The Competitive Edge

(Based on SBI CLERK latest pattern)

No. of Questions : Time :
Name of Examinee: ____________________________ Batch No.: __________
Read the under mentioned directions carefully.
1. This Test Booklet Sections contains five sections as follows:
Test I - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos 1-40
Test II - English Language Q.Nos 41-80
Test III - Computer Knowledge Q.Nos. 81-120
Test IV - General Awareness Q.Nos. 121-160
Test V - Test of Reasoning Q.Nos. 161-200
2. You will be given an aggregate time of 2 hours to answer all the five sections. The tests are not separately timed. You
may distribute the time as per your choice but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify
on each of the five sections separately like Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Computer Knowledge, General
Awareness, Test of Reasoning.
3. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. Those questions for which a wrong answer will be given, one
fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
4. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this Test Booklet itself and not on the OMR Sheet. For this purpose
use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this Test Booklet. Do not use any other paper.
5. Indicate your answers on the separate OMR sheet given with the Test Booklet using HB pencil.
6. Your OMR sheet contains answer-spaces for answering 200 questions. Use those answer spaces for answering the
respective questions.
7. Do not open the Test Booklet until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try
to remove the wire staples at the left.
8. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 200 are properly
printed in your Test Booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another
Test Booklet.
281, Saheed Nagar, Bhubaneswar-7
0674-2544023
9437194105, 9437276123
Web site: www.thecompetitiveedge.in
TCE0713-E01 BR01 Test Series:
Test Battery No:
200 2 hrs.
The Competitive Edge
(Based on SBI CLERK latest pattern)
No. of Questions : Time :
Name of Examinee: ____________________________ Batch No.: __________
Read the under mentioned directions carefully.
1. This Test Booklet Sections contains five sections as follows:
Test I - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos 1-40
Test II - English Language Q.Nos 41-80
Test III - Computer Knowledge Q.Nos. 81-120
Test IV - General Awareness Q.Nos. 121-160
Test V - Test of Reasoning Q.Nos. 161-200
2. You will be given an aggregate time of 2 hours to answer all the five sections. The tests are not separately timed. You
may distribute the time as per your choice but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify
on each of the five sections separately like Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Computer Knowledge, General
Awareness, Test of Reasoning.
3. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. Those questions for which a wrong answer will be given, one
fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
4. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this Test Booklet itself and not on the OMR Sheet. For this purpose
use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this Test Booklet. Do not use any other paper.
5. Indicate your answers on the separate OMR sheet given with the Test Booklet using HB pencil.
6. Your OMR sheet contains answer-spaces for answering 200 questions. Use those answer spaces for answering the
respective questions.
7. Do not open the Test Booklet until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try
to remove the wire staples at the left.
8. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 200 are properly
printed in your Test Booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another
Test Booklet.
281, Saheed Nagar, Bhubaneswar-7
0674-2544023
9437194105, 9437276123
Web site: www.thecompetitiveedge.in
TCE0713-E01 BR01 Test Series:
Test Battery No:
200 2 hrs.
The Competitive Edge
(Based on SBI CLERK latest pattern)
No. of Questions : Time :
Name of Examinee: ____________________________ Batch No.: __________
Read the under mentioned directions carefully.
1. This Test Booklet Sections contains five sections as follows:
Test I - Quantitative Aptitude Q.Nos 1-40
Test II - English Language Q.Nos 41-80
Test III - Computer Knowledge Q.Nos. 81-120
Test IV - General Awareness Q.Nos. 121-160
Test V - Test of Reasoning Q.Nos. 161-200
2. You will be given an aggregate time of 2 hours to answer all the five sections. The tests are not separately timed. You
may distribute the time as per your choice but remember that to qualify in the written test as a whole you have to qualify
on each of the five sections separately like Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Computer Knowledge, General
Awareness, Test of Reasoning.
3. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. Those questions for which a wrong answer will be given, one
fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
4. Rough work, if you want to do any, is to be done in this Test Booklet itself and not on the OMR Sheet. For this purpose
use the empty space in the margin or anywhere else you find in this Test Booklet. Do not use any other paper.
5. Indicate your answers on the separate OMR sheet given with the Test Booklet using HB pencil.
6. Your OMR sheet contains answer-spaces for answering 200 questions. Use those answer spaces for answering the
respective questions.
7. Do not open the Test Booklet until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try
to remove the wire staples at the left.
8. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 200 are properly
printed in your Test Booklet and then begin answering the test. In case the booklet is defective get it replaced by another
Test Booklet.
281, Saheed Nagar, Bhubaneswar-7
0674-2544023
9437194105, 9437276123
Web site: www.thecompetitiveedge.in
TCE0713-E01 BR01 Test Series:
Test Battery No:
200 2 hrs.
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-2-
SBI/CLERICAL
Test-I
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q.1-15): What should come in place of the
question mark (?) In the following questions?
1. ? 5 18 630
1) 7 2)14 3)10 4)175 5) None of
these
2. ?
