2010physics Prelim

1
SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010

SERANGOON JUNIOR COLLEGE
General Certificate of Education Advanced Level
Higher 2

PHYSICS 9646
Preliminary Examination 26 August 2010
Paper 1 Multiple Choice 1 hour 15 minutes

Additional Materials: Optical Mark Sheet (OMS)

READ THIS INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write your name, civics group and index number in the spaces at the top of this page.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question, there
are four possible answers labeled A, B, C and D.

Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the OMS.

Read the instructions on the OMS very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this question paper.

This document consist of 21 printed pages and 1 blank page

For Examiners Use
Section A
Total / 40
NAME
CG INDEX NO.
www.erwintuition.com
2

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
DATA AND FORMULAE
Data
speed of light in free space, c = 3.00 x 10
8
m s
1

permeability of free space,
0
= 4t x 10
7
H m
1

permittivity of free space, c
0
= 8.85 x 10
12
F m
1

(1 / (36)) x 10
9
F m
1

elementary charge, e = 1.60 x 10
19
C
the Planck constant, h = 6.63 x 10
34
J s
unified atomic mass constant, u = 1.66 x 10
27
kg
rest mass of electron, m
e
= 9.11 x 10
31
kg
rest mass of proton, m
p
= 1.67 x 10
27
kg
molar gas constant, R = 8.31 J K
1
mol
1
the Avogadro constant, N
A
= 6.02 x 10
23
mol
1

the Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 x 10
23
J K
1

gravitational constant, G = 6.67 x 10
11
N m
2
kg
2

acceleration of free fall, g = 9.81 m s
2

Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion, s = ut + at
2

v
2
= u
2
+ 2as
work done on/by a gas, W = pAV
hydrostatic pressure, p = gh
gravitational potential, | =
displacement of particle in s.h.m., x = x
0
sin et
velocity of particle in s.h.m., v = v
o
coset
v =
resistors in series, R = R
1
+ R
2
+
resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R
1
+ 1/R
2
+
electric potential, V = Q / 4tc
o
r
alternating current/voltage, x = x
0
sine t
transmission coefficient, T

exp(2kd)
where k =
radioactive decay, x = x
0
exp(t)
decay constant, =
r
Gm
( )
2 2
0
x x
2
2
h
E) m(U 8
2
1
693 . 0
t
3

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
1 In a speed test, an engineer has determined the top speed of an automobile to be
240.57 km h
-1
. The accuracy of his equipment is 5%.

Which of the following is the correct representation of his results?

A (241 2) km h
-1
B (240 10) km h
-1

C (241 12) km h
-1
D (240.57 12.03) km h
-1

Ans: B

AV/V = 0.05
AV = 0.05 x 240.57
= 10 km h
-1

V = (240 10) km h
-1

2 A certain particle is travelling at a uniform velocity of 20 m s
-1
. From t = 2 s onwards, it
decelerates uniformly to 5 m s
-1
, in 40.0 m.

From t = 0 s, what is the distance needed for the particle to come to rest if it continues at the
same uniform deceleration?

A 2.7 m B 22.7 m C 42.7 m D 82.7 m

Ans: D

v
2
= u
2
+ 2as
5
2
= 20
2
+ 2a(40)
a = -4.688 m s
-2

v
2
= u
2
+ 2as
0
2
= 5
2
+ 2(-4.688)s
s = 2.666 m

Total distance needed = (20)(2) + 40 + (2.666) = 82.7 m

4

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010 [Turn Over
3 The figure below shows the acceleration-time graph of an object moving in the positive
direction.

Which of the following statements best describes what is happening to the object from
t = 3 s to t = 10 s?

A The object is slowing down at a slower rate as time passes
B The object is slowing down at a faster rate as time passes
C The object is speeding up at a slower rate as time passes.
D The objects speed remains constant as time passes.

Ans: C

4 A heavy metal ball suspended from an elastic string is fully immersed in oil in a beaker,
resting on a scale balance.

The force that the ball exerts downwards on the oil in the beaker forms an action-reaction
pair with

A the weight of the metal ball
B the average tension in the string
C the Archimedean upthrust on the object
D the force which the oil-filled beaker exerts on the scale balance

Ans: C

When the ball exerts a force downwards on the oil, the oil reacts by exerted an equal and
opposite force upwards on the ball. This upward force is the upthrust.

a / m s
-2

0
t / s
10 3
5

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
5 Alice, whose actual weight is 540 N, registers to her delight, a reading of 500 N on a
weighing machine, when she is in the lift of the five-star hotel she is staying in.

Which of the following situations is happening?

A The lift is decelerating and moving upwards
B The lift is accelerating and moving upwards
C The lift is decelerating and moving downwards
D The lift is moving with a constant velocity.

Ans: A

N mg = ma
N = m(g + a)
N = mg + ma
Alices actual weight = mg
Thus, ma has to be negative, a is negative.
i.e. a is opposite to assumed upwards direction.

6 What volume of a 300 cm
3
ice is above water that has a density of 1.0 g cm
-3
? The ice has a
density of 0.9 g cm
-3
.

A 15 cm
3
B 30 cm
3
C 270 cm
3
D 300 cm
3

Ans: B

Weight of ice = upthrust of water on ice
i
V
i
g =
w
V
x
g, where V
x
= volume of ice below water
Let volume of ice above water = V
y
, then V
i
= V
x
+ V
y

i
V
i
g =
w
(V
i
- V
y
)g
V
i
=

| |
|
\ .
w
i
w
i
V
=
1.0 0.9
(300)
1.0
| |
|
\ .

= 30 cm
3

N, normal contact force between Alice and
floor of lift
mg
Alice
a
6

7 Which of the following correctly describes the situation where an object is floating in a body
of liquid correctly?

The weight of liquid which would occupy a volume equal to the volume of the object

A must be equal to the weight of the object
B below the fluid surface must be equal to the weight of the object below the fluid surface
C below the fluid surface must be equal to the weight of the object
D above the fluid surface must be equal to the weight of the object below the fluid surface

Ans: C

8 A car is moving upwards along a slope with a constant speed.

Which of the following statements best describe the conversion of energy taking place?

The energy output from the engine is transformed into

A an increase in gravitational potential energy of the car.

B an increase in gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy of the car.

C an increase in gravitational potential energy as well as work done against resistive
forces.

D an increase in gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy of the car, as well as
work done against resistive forces.

Ans C
Energy from the engine is not used to transform into kinetic energy as there is no gain in the
kinetic energy. The energy is transformed into an increase in gravitational potential energy as
well used to do work against the frictional forces.

7

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
9 An object is pushed from rest in a straight line by a variable force F along a rough ground.
The ground exerts a constant frictional force of 5 N throughout the motion of the object. The
graph of how the variable force F varies with displacement x is shown below.

The magnitude of the kinetic energy of the object when it has travelled 10 m is

A the area K.
B the area K + L.
C the area K + L + M.
D impossible to obtain as mass of object is not given.

Ans A
Gain in KE = Net Work Done
= Area under resultant force time graph
= Area K

F / N
x / m
K
L M
10
5
8

10 A metal sphere is hanging on a string. The metal sphere is then swung around in a horizontal
circle as shown.

Which of the following shows the correct free-body diagram of the sphere at this instance?

A B

C D

Ans: D

11 Which of the following statement is true for an object in horizontal circular motion with
constant angular velocity?

A The kinetic energy remains constant.
B The kinetic energy and linear momentum remain constant.
C The linear velocity does not vary.
D Acceleration remains constant.

Ans: A. The kinetic energy remains constant.

12 The distance between a point, X, in space and the centre of the Earth is 25 times the radius
of Earth. The gravitational field strength due to Earth at that point is

A 1.56 x 10
-2
N kg
-1
. B 1.57 x 10
-2
N kg
-1
.
C 3.90 x 10
-1
N kg
-1
. D 3.92 x 10
-1
N kg
-1
.

