RISE

Target - 2014
TEST - 1
Name:
Instructions
1. Duration of the test is 3 hours
2. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Physics and
Chemistry, having 30 questions in each part.
4. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for a correct response.
5. One mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response for each question.
6. Use Blue/Black ball point pens only for marking your responses in the answer sheet

Part A - Chemistry
1.

For one mole of a van der Waals gas b = 0 and T = 300K, PV vs 1/V plot is shown below.
The value of the van der Waals coefficient a ( atm.liter2mol-2) is

A) 1.0

2.

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B) 4.5

C) 1.5

D) 3.0

29.2% (w/w) HCl stock solution has a density of 1.25 g/ml. The molecular weight of HCl
is 36.5 g/mol. The volume (ml) of stock solution required to prepare 200 ml of
0.4 M HCl is:
A) 8
B) 16
C) 6
D) 20

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3.

Dissolving 120g of urea (mol. Wt 60) in 1000 gm of water gave a solution of density 1.15
g/ml. The molarity of solution is:
A) 1.78
B) 2.00
C) 2.05
D) 2.22

4.

According to collision theory of gases, which statement is wrong

A) Collisions are always elastic
B) Heavier molecules transfer more momentum to the wall of the container
C) Only a small number of molecules have a very high velocity
D) Between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities

5.

Reaction of Br2 with Na2CO3 in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium
bromate (NaBrO3) with the evolution of CO2 gas. The number of sodium bromide
molecules involved in the balanced chemical equation is:
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

6. The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the
transition in H atom corresponding to which of the following?
A) n = 2 to 1
B) n = 3 to 2
C) n = 4 to 3 D) n = 3 to 1
7.

The Ksp for Cr(OH)3 is 1.6 X 10-30. The molar solubility of this compound in water is:
A)

1.6 X 1030

B) 4 1.6 X1030 / 27

C) 2 1.6 X 1030

D) 1.6 X 10 30 / 27
8.

The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the Bohrs first orbit of
hydrogen atom?
A) He+ ( n = 2)
B) Li2+ ( n = 2 )
C) Li2+ ( n = 2 )
D) Be3+ ( n = 2 )

9.

As the electron in Bohrs orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n = 2 to n = 1, the
kinetic energy (K) and the potential energy (U) change as
A) K 4-fold and U 2-fold
B) K 2-fold and U 4-fold
C) K 2-fold and U 2-fold
D) K 4-fold and U 4-fold

10. A weak acid HA has Ka = 10-6. What would be the molar ratio of this acid and its salt with
strong base so that pH of the buffer solution is 5?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 10
D) 1/10
11. For pure water,
A) pH increases and pOH decreases with increase in temperature
B) pH decreases and pOH increases with increase in temperature
C) both pH and pOH increase with increase in temperature
D) both pH and pOH decrease with increase in temperature

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12. Which of the following is wrong for buffer solution?

A) Acidic buffer will be effective within the pH range pKa +/- 1
B) Basic buffer will be effective within the pH range pKw pKb +/- 1
C) H3PO4 + NaH2PO4 is not a buffer solution
D) Buffer behaves most effectively when salt/acid concn ratio is equal to 1
13. When r, P and M represent rate of diffusion, pressure and molecular mass, respectively,
then the ratio of the rates of diffusion (ra/rb) of two gases A and B as:
A) (Pa/Pb)(Mb/Ma)1/2
B) (Pa/Pb)1/2/( Mb/Ma)
C) (Pa/Pb)(Ma/Mb)1/2
D) (Pa/Pb)1/2(Ma/Mb)
14. The pH of 1 M solution of HA is 5. Its dissociation constant would be:
A) 5
B) 5 X 10-8
C) 10-5
D) 10-10
15. For (HA)1 and (HA)2, their degrees of dissociation, 1 and 2 are in ratio of 1 : 2,
Ka1 = 2 X 10-4. What will be Ka2?
A) 8 X 10-4
B) 2 X 10-4
C) 4 X 10-4
D) 10-4
16. Which of the following is(are) correct when 1.0 L of 0.0015 M MgCl2 and 0.1 L of
0.025 M NaF are mixed together? ( Ksp of MgF2 = 3.7 X 10-8)
A) MgF2 remains in solution
B) MgF2 precipitates out
C) MgCl2 precipitates out
D) Cl- ions remain in solution
17. Azimuthal quantum number defines
A) e/m ratio of an electron
C) angular momentum of an electron

