Chapter 17: Functional Organization of the Endocrine System Multiple Choice

1. The endocrine system

1. A) releases neurotransmitters into ducts.
2. B) secretes chemicals that reach their targets through the bloodstream.
3. C) communicates via frequency-modulated signals.
4. D) contains organs called exocrine glands.
5. E) is isolated from the nervous system.
Answer: b Level: 1
2. Hormones are intercellular chemical signals that
1. A) are secreted into the external environment where they act.
2. B) affect only non-hormone producing organs or tissues.
3. C) help coordinate growth, development and reproduction.
4. D) alter the sensitivity of neurons to neurotransmitters.
5. E) operate primarily by positive feedback.
Answer: c Level: 1
3. Most endocrine glands communicate with their target tissues using _____ signals.
1. A) frequency-modulated
2. B) amplitude-modulated
3. C) pitch-modulated
4. D) resonance-modulated
5. E) harmonic
Answer: b Level: 1
4. An intercellular chemical signal that is produced by neurons but functions like a hormone would be called a
1. A) neuropathogen.
2. B) neurotransmitter.
3. C) neurocrine.
4. D) neurohormone.
5. E) neurosynthesizer
Answer: d
5. Given the following list of organic molecules, which includes hormones? 1. nucleic acid derivatives 2. polypeptides
3. steroids 4. proteins
1. A) 1, 3, 4
2. B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
1. D) 1, 2, 3, 4
2. E) 1, 2, 4
Answer: c Level: 1
6. Hormonal secretion can be regulated by
1. A) the action of a substance other than a hormone.
2. B) the nervous system.
3. C) other hormones.
4. D) all of the above.
5. E) none of the above.
Answer: d Level: 1
7. Secretion of TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is regulated by
1. A) the action of a substance other than a hormone.
2. B) the nervous system.
3. C) the action of other hormones.
4. D) the parasympathetic nervous system.

5. E) the sympathetic nervous system.

Answer: c Level: 2
8. An example of a situation where the nervous system regulates the rate of hormonal secretion is when
1. A) LH stimulates ovulation.
2. B) increasing blood glucose levels stimulate insulin secretion.
3. C) TSH stimulates the release of thyroxine.
4. D) TRH stimulates the release of TSH.
5. E) sympathetic neurons stimulate the release of epinephrine. Answer:
Answer: e Level: 2
9. Which of the following statements regarding hormone transport and distribution is false?
1. A) Only free hormones can diffuse through capillary walls and bind to target tissues.
2. B) Hormones can be transported free in the plasma or bound to plasma proteins.
3. C) Plasma protein concentration has no influence on free hormone concentration.
4. D) Hormones bind only to certain types of plasma proteins.
5. E) All of the statements are true.
Answer: c Level: 1
10. The half-life of a hormone allows one to determine
1. A) the rate of hormone secretion.
2. B) the identify of a hormone.
C) the rate at which hormones are eliminated from the body.
1. D) the rate of action of a hormone.
2. E) the rate of travel through the blood to a target.
Answer: c
Level: 1
11. Hormones with short half-lives
1. A) are usually lipid-soluble.
2. B) are maintained at relatively constant levels.
3. C) have concentrations that increase slowly.
4. D) regulate activities of delayed onset and long duration.
5. E) regulate activities of rapid onset and short duration.
Answer: e Level: 1
12. Once a hormone is conjugated in the liver
1. A) its half-life is increased.
2. B) it can be rapidly eliminated.
3. C) it can be stored for later use.
4. D) it is actively transported into cells.
5. E) it is more slowly eliminated.
Answer: b Level: 1
13. How do hormones and target cells recognize one another?
1. A) by signs
2. B) by the location of the target cells
3. C) by the presence of specific receptor molecules on the target cells
4. D) by the function of the target cells
5. E) by the location of the hormones
Answer: c Level: 1
14. In some forms of diabetes, an insensitivity to insulin seems to be present. This insensitivity could be the result of
1. A) up-regulation.
2. B) over-regulation.

