Forouzan QandA

1. There are ______________ Internet service providers.
A) regional
B) local
C) national and international
D) all of the above
2. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
A) Topology
B) Mode of operation
C) Data flow
D) None of the above
3. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world.
A) MAN
B) WAN
C) LAN
D) none of the above
4. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.
A) primary
B) multipoint
C) point-to-point
D) secondary
5. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
A) Bus
B) Star
C) Mesh
D) Ring
6. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.
A) protocol
B) forum
C) standard
7. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link.
A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) (a) and (b)
8. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______.
A) Medium
B) Protocol
C) Message
D) Transmission
9. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that
interpretation.
A) Syntax
B) Semantics
C) Timing
10. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______of a network.
A) Performance
B) Security
C) Reliability
D) Feasibility
11. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
A) half-duplex
B) simplex
C) full-duplex
D) automatic
12. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.
A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) all of the above
13. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies.
A) Standards organizations
B) Regulatory agencies
C) Forums
D) All of the above
14. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and
electronic signaling specifications?
A) ISO
B) ITU-T
C) ANSI
D) EIA
15. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby
buildings.
A) LAN
B) MAN
C) WAN
16. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent.
A) Semantics
B) Timing
C) Syntax
17. This was the first network.
A) CSNET
B) NSFNET
C) ARPANET
D) ANSNET
18. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.
A) mesh
B) ring
C) bus
D) all of the above
19. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.
A) UNIX
B) NCP
C) TCP/IP
D) ACM
20. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.
A) A WAN
B) An internet
C) A LAN
21. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.
A) point-to-point
B) multipoint
C) (a) and (b)
22. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications
field?
A) FCC
B) IEEE
C) ITU-T
D) ISOC
23. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.
A) routers
B) host computers
C) networks
D) IMPs
24. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) ; automatic
25. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?
A) Mesh
B) Bus
C) Star
D) Ring
26. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
A) Protocol
B) Signal
C) Medium
D) All the above
27. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) primary
D) secondary
28. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented.
A) Semantics
B) Syntax
C) Timing
D) All of the above
29. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.
A) Security
B) Reliability
C) Performance
D) All the above
30. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.
A) RCF
B) ID
C) RFC
31. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times.
A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) half-simplex

32. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical
addresses of the sender and receiver.
A) data link
B) network
C) physical
33. Which of the following is an application layer service?
A) File transfer and access
B) Mail service
C) Remote log-in
D) All the above
34. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______
layer.
A) Transport
B) Application
C) Physical
35. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) ARP
36. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _______ layer.
A) Transport
B) Application
C) Physical
D) Network
37. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next.
A) transport
B) data link
C) physical
38. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors.
A) physical
B) data link
C) transport
D) network
39. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers.
A) user
B) network
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
40. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers.
A) network
B) user
C) both (a) and (b)
41. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message.
A) transport
B) physical
C) network
D) data link
42. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
A) Data link
B) Transport
C) Physical
43. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol.
A) connection-oriented
B) reliable
C) both a and b
44. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers.
A) session
B) transport
C) data link
D) network
45. ICMPv6 includes _______.
A) IGMP
B) ARP
C) RARP
D) a and b
46. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.
A) IP
B) port
C) specific
D) physical
47. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium.
A) data link
B) transport
C) network
D) physical
48. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network
links.
A) network
B) physical
C) data link
D) transport
49. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.
A) Transport
B) Physical
C) Data link
D) Application
50. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to
communicate.
A) IEEE
B) ISO
C) OSI
51. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.
A) Physical
B) Transport
C) Data link
52. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.
A) 128
B) 32
C) 64
D) variable
53. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.
A) specific
B) port
C) IP
D) physical
54. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another.
A) transport
B) network
C) physical
55. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.
A) application
B) physical
C) data link
D) transport
56. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of
the OSI model.
A) data link
B) network
C) physical
D) application
57. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look
at?
A) logical
B) physical
C) port
58. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are _______.
A) Rearranged
B) Removed
C) Added
D) Modified
59. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium.
A) dialogs
B) protocols
C) bits
D) programs
60. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be
consulted.
A) physical
B) port
C) IP
61. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC).