B) spin of an electron
D) magnetic momentum of an electron

18. H for combustion of C(s), H2(s) and CH4(s) are -94, -68 and -213 Kcal/mole, respectively
then H for the following reaction is:
C(s) + 2H2(g) CH4(g)
A) -170 kcal
B) 17 kcal
C) -85 kcal
D) -111 Kcal

19. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3, and
spin quantum number, ms = -1/2, is
A) 9
B) 10
C) 18
D) 4
20. Two non-reactive monoatomic ideal gases have their atomic masses in the ratio 2 : 3. The
ratio of their partial pressures, when enclosed in a vessel kept at a constant temperature, is
4 : 3. The ratio of their densities is
A) 1 : 4
B) 1 : 2
C) 6 : 9
D) 8 : 9

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21. The rate constant for the reaction A B is 6.0 X 10-3 M/s. What is the concentration of B
after 20 minutes, if it is given that initially [A] = 5 M
A) 0.72 M
B) 7.2 M
C) 0.36 M
D) 3.6 M
22. Half life period for thermal decomposition of a gas at 750 mm of initial pressure is 105
minutes. If at 250 mm of Initial pressure half life is 945 minutes, the order of reaction is:
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0
23. Osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm at 37 degree C. How much glucose (Mwt 180)
should be used per 250 mL for an intravenous injection that is isotonic with blood
A) 14.5 g
B) 22.5 g
C) 45 g
D) 1.45 g
24. 39 g of benzene (C6H6) and 46 g of toluene (C7H8) were mixed. Vapour pressure of pure
Benzene and pure Toluene are 120 and 80 mm respectively. The mole fraction of Benzene in
vapour phase which is in equilibrium with solution of Benzene and Toluene is:
A) 0.6
B) 0.4
C) 0.25
D) 0.5
25. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of the two then:
A) Shows no deviation from Raoults law
B) is saturated
C) shows positive deviation from Raoults law
D) shows negative deviation from Raoults law
26. What mass of Urea (Mol wt 60) need to be dissolved in 0.1 litre of water in order to
decrease its vapour pressure by 25%?
A) 111.11 gm
B) 11.11 gm
C) 80 gm
D) 20 gm
27. 1.25 mole of an ideal gas at 4 atm and 300 K expands isothermally to 3 times of its original
volume against the external pressure of 2 atm. The values of W, E and q are respectively (kJ):
A) -3.118, 0 and 3.118
B) 3.118, 0 and -3.118
C) -3.118, 0 and 0
D) 3.118, 0 and 3.118
28. G & G for the reaction A B at 300K are which of the following if the equilibrium
constant, K = 103
A) 17.23 kJ and 0
B) 0 and -17.23 kJ
C) 0 and 17.23 kJ
D) -17.23 kJ and 0
29. 3 moles of the same gas were enclosed in two separate containers A and B at 25 deg C. If
pressure of gas in B container is two times of pressure in A container, rms velocity:
A) will be more in container A
B) will be same in A and B container
C) will be more in container B
D) cannot be determined
30. For a given reaction H = +300 kJ/mole and S = 200 J/mole-K, at what temperature will
the reaction be spontaneous?
A) 1000 K
B) 750 K
C) 1500 K
D) 1501 K
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Part B Physics
31. A small block of mass 0.1 kg lies on a fixed incline plane PQ which makes an angle with
the horizontal. A horizontal force of 1 N acts on the block through its center of mass as
shown in the figure. The block remains stationary if:
( g = 10 m/s2)
A) < 45 and plane is frictionless
B) > 45 and a frictional force acts on the block
towards P
C) > 45 and a frictional force acts on the block
towards Q
D) < 45 and a frictional force acts on the block
towards Q
32. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is:
A)