3. C) down-regulation.
4. D) a lack of regulation.
5. E) modulation.
Answer: c Level: 2
15. Up-regulation
1. A) results in a decrease in the number of receptor sites in the target cell.
2. B) produces an increase in the sensitivity of the target cell to the hormone.
C) is found in target cells that maintain a constant level of receptors.
1. D) produces insensitivity to the hormone in the target tissue.
2. E) moves the receptors up on the membrane.
Answer: b
Level: 1
16. Hormone receptor molecules may be ____ in order to change the target cell's sensitivity to a given hormone.
1. A) increased in number
2. B) decreased in number
3. C) chemically altered
4. D) moved
5. E) A, B, C
Answer: e
Level: 1
17. Receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located
1. A) in the cytoplasm of their target cells.
2. B) on the plasma membrane of their target cells.
3. C) in the lysosomes of their target cells.
4. D) on the nuclear membrane of their target cells.
5. E) on the endoplasmic reticulum of their target cells.
Answer: b Level: 1
18. Which of the following is a regulatory protein associated with membrane-bound receptor molecules?
1. A) ATP
2. B) calcium
3. C) GnRH
4. D) G protein
5. E) FSH
Answer: d Level: 1
19. A hormone binds to its receptor. Arrange the events that follow in correct sequence. 1. alpha subunit-GTP complex
alters cell activity
2. GTP binds to the alpha subunit replacing GDP
3. activity of alpha subunit terminated by phosphodiesterase.
4. alpha subunit separates from other two subunits 5. G-protein subunits separate from the receptor
1. A) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
2. B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
3. C) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
4. D) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
5. E) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
Answer: d Level: 3
20. The role of cAMP when it acts as an intracellular mediator in cells is to
1. A) bind to and activate protein kinase.
2. B) activate genes in the nucleus to produce mRNA.
3. C) directly activate structural enzymes in the cytoplasm of the target cell.

4. D) catalyze a cascade reaction that ultimately activates genes on the DNA.

5. E) control levels of calcium in the cell.
Answer: a Level: 2
21. When a hormone binds to a membranebound receptor,
1. A) membrane channels are destroyed.
2. B) cyclic GMP might be produced to act as an intracellular mediator.
3. C) the nucleus is phosphorylated to prevent G-protein activation.
4. D) messenger RNA is formed.
5. E) cellular DNA is altered.
Answer: b Level: 1
22. Phosphodiesterase functions
1. A) as a membrane-bound receptor molecule.
2. B) to inactivate cyclic AMP.
3. C) to attach phosphate groups to enzymes.
4. D) to combine GTP with cyclic AMP.
5. E) activates cGMP .
Answer: b Level: 1
23. Arrange the following events in proper sequence:
1. The activating hormone interacts with a membrane-bound receptor.
2. Cyclic AMP causes the cell to carry out a function characteristic for that specific hormone. 3. Adenylyl cyclase
catalyzes the transformation of ATP to cyclic AMP.
4. Adenylyl cyclase is activated.
1. A) 1, 2, 3, 4
2. B) 1, 4, 3, 2
3. C) 3, 4, 2, 1
4. D) 1, 3, 2, 4
5. E) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: b Level: 2
24. Which of the following events occurs last?
1. A) IP3 (inositol triphosphate) is produced.
2. B) Epinephrine combines with membrane-bound receptor on smooth muscle cell.
C) Calmodulin binds to the enzyme that phosphorylates myosin and cross-bridges form.
1. D) IP3 stimulates Ca++ release from the endoplasmic reticulum.
2. E) Ca++ binds with calmodulin.
Answer: c
Level: 2
25. When a few intracellular mediator molecules activate several enzymes and each of these activated enzymes
activate still other enzymes, the hormone has initiated
1. A) a cascade effect.
2. B) a double loop effect.
3. C) a protein kinase effect.
4. D) a cyclic effect.
5. E) a negative feedback cycle.
Answer: a Level: 1
26. Which of the following occurs when a hormone binds to an intracellular receptor?
1. A) activation of cyclic AMP
2. B) activation of mRNA synthesis
3. C) increased lipid synthesis by ribosomes
4. D) opens membrane channels.