Tension
Weight
Centripetal
force
Tension
Weight
Centripetal
force
Weight
Centripetal
force
Tension
Weight
9

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
Ans: B
g
X
=
( )
2
E
X
GM
r
.. (1)
Since g
E
=
( )
2
E
E
GM
r
g
E
(r
E
)
2
= GM
E

Hence from (1) : g
X
=
( )
( )
2
2
25
E E
E
g r
r
=
9.81
625
= 1.57 x 10
-2
N kg
-1

13 A satellite in orbit encounters significant friction and spirals gradually to Earth.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A The satellite gains gravitational potential energy.
B The satellite loses kinetic energy.
C The total energy (gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy) of the satellite
remains constant.
D The total energy (gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy) of the satellite
decreases.

Ans: D

A satellite spirals towards Earth when it encounters significant resistance in the atmosphere.
The satellites total energy decreases because some of the energy is converted to heat. As
the satellite falls, its gravitational potential energy reduces while its kinetic energy increases.

14 The total energy of a horizontal oscillating mass spring system is doubled. This will cause its
amplitude to

A increase by 2 . B increase by 2.
C increase by 2 2 . D increase by 4.

Ans: A
TE =
2
1
2
kA
Therefore,
2
1
1
2
2
2
1
2

1
2
kA
TE
TE
kA
=

2
1 1
2
1 2

2
TE A
TE A
=

2 2 1
2 1
1
2

TE
A A
TE
=

2 1
2 A A =
10

15 A toy car moving along a horizontal plane in simple harmonic motion starts from the
amplitude at t = 0 s. If the amplitude of its motion is 5.00 cm and frequency is 2.00 Hz, the
magnitude of the acceleration of the toy car at 1.7 s is

A 0.25 m s
-2
B 0.51 m s
-2

C 1.60 m s
-2
D 6.40 m s
-2

Ans: D
x = x
0
cos (t)
= 5.00 cos (4.00 (1.7))
= - 4.05 cm
a =
2
x = (4)
2
(4.05 x 10
-2
) = 6.40 m s
-2

16 An ideal gas underwent an isothermal expansion from state A to state B, followed by an
isobaric expansion from state B to state C and an adiabatic contraction from state C back to
state A.

Which of the following is a correct description of the net work done by the ideal gas after
completing one full cycle of the above process?

A Net work done by gas is zero because the gas returns to its initial state.
B Net work done by gas is positive because there is a net heat loss during isobaric
expansion and no heat lost during isothermal and adiabatic process.
C Net work done by gas is negative because the gas expands through two processes
and contracts in one process only.
D Net work done on gas is positive because the adiabatic process occurs at a higher
average pressure than the other two processes.

Ans: D

17 3.0 mol of ideal gas at an initial pressure of 6.0 x 10
-5
Pa expanded to 3 times its original
volume while the temperature reduced by half, from 20 C to 10 C.

What is the final pressure of the gas?

A 1.00 x 10
-5
Pa B 1.74 x 10
-5
Pa
C 1.93 x 10
-5
Pa D 2.07 x 10
-5
Pa

Ans: C

5
28315
1 93 10
3 29315
Pa
( ) ( )
.
( ) ( ) .
.

=
=
= = =
i f
f
i
f i i
f i
pV nRT
pV pV
T T
T
V V
P P P
V T V

11

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
18 The diagram shows two waves X and Y.

Wave Y has amplitude 8 cm and frequency 150 Hz.

What are the possible amplitude and frequency of wave X?

amplitude / cm frequency / Hz
A 4 50
B 4 450
C 16 50
D 16 450

Ans: C

Since there are three complete cycle of wave Y in wave X for the same time duration, hence
frequency of wave X is one third that of wave Y, i.e. 150/3 = 50 Hz.

And its amplitude is twice that of wave Y so wave X amplitude
= 8 x 2 = 16 cm.

19 Light can exhibit all of the phenomena listed.

Which phenomenon can sound not exhibit?

A interference B polarisation
C refraction D total internal reflection

Ans: B
Sound waves are longitudinal waves. Hence polarisation is not evident in sound waves.

displacement
0
Wave X
Wave Y
time
12

20 The diagram shows a standing wave on a string. The standing wave has three nodes N
1
, N
2

and N
3
.

Which statement is correct?

A All points on the string vibrate in phase.
B All points on the string vibrate with the same amplitude.
C Points equidistant from N
2
vibrate with the same frequency and in phase.
D Points equidistant from N
2
vibrate with the same frequency and the same amplitude.

Ans: D
A standing wave will have particles in phase with each other in a loop and in anti phase with
particles in the adjacent loop. Hence the particles equidistant from N
2
would only have equal
amplitude and not similar phase.

21 A beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 550 nm is incident normally on a diffraction
grating that has 300 lines per mm.

What is the total number of images produced by light transmitted through this grating?

A 6 B 7 C 12 D 13

Ans: d =
3
1 10
300
x

= 3.33 x 10
-6
m
d sin = n
For maximum images sin = 1
n =
d
=
6
9
333 10
550 10
x
x
-
-
.
= 6.06
Hence max no of images = 2 x 6 + 1 = 13

N
1
N
2

N
3

13

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
22 3 charges X, Y and Z of charge 3.2 x 10
-16
C, -1.4 x 10
-16
C and -0.8 x 10
-16
C respectively,
are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of sides 1.7 cm long, as shown below.

What is the electric potential at position of charge Y due to X and Z?

A 7.47 x 10
-3
V B 1.27 x 10
-4
V
C 2.12 x 10
-4
V D 1.78 x 10
-20
V

Ans: B

16 16 4
0
1
3 2 10 08 10 1 27 10
4
V ( . . ) . V
r tc

= =

X
Z
Y
1.7 cm
14

23 Two large parallel plates are situated 50 mm apart as shown. The potential difference
between the plates is +V.

A unit positive charge moves from X to Y.

Which graph shows the variation of electric potential energy U of the unit positive charge with
respect to the distance s measured perpendicularly from the plate of zero potential as the
charge moved from X to Y?

A B

C D

Ans: A
As field strength is constant,
dV
ds
is a constant and hence, the gradient is constant and the
graph is a straight line graph which does not pass through the origin.

U
s
U
s
U
s
U
s
50 mm
10 mm
X
+ V 0 V
Y
15

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
24 Four identical lamps are powered by an e.m.f source.

Which of the following will cause the batteries to use up all its energy in the shortest time?

The bulbs are

A all arranged in parallel.
B all arranged in series.
C arranged in combination of series and parallel.
D arranged such that there are an equal number of lamps arranged in series and parallel.

Ans: A. The lamps will be brightest when they are all arranged in parallel.

25 Which of the following statements is true about the e.m.f. of a cell?

A It is the electrical force required to move a unit charge within a circuit.
. B It is the electrical power changed into other forms per unit charge within the cell.
C It is the electrical energy supplied per unit current by the cell.
D It is the electrical energy supplied per unit charge by the cell.

Ans: D. It is the electrical energy supplied per unit charge by the cell.

26 Jackie arranged a circuit setup as shown below. The ideal voltmeter reads 7 V when J
1
is
closed and J
2
is opened. The voltmeter reads 9 V when J
2
is closed and J
1
is opened.

What will the voltmeter reading be when both J
1
and J
2
are closed?

A 4.55 V B 4.70 V C 4.85 V D 5.05 V

Ans: C
Let e.m.f. of source be E and internal resistance of source be r
Scenario 1: J
1
closed and J
2
open:
7=
2
2 + r
x E ------------------------(1)

Scenario 2: J
1
open and J
2
closed:
9 =
3
3 + r
x E ------------------------(2)
9 3 2
7 3 2
+
=
+
r
r

18 (3+r) = 21 (2+r)
V
J
1
J
2

2 3
16

54 + 18r = 42 + 21r
3r = 12
r = 4 subst in (1)
7 =
2
2 4 +
x E
E = 21 V

Scenario 3: J
1
closed and J
2
closed:
Total resistance (not including the internal resistance) =
2 3 6
2 3 5
= O
+

Voltmeter reading = 1
6
5
2
6
4
5
+

= 4.85 V

27 An 18 V battery of negligible internal resistance connected to a potentiometer X of total
resistance 150 as shown below. Filament lamps L
1
and L
2
are connected as shown with
the sliding contact positioned such that there is equal division of the resistance of X. Both
lamps are marked 9 V, 27 W.