B)

C)

D) 1/ 2

33. Out of the following sets of forces, the resultant of which cannot be zero:
A) 10, 10, 10
B) 10, 10, 20
C) 10, 20, 20
D) 10, 20, 40

34. If the angle between the vectors A and B is , the value of product ( A X B). A is equal to:
A) BA2sin
B) BA2cos
C) BA2sin cos
D) Zero
35. A vertical spring of force constant 100 N/m is attached with a hanging mass of 10 kg. Now
an external force is applied on the mass so that the spring is stretched by additional 2m.
The work done by the force is:
A) 200 J
B) 400 J
C) 450 J
D) 600 J
36. Work done by the conservative forces on a system is equal to:
A) The change in kinetic energy of the system
B) The negative change in the potential energy of the system
C) The change in the total mechanical energy of the system
D) None of the above
37. After perfectly inelastic collision between two identical particles moving with the same
speed in different directions, the speed of the particles become half the initial speed. The
angle between the velocities of the two before collision is:
A) 60
B) 45
C) 120
D) 30

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38. A man of mass m moves with a constant speed on a plank of mass M and length L kept
initially at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface, from one end to the other in time t. The
speed of the plank relative to ground while man is moving, is:
L M
L
m
L
M
A) ( )
B) (
C) (
D) None
)
)
t m
t mM
t M m
39. A particle of mass m is at rest at origin at time t = 0. It is subjected to force, F(t) = F0e-bt in
the x direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves?

40. A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 10m. The maximum horizontal
distance that the boy can throw the same stone up to will be :
A) 202 m
B) 10 m
C) 102 m
D) 20 m
41. Two cars of masses m1 & m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 & r2, respectively. Their
speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The ratio of their
centripetal acceleration is:
A) m1r1/m2r2
B) m1/m2
C) r1/r2
D) 1/1
42. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same mass are rolled down on two inclined planes of
heights h1 and h2 respectively. If at the bottom of the plane the two objects have same
linear velocities, then the ratio of h1:h2 is:
A) 2:3
B) 7:5
C) 14:15
D) 15:14

43. The figure shows the position time (x t) graph

of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg.
The magnitude of each impulse is:
A) 0.4 Ns
B) 0.8 Ns
C) 1.6 Ns
D) 0.2 Ns

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44. A wheel is rolling without sliding on a horizontal surface. The centre of wheel moves with
a constant speed v0. Consider a point P on the rim which is at top at time t = 0. The square
of speed of point P is plotted against time t. The correct plot is:

45. For a particle in uniform circular motion the acceleration a at a point P(R,) on the circle
of radius R is (here is measured from x-axis)
A)

V2
V2
cos i
sin j
R
R

B)

V2
V2
sin i
cos j
R
R

C)

V2
V2
cos i
sin j
R
R

D)

V2 V2
i
j
R
R

46. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity, say, vo. If 3/4th
of its kinetic energy is lost in friction in time to, then coefficient of friction between the
particle and the ground is:
A) vo/2gto
B) vo/4gto
C) 3vo/4gto
D) vo/gto
47. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The
distance moved by the body in time t is proportional to:
A) t1/2
B) t3/4
C) t3/2
D) t2

48. A thin uniform rod of mass m and length l is hinged at the lower end to a level floor and
stands vertically. It is now allowed to fall. Then its upper end will strike the floor with a
velocity given by:
A)

2 gl

B)

3gl

C)

5gl

D)

mgl

49. During and accelerated motion of a particle:

A) avg velocity of the particle is always less than its final velocity
B) avg velocity of the particle is always greater than its final velocity
C) average velocity of the particle may be zero also
D) average velocity of the particle is half its final velocity