3
2
3
5
1
4
5
3
12
1)
5
1
28 2)
15
2
27 3)28 4)
15
7
26
5) None of these
3. ? 480 of
4
5
of
4
3
of
5
2

1) 90 2)120 3)240 4)180 5)None of

these
4. 2578 ? 481 3257 8934
1) 6158 2)3580 3)3040 4)3400 5)None of
these
5. ? 6 135 8424
1) 124.8 2)249.6 3)374.4 4)274.4 5) None of
these
6. ? 2 . 3 5 . 8 5 . 3 12
1) 14.8 2)18.4 3)69.2 4)16.8 5)None of
these
7. ? 25 . 4142 44 . 134 56 . 23
1) 4302.25 2)4300.75 3)4301.25
4)4300.25 5)None of these
8. 5 . 276 360 of % ? 430 of % 35
1) 30 2)25 3)45 4)15 5)None of
these
9. ? 485 of
5
3
567 of
9
5

1) 24 2)606 3)480 4)600 5)None of
these
10. ? 650 of % 24 450 of % 140
1) 786 2)474 3)800 4)488 5) None of
these
11.
4
3
23 ?
6
5
4
4
3
3
1)
8
5
4 2)
2
1
5 3)
8
3
5 4)
8
5
5 5) None of
these
12. 235 15 ?
2

1) 10 2)121 3)144 4)100 5) None of
these
13. ?
) 11 ( 196 6
8 12 4 34
2 2



1)
121
40
2)
171
36
3)
171
14
4)
171
22
5) None of
these
14. ? 450 of % 2 . 4 1400 of % 03 . 2
1) 18.09 2)10.33 3)24.42 4)46.51 5) None of
these
15. ? 14 392 24 3960
1) 4305 2)193 3)4620 4)2310 5)None of
these
Directions (Q.16-20): what should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following series?
16. 8 39 155 464 ?
1) 231 2)463 3)1391 4)927 5) None of
these
17. 4 5 14 51 ?
1) 158 2)156 3)260 4)208 5) None of
these
18. 7 8 17 42 ?
1) 67 2)78 3)91 4)106 5)None of
these
19. 5 6 15 50 ?
1) 207 2)157 3)155 4)205 5) None of
these
20. 729 243 81 27 ?
1) 18 2)9 3)3 4)15 5) None of
these
21. The ratio between the boys and girls in a class is
6 : 5 respectively. If 8 more boys join the class
and two girls leave the class then the respective
ratio becomes 11 : 7. what is the number of boys
in the class now?
1) 28 2)38 3)44 4)36 5) None of
these
22. Mohan purchased an article and sold it for Rs.
2817.50 and earned 15 per cent profit on the cost
price. What was the cost price of the article?
1) Rs. 2,500 2) Rs.; 2,450 3) Rs. 2,550
4) Rs. 3,315 5) None of these
23. The difference between the average of three
consecutive even numbers and the average of the
next two consecutive even numbers is 5. what is
the first even number?
1) 10 2)12 3)14 4)Cant be
determined 5) none of these
24. Cost of 24 bats anu 32 sticks in Rs. 5,600. What
is the price of 3 bats and 4 sticks?
1) Rs. 1,400 2) Rs. 2,800 3) Rs. 700
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
25. Which of the following has the fraction in
descending order?
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-3-
SBI/CLERICAL
1)
5
3
,
9
7
,
11
9
,
7
5
2)
11
9
,
9
7
,
7
5
,
5
3
3)
5
3
,
7
5
,
9
7
,
11
9
4)
9
7
,
5
3
,
7
5
,
11
9
5) None of
these
26. A 160 metre long train running at a speed of 90
kmph crosses a platform in 18 seconds. What is
the length of the platform in meters?
1) 210 2)240 3)290 4)310 5) None of
these
27. 75% of a number is equal to four-fifth of another
number. What is the ratio between the first
number and the second number respectively?
1) 16 : 15 2) 15 : 14 3) 5 : 6 4)
15 : 16 5) None of these
28. What will be the difference between the
compound interest and simple interest at the rate
of 5 p.c.p.a on an amount of Rs. 4,000 at the end
of the years?
1) Rs. 10 2) Rs. 20 3) Rs. 25
4) data inadequate 5) none of these
29. The difference between the digits of a two digit
number is 4 and the digit in the units place is
one-third of the digit in the tenths place. What
is the two-digit number?
1) 26 2)31 3)93 4)62 5) Cant be
determined
30. The average of four consecutive even numbers is
27. what is the highest number?
1) 32 2)28 3)30 4)34 5) None of
these
31. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is
3 : 4 respectively. four years hence Q will be
five years older than P. What is Ps present age?
1) 15 years 2) 20 years 3) 25 years
4) cant be determined 5) none of these
32. Gaurav spends 40% of the amount he received
from his father on hostel expenses, 20% on
books and stationary and 50% of the remaining
on transport. he saves Rs. 450 which is half the
remaining amount after spending on hostel
expenses, books etc. and transport, how much
money did he get from his father?
1) Rs. 3000 2) Rs. 6000 3) Rs. 45000
4) Cant be determined 5) None of
these
33. 45% of a number is less than its 64% by 38.
what is 20% of that number?
1) 20 2) 40 3) 10 4) 60 5) none of
these
34. 12 mean can complete one-third of the work in 8
days. in how many days can 16 men complete
the work?
1) 18 2) 12 3) 24 4) cant be
determined 5) none of these
35. What is the average of the following set of
numbers?
