXb
III. XBY
x
XBXb
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
2. Based on Table 1, the percent of offspring produced in
Cross 1 that were black was closest to which of the
following?
F. 0%
G. 15%
H. 50%
J. 100%
PLAN-31B

A. 20
16
12
8
4
0

orange black tortoise-
shell
coat color
C. 20
16
.2 12
8
4
0
D. 20
16
.2 12
8
4
0
shell
coat color
shell
coat color
shell
coat color
4
3. Which of the following graphs best represents the
results of Cross 2 ?
Key
K male offspring
I female offspring
4. Based on Tables 2 and 3, what percent of offspring
from Cross 2 had the genotype X BY ?
F. 20%
G. 25%
H. 55%
J. 100%
5. The designs of Cross 1 and Cross 2 differed in which
of the following ways?
A. The parents were mated multiple times in Cross 1,
but not in Cross 2.
B. The parents were mated multiple times in Cross 2,
but not in Cross 1.
C. One of the parents had the tortoiseshell phenotype
in Cross 1, but not in Cross 2.
D. One of the parents had the tortoiseshell phenotype
in Cross 2, but not in Cross 1.
6. Female cats can have which of the 3 common coat
colors listed in Table 3 ?
F. Orange only
G. Tortoiseshell only
H. Orange or black only
J. Orange, black, or tortoiseshell
7. Suppose a third cross had been conducted in which one
parent had the genotype X BY and the other parent had
the genotype XBXB . Based on Table 3, which of the
following statements about the coat color(s) of the off-
spring would most likely have been true?
A. All of the offspring would have had orange coats.
B. All of the offspring would have had black coats.
C. All of the offspring would have had tortoiseshell
coats.
D. Some of the offspring would have had orange
coats and some of the offspring would have had
black coats.
PLAN-31 B

28
26
24
22
20
E 18
16
14
cu 12
Cl
g 10
cl 8
6
4
2
0
4
Passage II
Poecilia reticulata (a type of fish of the genus
Poecilia) have been bred in captivity for many years. As a
result, many strains exist. A researcher performed an
experiment to investigate 2 strains (Strains A and B) of
Poecilia reticulata.
Experiment
For each strain, 200 newborn fish were evenly divided
into 20 groups. Each group was raised in a different fish
tank in 2.5 L of 23C water. The 10 fish in each tank were
raised under otherwise identical conditions from birth
(Day 0) until they were 180 days old (Day 180). All the
fish were alive at the end of the experiment. On Day 0, it
was not possible to determine which fish were females and
which were males. By Day 30, however, this distinction
could be made and the researcher determined that for
Strain A, there were 100 females and 100 males. For
Strain B, there were 96 females and 104 males.
Every 30 days, the length of each fish was measured
to the nearest millimeter (mm). For each strain, the mea-
surements from the females were averaged together and the
measurements from the males were averaged together.
Figure 1 shows the average length at each age. For Day 0,
the results for the females and males of Strain A were aver-
aged together, and the results for the females and males of
Strain B were averaged together.
Key
Strain A female
s Strain B female
A Strain A male
a Strain B male
Figure 2 shows the percent of females at each length
on Day 180 by strain.
Key
El Strain A
FemalesDay 180
I Strain B
28
26
24
22
20
18
16
8 14
a 12
10
8
6
4
2
0
15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29 31 33 35
length (mm)
Figure 2
Figures adapted from Masamichi Nakajima and Nobuhiko
Taniguchi, "Genetic Control of Growth in the Guppy (Poecilia
reticulata)." 2002 by Elsevier Science B. V.
0 30 60 90 120 150 180
Day
Figure 1
8. Prior to the experiment, the researcher proposed that
on Day 180, the Strain A fish would be larger than the
Strain B fish. This proposal is an example of which of
the following?
F. A hypothesis
G. A treatment
H. A variable
J. A control
9. Which of the following best represents the experimen-
tal question investigated in the experiment?
A. How did water temperature affect growth?
B. Was body size related to food intake?
C. At what age were the females able to reproduce?
D. Did the 2 strains have different growth rates?
10. Based on Figure 2, which of the following measure-
ments was recorded for at least one of the Strain A
females on Day 180 ?
F. 15 mm
G. 21 mm
H. 27 mm
J. 33 mm
PLAN-31B
32

4
11. The average length of which 2 groups remained con-
stant from Day 150 to Day 180 ?
A. Strain A females and Strain B females
B. Strain A females and Strain B males
C. Strain A males and Strain B females
D. Strain A males and Strain B males
12. On Day 180, was the average length for all of the
female fish greater than the average length for all of
the male fish?
F. Yes; the female average was about 7.5 mm greater
than the male average.
G. Yes; the female average was about 9.5 mm greater
H. No; the female average was about 7.5 mm less
J.
No; the female average was about 9.5 mm less
13. Based on the design of the experiment, the researcher
most likely tried to keep which of the following the
same across all of the fish tanks?
A. The strain of the fish added on Day 0
B. The amount of food added during the experiment
C. The average length of the fish throughout the
experiment
D. The average mass of the fish throughout the
experiment
14. According to Figure 2, on Day 180, as the length of the
female Strain B fish increased from 20 mm to 25 mm
by 1 mm increments, the percent of female Strain B
fish:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only.
H. increased, then decreased.
J. decreased, then increased.
PLAN-31B