A) 32-bit
B) 6-byte
C) 64-bit
62. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
A) Network
B) Transport
C) Physical
D) Data link
63. The OSI model consists of _______ layers.
A) eight
B) seven
C) five
D) three
64. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or
WAN.
A) IP
B) port
C) specific
D) physical
65. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer.
A) Data link
B) Transport
C) Network
66. Why was the OSI model developed?
A) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
B) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
C) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite.
67. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______.
A) removed
B) added
C) rearranged
D) modified
68. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read
by B's _______ layer.
A) session
B) physical
C) transport
D) presentation
69. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally
compatible networking protocols.
A) ISO
B) OSI
C) IEEE
70. The Internet model consists of _______ layers.
A) Eight
B) Seven
C) Five
D) Three
71. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer?
A) process-to-process message delivery
B) node-to-node delivery
C) synchronization
D) updating and maintenance of routing tables
72. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and
length information to the data from the upper layer.
A) IP
B) TCP
C) UDP
73. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating
devices.
A) session
B) physical
C) transport
D) network
74. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.
A) 16
B) 32
C) 48
75. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer.
A) application
B) presentation
C) session
D) transport
76. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model.
A) five-layer; before
B) six-layer; before
C) seven-layer; before
D) five-layer; after
77. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or
WAN.
A) logical
B) port
C) physical
78. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized.
A) ANSI
B) CCITT
C) ISO
D) OSI
79. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of
data into a mutually agreed upon format.
A) network
B) presentation
C) transport
D) data link
80. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________ V.
A) 2
B) 1
C) -2
D) between -2 and 2
81. _________ can impair a signal.
A) Noise
B) Attenuation
C) Distortion
D) All of the above
82. ________is the rate of change with respect to time.
A) Time
B) Frequency
C) Amplitude
D) Voltage
83. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point.
The dB is 0. This means ________.
A) P2 equals P1
B) P2 is zero
C) P2 is much larger than P1
D) P2 is much smaller than P1
84. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel.
A) bandpass
B) low-pass
C) high rate
D) low rate
85. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of
the transmission medium.
A) Distortion
B) Attenuation
C) Noise
D) Decibel
86. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain.
A) time; phase
B) frequency; time
C) time; frequency
D) phase; time
87. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency?
A) 5 KHz
B) 47 KHz
C) 57 KHz
D) 10 KHz
88. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________.
A) phase
B) signal amplitude
C) frequency
D) time
89. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values.
A) digital
B) analog
C) a or b
90. Frequency and period are ______.
A) proportional to each other
B) inverse of each other
C) the same
91. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________.
A) wavelength of the signal
B) throughput
C) distance a signal or bit has traveled
D) distortion factor
92. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a _______ signal.
A) single-frequency; composite
B) composite; single-frequency This is the correct answer.
C) single-frequency; double-frequency
93. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
A) delay-amplitude
B) frequency-amplitude
C) bandwidth-period
D) bandwidth-delay
94. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values.
A) Digital
B) Analog
C) A or B
95. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________.
A) periodic signals
B) electromagnetic signals
C) aperiodic signals
D) low-frequency sine waves
96. Data can be ________.
A) digital
B) analog
C) A or B
97. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different
propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal.
A) Noise
B) Distortion
C) Attenuation
D) Decibel
98. Signals can be ________.
A) digital
B) analog
C) either (a) or (b)
99. A sine wave is ________.
A) periodic and discrete
B) aperiodic and discrete
C) periodic and continuous
D) aperiodic and continuous
100. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values.
A) Analog
B) Digital
C) A or B
101. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate.
A) noiseless
B) noisy
C) low-pass
D) bandpass
102. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz?
A) 1 KHz
B) 3 MHz
C) 4 MHz
103. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range.
A) Analog
B) Digital
C) A or B
104. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth.
A) digital
B) analog
105. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?
A) 1 Hz
B) 100 Hz
C) 1 KHz
D) 1 MHz
106. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies
contained in that signal.
A) period
B) bandwidth
C) frequency
D) amplitude
107. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a
signal.
A) Noise
B) Distortion
C) Attenuation
D) Decibel
108. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0.
A) Amplitude
B) Phase
C) Frequency
D) Voltage
109. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________
that of A.
A) one-half
B) twice
C) the same as
D) indeterminate from
110. As frequency increases, the period ________.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) doubles
D) remains the same
111. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel.