5. E) alters membrane permeability.

Answer: b Level: 1
27. Steroid hormones
1. A) bind to membrane receptors.
2. B) diffuse easily through the plasma membrane.
3. C) act by activating cAMP.
4. D) are inactivated by phosphodiesterase.
5. E) are water soluble.
Answer: b Level: 1
28. Consider the following events in the intracellular receptor model: 1. Hormone receptor complex binds to DNA.
2. Messenger RNA directs synthesis of specific proteins.
3. Hormone binds to receptors either in cytoplasm or nucleus.
4. Messenger RNA synthesis is activated.
5. Synthesized proteins produce the response of the cell. Which of these events occurs in the nucleus?
1. A) 1, 3, 5
2. B) 1, 3, 4
3. C) 1, 2, 3
4. D) 3, 4, 5
5. E) All events occur in the nucleus.
Answer: b Level: 2
For questions 34 to 38 match the chemical signal with the appropriate description.
1. A) chemicals produced by neurons that function as hormones
2. B) chemical secreted into the environment that can modify the physiology and behavior of
another individual
C) chemical secreted by presynaptic terminal
1. D) influences same cell type from which it is secreted
2. E) chemical secreted into blood by specialized cells; travels some distance to target tissues
34. neurohormone Answer: a
Level: 1
35. autocrine Answer: d Level: 1
36. hormone Answer: e Level: 1
Refer to: Ref 17-2 37. pheromone Answer: b
Level: 1
38. neurotransmitter
Answer: c Level: 1
For questions 39 to 46 match the description with the type of receptor model.
1. A) intracellular receptor model
2. B) membrane-bound receptor model
39. used by most lipid-soluble hormones Answer: a
Level: 2
40. intracellular mediator Answer: b
Level: 2
41. G-protein Answer: b Level: 2
42. receptor molecule interacts with DNA Answer: a
Level: 2
43. cyclic AMP or cyclic GMP involved Answer: b
Level: 2
44. generally observe a latent period Answer: a

Level: 2
45. messenger RNA synthesis regulated Answer: a
Level: 2
46. membrane channels may be opened or closed Answer: b
Level: 2
For questions 47 to 51 match the hormones with appropriate structural categories.
1. A) protein
2. B) glycoprotein
3. C) polypeptide
4. D) amino acid derivative
5. E) steroid
47. cortisol Answer: e Level: 1
48. insulin Answer: a Level: 1
49. thyroid hormone Answer: d
Level: 1
50. ADH Answer: c Level: 1
51. Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: b
Level: 1
Fill in the Blank
52. Hormones act on specific _______ tissues called tissues. Answer: target
Level: 1
53. _______ chemical signals are released by cells and affect other cell types locally without being transported in
blood.
Answer: paracrine
Level: 1
54. Increasing levels of thyroid hormones decrease TSH levels. This is an example of _______ feedback.
Answer: negative
Level: 1
55. The length of time needed to eliminate half of a dose of a hormone is called its _______ ________.
Answer: half life
Level: 1
56. An example of an intracellular mediator is _______. Answer: cyclic AMP
Level: 1
Essay Questions
57. Cells communicate with one another using a language of chemicals. List one role each of the following plays in
cellular communication.
a. hormones
b. cell membranes
c. receptor molecules
Answer: A) Hormones attach to cells and influence their activity in some specific fashion.
B) Cell membranes contain the receptor molecules for those hormones that use membrane- bound receptors to
achieve their effects.
C) Receptor molecules are chemicals that hormones bind to. Specific receptors are used to identify target cells to a
given hormone. The hormone-receptor complex initiates the response of the target cells.
Level: 2
58. Hormone Z, responsible for maintaining normal blood levels of chemical A, binds to membrane-bound receptors
on its target cells. These target cells use G-protein and cyclic AMP to carry out the response of hormone Z. Predict the
consequences if a drug is taken that inhibits the action of cyclic AMP.
Answer: If the action of cyclic AMP is inhibited, then the action of hormone Z is inhibited. Level: 3