Which of the following will be observed when switch S is closed?

A L
1
will not be as bright as L
2

B L
1
will remain as bright as before.
C L
1
will be dimmer than before S was closed.
D L
1
will be brighter than before S was closed.

Ans: D

2 2
9
27
= =
V
R
P
= 3
Scenario 1: Switch S open
Potential difference across L
1
much less than 9 V because effective resistance is much less
than 75 . L
1
is dim.

18 V
L
1

X = 150
L
2

S
17

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010

Scenario 2: Switch S closed
Potential difference across L
1
will be 9 V, and across L
2
will also be 9 V. Both lamps will have
the normal brightness.

28 An electric charge present in a magnetic field of experiences a non-zero magnitude constant
force when

A the charge moves at an oblique angle to the magnetic field lines with constant speed.
B the charge moves perpendicular to the magnetic field lines with increasing speed.
C the charge moves in the same direction as the magnetic field lines with constant
speed.
D the charge moves in the same direction as the magnetic field lines with increasing
speed.

Ans: A.

29 The forces between two parallel wires with current flowing

A in the same direction causes the wires to attract.
B in the same direction causes the wires to repel.
C is independent of the current directions.
D is in a direction that depends on the magnitude of the currents.

Ans: A. The force between two parallel wires with current flowing in the same direction
causes the wire to attract.

L
1

18 V
75
75
3
L
1

18 V
75 75
3
L
2

3
18


30 A student uses a long copper wire to form a square coil with side 7 cm of 50 turns. He places
it such that it is perpendicular to a magnetic field. The flux density of the field is changed from
10 mT to 60 mT in 2.0 s.

What is the average e.m.f. induced in the coil?

A 6.1 mV B 7.4 mV
C 12 mV D 74 mV

Ans: A.
A = 0.07 x 0.07 = 0.0049
e.m.f. = NA|/At
= 50 x 0.0049 x (60 - 10) x 10
-3
/ 2.0
= 6.1 mV

31 Which of the following lists are all forms of conservation of energy?

A First Law of thermodynamics, Lenzs Law and Conservation of linear momentum.
B First Law of thermodynamics, Lenzs Law and Einsteins photoelectric equation
C Lenzs Law, Einsteins photoelectric equation and Conservation of linear momentum.
D First Law of thermodynamics, Einsteins photoelectric equation and Conservation of
linear momentum.

Ans: B

32 A varying d.c. current is passed through a certain resistor as shown below.

The r.m.s value of the given current is

A 4.10 A B 5.80 A C 8.49 A D 16.8 A

Ans: A

0
2.0
4.0
6.0
I / A
t / s
2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0 12.0 14.0 16.0 18.0
20.0
0
I
2
/A
2
t / s
2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0 12.0 14.0 16.0 18.0
20.0
4.0
16.0
36.0
19

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010

Area = [(16.0 x 8.0) + (20.0 x 2.0)] = 168

.
.
area under graph for one period
root-mean-square e.m.f
one period
168
10 0
4 10 V
=
=
=

33 The output voltage of a certain generator is V = V
0
sin 2ft. The frequency f and the
amplitude V
0
are directly proportional to one another. The generator is connected to a
resistor.

When the frequency is varied, the instantaneous peak power developed in the resistor is

A proportional to f
2

B proportional to f
C inversely proportional to f
2

D inversely proportional to f

Ans: A
Peak power,
2
0
0
=
V
P
R

Since
0
, V f

2
0

f
P
R

34 In a typical photoelectric effect experiment, monochromatic light is irradiated onto a metal
surface. The graph below shows the results of how y varies with x.

What is y and x?
y x
A p.d across emitter and collector frequency of radiation
B Intensity of source frequency of radiation
C photocurrent intensity of source
D photocurrent p.d across emitter and collector

Ans D
x
y
0
20


35 The intensity of a beam of monochromatic light is halved. Which one of the following
represents the corresponding change if any in the momentum of each photon of the radiation?

A halved B one quarter of original
C the same D doubled

Ans C
By de Broglies equation
p =
h
.
However, changing the intensity of the light source does not change any of the variables in
the equation, therefore the momentum of the photon is unchanged.

36 The maximum energy of photons emitted from an X-ray tube is certain to be decreased by

A using a target metal with a higher atomic number.
B decreasing the voltage across the tube.
C cooling the metal target.
D using a target metal with a larger interatomic spacing.

Ans B
The maximum energy of photons emitted is emitted when all the KE of an incident electron is
transformed into a E-M radiation.
The KE of the electrons is reduced when the voltage across the tube is decreased.

37 An electron has kinetic energy of 0.5 MeV. If its momentum is measured with an uncertainty
of 1.00 %, what is the minimum uncertainty in its position?

A 1.38 10
11
m B 1.38 10
12
m
C 3.30 10
20
m D 3.30 10
21
m

Ans A
0.5 x 10
6
x 1.6 x 10
-19
= mv
2

mv
2
= (0.5)( 9.11 x 10
31
) v
2
v = 419.08 x 10
6
m s
-1

p = mv = ( 9.11 x 10
31
)( 419.08 x 10
6
) = 3.818 x 10
-22

p = 3.818 x 10
-22
x
. 1 00
100

= 3.818 x 10
-24

Using Heisenbergs uncertainty principle,
2
x p A A >

-34
-11
-24
6.6310
2
= =1.3810 m
2 23.81810
x
p
A >
A
| |
|
\ .

21

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010

38 Which of the following statements about a semiconductor diode in reversed-bias is correct?

A The p-type material of the diode is connected to the positive terminal of the source of
e.m.f.
B Electrons in the n-type side of the diode will cross steadily to the p- type side.
C The applied potential difference from the source of e.m.f. reinforces the junction
potential.
D The depletion layer is reduced.

Ans C

39 The half-life of
219
86
Rnis 4.0 s.

What is the activity after 3.4 s when the initial sample size at time t = 0 s is 1.5 mol of
219
86
Rn?

A 0.144 Bq B 8.68 x 10
22
Bq
C 1.33 x 10
23
Bq D 7.68 x 10
23
Bq

Ans: B
0
23
0 0
2
3 4
23 22
4
6 02 10 1 5
6 02 10 1 5 8 68 10
ln
( . )
( . . )
( . . ) .
=
= =
= =
t
A A e
A N
A e Bq

40
238
92
U decays through a series of transformation. It underwent one -emission, two -
emissions and one -emission.

Which of the following is the final product of this series of transformation?

A
236
91
Pa B
234
92
U C
238
92
U D
234
93
Np

Ans: B

238 234 4 0 0
92 92 2 1 0
2 U U o |
+ + +

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
Higher 2

PHYSICS 9646
Paper 2 Structured Questions 1 hour 45 minutes

Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
No additional Materials are required.


Write in dark blue or black pen on both sides of the paper.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.

Answer all questions.

At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely
together.
The number of marks is given in bracket [ ] at the end of each
question or part question.

This document consist of 20 printed pages and no blank page
For Examiners Use
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
Total
NAME
CG INDEX NO.
1

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010 [Turn Over
For
Examiners
Use
1) (a) In a certain equation, A =
( )
4 12
2 4
1 2
3
C D F
E B B H

where C has unit Newtons, D has the unit metres, E has the unit Pascal, B
1
and B
2

have the unit metres, F has the unit metres, and H has the unit Joules.