Passage III
Atoms of a chemical element that undergo beta decay
(a type of radioactive decay) become atoms of a different
chemical element.
Table 1 gives the chemical symbols for 3 isotopes
(forms) of the chemical elements boron, oxygen, and fluo-
rine that undergo a particular type of beta decay, the name
and the chemical symbol for the beta decay product of each
isotope, and the type of information contained in each
chemical symbol.
Figure 1 shows how, in separate samples of the
oxygen and fluorine isotopes, the percentages of the iso-
topes change over time. Figure 2 shows how, for the same
samples, the percentages of their beta decay products
change over time.
Table 1
Chemical
element
Chemical symbol
for an isotope
that undergoes a
particular type of
beta decay
Beta
decay
product
Chemical
symbol of
beta decay
product
Boron
Oxygen
Fluorine
B*
5
15,-,
8`-'
17
9
F
beryllium
nitrogen
oxygen
Be
4D .
15 N
17
80
*The symbol 85B shows that every atom of boron con-
tains 5 protons, and that in every atom of this particular
isotope of boron, the total number of protons and neu-
trons equals 8. Therefore, every atom of this isotope of
boron contains 3 neutrons. Every atom of another iso-
tope of boron, 115B, contains 6 neutrons.

p
e
r
c
e
n
t
a
g
e

o
f

r
a
d
i
o
a
c
t
i
v
e

e
l
e
m
e
n
t

Key
15 0
8
17F

0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400 440 480 520 560
time (sec)
Figure 1
PLAN-31B
i
16. Based on Table 1, an atom of 10 contains how many
protons?
F. 7
G. 8
H. 15
J. 23
F.
G.
0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400 440 480 520 560
time (sec)
Figure 2
Key
15xT
7
17,-1
p
e
r
c
e
n
t
a
g
e

o
f

d
e
c
a
y

p
r
o
d
u
c
t

15. According to Figure 2, at 280 sec, the percentage of
I N in the sample is closest to which of the following?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
18. A sample is initially composed of an isotope of Ele-
ment X. As the isotope of Element X undergoes beta
decay, Element Y is produced. Once produced, Ele-
ment Y does not disappear. Based on Figures 1 and 2,
which of the following graphs best represents how the
percentages of the isotopes of Elements X and Y in the
sample will change over time?
17. Half-life is the time it takes for 50% of the atoms in a
sample of a radioactive isotope to decay. According to
Figure 1, the half-life of 10 is closest to which of the
following?
A. 0.5 sec
B. 1.0 sec
C. 120 sec
D. 280 sec
19. Each time an atom undergoes the particular type of
beta decay that is undergone by the isotopes listed in
Table 1, the number of protons in the atom will:
A. increase by 1.
B. decrease by 1.
C. decrease by 2.
D. remain the same.
PLAN-31B

4
Passage IV
A teacher made a salt solution by adding 1 mole of
NaCl to 1 kg of H2O. A sugar solution was made by adding
1 mole of sucrose to 1 kg of H2O. A mole consists of
6 x 1023 formula units or molecules of any compound.
Thus, the number of NaC1 units in 1 mole equals the
number of sucrose molecules in 1 mole.
The teacher asked 4 students to predict whether the
BP (boiling point at 1 atmosphere of pressure) of pure H 2O
will differ from the BPs of the salt and sugar solutions, and
if so, how.
Student 1
All 3 liquids will have the same BP. The BP of H 2O is
not affected by the presence of dissolved substances.
Student 2
Pure H2O will have the highest BP. A liquid boils
when enough heat is added to make the molecules of the
liquid break free of each other. When a substance is dis-
solved in H2O, the dissolved particles end up between
some of the H2O molecules. Since fewer H2O molecules
are in contact with each other, less heat is needed to cause
boiling. Thus, the salt and sugar solutions will have a
lower BP than will pure H2O. The salt and sugar solutions
will have the same BP because they have the same concen-
tration of dissolved particles.
Student 3
Pure H2O will have the lowest BP. Dissolving a sub-
stance in H2O increases viscosity. More heat must be added
to dislodge H2O molecules from the more viscous solution,
so the BP is higher than that of pure H2O. Although the
sugar and salt solutions have the same dissolved particle
concentration, the sugar solution is more viscous. Thus, the
sugar solution will have the highest BP.
Student 4
Pure H2O will have the lowest BP. The salt and sugar
solutions will have higher BPs that are determined only by
the concentration of dissolved particles. Even though
1 mole of each substance was added to the same mass of
H2 O, the salt solution contains twice as many dissolved
particles. In H2O, each NaC1 dissolves into 1 Nal- particle
and 1 Cl- particle, while sucrose molecules remain intact.
Thus, the salt solution will have the highest BP. Dissolving
substances in liquids increases the viscosity and the BP, but
the properties are not related. The sugar solution is more
viscous than the salt solution, yet will have a lower BP.
20. Which of the students predict(s) that the sugar solution
will have a higher BP than the salt solution?
F. Student 2 only
G. Student 3 only
H. Students 1 and 4 only
J. Students 2 and 3 only
21. Which of the students would agree that adding salt to a
sample of H2O will increase its BP ?
A. Student 1 only
B. Students 2 and 3 only
C. Students 3 and 4 only
D. Students 1, 2, 3, and 4
4
22. Which
the
with
F.
G.
H.
J.
of the following sets of values for the BPs of
salt and sugar solutions would be most consistent
Student 2's explanation?
Salt solution Sugar solution
24. A chemist claimed that adding more sugar to the sugar
solution will decrease its BP. This claim is most consis-
tent with the explanation provided by which student?
F. Student 1
G. Student 2
H. Student 3
J. Student 4
25. Students 3 and 4 would agree with which of the fol-
lowing statements comparing the effect of dissolving
1 mole of NaC1 in 1 kg of H2O to the effect of dissolv-
ing 1 mole of sucrose in 1 kg of H2O ?
99C
99C
101C
102C
98C
99C
101C
101C
23. Student 4 would most likely predict that which of the
following liquids would have the highest BP ?
A. Pure H2O
B. 2 moles of sucrose dissolved in 1 kg of H2O
C. 4 moles of sucrose dissolved in 1 kg of H2O
D. 3 moles of NaCl dissolved in 1 kg of H 2O
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dissolving the NaCl will increase the viscosity by
a lesser amount than will dissolving the sucrose.
Dissolving the NaCl will increase the viscosity by
a greater amount than will dissolving the sucrose.
Dissolving the NaC1 will increase the viscosity by
the same amount as will dissolving the sucrose,
Neither dissolving the NaC1 nor dissolving the
sucrose will cause the viscosity to change.