1. The hypothalamus
A) rests in the sella turcica.
B) is also called the neurohypophysis.
C) is located inferior to the pituitary gland.
D) regulates the secretory activity of the pituitary gland.
E) is located superior to the thalamus.
Answer: d Level: 1
2. The two functional portions of the pituitary gland are the
A) infundibulum and neurohypophysis.
B) pars nervosa and pars tuberalis.
C) neurohypophysis and adenohypophysis.
D) adenohypophysis and infundibulum.
E) infundibulum and hypothalamohypophysial portal system
Answer: c Level: 1
3. Which of the following is a subdivision of the anterior pituitary?
A) pars nervosa
B) pars distalis
C) pars hypothalamus
D) pars infundibuli
E) pars proximalis
Answer: b Level: 1
4. The posterior pituitary
A) has a direct connection with neurons of the hypothalamus.
B) is controlled by releasing hormones produced in the hypothalamus.
C) produces hormones that regulate other endocrine glands.
D) stores lipotropins.
E) is not related to fluid balance in the body.
Answer: a Level: 1
5. The hypothalamohypophysial portal system carries hormones from the
A) anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus.
B) posterior pituitary to the hypothalamus.
C) hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
D) hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary.
E) anterior pituitary to posterior pituitary
Answer: c Level: 1
6. Hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary is controlled by
A) hormones of the thalamus.
B) neurohormones of the hypothalamus.
C) itself (anterior pituitary) because it is the master gland of the body.
D) the overall rate of metabolism.
E) neurons from the hypothalamus.
Answer: b Level: 1
7. A function of the hypothalamohypophysial tract is to
A) move ADH from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
B) move releasing hormones from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary.

C) carry action potentials to the posterior pituitary causing the release of oxytocin.
D) cause the release of insulin from the anterior pituitary.
E) form a vascular connection from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary.
Answer: c Level: 1
8. Arrange the following in the sequence in which releasing hormones travel through them. 1. Secondary capillary
network
2. Primary capillary network
3. Hypothalamohypophysial portal vessels
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 2, 1
C) 2, 3, 1
D) 3, 1, 2
E) 2, 1, 3
Answer: c Level: 2
9. Releasing hormones
A) travel on axons to the posterior pituitary.
B) increase anterior pituitary secretion .
C) cause action potentials to be generated by anterior pituitary cells.
D) are produced in the pars distalis.
E) decrease secretions of the anterior pituitary.
Answer: b Level: 1
10. Hormones are released from the posterior pituitary when posterior pituitary cells are stimulated by
A) hypothalamic releasing hormones.
B) hormones from the anterior pituitary.
C) action potentials from hypothalamic neurosecretory cells.
D) the primary capillary network.
E) the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: c Level: 1
11. The hypothalamohypophysial tract connects the hypothalamus to the
A) anterior pituitary.
B) posterior pituitary.
C) pars distalis.
D) adenohypophysis.
E) infundibulum.
Answer: b Level: 1
12. Which of the following hormones is synthesized by the hypothalamus?
A) ADH
B) MSH
C) TSH
D) ACTH
E) T3 and T4
Answer: a Level: 1
13. If fluid intake increases dramatically over a short time frame,
A) ADH secretion increases.
B) ADH secretion decreases.
C) there is no effect on ADH secretion.
D) ADH secretion stops.
E) none of the above
Answer: b Level: 2

14. ADH secretion will increase when

A) blood osmolality increases.
B) blood pressure increases.
C) blood volume increases.
D) blood pH increases.
E) blood osmolality decreases.
Answer: a Level: 2
15. A person working outside in the hot sun can perspire a great deal. This increase in perspiration results in an
increase in water loss from the body. Increased water loss causes the
blood osmolality to increase. This increased osmolality is "sensed" by the
A) kidneys.
B) osmoreceptors.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) anterior pituitary.
E) baroreceptors.
Answer: b Level: 2
16. Urine volume ____ when ADH secretion decreases.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) is not affected
D) declines
E) none of the above
Answer: a Level: 2
17. ADH
A) is produced by cells of the anterior pituitary.
B) is stored and released from the posterior pituitary.
C) has the uterus as its primary target.
D) travels on axons to its target tissue.
E) travels in the blood from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary.
Answer: b Level: 1
18. Oxytocin is responsible for
A) preventing release of insulin from the pancreas.
B) preventing the formation of goiters.
C) milk production by the mammary glands.
D) regulating blood calcium levels.
E) causing contractions of uterine smooth muscle during labor.
Answer: e Level: 1
19. Oxytocin release is stimulated by
A) nursing a baby.
B) increased blood pressure.
C) increased urine output.
D) a hypothalamic-releasing hormone.
E) increased blood osmolality.
Answer: a Level: 1
20. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior pituitary?
A) ADH
B) TRH
C) CRH
D) FSH