A) low-pass
B) low rate
C) bandpass
D) high rate
112. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate.
A) low-pass
B) bandpass
C) noisy
D) noiseless
113. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________.
A) phase
B) frequency
C) slope
D) peak amplitude
114. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization?
A) RZ
B) NRZ-L
C) NRZ-I
D) Manchester
115. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz,
what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem?
A) 200 samples/s
B) 500 samples/s
C) 1000 samples/s
D) 1200 samples/s
116. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.
A) variable
B) fixed
C) zero
D) a function of the data rate
117. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.
A) B4B8
B) B8ZS
C) HDB3
118. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________.
A) sampling
B) PAL
C) PCM
119. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of NRZ.
A) the same as
B) twice
C) thrice
120. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.
A) bit
B) baud
C) signal
121. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding.
A) line
B) block
C) NRZ
D) Manchester
122. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group.
A) Line coding
B) Block coding
C) Scrambling
123. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for
0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative.
A) unipolar
B) bipolar
C) polar
D) all of the above
124. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of
signal elements sent in 1s.
A) signal; data
B) data; signal
C) baud; bit
125. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme.
A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
126. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.
A) Line coding
B) Block coding
C) Scrambling
127. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______.
A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal
C) twice the bandwidth of a signal
D) twice the highest frequency of a signal
128. PCM is an example of _______ conversion.
A) analog-to-analog
B) analog-to-digital
C) digital-to-digital
D) digital-to-analog
129. There are three sampling methods: __________.
A) ideal, natural, and flat-top
B) ideal, sampled, and flat-top
C) quantized, sampled, and ideal
130. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative.
A) unipolar
B) polar
C) bipolar
131. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.
A) Synchronization
B) Error detection
C) Attenuation
D) (a) and (b)
132. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for
A) bit transfer
B) synchronization
C) baud transfer
133. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.
A) Differential Manchester
B) Manchester
C) RZ
D) All the above
134. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.
A) NRZ-L
B) NRZ-I
C) both (a) and (b)
135. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at
the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none.
A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
136. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage remains at one level
during the first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit
provides synchronization.
A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
137. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In other words, it
guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate.
A) isochronous
B) synchronous
C) asynchronous
138. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme.
A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
139. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received signal power, called
the _______.
A) base
B) line
C) baseline
140. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the
responsibility of the receiver to group the bits.
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous
141. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous
sample.
A) DM; CM
B) DM; PCM
C) PCM; DM
142. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V.
A) HDB3
B) B4B8
C) B8ZSf
143. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move between the
levels.
A) 4B5B
B) MLT-3
C) 2B1Q
144. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) _____ subclass(es) of serial
transmission.
A) one; two
B) one; three
C) two; three
145. Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal?
A) 2
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
146. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted.
A) self-synchronizing
B) self-transmitted
C) self-modulated
147. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.
A) asynchronous serial
B) synchronous serial
C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
148. The first step in PCM is ________.
A) quantization
B) sampling
C) modulation
149. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.
A) Manchester
B) Differential Manchester
C) RZ
D) All the above
150. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of
each byte.
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous
151. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire.
A) Asynchronous serial
B) Synchronous serial
C) Parallel
D) (a) and (b)
152. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s?
A) AMI
B) RZ
C) NRZ-I
D) Manchester
153. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.
A) bit
B) baud
C) signal
154. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection.
A) Line coding
B) Block coding
C) Scrambling
155. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
A) synchronous serial
B) asynchronous serial
C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
156. Two common scrambling techniques are ________.
A) B8ZS and HDB3
B) AMI and NRZ
C) NRZ and RZ
D) Manchester and differential Manchester
157. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling.
A) Analog-to-analog
B) Analog-to-digital
C) Digital-to-analog
D) Digital-to-digital
158. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element
belonging to a four-level signal.
A) MLT-3
B) 4B5B
C) 2B1Q
159. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.
A) NRZ-I
B) NRZ-L
C) both (a) and (b)
160. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal.
A) Line coding
B) Block coding
C) Scrambling
161. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below.
A) unipolar
B) polar
C) bipolar
D) all of the above

1. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and
phase remain constant
A) PSK
B) ASK
C) FSK
D) QAM
163. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
164. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
165. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.