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50. The image of an object, formed by a plano-convex lens at a distance of 8 m behind the lens,
is real and is one-third the size of the object. The wavelength of light inside the lens is 2/3
times the wavelength in free space. The radius of the curved surface of the lens is
A) 1 m
B) 2 m
C) 3 m
D) 4 m
51. A horizontal stretched string fixed at two ends, is vibrating in its fifth harmonic according
to the equation y(x, t) = 0.01m sin [(62.8m-1)x] cos[(628s-1)t]. Assuming = 3.14, the
correct statement is:
A) Number of nodes is 5
B) The length of string is 0.25 m
C) Fundamental frequency is 100 Hz
D) None of the above
52. A ball of mass m moving with a constant velocity strikes against a ball of same mass at rest.
If e is the coefficient of restitution, then what will be the ratio of speeds of two balls after
collision?
A) 1-e/1+e
B) e-1/e+1
C) 1+e/1-e
D) 2+e/e-1
53. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed on the corners of a square ABCD of side l.
The moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing through A and parallel to BD is:
A) 2ml2
B) 3ml2
C) 3ml2
D) ml2
54. The transverse displacement y (x,t) of a wave on a string is given by
( ax 2 bt 2 2 ab xt )

y(x,t) = e
A) wave moving in x direction with speed (b/a)
B) standing wave of frequency b
C) standing wave of frequency 1/b
D) wave moving in +x direction with speed (b/a)
55. An organ pipe, open from both end produces 5 beats per second when vibrated with a
source of frequency 200 Hz. The second harmonic of the same pipe produces 10 beats per
second with a source of frequency 420 Hz. The fundamental frequency of organ pipe is
A) 195 Hz
B) 205 Hz
C) 190 Hz
D) 210 Hz
56. A mass of ideal gas at pressure P is expanded isothermally to four times the original volume
and then slowly compressed adiabatically to its original volume. Assuming to be 1.5, the
new pressure of the gas is
A) 2P
B) P
C) 4P
D) P/2
57. A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with a liquid of refractive index 1 and the upper
half with a liquid of refractive index 2. The apparent depth of the vessel seen
perpendicularly is
A) (12/1+2)d B) (1/1+1/2)d
C) (1/1+1/2)2d
D) (1/12)2d

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58. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure the fraction of the heat energy
supplied which increases the internal energy of the gas is:
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 3/7
D) 5/7
59. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 75oC to 70oC in T1 minutes,
from 70oC to 65oC in T2 minutes and from 65oC to 60oC in T3 minutes. Then
A) T1=T2=T3
B) T1<T2<T3
C) T1>T2>T3
D) T1<T2>T3
60. Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (workfunction 4.2 eV). The
kinetic energy in joule of the faster electron emitted is approximately
A) 3 10-21
B) 3 10-19
C) 3 10-17
D) 3 10-15

Part C Mathematics
61. Let a, b be the roots of the equation x2 px + r = 0 and a/2, 2b be the roots of the equation
x2 qx + r = 0. Then the value of r is
2
2
2
A)
B) (q p)(2q p)
C) (q 2 p)(2q p)
( p q)(2q p)
9
9
9
2
D)
(2 p q)(2q p)
9
62. If p, q are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 such that p < q < 0, then the quadratic
equation with roots |p|, |q| is given by:
A) |a|x2 + |b|x + |c| = 0
B) ax2 - |b|x + c = 0
C) |a|x2 - |b|x + |c| = 0
D) a|x2| + b|x| + c = 0
63. For a variable line x/a + y/b = 1 where 1/a2 + 1/b2 = 1/c2, the locus of foot fo perpendicular
drawn from origin to it is:
A) x2 + y2 = c2/2
B) x2 + y2 = c2
C) x2 + y2 = 2c
D) None

64. The domain of the function f(x) =

A) x > 0

B) x 0

1
) is:
| x | x
C) x < 0

D) x 0

65. The largest set of real values of x for which

1
f ( x) ( x 2)(5 x)
is a real function
2
x 4
A) [1,2) U (2, 5]

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B) (2, 5]

C) [3, 4]

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D) None

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x[ x]
, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, is:
x0 sin | x |
A) 0
B) 1
C) Not existent
these

67. If lim 1 2 e 2 then and are respectively equal to:
x
x x

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 1
C) 1 and any real constant