E) Oxytocin
Answer: d Level: 1
21. Anterior pituitary hormones
A) are all proteins or glycoproteins.
B) are transported in the hypothalamohypophysial portal system.
C) bind to intracellular receptor molecules.
D) have a half-life of hours.
E) are released as a direct result of action potentials.
Answer: a Level: 1
22. ADH is synthesized by the ____ while TSH is synthesized by the ____.
A) kidney; thyroid
B) posterior pituitary; thyroid
C) hypothalamus; anterior pituitary
D) kidney; anterior pituitary
E) posterior pituitary; hypothalamus
Answer: c Level: 1
23. Growth hormone
A) increases amino acid uptake in cells.
B) decreases the use of fat as an energy source.
C) decreases the synthesis and storage of glycogen.
D) increases the use of glucose for energy.
E) facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells.
Answer: a Level: 2
24. Which of the following will inhibit the secretion of growth hormone?
A) growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
B) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)
C) somatomedins
D) a posterior pituitary-inhibiting hormone
E) T3 and T4
Answer: b Level: 1
25. If growth hormone (GH) secretion is deficient in a newborn, the child will A) develop acromegaly as an adult.
B) mature sexually at an earlier age.
C) be in constant danger of dehydration.
D) probably experience reduced bone growth.
E) probably experience increased bone growth.
Answer: d Level: 1
26. Which of the following hormones promotes the breakdown of fatty acids?
A) lipotropins
B) somatotropins
C) gonadotropins
D) thyrotropins
E) fatotropins
Answer: a Level: 1
27. Which of the following stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary?
A) ADH
B) prolactin
C) FSH
D) ACTH

E) LH
Answer: c Level: 1
28. During a race, a long-distance runner twisted his ankle. He finished the race without feeling any pain in his ankle.
This lack of the perception of pain could be the result of an increase in
A) gonadotropins.
B) lipotropins.
C) somatotropins.
D) epinephrine.
E) beta endorphins.
Answer: e Level: 2
29. Synthesis of progesterone in the ovary and testosterone in the testis is stimulated by
A) LH.
B) MSH.
C) TSH.
D) ACTH.
E) FSH
Answer: a Level: 1
30. Removal of the anterior pituitary would affect the functioning of the
A) thyroid gland.
B) pancreas isles of Langerhans in the pancreas.
C) parathyroid gland.
D) adrenal medulla.
E) kidney.
Answer: a Level: 2
31. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (Gn-RH) regulates the release of
A) prolactin and oxytocin.
B) FSH and LH.
C) estrogen and testosterone.
D) progesterone and prolactin.
E) TRH and TSH.
Answer: b Level: 1
32. Which of the following would apply to the description of a thyroid follicle?
A) walls contain a single layer of parafollicular cells
B) center is called the isthmus
C) stores thyroid hormone
D) small capillary networks
E) it is a solid ball of cells
Answer: c Level: 1
33. Which of the following ions is necessary for thyroid hormone production?
A) potassium
B) calcium
C) iodine
D) sodium
E) chlorine
Answer: c Level: 1
34. T3 and T4 are stored in the lumen of thyroid follicles as part of the _____ molecule.
A) thyrotropin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) thyroxine-binding protein