A) analog-to-analog
B) digital-to-digital
C) analog-to-digital
166. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM station.
A) 20
B) 100
C) 200
167. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______.
A) band-pass
B) low-pass
168. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage
level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain
constant, but as the amplitude of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes
correspondingly.
A) AM
B) FM
C) PM
169. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 1
170. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion?
A) FSK
B) ASK
C) AM
D) PSK
171. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog signal based on the
information in the digital data.
A) Analog-to-analog
B) Digital-to-digital
C) Digital-to-analog
D) Analog-to-digital
172. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.
A) 100
B) 400
C) 800
D) 1600
173. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both
peak amplitude and frequency remain constant.
A) PSK
B) FSK
C) ASK
D) QAM
174. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion?
A) QAM
B) AM
C) PM
D) FM
175. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
176. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.
A) PSK and FSK
B) ASK and FSK
C) ASK and PSK
177. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and
phase remain constant.
A) ASK
B) FSK
C) PSK
D) QAM
178. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
A) 1200
B) 600
C) 400
D) 300
179. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
180. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots.
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1
181. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude of the
carrier frequency.
A) OOK
B) PSK
C) FSK
182. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate?
A) 1200
B) 1000
C) 400
D) 300
183. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.
A) analog-to-analog
B) digital-to-digital
C) analog-to-digital
184. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
A) 1200
B) 600
C) 400
D) 300
185. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
186. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station.
A) 20
B) 10
C) 5
187. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
188. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level
(amplitude) of the modulating signal.
A) AM
B) FM
C) PM
189. _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal.
A) Analog-to-analog
B) Digital-to-digital
C) Analog-to-digital
D) Digital-to-analog
190. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing
amplitudes of the modulating signal.
A) PM
B) FM
C) AM
191. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.
A) phase and frequency
B) amplitude and phase
C) frequency and amplitude
192. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature.
A) QAM
B) ASK
C) FSK
D) PSK
193. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz,
what is the frequency of the carrier signal?
A) 710 KHz
B) 705 KHz
C) 700 KHz
D) Cannot be determined from given information
194. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using two
carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature).
A) amplitude and frequency
B) amplitude and phase
C) frequency and phase
195. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate?
A) 12000
B) 1000
C) 400
D) 300
196. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At
one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates
another carrier frequency.
A) DSSS
B) FHSS
C) FDM
D) TDM
197. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots.
A) n + 1
B) n - 1
C) 0 to n
D) n
198. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
A) WDM
B) FDM
C) TDM
199. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______.
A) modulation
B) multiplexing
C) encoding
D) line discipline
200. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the
medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious
intruder.
A) Multiplexing
B) Spread spectrum
C) Modulation
D) None of the above.
201. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.
A) WDM
B) FDM
C) TDM
202. FDM is an _________technique.
A) digital
B) analog
203. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths
of the signals to be transmitted.
A) TDM
B) FDM
C) Both (a) or (b)
D) Neither (a) or (b)
204. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission
rates of the signal sources.
A) equal to
B) less than
C) greater than
D) not related to
205. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.
A) 1; n
B) n; 1
C) 1; 1
D) n; n
206. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals.
A) Amplitude
B) Frequency
C) Bandwidth
207. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable.
A) WDM
B) FDM
C) TDM
208. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical.
A) WDM
B) TDM
C) FDM
209. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data.
A) isochronous
B) statistical
C) synchronous
210. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency.
A) isochronous
B) synchronous
C) statistical
211. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission.
A) line; channel
B) channel; link
C) link; channel
D) line; link
212. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) Both (a) and (b)
213. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?
A) WDM
B) TDM
C) FDM
D) (a) and (c)
214. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a
single data link.
A) Demodulating
B) Multiplexing
C) Compressing
215. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading.
A) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
B) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
C) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
216. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits.
A) DSSS
B) FHSS
C) FDM
D) TDM
217. ________ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link.
A) WDM
B) TDM
C) FDM
218. _______ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate
one.
A) WDM
B) TDM
C) FDM
219. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth.
A) line coding
B) block coding
C) spread spectrum
220. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams?
A) WDM
B) FDM
C) TDM
221. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface.
A) less than
B) equal to
C) more than
222. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.
