Model Question Paper

Subject Code: BH0036/DH0016

Subject Name: Pharmacology
Credits: 2 Marks: 80

Part A (One mark questions)
1. Acetylcholine stimulates the _____ receptor on the heart

A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Muscarinic
D) Nicotinic

2. In which of the following infections is co-trimoxazole ineffective?

A) Tuberculosis
B) Typhoid
C) Bacterial dysentery
D) Urinary tract infections

3. Grey baby syndrome in premature babies is due to _____

A) Paracetamol
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Atropine
D) Penicillins

4. _____ is an inducing agent

A) Thiopentone
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Ether
D) Halothane

5. Pilocarpine is used in the treatment of _____

A) Headache
B) Depression
C) Glaucoma
D) Myasthenia gravis





6. In angina, pain is felt in _____

A) Head
B) Neck
C) Chest
D) Leg

7. An example for drug used as a cardiac stimulant is _____

A) Dobutamine
B) Propranolol
C) Amphetamine
D) Adrenaline

8. An example for anticancer drug is _____

A) Methotrexate
B) Erythromycin
C) Albendazole
D) Amoxicillin

9. _____ is a drug that subdues excitement and calms the subject without inducing sleep

A) Antihypertensive
B) Muscle relaxant
C) General anesthetic
D) Sedative

10. Norfloxacin is a

A) Sulfonamide
B) Flouroquinolone
C) Penicillin
D) Cephalosporin

11. _____ is a dopamine precursor

A) Levodopa
B) Selegeline
C) Bromocriptine
D) Carbidopa

12. Which of the following drugs is used only for recreational purpose?

A) Pethidine
B) Marihuana
C) Diazepam
D) Amphetamine



13. NSAIDs are

A) Nonsteroidal anti inhibitory drugs
B) Nonsteroidal anti irritation drugs
C) Nonsteroidal anti immune drugs
D) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

14. Clonidine is

A) A centrally acting sympatholytic
B) A ganglionic blocker
C) An adrenergic neuron blocker
D) An alpha adrenergic blocker

15. An example for Cholinomimetic alkaloid is _____

A) Acetylcholine
B) Neostigmine
C) Pilocarpine
D) Ecothiophate

16. _____ is a mast cell stabilizer

A) Zafirlucast
B) Salbutamol
C) Prednisolone
D) Sodium chromoglycate

17. Tetracycline causes damage to _____

A) Heart
B) Kidney
C) Intestine
D) Brain

18. Zidovudine is used in the treatment of

A) Tuberculosis
B) Malaria
C) Cancer
D) AIDS

19. Route of administration of noradrenaline is _____

A) Intravenous
B) Intramuscular
C) Inhalational


D) Subcutaneous

20. _____ is used in the treatment of anaphylaxis

A) Dopamine
B) Salbutamol
C) Atropine
D) Adrenaline

21. The source of metoclopramide is

A) Plant
B) Animal
C) Micro-organisms
D) Synthetic

22. An example for antiulcer agent is

A) Apomorphine
B) Domperidone
C) Misoprostol
D) Cisapride

23. The sympathetic drug having maximum CNS stimulant activity is

A) Adrenaline
B) Salbutamol
C) Dopamine
D) Dextroamphetamine

24. The drug having the least antiinflammatory activity in the following list is

A) Paracetamol
B) Aspirin
C) Indomethacin
D) Diclofenac

25. A calcium channel blocker used as antihypertensive drug is

A) Captopril
B) Hydralazine
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan

26. Which of the following drugs can produce hypokalemia (low serum K
+
)?

A) Spironolactone
B) Mannitol


C) Amiloride
D) Hydrochlorothiazide

27. The penicillin for antipseudomonal treatment is

A) Amoxicillin
B) Carbenicillin
C) Cloxacillin
D) Penicillin V

28. Nitrates produce all the following adverse effects EXCEPT

A) Throbbing headache
B) Giddiness
C) Hypertension
D) Postural hypotension

29. Pick up the bronchodilator from the following list

A) Prednisolone
B) Aminophylline
C) Sodium cromoglycate
D) Zafirulkast

30. Propranolol is not given to a patient having ___________

A) Angina pectoris
B) Hypertension
C) Bronchial asthma
D) Phaeochromocytoma

31. _____is an anorexic drug

A) Pepsin
B) Takadiastase
C) Tincture of chirata
D) Fenfluramine

32. Platelet aggregation is prevented by low dose of

A) Aspirin
B) Propranolol
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Verapamil

33. _____ is a systemic antacid

A) Magnesium trisilicate


B) Sodium bicarbonate
C) Aluminium hydroxide
D) Calcium carbonate

34. The drug used for HIV-AIDS is

A) Amantadine
B) Idoxuridine
C) Zidovudine
D) Acyclovir

35. The major adverse effect of Clozapine is

A) Blurring of vision
B) Extrapyramidal disturbance
C) Gynaecomastia
D) Agranulocytosis

36. _____ is a proton pump inhibitor among the following antiulcer drugs

A) Pirenzepine
B) Ranitidine
C) Omeprazole
D) Misoprostol

37. An example for a drug obtained from plant is

A) Atropine
B) Insulin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Penicillin

38. Ankle oedema is a side effect of which antiarrhythmic drug?

A) Quinidine
B) Atenolol
C) Sotalol
D) Verapamil

39. Which of the following drugs cause yellow discolouration of teeth?

A) Oxytetracycline
B) Streptomycin
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Erythromycin