(i) Determine the unit of A. [2]
1 Pa = 1 kg m s
-2
m
-2

1 N = 1 kg m s
-2

1 J = 1 kg m
2
s
-2

[A] =
( )
( ) ( )

4
2
12
2 4
2 2 2 2
kg m s m
m
kg m s m m kg m s

= m
8

unit of A = [1]

(ii) The value of C is (2.05 0.02) x 10
-9
m, what percentage uncertainty does this
introduce into the value of A?

percentage uncertainty = % [1]

percentage uncertainty introduces into the value of Q = 4 x
0.02
2.05
x 100% = 3.90 %

(b) Peter decides to go skydiving. From an altitude of 3500 m, he jumps off the aircraft. He
delays opening his parachute until he reaches 800 m. He attains terminal velocity
before he reaches 800 m. Assume that he falls vertically.

(i) Describe qualitatively, and with an explanation, Peters motion after he jumped
off till he reaches terminal velocity.

.

.....

...................................................... [1]

Peters acceleration downwards decreases (or velocity increases at a decreasing rate),
as the weight remains the same but the air resistance increases with increasing
velocity, resulting in the net force downwards decreasing with time, till terminal velocity
is reached when the weight is equal to the air resistance.

2

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
(ii) When Peter opens his parachute, his velocity is 55 m s
-1
downwards. His landing
speed is 4 m s
-1
.

Sketch a velocity- time graph from the time Peter has just started falling at t = 0 s
until he is about to land. The time till which Peter lands is not needed.

Note that when the parachute is first opened, the force by the parachute on Peter
is larger than his weight. [2]

(iii) Explain the shape of the graph from the time the parachute opens till the landing.

[2]

The velocity is decreasing at a decreasing rate because the net force is upwards.

However, as the net force upwards is decreasing with time, the deceleration is
decreasing. Hence the gradient is getting less negative, until it is equal to 0 m s
-2
where
terminal velocity is reached.

v/ m s
-1

t/s
0

v/ m s
-1

t/s
0

4.0

55.0

3

For
Examiners
Use
2 (a) A uniform plank of mass 40.0 kg and length 2.0 m is held horizontally by two identical
supports at points A and B. Point B is 0.5 m away from end of beam at point C as
shown in Fig. 2.1.

Fig. 2.1

(i) On Fig. 2.1, draw the three forces acting on the plank. [1]

(ii) Calculate the force provided by the support at point A.

Force at A = .......................... N [1]

Taking moments about B,
mg x 0.5 = F
A
x 1.5
F
a
= 130.8 N

(iii) Consider another scenario where a person pushes the support at point A towards
the middle of the plank steadily. With the aid of clear calculations and/or
explanations, state how the force on the plank at point B changes as the support
at point A is shifted.

...............................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................[2]

Let the distance of the pivot on the left from the centre of gravity be S
A

Let the distance of the pivot on the right from the centre of gravity be S
B

F
a
+ F
b
= (40.0) (9.81) = 392.4 N
F
a
= 392.4 - F
b

Taking moments about the centre of gravity,

F
a
x S
a
= F
b
x S
b

C B A
plank
0.5 m
2.0 m
4

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
a b
b a
F S
F S
=
b
392.4 F
b
b a
S
F S
=
392.4
1
b
b a
S
F S
=

392.4
1
b
b a
S
F S
= +

As the support at point A is shifted right, S
a
decreases. So
1
b
a
S
S
+
increases, and
F
b
decreases.

(b) Fig. 2.2 shows a variable force acting on a 200 kg object travelling in a straight line
with an initial velocity, in the positive direction along the same line as the line of action
of the force , of 15 m s
-1
at t = 0 s.

Calculate the magnitude of the final velocity of the object at t = 30.0 s.

Fig. 2.2

Impulse = Change in momentum of object = Area under F-t graph
Impulse = (0.5 x 10.0 x 100.0) = 500 N s
p = m v
v =
p
m
A
=
500
200
= 2.5 m s
-1

v = v
f
- v
i

v
f
= v + v
i
= 2.5 + 15.0 = 17.5 m s
-1

final velocity = __________ m s
-1
[2]

F / N
t / s
100.0

0
8.0

10.0

12.0
0

20.0
28.0

30.0

100.0

5

For
Examiners
Use
(c) Fig. 2.3 shows a wooden block Z resting on block X. Block X and Z are connected by
an inelastic string which goes around a fixed smooth pulley. The mass of block X is 20
kg and the mass of block Z is 2.0 kg.

The friction between blocks X and Z is 11.0 N. Block X is pulled at a constant velocity
by a 100.0 N force. All strings are of negligible mass.

Fig. 2.3

Calculate the frictional force between X and the table.

friction = . N [3]

[1]

Let the frictional force between X and the table be F
X,T
.
Let the frictional force between X and Z be F
X,Z
.

From the free-body diagram for Z,
2.0 kg
20
O

X
20 kg
100.0 N
Z
Fixed
block
F
X,T

m
z
g
T
m
z
g sin 20
Z

X

F
F
X,T
m
x
g
F
X, Z
T
m
x
g sin 20
6

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
T + m
z
g sin20 - 11 = m
z
a

Since velocity of Z is constant,
T = 11 - m
z
g sin20
= 11 (2)(9.81)sin20
= 4.290 N

From the free-body diagram for X,
100 (T + 11 + m
x
g sin20 + F
X,T
) = m
x
a

Since velocity of X is constant,
100 (T + 11 + (20)(9.81) sin20 + F
X,T
) = 0
100 [4.290 + 11 + (20)(9.81) sin20 + F
X,T
] = 0
100 4.290 11 (20)(9.81) sin20 F
X,T
= 0
F
X,T
= 17.6 N

7

For
Examiners
Use
3 A pendulum bob is tied to a string as shown in Fig. 3.1. A person swings it in a vertical
circular path. The mass of the bob is 45.0 g. The length of the string is 70.0 cm. The
diameter of the bob is 2.0 cm.

(i) Calculate the range of angular speeds to achieve this motion.
Ans:
T + mg = mre
2

For T to be more than zero,
mre
2
> mg
e

> (g/r)

> (9.81/0.71)

> 3.72 rad s
-1

range of angular speed . rad s
-1
[2]

(ii) Calculate the maximum tension experienced in the string when the bob is spun at an
angular speed of 5.00 rad s
-1
.

Ans:
T = mg + mre
2

= 0.045(9.81 + 0.71(5.00)
2
)
= 1.24 N

maximum tension = . N

[2]

(iii) State the assumption made in your calculation in part (ii).

......................................

..[1]

Ans: The mass of the string is insignificant.

(iv) Explain what might happen to the pendulum bob if it is spun around at an increasing
angular speed.

......................................

......................................

Pendulum bob
70.0 cm
Fig. 3.1
8

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
..[2]

Ans:

As e increases, tension in the string increases,
The string may break off.

9

For
Examiners
Use
4 (a) A vertical peg is fixed to the rim of a horizontal turntable of radius, r, rotating with a
constant angular speed, as shown in Fig. 4.1.

Parallel light is incident on the turntable so that the shadow of the peg is observed on a
screen which is normal to the incident light. At time t = 0 s and
= 0 the shadow of the peg is seen at G.

(i) Write an expression for the distance GH in terms of r, and t. [2]

GH = r sin ( t)

(ii) The peg is now placed midway between the centre and the edge of the disc.
Describe what will be the effects on the shadow in terms of its

1. period;

. [1]

No change to its period since the angular velocity of the peg, ,thus angular
frequency of the shadow does not change.

2. maximum speed; and

. [1]

The maximum speed of the shadow is directly proportional to the amplitude,
hence it is halved. i.e v
0
= x
0

Fig. 4.1
H
G

Parallel light
r
10

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
3. maximum acceleration.

. [1]

The maximum acceleration of the shadow is directly proportional to the amplitude,
hence it is halved. i.e a
0
=
2
x
0

(b) (i) Explain the meaning of the word resonance.

..........

..........

....... [1]

Resonance is a phenomenon where an oscillating system responds to an external
driving force such that when the frequency of the driving force matches the natural
frequency of itself (i.e. the driven system) the system oscillates with maximum
amplitude.