A) application
B) transport
C) network
D) physical
223. _________ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Shielded twisted-pair
C) Coaxial
D) Fiber-optic
224. __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
225. _______ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.
A) Coaxial; twisted-pair
B) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
C) Coaxial; fiber-optic
226. _________ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications.
A) Radio waves
B) Infrared waves
C) Microwaves
227. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.
A) copper
B) glass or plastic
C) bimetallic
D) liquid
228. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable?
A) insulating material
B) inner conductor
C) diameter of cable
D) outer conductor
229. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.
A) line-of-sight
B) sky
C) ground
230. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.
A) less dense than
B) denser than
C) the same density as
D) another name for
231. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
232. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.
A) radio
B) light
C) infrared
D) very low-frequency
233. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation.
A) line-of-sight
B) sky
C) ground
234. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna.
A) unidirectional
B) bidirectional
C) omnidirectional
D) horn
235. A(n) _______ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another.
A) unguided
B) guided
236. ________ cable is used for voice and data communications.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
237. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use _______ propagation.
A) ground
B) line-of-sight
C) sky
238. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______.
A) determinate or indeterminate
B) fixed or unfixed
C) guided or unguided
D) metallic or nonmetallic
239. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a peripheral device.
A) Radio waves
B) Infrared waves
C) Microwaves
240. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor.
A) Guided
B) Unguided
C) Either (a) or (b)
241. ________ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an
outside jacket.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
242. Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
A) radio broadcasting
B) satellite communications
C) local telephone system
D) cellular telephone system
243. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater
than the critical angle, _______ occurs.
A) refraction
B) reflection
C) criticism
D) incidence
244. Which of the following is not a guided medium?
A) fiber-optic cable
B) coaxial cable
C) twisted-pair cable
D) atmosphere
245. Microwaves are _________.
A) omnidirectional
B) bidirectional
C) unidirectional
246. ________ cables carry data signals in the form of light.
A) Twisted-pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber-optic
247. Radio waves are _________.
A) unidirectional
B) omnidirectional
C) bidirectional
248. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______.
A) refraction
B) reflection
C) modulation
249. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtual-circuit networks and
datagram networks.
A) five
B) three
C) two
D) four
250. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others.
A) circuit switching
B) datagram switching
C) frame switching
251. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ______.
A) 19
B) 21
C) 31
D) 41
252. In _________, resources are allocated on demand.
C) frame switching
253. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially.
A) time-division
B) two-dimensional
C) space-division
D) three-dimensional
254. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local.
A) datagram
B) virtual-circuit
C) circuit-switched
255. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.
A) 40,000
B) less than 40,000
C) greater than 40,000
D) greater than 100,000
256. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided
into n channels.
A) circuit-switched
B) line-switched
C) frame-switched
257. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each stage.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
258. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.
C) frame switching
259. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram network. It has some
characteristics of both.
A) packet-switched
B) frame-switched
C) virtual-circuit
260. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________.
A) TSI
B) STI
C) ITS
261. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network.
A) virtual-circuit
B) datagram
C) circuit-switched
262. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components.
A) four
B) three
C) two
263. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______.
A) 20,000
B) 40,000
C) 30,000
D) 10,000
264. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
265. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______ address.
A) destination
B) source
C) local
266. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important.
A) six
B) five
C) four
D) three
267. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network.
A) circuit-switched
B) datagram
C) virtual-circuit
268. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take advantage of the best
of both.
A) SSS
B) TST
C) TTT
269. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated
for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase.
A) frame switching
C) circuit switching
270. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____.
A) 40
B) 30
C) 20
D) 10
271. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.
A) physical
B) data line
C) network
D) transport
272. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages.
A) multiple path
B) multiple crossbar
C) multistage
273. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases.
C) frame switching
274. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.
A) five
B) four
C) three
D) two
275. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based
on the output port represented as a binary string.
A) TSI
B) banyan
C) crossbar
276. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during
the entire journey of the packet.
A) destination
B) source
C) local
277. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to
_______.
A) 42,000
B) 20,000
C) 18,000
D) 15,200
278. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch.
A) crossbar
B) crosspoint
C) TSI
D) STS
279. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________
A) CT; CMTS
B) CM; CMTS
C) CM; CMS
280. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
A) packet-switched
B) message-switched
C) circuit-switched
281. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______.