D) thyroglobulin
E) calcitonin
Answer: d Level: 1
35. In the blood
A) most T3 and T4 molecules are found bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG).
B) T3 and T4 are rapidly metabolized.
C) T3 is converted into T4.
D) T3 but not T4 is bound to TSH.
E) most thyroid hormones are transported in a free form.
Answer: a
Level: 1
36. Which of the following events occurs last?
A) Enzymes break down thyroglobulin to release T3 and T4.
B) T3 and T4 are stored within thyroid follicles.
C) Iodine is bound to tyrosine molecules of thyroglobulin.
D) Thyroglobulin is taken into thyroid cells by endocytosis.
E) Iodide is actively transported into thyroid follicle cells.
Answer: a Level: 2
37. Thyroid hormone interacts with its target tissue by
A) using the intracellular mediator system.
B) binding to a membrane bound receptor.
C) increasing iodine uptake in the target cells.
D) releasing thyroglobulin.
E) binding to receptor molecules in the nucleus.
Answer: e Level: 2
38. John Smith works outdoors in the winter at a ski resort. His thyroid hormone levels are
A) lower in the winter to conserve body heat.
B) higher in the winter to increase body temperature.
C) lowered in the summer after his job to decrease body temperature.
D) increased in the summer after his job to increase body temperature.
E) unaffected by his job.
Answer: b Level: 2
39. The presence of an exophthalmic goiter is associated with
A) lack of iodine in the diet.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) too little TSH.
D) cretinism.
E) hypothyroidism.
Answer: b Level: 2
40. Which of the following would most likely occur if the thyroid gland was removed?
A) increased calcitonin secretion
B) increased thyroid hormone production
C) increased TSH production
D) increased serum potassium levels
E) increased blood calcium levels
Answer: c Level: 2
41. Which of the following characteristics is associated with hyposecretion of thyroid hormones?
A) weight gain

B) exophthalmos
C) warm, flushed skin
D) increased heart rate
E) weight loss
Answer: a
Level: 2
42. Which of the following is involved in the regulation of thyroid hormone levels?
A) thyroglobulin in thyroid follicles
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary
C) positive feedback mechanisms
D) parathyroid hormone levels
E) blood calcium levels
Answer: b Level: 1
43. Which of the following is a target tissue for parathyroid hormone?
A) thyroid
B) blood
C) pancreas
D) small intestine
E) stomach
Answer: d Level: 1
44. The rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone increases when
A) serum calcium levels increase.
B) serum calcium levels decrease.
C) serum levels of TSH decrease.
D) serum levels of TSH increase.
E) serum levels of sodium levels increase.
Answer: b Level: 2
45. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A) tends to inhibit osteoclasts.
B) decreases blood calcium levels.
C) allows the kidneys to retain calcium.
D) increases calcium excretion by the intestine.
E) stimulates kidneys to excrete calcium.
Answer: c Level: 2
46. Overall, PTH _____ blood phosphate levels.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) elevates
D) enhances
E) has no effect on
Answer: b Level: 1
47. In hypocalcemia,
A) incidence of bone fractures increases.
B) muscular weakness is common.
C) cardiac arrhythmias occur.
D) constipation becomes a problem.
E) the nervous system becomes depressed.
Answer: c Level: 2

48. Julie was diagnosed with an aggressive tumor of the thyroid. Surgery was performed to remove the thyroid.
However, post-operatively, Julie's blood calcium levels began declining to life-threatening levels. This decline is most
likely due to
A) thyroid hormone replacement therapy after the surgery.
B) damage to the anterior pituitary during surgery.
C) accidental removal of the parathyroid glands during surgery.
D) improper laboratory handling of blood samples.
E) post-traumatic stress disorder.
Answer: c Level: 3
49. The endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys are the
A) thyroid glands.
B) vestibular glands.
C) adrenal glands.
D) parathyroid glands.
E) renal glands.
Answer: c Level: 1
50. The adrenal medulla
A) has acetylcholine as its major secretory product.
B) decreases its secretions during stress.
C) plays a role in the adaptation of the body for physical activity.
D) is stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system.
E) is the outer layer of the adrenal glands.
Answer: c Level: 1
51. Which of the following is true?
A) The effects of epinephrine are long-lasting (days to weeks).
B) Epinephrine increases blood pressure.
C) Epinephrine decreases heart rate.
D) Epinephrine increases GI tract activity.
E) Epinephrine is a chemical of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer: b Level: 2
52. An injection of epinephrine would
A) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, increase gastric tract motility.
B) decrease heart rate, decrease blood pressure, increase gastric tract motility.
C) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, decrease gastric tract motility.
D) decrease heart rate, decrease gastric motility, increase blood pressure.
E) have no effect on the heart or the GI tract.
Answer: c Level: 2
53. The primary stimulus for release of adrenal medullary hormones comes from
A) the kidneys.
B) aldosterone.
C) the anterior pituitary.
D) the parasympathetic nervous system.
E) the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: e Level: 1
54. The major secretory products of the zona glomerulosa are
A) glucocorticoids.
B) mineralocorticoids.
C) androgens.
D) catecholamines.