38 92 45 25 60
1) 48 2) 54 3) 56 4)50 5) None of
these
Directions (Q.36-40): Study the following table
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Number of students in five disciplines of a college over
the years
Discipli
ne
Year
Ar
ts
Scien
ce
Comme
rce
Managem
ent
Agricult
ure
2001 24
0
358 275 215 314
2002 26
0
390 286 234 365
2003 27
5
374 265 269 336
2004 28
4
368 290 255 348
2005 29
6
415 272 284 326
2006 31
2
432 364 276 383
36. In which year the percentage change in the case
of agriculture discipline was highest from the
previous year?
1) 2002 2) 2003 3) 2004 4) 2005 5) 2006
37. What was approximate percentage increase in
the number of students in commerce discipline
from 2003 to 2004?
1) 14 2)18 3)20 4)9 5)22
38. In which year was the difference in number of
students in arts and science exactly 130?
1) 2001 2)2002 3)2004 4)2006 5) None of
these
39. the total number of students in agriculture in
2001 and 2005 together was approximately what
per cent of number of students from the same
discipline in 2002?
1) 75 2)165 3)65 4)175 5)190
40. In which discipline was there a continuous
increase in number of students over the given
years?
1) science 2) agriculture 3) arts
4) commerce 5) management
Test-II
Test of English
Directions (Q.41-48): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-4-
SBI/CLERICAL
certain words have been printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked
together all day, and keshav would pour out his heart to
the donkey. One day, keshava was walking home with the
donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree
and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window
was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard
scolding the students. Here I am, trying to turn you
donkeys into human beings, but you just wont study !
As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked
up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans !
This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited
for school to be over that day. When everyone had gone
home, and only the teacher remained behind to check
some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.
How can I help you? asked the teacher. Keshava
scratced his head and said, I heard what you said to the
children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it
human, we could have such good times together. The
teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think
for a while and then said, Give me six months and it will
cost you a thousand rupees. The Washerman agreed and
rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in
the teachers care.
After the six months were up, Keshava went to the
teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his
own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, Oh, your
donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the
headman of the next village. when keshava reached the
next village he found the village elders sitting under a
tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they
were when keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed
his arm and said, How dare you? You think you are so
clever that you ray away? come home at once!
The headman understood someone had played a trick on
Keshava. I am not your donkey ! he said. Go find the
sage in the forest, Keshava found the sage sitting under
a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept
up and grabbed the sages beard. Come back home now
! he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed
Keshavga. When he heard what had happened, he had a
good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, The
teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still
with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make
some real friends, who will talk with you and share your
troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !
keshava returned home later that day with his donkey,
sadder and wiser.
41. Which of the following can be said about the
teacher?
1) he had the ability to transform animals into
human beings
2) he took advantage of Keshavas simple
nature
3) he had plotted with the village headman to
cheat keshava
4) he enjoyed teaching children though he was
poorly paid
5) he was honest and used Keshavas money to
care for the donkey
42. Why did keshava talk to his donkey while
working?
1) he wanted to practice his communication
skills because he wanted to make friends.
2) to entertain himself because he found his
work monotonous
3) the donkey helped him to find answers to
his problems
4) he regarded the donkey as his friend and
confided in him
5) he believed the donkey to be a human being
in disguise
43. How did keshava get his donkey back?
1) he threatened to take the teacher to the
village elders
2) the sage forced the teacher to release the
donkey
3) he asked the village headman for help
4) the teacher returned it on learning that
keshava had learnt his lesson
5) none of these
44. which of the following is NOT true in the
context of the passage?
A. the donkey was over burdened by the
teacher.
B. the teacher was cunning by nature.
C. the sage laughed at keshava and treated him
unkindly.
1) both A and C 2) both B and C
3) only B 4) all A, B and C 5) none of
these
45. Why was keshava keen to meet the teacher one
day?
1) keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to
make his donkey a better companion.
2) he wanted to learn more prayers as he was
devout
3) he had been reliably informe3d that the
teacher had changed donkeys into human
beings
4) he heeded the teachers words of advice and
wanted to study
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-5-
SBI/CLERICAL
5) none of these
46. why did keshava interrupt the discussion among
the village elders?
1) he did not agree with their views on
different issues
2) to confront the headman who had cheated
him out of one thousand rupees
3) he wanted them to get justice for him
4) he was looking for the donkey and wanted
to ask for directions.
5) none of these
47. what made keshava pull the sages beard?
1) he wanted to wake up the sage who was a
sleep under the tree
2) the headman requested him to move the
sage from under the tree
3) he wanted the sage to explain what had
happened to the donkey
4) he misunderstood the village headman and
took the sage to be his donkey
5) none of these
48. why did the teacher asked keshava to leave the
donkey with him for six months?
A. he realised that the donkey would require a
lot of training.
B. to reduce keshavas dependence on the
donkey.
C. he wanted to rescue the donkey from
keshava who did not know to treat the
donkey properly.
D. none of these
1) none 2) only B 3) both A
and B 4) only C 5) none of
these
Directions (Q.49-50): Choose the word which is
MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
49. Trick
1) joke 2) skill 3) mislead 4) technique
5) lunny
50. Remained
1) pending 2) waited 3) lasted 4)
survived 5) continued
Directions (Q.51-52): Choose the word which is
MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
51. Real
1) false 2) imitated 3) dishonest
4) imagine 5) genuine
52. Deep
1) low 2) distracted 3) flat 4) awake
5) sleep
Directions (Q.53-57): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3)
and 4) given below each sentence should replace the
phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it
grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it
is given and No correction is required, mark 5) as
the answer.