(b) (ii) A driver of constant amplitude and variable frequency, f, causes forced
oscillations of an object. The amplitude a
0
of the objects oscillations depends on
f.

1. Sketch on Fig. 4.2 a graph to show how a
0
varies with f over a wide range
of frequencies which includes the natural frequency f
0
of the object.

Label this graph U [1]

Fig. 4.2
a
0

f
11

For
Examiners
Use
2. Add to your sketch in Fig. 4.2 a second line which shows the effects of
increased damping.

Label this line D. [1]

4(b)(ii)1 Marking points: Shape of graph is correct. Y-intercept non-zero.
Natural frequency f
0
must be labeled.

4(b)(ii)2 Marking points: Shape of graph is correct. Y-intercept non-zero.
Amplitude lies to the right of undamped natural frequency f and amplitude
must be of lesser magnitude.

(b) (iii) A washing machine has a drum which rotates at high speed. Suggest why a large
mass, fixed to the inside of the machine helps to reduce the possibility of
resonance.

..........

..........

....... [1]

The large mass will change natural frequency of oscillation of washing machine
Hence driving frequency from motor and natural frequency no longer matches,
reducing possibility of maching experiencing resonance (violent shaking).

y
0

f
U
D
f
0

12

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
5 Two equally charged solid conducting spheres with small radii, of equal uniform mass m are
hanged from the top plate of two parallel charged plates, with insulated strings of negligible
mass, as shown in Fig. 5.1.

Each sphere has a charge of 3.20 x 10
-5
pC.

(i) Determine the magnitude of the force acting on each sphere due to the parallel plates
only.

force = ...................... N [1]

= = =
= = =
-1
12 10
4 ( 20)
240 N C
0.100
3.2 10 240 7.68 10 N
dV
E
dr
F qE

(ii) Determine the force between the charged spheres due to the charges on the spheres
only.

force = ...................... N [1]
tc tc

= = =

12 2
9
2 2
0 0
(3.2 10 )
2.33 10 N
4 4 (2 0.06 tan 3 )
Qq
F
r

(iii) Hence, determine the mass of the spheres.

mass = ...................... kg [3]

For object in equilibrium, resultant force = 0
= +
=
10
9
7.68 10 cos3 ___(1)
sin3 2.33 10 ___(2)
mg T
T

-20 V
+4 V
3
o

4.0 cm
10.0 cm
Fig. 5.1
3
o

Tension, T
mg
F
plate

F
sphere

13

For
Examiners
Use
Solving simultaneously,
m = 4.53 x 10
-8
kg

(iv) Describe the effect on the positions of the spheres when the charge of one of the
spheres is reduced while the charge on the other is reduced by an even greater
magnitude, with all other factors remaining the same.

......................................

......................................

..[1]

14

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
6 Fig. 6.1 shows a circuit in which PR is a 20.0 slide wire, 75.0 cm long. E
2
is a 40.0 V cell.
Both E
1
and E
2
have non-negligible internal resistance. R
1
and R
2
are resistances of 8.0 and
5.0 respectively.

The balance length is 60.0 cm when S
1

and S
2
are open as shown in Fig 6.1.

Fig. 6.1

(i) When E
1
is replaced with a 12 V cell with negligible internal resistance, the balance
length becomes 45.0 cm.

Calculate the internal resistance of the E
2
.

internal resistance of E
2
= .. [2]

PR
PR PQ
PQ
V V
l
l
=
When E
1
is replaced with a 12 V cell with negligible internal resistance,
.
.
0 75
12
0 45
PR
V = = 20 V
.
2
40
10 0
PR
PR
PR E
R
V
R r
=
+ +

.
. .
2
20 0
20 40
20 0 10 0
E
r
=
+ +

2
E
r = 10.0

(ii) Calculate the electromotive force of cell E
1

E
1
= .. V [2]
PR
PR PQ
PQ
V V
l
l
=
P
R
Q
E
2
=40 V
E
1
S
2
R
2
S
1
10.0
5.0
25.0
R
1
8.0
15

For
Examiners
Use

.
.
0 75
20
0 60
PQ
V =
V
PQ
= 16 V
E
1
= 16 V

(iii) Calculate the balance length when S
1
and S
2
are closed. It is given that the internal
resistance of E
1
is 3.0

Balance length = ..m [3]

V
PQ
=
5 8
16
5 8 3
+

+ +

= 13 V [1]
When S
1
and S
2
are closed,
V
PR
=
( )( )
( )( )
20 25
20 25
40
20 25
10 10
20 25
| |
|
+
\ .

| |
+ +
|
+
\ .

=
.
.
11 11
40
11 11 20
+

= 14.28 V
PR
PR PQ
PQ
V V
l
l
=
.
.
0 75
14 28 13
PQ
l
=

PQ
l = 0.683 m
16

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
7 A cathode ray oscilloscope is connected across the input of a transformer. Fig 7.1 below
shows the screen. Each of the main squares in the diagram has a length of 1 cm on each
side (as shown in the figure).

Fig. 7.1

The Y-plate sensitivity is set at 10 V cm
-1
. The timebase is set so that the horizontal
sensitivity is 1.5 ms

cm
-1
.

(a) For the alternating potential difference applied to the Y-plates, calculate the following:
(i) Frequency

frequency = Hz [1]

Period = 3.0 x 10
-3
s
Frequency =
1
T
=
.
3
1
3 0 10
= 333 Hz

(ii) Root-mean-square value of potential difference

r.m.s. value of potential difference = V [1]

Peak value = 10 x 2 = 20.0V
V
rms
=
20
2
= 14.1 V

1 cm
1 cm
17

For
Examiners
Use
(b) The transformer has 110 turns on its primary winding and 750 turns on its secondary
winding.

Determine the output r.m.s. potential difference

Output r.m.s of potential difference = V [2]

V
s
= .
750
14 1
110

= 96.1 V

18

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
8 A small boat is powered by an outboard motor of variable power output P. Fig. 8.1 shows the
variation with speed v of P when the boat is carrying different loads.

The masses shown are the total mass of the boat plus passengers.

(a) For the boat having a steady speed of 2.00 m s
1
and with a total mass of 250 kg,

(i) use the graph in Fig. 8.1 to determine the power of the engine.

power = kW [1]

power = 0.40 kW

v / m s
-1
P / kW

5.0
250
kg
4.5
4.0
3.5
3.0
2.5
2.0
1.5
1.0
0.5
0.0
0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
300
kg
350
kg
400
kg
Fig. 8.1
19

For
Examiners
Use
(ii) calculate the resistive force acting on the boat.

resistive force = . N [1]

Using P = Fv (where F = resistive force)
0.40 x 10
3
= F x 2.00
F = 200 N

(b) Consider the case of the boat of mass 350 kg moving with a speed of 2.50 m s
-1
.

(i) By using data from the graph, estimate the total amount of energy which the
motor provides in order for the boat to travel for a total of 30 minutes.

Total amount of energy = . MJ [2]

From graph,
Power for 350 kg boat to travel at 2.50 m s
-1
, P = 1.90 kW
Energy required = Pt
= (1.90 x 10
3
) x (30 x 60)
= 3.42 MJ

(ii) The amount of energy given off when 1.00 kg of fuel is mixed with oxygen in the
air is 45.0 MJ. The efficiency of the motor in converting the energy released by
the combination of oxygen and the fuel is 40.0%.

Determine for the case in (i) the total amount of fuel which would be expended.

Total amount of fuel = kg [2]

Efficiency of motor = %

Output Energy
100
Input Energy

. 40 0
100
=
.
6
3 42 10
Input Energy

Input Energy = 8.55 MJ

Total amount of fuel burnt =
.
.
8 55
45 0

= 0.190 kg

20

SRJC 2010 9646/ Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
(iii) Hence, explain if the estimate in (i) is a reasonable one.

......................................

......................................

..[2]

The estimate was made based on the assumption that the mass of the boat is constant
at 350 kg. The amount of fuel expended is 0.190 kg, which is a very small fraction of
350 kg.
The estimate should be a reasonable one.