E) cortisol and ADH.

Answer: b Level: 1
55. A tumor in the adrenal cortex causes excessively high levels of aldosterone. The high aldosterone levels cause
A) hyponatremia.
B) acidosis.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypocalcemia.
E) hyperkalemia.
Answer: c Level: 2
56. The zona fasciculata of the adrenal glands secretes the hormone
A) androstenedione.
B) aldosterone.
C) cortisol.
D) epinephrine.
E) ADH.
Answer: c Level: 1
57. The glucocorticoids
A) stimulate gluconeogenesis.
B) increase the inflammatory response.
C) supplement the sex hormones from the gonads.
D) decrease synthesis of glycogen.
E) glycogenolysis.
Answer: a Level: 1
58. Which of the following will decrease glucocorticoid secretion by the adrenal cortex?
A) hypoglycemia and stress
B) increased CRH production
C) increased plasma levels of cortisol
D) increased plasma levels of ACTH
E) decreased plasma levels of cortisol
Answer: c Level: 2
59. Which of the following situations might be the result of hypersecretion of glucocorticoids?
A) weight loss
B) hypoglycemia
C) depression of the immune response
D) increased plasma levels of ACTH
E) proteins and fats are unused
Answer: c
Level: 2
60. If both ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) and cortisol levels increase, which of the following would occur?
A) ACTH production is increased even more by positive feedback.
B) High cortisol levels will begin to cause ACTH levels to decline.
C) High ACTH levels will begin to cause cortisol levels to decline.
D) Aldosterone levels will increase.
E) None of the above will occur.
Answer: b Level: 3
61. Adrenal androgens
A) are produced in the adrenal medulla.
B) stimulate growth of pubic hair in females.

C) reduce the inflammatory response.

D) cause reabsorption of potassium ions by the kidney.
E) decrease the sex drive.
Answer: b Level: 1
62. Which of the following glands is both an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland?
A) thyroid gland
B) adrenal gland
C) pancreas
D) parathyroid gland
E) pituitary gland
Answer: c Level: 1
63. A function of insulin is to
A) increase the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B) decrease the uptake of amino acids by its target tissues.
C) increase glycogen breakdown in the liver and skeletal muscle.
D) increase breakdown of fats.
E) increase gluconeogenesis.
Answer: a Level: 1
64. Which of the following statements concerning the pancreas is true?
A) Most of the hormones produced by the pancreas flow into the pancreatic duct.
B) Both glucagon and insulin are produced in the islets of Langerhans.
C) The pancreas is located above the liver.
D) The endocrine portion of the gland is called the zona reticularis.
E) Alpha and beta cells are associated with the acini.
Answer: b Level: 1
65. When blood sugar levels decrease,
A) insulin and glucagon secretion increase.
B) insulin and glucagon secretion decrease.
C) insulin secretion increases; glucagon secretion decreases.
D) insulin secretion decreases; glucagon secretion increases.
E) there is no change in insulin or glucagon levels.
Answer: d Level: 2
66. Insulin is necessary for the satiety center to detect the presence of glucose in extracellular fluid. When insulin
levels are low
A) the person feels "full" or satisfied.
B) the person is intensely hungry.
C) the person is thirsty.
D) the person is sleepy.
E) there is no effect on hunger or satiety feelings.
Answer: b Level: 2
67. Which of the following occurs when insulin molecules bind to their receptors on target cells?
A) increased mRNA synthesis in the target cells
B) minimal uptake of glucose by target cells
C) phosphorylation of proteins in the nuclear membrane in the target cells
D) increased numbers of active transport molecules for glucose
E) stimulates mitosis.
Answer: d
Level: 2
68. Glucagon primarily influences cells of the