53. The company has set up a foundation which
helps students who do not have the necessary
funds to study ahead.
1) further to study
2) of studying more
3) to study onward
4) for higher studies
5) no correction required
54. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be
additionally source of income for the villagers.
1) a source of additional
2) an additionally source
3) an additional source
4) additionally the source
5) no correction required
55. belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for
facilities such as free air travel and
accommodation.
1) since you belong to
2) whoever belongs
3) for belonging to
4) to belong in
5) no correction required
56. The bank has hired a consultant who will look
into any issues which arise during the merger.
1) is looking over
2) will be looked after
3) will look out
4) looks down on
5) no correction required
57. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a
company, but my father encouraged me.
1) if I am successful in
2) how should I successfully
3) whether I could successfully
4) that I would succeed to
5) no correction required
Directions (Q.58-62): In each question below a
sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.
These are lettered as 1), 2), 3), and 4). One of these
four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.
Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your
answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly
spelt and also appropriate in context of the sentence,
mark 5) i.e. All Correct as your answer
58. RBI has attempted to spend financial
awareness through this programme. All correct
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-6-
SBI/CLERICAL
59. In order to succeed it is crucial for an
organization to constantly improve. All correct
60. With some assistance from her son she was
enable to settle her debts on time. All correct
61. Through the government initiated a large sum
of money in the scheme it was a failure. All
correct
62. We have prepared a detailed report giving
various solution to resort the problem. All
correct
Directions (Q.63-67): Rearrange the following six
sentence A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the
questions given below them.
A. I was pleased by their reaction.
B. writing my speech was easy, i was unsure if i
could motivate the employees to donate to those
affected by the earthquake.
C. instead of throwing out their unusable articles,
they had transferred them to my office in the
name of donations.
D. when a reputed company invited me to deliver a
lecture on corporate social responsibility. i
agreed.
E. it was a affluent company and the well dressed
employees who met me afterwards promised to
send lots of donations to my office.
F. what i saw however when i opened the bags of
donations they had sent shocked me.
63. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after arrangement?
1) B 2)C 3)D 4)E 5)F
64. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
65. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
66. Which of the following should be the LAST
(SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2)C 3)D 4)E 5)F
67. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E
Directions (Q.68-72): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence, the letter of that part is the answer. If there
is no error, the answer is 5) (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any)
68. He has travelled/1) all over the word/2) yet he
speaks/3) several languages fluently./4) No error
5)
69. A successful company is /1) any that makes a
good /2) profit and provides/3) high returns to its
shareholders./4) no error 5)
70. the agreement on /1) which all of us have /2)
worked so hard will/3) be sign tomorrow. /4) no
error 5)
71. it is necessarily to maintain /1) a record of all
transactions /2) in case the auditors/3) want to
see it./4) no error 5)
72. very few young trainees/1) willingly undertake
/2) a posting to a branch/3) located in a rural
area./4) no error 5)
Directions (Q.73-80): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered, these
numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. find out the appropriate word in
each case.
Today, twenty-two years after the bank (73) it has
over a thousand branches all over the country and the
staff (74) about twenty-three lakh borrowers. We
decided to operate (75) from conventional banks who
would ask their clients to come to their office. Many
people in rural areas found this (76) our bank is
therefore based on the (77) that people should not
come to the bank but that the bank should go to the
people. Our loans are also (78) we give them for
activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also
keep (79) checks on the borrower through weekly
visits. We do this to make certain that the family of
the borrower is (80) from the loan.
73. 1) origin2) commence 3) existed
4) began5) inaugurated
74. 1) assemble 2) cope 3) interact
4) deal 5) handle
75. 1) differently 2) similar 3) reverse
4) opposite 5) identically
76. 1) worried 2) upset 3) panicking
4) anxious 5)threatening
77. 1)principle 2) discipline 3)opportunity
4) chance 5) advantage
78. 1) worth 2) vary 3) disburse 4) contrast
5) diver
79. 1) consistently 2) regular 3) often
4) frequently 5) daily
80. 1) benefiting 2) serving 3) welfare
4) obliged 5) progress
Test-III
Test of Computer
81. Line printer speed is specified in terms of :
1) LPM (line per minute)
2) CPM ( character per minute)