A) downstream
B) upstream
C) upstream and downstream
282. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end.
A) twisted-pair
B) fiber-optic
C) coaxial
283. The telephone network is made of ______ major components.
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
284. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals.
A) analog; analog
B) digital; digital
C) digital; analog
D) analog; digital
285. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an
________ system.
A) analog
B) digital
C) digital as well as analog
286. The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______.
A) SSS
B) SS7
C) POP
287. _______technology is a set of technologies developed by the telephone companies to provide high data
rate transmission.
A) LDS
B) ASL
C) DSL
288. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office.
A) fiber-optic
B) coaxial
C) twisted-pair
289. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network.
A) HCF
B) HFC
C) CFH
290. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.
A) upstream data
B) downstream data
C) control data
D) voice communication
291. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates.
A) SDSL
B) ADSL
C) VDSL
D) (b) and (c)
292. The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ .
A) IXC
B) LEC
C) POP
293. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______.
A) FDM; QAM
B) FDM; TDM
C) PSK; FSK
D) QDM; QAM
294. The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______.
A) IXC
B) LEC
C) POP
295. The modern telephone network is now ________.
A) digital
B) digital as well as analog
C) analog
296. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique.
A) ASK
B) PCM
C) QAM
D) QPSK
297. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line.
A) ADSL
B) HDSL
C) VDSL
D) SDSL
298. HDSL encodes data using _______.
A) 2B1Q
B) 1B2Q
C) 4B/5B
D) 6B/8T
299. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique.
A) PCM
B) QAM
C) PSK
D) ASK
300. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.
A) head end
B) combiner
C) fiber node
D) splitter
301. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make up the device: a
signal _______ and a signal _______.
A) demodulator; modulator
B) modulator; demodulator
C) modern; demo
302. The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______.
A) switched/56; DDS
B) switched/56; switched/64
C) DDS; switched 64
D) leased; out-of-band
303. The United States is divided into many _______.
A) IXCs
B) LECs
C) LATAs
304. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______.
A) ADSL
B) CMTS
C) DOCSIS
D) MCNS
305. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data.
A) mixed
B) in-band
C) out-of-band
306. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services and analog
_____services.
A) leased; out-of-band
B) out-of-band; in-band
C) switched; in-band
D) switched; leased
307. The HFC network uses _______ cable.
A) coaxial
B) twisted-pair
C) fiber-optic
D) a combination of (a) and (c)
308. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data.
A) mixed
B) out-of-band
C) in-band
309. Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards.
A) X-series
B) V-series
C) VX-series
310. Checksums use _________ arithmetic.
A) one's complement arithmetic
B) two's complement arithmetic
311. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________.
A) 0000
B) 1111
C) 1110
D) 0111
312. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive.
A) 1 to 10
B) 0 to 10
C) 1 to 11
313. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC.
A) one bit less than
B) one bit more than
C) The same size as
314. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits.
A) Hamming rule
B) Hamming code
C) Hamming distance
315. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial.
A) range
B) power
C) degree
316. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results.
A) addition and subtraction
B) addition and multiplication
C) addition and division
317. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?
A) The quotient
B) The dividend
C) The divisor
D) The remainder
318. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?
A) CRC
B) Checksum
C) Simple parity check
D) Two-dimensional parity check
319. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___.
A) block; blockwords
B) block; datawords
C) linear; datawords
320. A _____ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed.
A) burst
B) double-bit
C) single-bit
321. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
322. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission.
A) onward
B) forward
C) backward
323. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three, there are _____
bits in error.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
324. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors.
A) an odd-number of
B) an even-number of
C) two
D) no errors
325. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) n
326. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid codeword.
A) ANDing
B) XORing
C) ORing
327. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again.
A) forward
B) backward
C) retransmission
328. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding.
A) linear; nonlinear
B) block; convolution
C) block; linear
329. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______.
A) 1 and 2
B) 0 and 1
C) 0 and 2
330. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code
must be ________.
A) 11
B) 6
C) 5
331. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.
A) detection; correction
B) correction; detection
C) creation; correction
D) creation; detection
332. In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid codewords.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 2
333. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________.
A) 0000
B) 1111
C) 0111
D) 1110
334. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________.
A) 1101
B) 1000
C) 1111
335. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is ________.
A) 5
B) 3
C) 2
336. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?