(c) Fig. 8.2 shows how the speeds of 2 boats of equal mass vary with respect to time. Boat
A starts from rest while boat B travels at a constant speed.

(i) Boat A and boat B both travel the same distance at t = 900 s. State the velocity V
of boat A at t = 900 s.

..[1]

Since the distance travelled by boat A and B are equal, the area under both graphs
should be equal.

V = 3.00 m s
-1

(ii) Explain which boat, if any, would expend a greater amount of petrol at the end of
900 s.

......................................

......................................

......................................

......................................
Speed / m s
-1
t / s 900
V
1.50
Fig. 8.2
boat A
boat B
21

For
Examiners
Use

..[3]

Boat B is travelling at a constant speed, the energy output from the engine is used to
do work against resistive forces. [1]
Boat A is travelling with a constant acceleration. The energy output from the engine is
used to increase the kinetic energy of the boat as well as do work against the resistive
forces. [1]
Therefore Boat A will expend more petrol. [1]

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
Higher 2

PHYSICS 9646
Paper 3 Longer Structured Questions 2 hours

Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
No additional Materials are required.


Write in dark blue or black pen on both sides of the paper.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.

Section A
Answer all questions.

Section B
Answer any two questions.

At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely
together.
The number of marks is given in bracket [ ] at the end of
each question or part question.

This document consist of 24 printed pages and no blank page
For Examiners Use
Section A
1
2
3
4
5
Section B
6
7
8
Total
NAME
CG INDEX NO.
2

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010

DATA AND FORMULAE
Data
speed of light in free space, c = 3.00 x 10
8
m s
1

permeability of free space,
0
= 4t x 10
7
H m
1

permittivity of free space, c
0
= 8.85 x 10
12
F m
1

(1 / (36)) x 10
9
F m
1

elementary charge, e = 1.60 x 10
19
C
the Planck constant, h = 6.63 x 10
34
J s
unified atomic mass constant, u = 1.66 x 10
27
kg
rest mass of electron, m
e
= 9.11 x 10
31
kg
rest mass of proton, m
p
= 1.67 x 10
27
kg
molar gas constant, R = 8.31 J K
1
mol
1
the Avogadro constant, N
A
= 6.02 x 10
23
mol
1

the Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 x 10
23
J K
1

gravitational constant, G = 6.67 x 10
11
N m
2
kg
2

acceleration of free fall, g = 9.81 m s
2

Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion, s = ut + at
2

v
2
= u
2
+ 2as
work done on/by a gas, W = pAV
hydrostatic pressure, p = gh
gravitational potential, | =
displacement of particle in s.h.m., x = x
0
sin et
velocity of particle in s.h.m., v = v
o
coset
v =
resistors in series, R = R
1
+ R
2
+
resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R
1
+ 1/R
2
+
electric potential, V = Q / 4tc
o
r
alternating current/voltage, x = x
0
sine t
transmission coefficient, T

exp(2kd)
where k =
radioactive decay, x = x
0
exp(t)
decay constant, =

r
Gm
( )
2 2
0
x x
2
2
h
E) m(U 8
2
1
693 . 0
t
3

For
Examiners
Use
Section A
Answer all the questions in this section

1 (a) State what is meant by a progressive wave.

.....

.....

... [2]

A progressive wave is one which energy can be transferred.
Its particles does not propagate in the direction of the wave but vibrates either perpendicular
or parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

(b) Two speakers S
1
and S
2
produce waves of the same frequency.

(i) State three conditions that must be satisfied for waves from the two sources to
produce detectable interference pattern.

1. .......

........

2. ......

......

3. ............

.....[3]

1. Sources must be coherent.
2. Waves must interfere.
3. Waves must have roughly the same amplitude.

(ii) One of the speakers, S
1
, is connected to a signal generator. It is then oriented to
face a wall as shown in Fig. 1.1.

Signal generator wall
Fig. 1.1
4

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
Sound waves are produced between the speaker and the wall to form a stationary wave.

1. Outline how you would use this setup to obtain the speed of sound waves
in air.

....

....

....

....

....

....

....

....[3]

Measure separation between (adjacent) nodes / antinodes and double to get /this is
[not between peaks and troughs]
Frequency known from/produced by signal generator OR measured on CRO / by digital
frequency meter.
Detail on measurement of wavelength OR frequency e.g. measure several [if a number is
specified then 3] node spacings and divide by the number [not one several times]
OR measure several (3) periods on CRO and divide by the number
OR adjust CRO so only one full wave on screen
Use v = f

2. In principle, stationary waves produced in this way could cause problems
for listeners in a concert hall. Explain why.

....

....[1]

Little or no sound /amplitude OR you may be sat at a pressure node

3. In practice this problem is not serious. Suggest a reason why.

....

....[1]

Reflected wave not as strong as incident wave.
OR walls are covered to reduce reflections/Absorbs incident waves.
OR waves arrive from elsewhere [reflections/different speakers].
OR such positions depend on wavelength / frequency.
5

For
Examiners
Use
2 Three electron energy levels in atomic hydrogen are represented in Fig. 2.1.

The wavelengths of the emission spectral lines produced by electron transitions between
these three energy levels are 486 nm, 656 nm and 1880 nm.

(a) On Fig. 2.1, draw arrows to show the electron transitions between the energy levels
that would give rise to these wavelengths. Label each arrow with the wavelength of the
emitted photon. [2]

Award 2 marks when all arrows and labels are correct.
Deduct 1 mark for each wrong label or direction.

(b) Calculate the minimum change in energy of an electron in eV when making transitions
between these levels.

change in energy = eV [3]

Minimum change in energy corresponds to the emission of photon with the longest
wavelength.

Using E =
hc
,
E =
. .
34 8
9
6 63 10 3 00 10
1880 10

E = 1.058 x 10
-19
J

E =
.
.
.
19
19
1 058 10
0 661 eV
1 60 10

Increasing
energy
Fig. 2.1
486 nm
656 nm
1880 nm
6

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
3 (a) To produce X-rays, high energy electrons are fired at a particular target metal. Fig. 3.1
is the X-ray spectra which shows how the intensity of the X-ray radiation varies with the
x-ray photon energy.

(i) Explain how the photons of 200 keV energy are generated.

...

...

..[1]

The photons of 200 keV energy are generated when all of the kinetic energy of the
accelerated electron is lost by the electron in the first collision with the target metal and
the kinetic energy is transformed into electromagnetic radiation.

(ii) Sketch in Fig. 3.2 the how the intensity of the X-ray radiation varies with the
wavelength of the X-ray. (Ensure that values should be shown where applicable.)
[3]

Fig. 3.1
Intensity
Photon energy / keV
80 200
0.00622 0.0155
Intensity
Wavelength /nm
Fig. 3.2
7

For
Examiners
Use
(b) Radioactive decay is known to be a random process. It is impossible for one to know
exactly when a particular nucleus will decay. Explain using Quantum theory why this is
so.

.....

.....

.....

.....

.....

.....

... [3]

The particles within in the nucleus are actually held tightly by strong nuclear forces. From the
classical point of view, it is impossible for any of the particles to escape from the nucleus.
but in Quantum theory, the particle is described by a wave function . The wave function is
continuous and continues even outside of the nucleus.
The
2
which is known as the probability density function of the particle is therefore non-
zero outside of the nucleus. This means that there is a finite probability of finding the particle
outside of the nucleus, hence it is a random process.

8

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
4 (a) Laser is an acronym for Light by Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
The properties of Laser lights are very different from the light from an incandescent
lamp which occurs due to spontaneous emission.

(i) Distinguish between the terms spontaneous emission and stimulated emission.

...

...

...

...

..[2]

Spontaneous emission occurs when an electron within an atom de-excites naturally
giving off a photon.
Stimulated emission occurs when an electron within an atom is disturbed to de-excite
to a lower level because a photon with an energy equal to the energy gap is incident on
it. The resulting photon is in phase and travels in the same direction as the incident
photon.