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-7-
SBI/CLERICAL
3) DPM
4) Any of the above
5) none of the above
82. The example of non-impacts printer are:
1) laser-dot matrix
2) inkjet-laser
3) inkjet-dot matrix
4) dot matrix
5) none of these
83. Which one is not impact printers option?
1) laser printer
2) dot matrix
3) daisy wheel
4) either 2 or 3
5) none of these
84. The CRT is ________ in shape.
1) circular
2) rectangular
3) eclipse
4) conical
5) none of these
85. CRT is a :
1) hollow tube
2) vaccum tube
3) long tube
4) round tube
5) none of these
86. As compare to CRT, the flat panel display
requires:
1) less power
2) low operating voltage
3) less clarity
4) both 1 and 2
5) none of these
87. CRT stands for:
1) copper rod tube
2) cathode ray tube
3) completley ready tube
4) all of the above
5) none of the above
88. Graphical devices which are widely used to
represent the graphics on screen are:
1) CRT
2) flat panel
3) touch screen
4) both 1 and 2
5) none of these
89. WORM stands for:
1) write once read memory
2) wanted once read memory
3) wanted original read memory
4) write original read memory
5) none of these
90. Which of the following is a temporary primary
memory
1) PROM
2) RAM
3) ROM
4) EPROM
5) none of these
91. Which of the following is a sequential access
device
1) hard disk
2) optical disk
3) tape
4) flash memory
5) none of these
92. MICR stands for
1) magnetic ink character recognition
2) magnetic ink computer record
3) magnetic industries corporation region
4) microphone recording
5) none of these
93. which of the following can hold maximum data
1) optical disk
2) floppy disk
3) magnetic disk inside computer
4) magnetic tape
5) none of these
94. program on which of the following storage
device is always virus free
1) hard disk
2) floppy disk
3) compact disk
4) any of these
5) none of these
95. a storage that supplements the primary internal
storage of a computer
1) secondary storage
2) back-end storage
3) back ground storage
4) primary storage
5) none of the above
96. the ability to read or write each price of
information in a storage device in approximately
the same length of time regardless of its location
is
1) RANDOM ACCESS
2) RASTER SCAN
3) SEQUENTIAL ACCESS
4) ANY OF THE ABOVE
5) NONE OF THE ABOVE
97. which of the following device can store large
amount of data
1) floppy disk
2) hard disk
3) CD ROM
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
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SBI/CLERICAL
4) zip desk
5) DVD
98. which of the following is handy to carry yet can
store large amount of data
1) floppy disk
2) CD ROM
3) zip desk
4) DVD
99. data (information) is stored in comp0uters as:
1) Directories
2) files
3) floppies
4) matter
5) none of these
100.which storage device is mounted on reels?
1) floppy disk
2) hard disk
3) magnetic tapes
4) CD-ROM
5) none of these
101.Which of the following statements is/are3 true?
1) cache memory are bigger than RAM
2) cache memories are smaller than RAM
3) ROM are faster than RAM
4) information in ROM can be written by users
5) none of these
102.MOS stands for ______
1) most often stored
2) metal oxide semiconductor
3) method organized stack
4) all of the above
5) none of the above
103.MTBF means:
1) mean time before failure
2) mean time buffer feature
3) most treated buffer time
4) master test board feature
5) none of the above
104.Usually, in MSDOS, the primary hard disk
drives has the derive letter _____.
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) D 5) None of these
105.The analytical engine developed during first
generation of computers used _______ as
memory unit.
1) RAM
2) floppies
3) cards
4) counter wheels
5) none of these
106.Size of primary memory of a PC ranges between
________.
1) 2 kb to 8 kb
2) 64 kb to 256 kb
3) 20 kb to 40 kb
4) 256 kb to 640 kb
5) none of these
107.Which of the following devices have a
limitations that we can only read information to
it but can not erase or modify it?
1) floppy disk
2) hard disk
3) tape drive
4) CD-ROM
5) none of the above
108.memory is made up of:
1) set of wires
2) set of circuits
3) large number of cells
4) any of these
5) none of these
109.primary memory stores:
1) data
2) programs
3) results
4) all of the above
5) none of the above
110.Memory unit is a part of:
1) input device
2) control unit
3) output device
4) central processing unit
5) none of these
111.The contents of information are stored in:
1) memory data register
2) memory address register
3) memory access register
4) memory arithmetic register
5) none of these
112.which one is not the option of secondary storage
device?
1) magnetic disk
2) hard disk
3) read only memory
4) floppy disk
5) none of these
113.RAM stands for:
1) real available memory
2) random access memory
3) read all memory
4) readily available memory
5) none of these
114.How many write cycles are allowed to a RAM?
1) 1 2)10 3)100
4) 1000 5) None of these
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SBI/CLERICAL
115.RAM:
1) is memory built silicon chips that is used to
store programs and data temporarily while
they are being processed.
2) is an acronym for random-access memory
3) both 1 and 2 are correct
4) readily assigned memory
5) none of the above
116.information stored in RAM need to be:
1) check
2) refresh periodically
3) modify
4) detecting errors
5) none of the above
117.read only memory is permanently __________
in computers.
1) input
2) tapped
3) sealed
4) manufacture and control
5) none of these
118.PROM supplied by the manufacture
as___________
1) half filled
2) blank
3) with a booklet
4) partially filled
5) none of these
119.EEPROMstands for
1) electrically erased programmable read only
memory
2) electrically erased permanent resident of
memory
3) especially erased programmable read only
memory
4) encoded erased programmable read only
memory
5) none of these
120.EPROM can be used for:
1) erasing the contents of ROM
2) Reconstructing the contents of ROM
3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of
ROM
4) duplicating the ROM
5) none of these
Test-IV
General Awareness
121.SEBI is a
1) statutory body
2) advisory body
3) constitutional body
4) non-statutory body
5) none of these
122.which of the following is known as narrow
money?
1) M1 2)M2 3)M3 4)M4
123.CSO has changed the base year for national
income estimates. The new base year is
1) 1990-91 2)1993-94 3)1994-95
4)1999-00 5)None of these
124.who is the chairman of NDC?