40. A plant derived anticancer drug is ________

A) Bleomycin
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Cisplatin
D) Vincristine


Part B (Two mark questions)
41. The following are the
1
selective blockers
i. Propranolol
ii. Labetolol
iii. Atenolol
iv. Metoprolol

A) ii and iii
B) iv and i
C) i and ii
D) iii and iv

42. Which of the following are the uses of neuromuscular blockers?
i. Cardiac arrest
ii. Adjuvant to anesthesia
iii. Electro convulsive therapy
iv. Spastic disorders

A) i, ii and iii
B) ii, iii and iv
C) iii, iv and i
D) iv, i and ii

43. Which of the following about muscarinic receptor stimulation is not true?

A) Heart decreases heart rate
B) Gastrointestinal tract increases secretion
C) Bronchial smooth muscle bronchodilatation
D) Eye miosis

44. Which of the following are the routes of excretion of drugs?
i. Lungs
ii. Eye
iii. Saliva
iv. Milk

A) i, ii and iii


B) i, iii and iv
C) iv, i and ii
D) ii, iii and iv

45. Pharmacodynamics deals with
i. Actions
ii. Mechanism of action
iii. Dose response relationship
iv. Elimination

A) i, ii and iii
B) iv, i and ii
C) ii, iii and iv
D) iii, iv and i

46. Which of the following statement is false about cough suppressants?

A) They inhibit cough reflex by acting on CNS
B) They decrease intensity and frequency of cough
C) Dextromethorphan is a cough suppressant
D) Diarrhea is seen with the use of codeine

47. The neurotransmitters involved in emesis are
i. Noradrenaline
ii. Histamine
iii. Dopamine
iv. Acetylcholine

A) i, ii and iii
B) ii, iii and iv
C) iii, iv and i
D) iv, i and ii


48. Which of the following statement about nitrous oxide is not true?

A) It is colorless
B) It is odorless
C) It is inflammable
D) It is a good analgesic

49. Which of the following pair are a benzodiazepine and a barbiturate?

A) Diazepam, Alprazolam
B) Flurazepam, zopiclone
C) Lorazepam, thiopentone
D) Phenobarbitone, cyclobarbitone



50. Which of the following pair are cardiac glycosides?

A) Quinidine, procainamide
B) Digoxin, ouabain
C) Verapamil, diltiazem
D) Amiodarone. Sotalol

51. Pick up the antitussive drugs with NO analgesic activity

A) Codeine
B) Morphine
C) Noscapine
D) Pethidine

52. All the following produce loose stools EXCEPT

A) Senna
B) Bisacodyl
C) Castor oil
D) Pectin

53. Sulphonamides exert their antibacterial action by inhibiting bacterial

A) Folate synthetase
B) Dihydrofolate reductase
C) Dihydrofolate synthetase
D) Folate reductase

54. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE of chloramphenicol?

A) Is useful in typhoid fever
B) It produces grey baby syndrome
C) Causes bone marrow depression
D) It inhibits cell wall synthesis


55. Which antiamoebic drug is curative in a single dose?

A) Diloxanide
B) Metronidazole
C) Secnidazole
D) Tinidazole

56. Atropine is used for
i. Organophosphorus poisoning and peptic ulcer
ii. Organophosphorus poisoning and constipation


iii. Constipation and peptic ulcer
iv. Diarrhoea and Organophosphorus poisoning

A) i and ii correct
B) i and iv correct
C) ii and iv correct
D) i and iii correct

57. The term chemotherapy can be used to indicate
i. Use of drugs against micro-organisms selectively
ii. Use of drugs to treat cancer
iii. Use of drugs to harm patient
iv. Use of drugs against micro-organism and patient equally

A) i and ii correct
B) i and iii correct
C) i and iv correct
D) iii and iv correct

58. Intravenous route of administration results in
i. Very slow onset and duration of action
ii. Very fast onset of action
iii. Large volumes can be given
iv. Suitable for emergencies

A) i and ii correct
B) i and iii correct
C) i and iv correct
D) i and iv correct

59. Pre-anaesthetic medication is meant to
i. Reduce the anxiety of the patient
ii. Increase the blood pressure
iii. Increase the dose of anaesthetic
iv. Reduce the adverse effects of the anaesthetic

A) ii
B) iii
C) ii and iii
D) i and iv


60. Carbidopa is used in combination with levodopa because
i. It increases the required dose of levodopa
ii. It decreases the peripheral destruction of levodopa
iii. It decreases the dose of levodopa
iv. It is a harmless drug



A) i
B) iv
C) ii and iii
D) i and iv

Answer Keys

Part A Part B
Q:No Ans
Key
Q:No Ans
Key
Q:No Ans
Key
Q:No Ans
Key
Q:No Ans
Key
1. C 16 D 31 D 41 D 56 B
2. A 17 B 32 A 42 B 57 A
3. B 18 D 33 B 43 C 58 B
4. A 19 A 34 C 44 B 59 D
5. C 20 D 35 D 45 A 60 C
6. C 21 D 36 C 46 D
7. D 22 C 37 A 47 B
8. A 23 D 38 D 48 C
9. D 24 A 39 A 49 C
10. B 25 C 40 D 50 B
11. A 26 D 51 C
12. B 27 B 52 D
13. D 28 C 53 A
14. A 29 B 54 D
15. C 30 C 55 C