(ii) Fig. 4.1 shows some of the energy levels of a particular element used as a lasing
material in a gas laser. The wavelength of the laser emitted is 517 nm.

State and explain which energy level is the metastable state.

E
0
= -4.2 eV
Fig. 4.1
E
1
= -2.4 eV
E
2
= - 1.8 eV
E
3
= - 1.5 eV
E
= 0 eV
9

For
Examiners
Use
...

...

..[2]

Using E =
hc
,
=
. .
34 8
9
6 63 10 3 00 10
517 10

= 3.847 x 10
-19
J
= 2.40 eV

The energy of a photon of laser is 2.40 eV.
This implies that the lasing process should occur between E
2
and E
0
which therefore
means that E
2
must be the metastable state.

(b) Using band theory, explain the reason why certain solids act as

(i) insulators.

...

...

...

...

..[2]

For solids which act as insulators, the solid has valence bands which are completely
filled and there are no electrons found in the conduction band therefore there are no
free charge carriers.
Moreover, energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is very
large, therefore it is very difficult to excite an electron from the valence band to the
conduction band.

(ii) intrinsic semiconductors.

...

...

...

...

10

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
..[2]

For semiconductors, the energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is
very small (in the orders of 1 eV).
At room temperature, some electrons from the valence band would have enough
energy to be excited to the conduction band, leaving behind holes in the valence band
and electrons in the conduction band which are mobile.

11

For
Examiners
Use
5 In a nuclear reaction, whereby stable
55
25
Mn are irradiated with neutrons to produce
56
25
Mn .
56
25
Mn decays subsequently to a stable nucleus of
56
26
Fe .

Atomic mass of
55
25
Mn =54.93805 u
Atomic mass of
56
25
Mn =55.93890 u
Atomic mass of
56
26
Fe =55.93494 u
Mass of proton = 1.007276 u
Mass of neutron = 1.008665 u
Mass of electron = 0.000549 u

(a) (i) Write down the equation for these nuclear transformations.

|
+
+
55 1 56
25 0 25
56 56 0
25 26 1

Mn n Mn
Mn Fe

(ii) Determine the total energy liberated when a
56
25
Mn nucleus decays.

Difference in mass = (55.93890-55.93494) x 1.66 x 10
-27
kg
Energy Released
= mc
2

= [(55.93890-55.93494) x 1.66 x 10
-27
](3.0 x 10
8
)
2

=5.92 x 10
-13
J

(b) (i) Explain what is meant by binding energy.

Binding energy is the amount of energy needed to completely separate a nucleus into its
constituent nucleons.

(ii) Determine the binding energy per nucleon of
55
25
Mn nucleus.

Total mass of neutrons and protons individually
= 25 x 1.007276 + 30 x 1.008665) u
= 55.44185 u

Mass defect
= (55.44175 54.93805) u
= 0.5038 u

Binding energy
= 0.5038 x x 1.66 x 10
-27
x (3.0 x 10
8
)
2

= 7.527 x 10
-11
J
= 0.470 MeV

Binding energy per nucleon = 0.470/55 = 8.55 keV

12

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use

(iii) Explain why the binding energy per nucleon is associated with the stability of the
nucleus and not the total binding energy.

Stability refers to the ability to resist fusion or fission.

Fusion and fission refers to the processes of forming larger or smaller nuclei, which
involves loss or gain of nucleons.

A larger binding energy per nucleon implies a greater difficulty to lose or gain additional
nucleons as more energy is needed.

Total binding energy increases even though the mass number increases beyond that of
iron.
13

For
Examiners
Use
Section B

Answer two questions in this section

6 (a) (i) The gravitational force is significant only when we deal with celestial objects like
stars and planets but not with atoms or molecules. Explain the rationale for this
statement.

...

...

...

...

..[2]

The gravitational force between two isolated masses is given by the equation,
F =
2
GMm
r
.
Gravitational forces are only significant when the masses involved are massive. This is
because of the magnitude of Newtons universal gravitational constant, G, whose
magnitude is very small.
Hence atoms and molecules whose masses are very small would result in insignificant
magnitude of gravitational forces.

(ii) It is often said that astronauts experience weightlessness only because they are
beyond the pull of the Earths gravity. Comment on the validity of this statement.

...

...

...

...

..[2]

The statement is not the only that is correct.

Astronauts can also be under the pull of gravity but still be weightless. This occurs when
the space vehicle that the astronaut is in, does circular orbit such that the centripetal
acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity at the position of the space vehicle.

14

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
(iii) Rockets are usually launched at locations near the Equator in an easterly
direction. Explain whether there is any advantage in launching a rocket to the
east versus launching to the west.

...

...

...

...

..[2]

There is an advantage in launching a rocket at the equator towards the east.
As the Earth rotates west to east, the rocket can take advantage of the Earths
rotational speed during the launch.

(b) An Earth satellite in a circular orbit has a period of 12 hours about the Earths centre.
The radius of the Earth is 6.40 x 10
3
km.

Calculate

(i) the mass of the Earth given that the acceleration of free fall at its surface is
9.81 m s
-2
.

mass = kg [2]

Using g =
( )
E
2
E
GM
r

9.81 =
( )
( )
11
E
2
3
667 10 M
6.40 x 10
x .

M
E
= 6.02 x 10
24
kg

(ii) the height of the satellite above the Earths surface.

height = m [3]

Since m
s
r
2
=
E s
2
GM m
r

m
s
r
2
2
T
t | |
|
\ .
=
E s
2
GM m
r

15

For
Examiners
Use
r =
1
2
3
E
2
GM T
4t
| |
|
\ .

=
( )( )
( )
1
2
11 24 3
2
667 10 6.02 x 10 12 x 3600
4
x .
t
| |
|
|
\ .

= 2.67 x 10
7
m [1]

Height of satellite above earths surface = 2.67 x 10
7
6.40 x 10
3

= 2.03 x 10
7
m

(iii) the orbital speed of the satellite.

speed = m s
-1
[2]
Since m
s
2
v
r
=
E s
2
GM m
r

v
2
=
E
GM
r

v =
( )( )
-11 24
7
6.67 x 10 6.02 x 10
2.67 x 10

v = 3.88 x 10
3
m s
-1
.

(c) (i) The satellite is directly above an observer located at the Equator at certain
instant of time. The satellite moves in the same direction of rotation as the Earth.
Describe the motion of the satellite relative to the observer over the next 24 hours.
Consider two 12 hour periods.

...

...

...

...

..[2]

In first 12 hours, satellite completed one full revolution. Observer would have only
completed half. Therefore satellite and observer would be on opposite sides.
In the next 12 hours, satellite would be directly above observer, exactly at its original
position.

16

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
(ii) Determine the orbital period for the satellite to be geostationary.

period = . hr [1]
24 hours.

(iii) List one advantage and one disadvantage to the observer if the satellite was
geostationary.

advantage:

...

...

..[1]

disadvantage:

...

...

..[1]

advantage:
The observer is able to transmit / receive data from the satellite at any time of the day.
There is no need to wait 24 hours to be in line of sight with the satellite.
OR
The observer is able to gather real time data of activities occurring in his geographical
location rather than have snapshots of the activities happening at certain hours of the
day.
disadvantage
The signals would take a longer time to transmit and receive since the satellite would
now be at a higher altitude in space.

(d) Gravitational and electric fields have analogous characteristics. List one similarity and
one difference between these two fields.

similarity:

...

...

..[1]

17

For
Examiners
Use
difference:

...

...

..[1]
similarity:
Force follows the inverse square law.
The derivative of the potential gives the magnitude of the field strength.
The derivative of the potential energy gives the magnitude of the force.
difference
Gravitational force is always attractive but electric forces is either attractive/repulsive.

18

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
7 (a) The following statements were made with regard to various thermal processes.

Using kinetic theory, comment on the validity of the statements and elaborate on the
reasoning.