1) Finance minister
2) Prime minister
3) Planning minister
4) Lok Sabha speaker
5) none of these
125. The Base year of present consumer price index
(CPI) for industrial labourers is
1) 1980 2)1981 3)1991 4)2001 5) None of
these
126.Note issuing department of RBI should always
possess the minimum gold stock of worth
1) Rs. 85 crores 2) Rs. 115 crores 3) Rs. 200
crores 4) None of these 5) All of these
127.Economic planning is in
1) Union List 2) State List 3) Concurrent List
4) Not Any Specified List 5) None Of These
128.The main aim of eleventh five year plan was
1) poverty elimination
2) self reliance
3) both (1) and (2)
4) None Of The Above
5) All Of The Above
129.which of the following is a direct tax?
1) Sales Tax 2) Excise Duty 3) Custom Duty
4) None Of These 5) All Of The Above
130.The headquarters of world bank are at
1) Manila 2) Washington DC 3) New York
4) Geneva 5) None Of These
131.Which of the following is not part of world bank
group?
1) IBRD 2)IFC 3)IDA
4)ADB 5)None of these
132.Finance commission is appointed by the
president under article
1) 256 Of Constitution
2) 280 Of Constitution
3) 380 Of Constitution
4) 356 Of Constitution
5) None Of These
133.National income estimates in India is prepared
by
1) Planning Commission
2) Rbi
3) Finance Ministry
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
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SBI/CLERICAL
4) CSO
5) None Of These
134.The annual finance statement is laid before the
two houses of parliament in accordance with
1) Article 74 2) Article 112 3) Article
268 4)Article 370 5) None of
these
135.The planning commission of India is
1) a statutory body
2) a advisory body
3) a constitutional body
4) an independent and autonomous body
5) None Of These
136.world investment report is an annual publication
of
1) UNCTAD 2)World Bank 3) WTO
4) IMF 5)None of these
137.According to the human development report
2013 Indias position on the basis of human
development indicators (HDI) is
1) 127 2) 135 3)136
6) 4)76 5) None Of These
138.Which of the following is not a central
government tax?
1) Income Tax 2) Customs 3) Land Revenue
4) Corporation Tax 5) None of these
139.Which institution is known as soft loan
window of world bank?
1) IFC 2)IDA 3)IMF 4)Indian development
forum 5) none of these
140.CENVAT is associated with
1) Rate of Indirect Tax
2) Rate of Income Tax
3) Rate of Direct Tax
4) None Of The Above
5) All Of The Above
141.Who was the author of Arthashastra?
1) Kautilya 2) Kalidas 3) Karl Marx
4) Adam Smith 5) None Of These
142.ECOMARC is a symbol related to
1) Export Goods
2) Import Goods
3) Goods safe for Environment
4) Best Quality
5) None Of These
143.Corporate tax is imposed by
1) State government
2) Local government
3) Central government
4) Both centre and state government
5) None of these
144.what is NIKKEI?
1) Share price index of Tokyo share market
2) Name of Japanese central bank
3) Japanese name of countrys planning
commission
4) Foreign exchange market of Japan
5) None of these
145.Mixed Economy means
1) co-existence of small and large industries
2) promoting both agriculture and industries in
the economy
3) co-existence of public and private sectors
4) co-existence of rich and poor
5) None of These
146.Insider trading is related to
1) Share Market 2) Horse Racing
3) Taxation 4) Public Expenditure
5) None of These
147.NABARD IS
1) a bank 2) a board 3) a block
4) a department 5) None Of These
148.RBI was nationalized in
1) 1959 2)1947 3)1945 4)1949 5) None of
these
149.The main security guard of international trade is
1) IMF 2) WORLD BANK 3) WTO
4) IFC 5)None of these
150.Participatory notes (PNs) are associated with
which one of the following?
1) Consolidated Fund Of India
2) Foreign Institutional Investors
3) United Nations Development Programme
4) Kyoto protocol
5) none of these
151.Who is the president of confederation of Indian
industry?
1) R.Gopalan2) S. Gopalakrishnan
3) C.S. Rao 4) S. Agrawal 5) None of
these
152.Who is the Financial Service secretary of India
1) Rajiv Takru 2) Arvinda Mayaram
3) R.V. Singh 4) Ajit Seth 5) None of
these
153.RBI has given license to two private sector
banks, after which no license has been issued
which are those two banks?
1) Yes bank 2) Kotak Mahindra Bank
3) City Union Bank 4) only 1 and 2
5) none of these
154.No. of Maharatna companies
1) 5 2)7 3)4
4)6 5)None of these
155.The body formed to take investment decisions
for the project of Rs. 1000 crore & above
1) High power committee 2) Inter-Ministerial
committee 3) Cabinet committee on
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SBI/CLERICAL
investment 4) Infrastructure committee
5) none of these
156.Who is the Advisor to the finance minister of
India
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Partha Sarathi Shome
3) Anmol Rajan 4) Kaushik Basu
5) None of these
157.The principal of non-intervention of govt. in
economic affair is called
1) De-Actuare 2) La-Corporate
3) Ad-Valoreme 4) Laissez Faire
5) None Of These
158.The national food security ordinance will cover
________% of Indian population.
1) 50 2) 55 3) 60
4) 67 5) None of these
159.The validity period of a cheque/DD is
1) 2 months 2) 3 months 3) 6 months
4) 12 months 5) none of these
160.who is the present chairman of IBA?