66. lim

D) None of

D) 1 and 1

68. Let f(x) = (x-1)2cos(1/(x-1)) - |x| for x 1 and f(x) = -1 for x = 1.

The set of points where f(x) is not differentiable is:
A) {1}
B) {0, 1}
C) {0}

D) None

69. The balloon is pumped at the rate of a cm3/minute. The rate of increase of its surface area
when the radius is b cm, is:
A) 2a2/b4 cm2/min
B) a/2b cm2/min
C) 2a/b cm2/min
D) None
70. Let f(x) = a/x + x2. If it has a maximum at x = -3 then a is
A) -1
B) 16
C) 1

D) None

71. The equation sinx + xcosx = 0 has at least one root in the interval
A) (-/2,0)
B) (0, )
C) (-/2, /2)

D) None

72.

x sec x dx is equal to:

2

1
log(sec x 2 tan x 2 ) k
2
C) 2 log(sec x 2 tan x 2 ) k

A)

73.

x2
log(sec x 2 tan x 2 ) k
2
D) None of these

B)

2x

dx is equal to:
1 4x
A) log2(e).sin-1(2x) + k
C) cos-1(2x).log2(e) + k

B) sin-1(2x) + k
D) None

74. Let f(x) = [x2] [x]2, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function. Then:
A) f(x) is discontinuous for all integral values of x
B) f(x) is discontinuous only at x = 0, 1
C) f(x) is continuous only at x = 1
D) None
2

75. If f ( x) e 1 / x , x 0 , and f(0) = 0, then f(0) is

A) 0
B) 1
C) e

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D) Nonexistent

Target-JEE-14

 /4

76. The value of

A)

8 log(1 x)
dx is:
1 x2
B) log 2

log 2

1 cos{2( x 2)}

77. lim

x2
x

A) -2
B) 1/2

C) log 2

D)

C) Does not exist

D) 2

log 2

78. For x (0, 5/2), define f ( x) t sin tdt . Then f has:

0

A) Local minima at and local maxima at 2

B) Local maxima at and local minima at 2
C) Local maxima at and 2
D) Local minima at and 2
3

79. | x 3 3x 2 2 x |dx
0

A) 3/4

B) 7/4

C) 11/4

D) None

80. If [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x then
B) e2

A) ln2

C) 0

2
dx
x

0
D) 2/e

81. A spherical iron ball 10cm in radius is coated with a layer of ice of uniform thickness that
melts at rate of 50 cm3/min. When the thickness of ice is 5 cm, then the rate at which the
thickness of ice decreases is (cm/min)
A) 1/36
B) 1/18
C) 1/54
D) 5/6
82. Let f(x) =

1 tan x
, x /4 and x [0, /2)
4x
, x = /4

If f(x) is continuous in the stated domain, then is

A) 1
B) 1/2

C) -1/2

D) None

83. Let f be differentiable for all x, if f(1) = -2 and f (x) 2 for x [1, 6], then
A) f(6) 8
B) f(6) < 8
C) f(6) < 5
D) f(6) = 5

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84. The equation, e sin x e sin x 4 0 has:

a) Infinite number of real roots
b) no real roots
c) exactly one real root
d) exactly four real roots
85. The number of real solutions to the equation (9/10)x = -3 + x x2
a) None
b) Three
c) Two
d) More than 2
x 2 6x 5
is:
x 2 2x 1
c) -1/3

86. If x R, the least value of the expression

a) -1

b) -1/2

d) None of these

x 2 (3x 4) 3 ( x 2) 4
0
( x 5) 5 (2 x 7) 6
c) 2
d) 1

87. The number of positive integral solutions of

a) 4

b) 3

cos 2 x
dx,a 0
88. The value of
x
1

a) 2

b) /a

c) /2

d) a

89. Consider the function f(x) = x4 - 10x3 + 36x2 + 8x + 2

a) At x = 2, graph changes from convex to concave
b) At x = 2, graph changes from concave to convex
c) x = 3 is a local maxima
d) x = 3, graph changes from concave to convex
90. Area bounded by the curves x2 = y/4 and x2 = 9y and the straight line y =2:
a) 202
b) 102/3
c) 202/3
d) 102

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