A) Checksum
B) CRC
C) Simple parity check
D) Two-dimensional parity check
337. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________.
A) redundancy
B) degree
C) generator
338. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction.
A) OR
B) XOR
C) AND
339. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called
_________.
A) codewords
B) datawords
C) blockwords
340. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code
must be _______.
A) 11
B) 5
C) 6
341. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors.
A) x
B) 1
C) x + 1
342. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result
is another codeword.
A) Convolution
B) Cyclic
C) Non-linear
343. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
344. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the
receive window must be _____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
345. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______
to the sender.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 5
D) any of the above
346. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels.
A) noiseless
B) noisy
347. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol.
A) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
348. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and terminating links.
A) PAP
B) CHAP
C) LCP
D) NCP
349. HDLC is an acronym for _______.
A) Half-duplex digital link combination
B) Host double-level circuit
C) High-duplex line communication
D) High-level data link control
350. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of
the receive window must be _____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
351. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send
window must be _____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
352. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______ arithmetic the
sequence number of the next frame expected.
A) modulo-m
B) modulo-2
C) modulo-4
353. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of
the send window must be _____.
A) 1
B) 15
C) 16
D) 31
354. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send
before waiting for acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
355. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are in
________ arithmetic,
A) modulo-256
B) modulo- 8
C) modulo-2
356. ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
357. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
A) 1 to 63
B) 1 to 64
C) 0 to 63
D) 0 to 64
358. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________.
A) sliding window
B) sliding frame
C) sliding packet
359. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station can function as a
primary and a secondary.
A) ARM
B) ABM
C) NBM
D) NRM
360. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is a character with
the same pattern as the ______.
A) trailer
B) flag
C) header
361. The ______ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.
A) Selective-Repeat ARQ
B) Go-Back-N ARQ
C) Stop-and-Wait
D) Simplest
362. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a
_________protocol.
A) byte-oriented
B) bit-oriented
C) character-oriented
363. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed.
A) less than 10
B) more than 10
C) exactly 10
364. _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bit-oriented.
A) Standard
B) Fixed-size
C) Variable-size
365. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send
before waiting for acknowledgment.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
366. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters.
A) bit-oriented
B) character-oriented
367. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.
A) standard
B) fixed-size
C) variable-size
368. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
B) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
D) both (b) and (c)
369. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple
secondary stations.
A) ARM
B) NBM
C) NRM
D) ABM
370. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.
A) bit-oriented
B) byte-oriented
371. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames.
A) standard
B) fixed-size
C) variable-size
372. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over point-to-point and
multipoint links.
A) byte-oriented
B) bit-oriented
C) character-oriented
373. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with
the same pattern as the ________.
A) trailer
B) flag
C) header
374. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding
frames.
A) Go-Back-N ARQ
C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
375. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels.
A) noiseless
B) noisy
376. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control.
B) Stop-and-Wait
C) Simplest
D) Go-Back-N ARQ
377. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The sequence numbers are
based on __________arithmetic.
A) modulo-m
B) modulo-2
C) modulo-4
378. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver.
A) Simplest
C) Stop-and-Wait
D) Go-Back-N ARQ
379. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request, which is the retransmission
of data.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Transmission
380. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the password is kept secret;
it is never sent online.
A) PAP
B) LCP
C) NCP
D) CHAP
381. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process:
A) CHAP
B) PAP
C) LCP
D) NCP
382. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted.
B) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
C) Go-Back-N ARQ
383. In ________ protocols, we use ________.
A) byte-oriented; bit stuffing
B) bit-oriented; bit stuffing
C) character-oriented; bit stuffing
384. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver,
and then sends the next frame.
A) Simplest
B) Stop-and-Wait
C) Selective-Repeat ARQ
D) Go-Back-N ARQ
385. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send window is ___.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 8
386. ARQ stands for _______.
A) Acknowledge repeat request
B) Automatic retransmission request
C) Automatic repeat quantization
D) Automatic repeat request
387. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or from other
messages going from other sources to other destinations.
A) Controlling
B) Framing
C) Digitizing
388. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication.
A) node-to-node
B) process-to-process
C) host-to-host
389. In _________ protocols, we use ________.
A) bit-oriented; character stuffing
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing
C) character-oriented; byte stuffing

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