1) Pratip Choudhry 2) V. Mallya
3) K.R. Kamath 4) D. Deshmukh
5) None of these
Test-V
Test of Reasoning
161.Q walked 20 metres towards west, took a left
turn and walked 20 metres. He then took a right
turn and walked 20 metres and again took a right
turn and walked 20 metres. How far is Q now
from the starting point?
1) 40 metres 2) 50 metres 3) 80 metres
4) Data inadequate 5) none of these
162.In a column of thirty boys, M is eighth from the
end and J is twelfth from the front. If there are
six boys between J and Q. How many boys are
there between M and Q?
1) 10 2)12 3)8 4)Data inadequate
5) none of these
163.In a certain code 3 4 5 means come and go
5 9 7 means go back now. what does 9
mean in that code?
1) back 2) now 3) back or now 4) data
inadequate 5) none of these
164.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
1) 115 2)161 3)253 4)391 5) 345
165.How many meaningful English words can be
formed with the letters EVRA using each letter
only once in each word?
1) none 2) one 3) two 4) three 5) more than
three
166.four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which of the one that
does not belong to that group?
1) OMQ2) HFJ 3)TPR 4)TRV 5)VTX
167.In a certain code GATHERS is written as
UBHGRQD. How is SEALING written in that
code?
1) BFTKHMF 2) BFTKFMH 3) BFTMHMF
4) TFBKHMF 5) None of these
168.SIDE is written as DSIE and ROOM is
written as AROM in the same way as DUCK
is written as________?
1) KDCU 2) KCUD 3) CDKU
4) CDUK 5) None of these
169.How many such pairs of digits are there in the
number 59126874 each of the which has as
many digits between them in the number as
when the digits are rearranged in descending
order among them within the number?
1) none 2) one 3) two 4) three
5) more than three
170.Each consonant in the word EXACTION is
replaced by the previous letter in the English
alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the next
letter in the English alphabet and the new letters
are arranged alphabetically, which of the
following will be the fourth from the right end
after the rearrangement?
1) N 2)F 3) J 4)S 5) None of
these
171.How many such pairs of letters are there in the
word SERVITUDE each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the
English alphabet?
1) NONE 2)one 3) two 4) three
5) more than three
Directions (Q.172-177): in each of the questions below
are given four statements followed by three conclusions
numbered, I, II & III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
172.Statements : Some nails are plats.
some plates are disks.
all disks re mirrors
Conclusions: I. some tyres are plates.
II. some tyres are nails.
III. some mirrors are plates.
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
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SBI/CLERICAL
1) only I and II follow 2) only I and III
follow 3) only II and III follow 4) all I, II
and III follow 5) none of these
173.Statements: Some windows are lakes.
some lakes are forests.
some forests are hills.
all hills are curtains.
Conclusions: I. some hills are windows.
II. some curtains are lakes.
III. some forests are windows.
1) none follows 2) only I follows 3) only II
follows 4) only III follows 5) only I and
III follow
174.Statements: All tapes are branches.
Some branches are roads.
all roads are fruits.
some fruits are trees.
Conclusions: I. some trees are tapes.
II. some fruits are tapes.
III. some fruits are branches.
1) none follows 2) only I follows 3) only II
follows 4) only III follows 5) only II
and III follows
175.Statements: Some beads are chairs.
all chairs are trucks.
some trucks are bricks.
all bricks are cars.
Conclusions: I. some cars are chairs.
II. some cars are trucks.
III. some trucks are beads.
1) only I and II follow 2) only I and III
follow 3) only II and III follow 4) all, I, II
and III follow 5) none of these
176.Statements: All flowers are houses.
all houses are tigers.
all tigers are goats.
some goats are bullocks
Conclusions: I. some goats are flowers.
II. some tigers are flowers.
III. some bullocks are tigers.
1) only I and II follow 2) only II and III
follow 3) only I and III follow 4) all I, II
and III follow 5) none of these
177.Statements: All shirts are hats.
no hat is suit.
some rings are suits.
all rings are bangles.
Conclusions: I. some rings are hats.
II. some bangles are suits.
III. No ring is hat.
1) only I follows 2) only II follow 3) only III
follow 4) only either I or III follow 5)
only either I or III and II follow
Directions (Q.178-185): Study the following
arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:
R 3 A M % D 1 B U J 2 @ F I K E W P 4 8 V Q 9 6
Y 5
178.If all the symbols are dropped from the above
arrangement, which of the following will be the
thirteenth from the left end?
1) K 2)E 3)I 4)F 5)None of
these
179.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on their position in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group?
1) MDA2)69 3)4VP 4)FK@ 5)J@U
180.Which of the following is the twelfth to the right
of the sixth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
1) E 2)5 3)@ 4)2 5)None of
these
181.How many such numbers are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and immediately
followed by a symbol?
1) none 2) one 3) two 4) three 5) more than
three
Directions (Q.22-26): In each question below is
given a group of letters followed by four
combinations of digits/symbols, numbered 1),
2), 3), and 4). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of
letters based on the following coding system and
the conditions that follow and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of
the four combinations correctly represents the
group of letters, mark 5)i.e. None of these as
the answer.
Letters: A R P M D E I Q Z F H K U W J
Digit/Symbol Code: 7 8 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @ 6

Conditions:
I. if the first letter is a vowel and the last
letter is a consonant, both are to be
coded as the code for the vowel.
II. if both the first and the last letters are
consonants, both are to be coded as the
code for the last letter.