PLAN-31B
Passage V
Acid rain (pH < 5.0) affects the pH of many Upper
Midwest and Northeast U.S. lakes. Factories and cars emit
SO2 gas, which enters the atmosphere and reacts with
oxygen to form SO3 . The SO3 then reacts with water
droplets to form sulfuric acid (H2SO4). The H2SO4 mixes
with more water in the atmosphere, forming acid rain
droplets. Figure 1 shows the yearly total SO2 emissions in
the Midwest from 1978 to 1996. Figures 2 and 3 show the
average S042- concentration and pH of Upper Midwest
lakes and of Northeast lakes, respectively, from 1982 to
2002.
0
11.0
0.o
9.0 -
7.0 -
o
x
5.0
1978 1981 1984 1987 1990 1993 1996
year
Figure 1
Figure 1 adapted from "Progress Report on the EPA Acid Rain Pro-
gram." 1999 by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
100
-tel" 90
o
t e s
CI) ' tn i
80
ao
'0-3 70
a) u 3
60
u 3
o
50
40
Upper Midwest lakes -
7.0
6.5
6.0
5.5
5.0
1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002
year
Figure 2
4.
0 N
160
0 o
'
140
ci) , ' L-1
E r120
16 8 'a 100
o
80
6.5
6.0
5.5
5.0
4.5
1982 1984 1986 1988 1990 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002
year
Figure 3
Figures 2 and 3 adapted from "Response of Surface Water Chemistry to the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990." 2003 by the U.S. Environ-
mental Protection Agency.
PLAN-31 B

4
26. Based on Figure 3, the average 50 4
2-
concentration of
Northeast lakes in 2003 was most likely closest to
which of the following?
F. 601.1eq/L
G. 85 Req/L
H. 110 lieq/L
J. 1351.teq/L
27. Suppose the data in Figures 2 and 3 were for a particu-
lar Upper Midwest lake and a particular Northeast
lake, respectively. Smallmouth bass, which survive
only in water having a pH 5.0 or higher, would have
survived in which lake(s), if either, in 1996 ?
A. The Upper Midwest lake only
B. The Northeast lake only
C. Both lakes
D. Neither lake
28. According to Figure 2, as the average S0 42- concentra-
tion decreased, the average pH of water in Upper Mid-
west lakes:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only.
H. decreased, then increased.
J. remained constant.
29. Is the statement "A reduction in the yearly total SO 2
emissions in the Midwest between 1982 and 1996
resulted in an increase in the average S0 42- concentra-
tion of Upper Midwest lakes" consistent with Figures 1
and 2?
A. Yes, because while yearly total SO 2 emissions
decreased, the average S0 42- concentration of
Upper Midwest lakes increased.
B. Yes, because while yearly total SO 2 emissions
Upper Midwest lakes decreased.
C. No, because while yearly total SO2 emissions
Upper Midwest lakes increased.
D. No, because while yearly total SO2 emissions
Upper Midwest lakes decreased.
30. Suppose a 10 mL sample of lake water that has a pH
equal to the average pH of Northeast lakes in 1990
were collected. The sample would most likely be made
more acidic by the addition of 100 mL of lake water
that has a pH equal to the average pH of Northeast
lakes in which of the following years?
F. 1986
G. 1994
H. 1998
J. 2002
END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.
PLAN-31 B
39

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