(i) Energy must be supplied to a sample of pure liquid to maintain constant
temperature during boiling because it is needed to maintain the amount of
internal energy of the sample.

...

...

...

...

...

...

..[3]

It is increasing the internal energy and not maintaining it.
It is to increase the potential energy due to intermolecular forces
And not the average random translational energy which is directly proportional to the
temperature.

(ii) More energy is needed for boiling of pure water than melting of pure ice of the
same mass under the same environmental conditions because ice has a lower
density than water and therefore less energy is needed.
...

...

..[2]

Less energy is needed not because of the lower density.
More energy is needed to do work against the environment for the case of boiling
because of large increase in volume as compared to melting.

19

For
Examiners
Use

(b) Using kinetic theory, explain why evaporation occurs at all temperature and is
accompanied by cooling.

...

...

...

...

...

...

..[3]

Water at a particular temperature other than the boiling temperature has particles of different
amount of kinetic energy which is not equal to the average random translational kinetic
energy.
During evaporation, the more energetic particles possess sufficient energy to escape while
the less energetic particles remain behind.
This leads to lower average random translational energy, which is proportional to
temperature.
Hence, temperature decreases.

(c) The setup in Fig. 7.1 is used for the electrical method of determining the specific heat
capacity, c of a solid material X of mass m
1
.

The temperature of the solid increased from
1
to
2
in time t
1
when the voltmeter and
ammeter reading remained constant at V
1
and I
1
.

Fig. 7.1
V
A
Thermometer
Insulating
layer
Heater
Material X
20

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use

The following equation was used to determine c.

1 1 1 1 2 1
( ) = I V t mc u u

(i) State and explain whether the calculated c value, based on the above equation,
is an underestimate, overestimate or accurate reflection of the true value of c.

...

...

...

..[2]

Overestimation.
Part of the heat supplied, as calculated by VIt may be lost to the environment and not
used to increase the temperature, hence, actual amount of heat needed should be
lesser.

(ii) Describe and explain how the accuracy of c can be improved with the same
setup, with accompanying equations and defined symbols, if necessary.
...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

21

For
Examiners
Use
..[6]
Repeat experiment with the same temperature changes from
1
to
2
in the same
period of time t
1
.

Vary mass and adjust variable resistor to vary potential difference across heater and
current across heater to get same temperature change in same period of time despite
change in mass.

Equation of repeated experiment:
I u u = +
2 2 1 2 1 2
( ) heat loss, V t m c h
Where V
2
and I
2
are the new reading of voltmeter and ammeter respectively and m
2
is
the new mass.
Equation of original experiment, taking into account of heat loss:

I u u = +
1 1 1 1 1 2
( ) heat loss, V t mc h
As time and temperature remains the same, rate of heat loss remains the same.

Solve simultaneously to obtain c.

(d) An ideal monatomic gas in an enclosed space obeys the two equations

and
2
1
pV = nRT pV = Nm<c >
3

(i) Derive an expression for the relationship between average random translational
kinetic energy of the gas atom and the temperature of the gas. [1]

2
2
2
1
nRT = Nm< c >
3
1 nRT
m< c >=
3 N
1 3nRT
m< c >=
2 2N

(ii) Two samples of the same gas, X and Y of 3.0 mol and 4.5 mol respectively are at
temperature 100 C and 200 C.

Determine the ratio of the root mean square speeds of X to Y.

ratio = ..................... [1]

2
x
2
y
<c > 373.15
= =0.888
<c > 473.15

22

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use

(iii) Two samples of ideal gas P and Q of 1.0 mol each are at the same temperature.

Determine the ratio of root mean square speeds of P to Q, when the ratio of the
relative molecular mass of P to Q is 3:2.

ratio = [2]
=
2
x
2
y
1
< c > 2
= = =0.816
1
< c > 3
Q P
P
Q
m m
m
m

23

For
Examiners
Use
8 (a) Fig. 8.1 shows part of an experimental setup. Plates A and B are connected to an
e.m.f. source. Electron beam is projected equidistant from plates A and B along
x = 0 cm at a constant speed of 5 x 10
5
m s
-1
.

A very small fluorescent plate P can move left and right but not vertically. The current
position of centre of plate P is at x = 3 cm.

The magnetic field strength B of the magnetic region is 5.0 x 10
-4
T. The potential
difference between A and B is V and the electric field strength generated between the
plates is E.

(i) Derive the general simplified expression of the speed of the electron such that it
will not be deflected when it passes through plates A and B.

general expression of speed = .

[2]

BeV=eE
V= E/B

(ii) The electron was not deflected. The plate P was moved at constant speed to the
left.

Determine the displacement of detector along the x direction from the initial
position such that maximum intensity will be observed at the centre of the
fluorescent plate for the second time.
x = -10 cm x = 10 cm x = 3 cm
P
Electron
A
B
Magnetic
field into
page
Fig. 8.1
x = 0 cm
24

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use

displacement = m

[3]

Calculate radius of curvature
BQv = mv
2
/r
r = mv/(BQ)
= 9.11 x 10
-31
x 5 x 10
5
/(0.0005 x 1.60 x 10
-19
)
= 5.69 x 10
-3
m
Displacement = - (2r + 0.03) = -0.0414 m

(iii) After the plate P is at the new location as determined in (a) (ii), the e.m.f. source
malfunctiones.

State and explain any difference in the observation on plate P.

...

...

...

..[2]

The electron beam will no longer travel straight between plates A and B, and thus will
not reach plate P at its new position.
Maximum intensity will no longer be observed.

(b) A 6.00 m long conductor with 3.50 A current flowing upwards in an upright position is
placed in a magnetic field of 2.00 x 10
-2
T, such that the magnetic field passes through
the conductor at an inclined angle of 50 to the horizontal as shown in Fig. 8.2.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the force acting on the conductor.

magnitude of force = . N

direction of force = .

[3]

50
o

Directon of
magnetic field
conductor
Direction of current
Fig. 8.2
25

For
Examiners
Use

F = BILsinu
= 0.0200 x 3.50 x 6.00 x sin 40
= 0.270 N

The direction of the force is out of the page.

(c) Fig. 8.3 shows the plan view of an experimental setup. A magnetic field of 15.0 T
consists of semicircular and rectangular regions, with the field lines pointing
perpendicularly into the page. A copper rod slides on the iron bar with a constant speed
0.50 cm s
-1
towards C.

(i) Calculate the average induced e.m.f.

e.m.f. = . V

[3]

time = distance/ speed = (1.0 + 3.5)/0.5 = 9.0 s

area = 0.5tr
2
+ LB = 0.5t(3.5)
2
+ (1.0)(7.0) = 26.24 cm
2

= 2.624 x 10
-3
m
2

E = d(BA)/dt where A is area of magnetic regions.
= A(BA)/At
= 15(2.624 x 10
-3
)/9.0
= 4.37 x 10
-3
V

Cylindrical
copper rod
Iron bar
A
B C
7.0 cm

7.0 cm
1.0 cm
12.0 cm

4.0 cm
Fig 8.3
Region of
magnetic field
G
26

SRJC 2010 9646/Prelim/2010
For
Examiners
Use
(ii) Describe and explain the observation on a galvanometer connected to the iron
bar as shown in Fig. 8.3, as the copper rod moves from the current position until
it reaches point C.

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

...

..[6]

According to Faradays Law, there is an induced e.m.f. when the conductor moves
through a magnetic field.
An induced current flows when there is a complete circuit
Initially, there is no deflection as the copper rod does not pass through any magnetic
field
From A to B, there is a deflection as the copper rod passes through magnetic field
From B to C, the deflection becomes smaller because the area of magnetic field
decreases, until there is no deflection

(iii) Describe and explain whether there is any difference in the answer to part (ii) if a
straight copper rod of the same cross-sectional area but twice its original length
is used.

...

...

...
27

For
Examiners
Use

..[2]

the effective resistance experienced by current flow in the process is the same as in
part (ii).
There is no difference in the observation.


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