III. if the first letter is a consonant and the
last letter is a vowel, both are to be
coded as
182.IDUPRJ
1) 19@87 2) 9@87 3)19@871
4) 9@871 5) None of these
183.UKWJMA
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
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SBI/CLERICAL
1) %6 3@ 2)@%683@ 3)@%6 3
4)@%6 3 5)None of these
184.RIQHFP
1) 8145$8 2)7145$8 3)145$
4)8145$7 5) None of these
185.MDAPQE
1) 29842 2)39842 3)39843
4)29843 5)None of these
Directions (Q.186-190): in the following questions the
symbols @, , , $ and % are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below:
P Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
P @ Q means P is not greater than Q
P % Q means P is not smaller than Q
P $ Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than
Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the
given statements to be true, flud which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely
true? Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true
2) if only conclusion II is true
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusions I nor II is true
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
186.Statements: H @ K, K % D, D $ B
Conclusions: I. H @ B
II. B @ K
187.Statements: M % F, F R, R K
Conclusions : I. K F
II. M R
188.Statements: A F, H @ F, M H
Conclusions: I. M F
II. A H
189.Statements: R M, M W, T @ W
Conclusions: I. T M
II. T R
190.Statements: J K, K @ D, D $ F
Conclusions: I. F K
II. F $ K
Directions (Q.191-195): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, M, P, J, H, D and K are seven students of a school.
They study in std. III, IV and V with at least two in any
one standard. Each of them has different choice of colour
from blue, red, green, yellow, black, white and brown,
not necessarily in the same order. M studies in std. IV
with only D who likes red colour. A studies in std. V and
does not like either bleu or green. H does not study in std.
V and likes yellow colour. P and J study in the same std.
but not with A. none of those who study in std. III likes
white. The one who likes black studies in std. IV. J likes
brown colour P does not like blue color.
191.Which colour does P likes?
1) green 2) blue 3) blue or green 4) data
inadequate 5) none of these
192.which of the following combinations is
definitely correct?
1) III-H-Black 2) IV-K-Blue 3) V-A-Blue
4) IV-D-Green 5) All are incorrect
193.Which colour does A likes?
1) brown 2) red 3) white 4) data
inadequate 5) none of these
194.which colour does K like?
1) green 2) blue 3) blue or green 4) data
inadequate 5) none of these
195.in which std. do three of them study?
1) III only 2) V only 3) III or V
only 4) Data inadequate 5) none of
these
Directions (Q. 196-200): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are the only seven members of a
family. There are three females among them. There are
two married couples in the family. Each of them has a
different profession from Architect, Lawyer, Doctor,
Teacher, Engineer, Manager and Musician, not
necessarily in the same order.
B is the Lawyer and eh is married to F, the Manager. A is
brother of G who is the Architect. C is the Doctor and is
an unmarried lady. D is the Teacher and is sister of G. E
is not an Engineer.
196.Which of the following combination is definitely
correct?
1) B-Male-Manager 2) B-Female-lawyer
3) C-Female-Musician 4) E-Male-Musician
5) D-Male-Architect
197.Which of the following combinations represents
the husbands of the two married couples?
1) BG 2)AF 3)BE 4)Data inadequate
5) none of these
198.What is Es profession?
1) doctor 2) musician 3) teacher
4) data inadequate 5) none of these
199.what is As profession?
1) engineer 2) musician 3) engineer
or musician 4) data inadequate
5) none of these
200.Which of the following pairs is married couple?
1) BG 2) AE 3) AC 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-14-
SBI/CLERICAL
NEW PRACTICE BATCH WILL START FROM
JAN 03,2014.
DEMO CLASS STRUCTURE:
1 PO SET FOR SBI ASSOCIATE PO EXAM
2 CLERK SET FOR SBI CLERK EXAM
1 DAY DISUCCION GK/MARKETING,
1 DAY QUANTITATIVE AAPTITUDE & RESONING,
1 DAY ENGLISH & COMPUTER
WELCOME FOR
DEMO CLASSES.
NEXT QUESTION SET WE WILL ADD
MARKETING APTITUDE QUESTIONS AND ALL
QUESTIONS ANSWERS.
THE COMPETITIVE EDGE
-15-
SBI/CLERICAL
Answer key TEST SERIES - TCE0713-E01 BR01
QUANTIATIVE
APTITUDE
ENGLISH COMPUTER G.A REASONING
1 41 81 121 161
2 42 82 122 162
3 43 83 123 163
4 44 84 124 164
5 45 85 125 165
6 46 86 126 166
7 47 87 127 167
8 48 88 128 168
9 49 89 129 169
10 50 90 130 170
11 51 91 131 171
12 52 92 132 172
13 53 93 133 173
14 54 94 134 174
15 55 95 135 175
16 56 96 136 176
17 57 97 137 177
18 58 98 138 178
19 59 99 139 179
20 60 100 140 180
21 61 101 141 181
22 62 102 142 182
23 63 103 143 183
24 64 104 144 184
25 65 105 145 185
26 66 106 146 186
27 67 107 147 187
28 68 108 148 188
29 69 109 149 189
30 70 110 150 190
31 71 111 151 191
32 72 112 152 192
33 73 113 153 193
34 74 114 154 194
35 75 115 155 195
36 76 116 156 196
37 77 117 157 197
38 78 118 158 198
39 79 119 159 199
40 80 120 160 200