A) brain.
B) liver.
C) kidneys.
D) skeletal muscle.
E) pancreas.
Answer: b Level: 1
69. In gluconeogenesis
A) glucose is used for energy.
B) glycogen is broken down to glucose.
C) glucose is formed from amino acids.
D) glycogen is synthesized from excess glucose.
E) glucose is formed from fatty acids.
Answer: c Level: 1
70. Which of the following would affect blood glucose levels?
A) fat content of a meal
B) gastrointestinal hormones
C) breakdown of glycogen
D) aldosterone production
E) protein content of a meal
Answer: c Level: 2
71. Increased insulin secretion immediately following a meal will result in increased
A) fat catabolism.
B) glycogenolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) glycogen synthesis.
E) release of glucose into the circulatory system.
Answer: d Level: 2
72. Which of the following helps to keep blood nutrients at normal levels six to eight hours after a meal?
A) parasympathetic stimulation of the pancreas
B) breakdown of glycogen in the liver releasing glucose
C) increased production of insulin by the pancreas
D) increased glucose uptake by cells
E) glycogen synthesis.
Answer: b
Level: 2
73. A person with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) forgets to take their insulin. This causes
A) alkalosis.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) decreased urine production.
D) decreased appetite.
E) hyperglycemia.
Answer: e
Level: 2
74. During exercise the energy necessary to sustain skeletal muscle cell contraction comes from
A) increased insulin production.
B) increased epinephrine and glucagon release.
C) decreased sympathetic nervous system activity.
D) storing glucose as glycogen.

E) conservation of glucose.
Answer: b
Level: 1
75. Insulin shock occurs when there is
A) damage to pancreatic beta cells.
B) too much glucagon is available.
C) a rapid fall in the blood sugar level.
D) overstimulation of alpha cells.
E) not enough glucagon is available
Answer: c Level: 2
76. Secretions of the pineal body
A) include vasopressin.
B) may be involved with development of the immune system.
C) may inhibit reproductive functions.
D) increase the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus.
E) decrease the tendency to sleep.
Answer: c Level: 1
77. The amount of melatonin secreted by the pineal body is regulated by
A) the stress response.
B) blood glucose levels.
C) a person's individual metabolic rate.
D) the amount of sleep a person gets.
E) the photoperiod (the daily amount of daylight).
Answer: e Level: 2
78. Autocrine chemical signals
A) influence the same cell type that produced them.
B) are secreted by some endocrine glands.
C) have systemic effects.
D) such as enkephalins may modulate the sensation of pain.
E) influence the activity of another cell type.
Answer: a Level: 1
Refer to the following figure for questions 79-83.
79. Label part A on the diagram.
A) optic chiasma
B) anterior pituitary
C) infundibulum
D) hypothalamus
E) posterior pituitary
Answer: d Level: 1
80. Label part B on the diagram.
A) optic chiasma
B) anterior pituitary
C) infundibulum
D) hypothalamus
E) posterior pituitary
Answer: c Level: 1
81. Label part C on the diagram.

A) optic chiasma
B) anterior pituitary
C) infundibulum
D) hypothalamus
E) posterior pituitary
Answer: e Level: 1
82. Label part D on the diagram. A) optic chiasma
B) anterior pituitary
C) infundibulum
D) hypothalamus
E) posterior pituitary
Answer: b
Level: 1
83. Label part E on the diagram.
A) optic chiasma
B) anterior pituitary
C) infundibulum
D) hypothalamus
E) posterior pituitary
Answer: a Level: 1
For questions 84 to 88 read the two statements and use the following key to answer them.
A) Mark this if the first item is greater than the second item.
B) Mark this if the first item is less than the second item.
C) Mark this if the first is equal or nearly equal to the second item.
84. 1) amount of water reabsorbed by the kidney when ADH is present 2) amount of water reabsorbed by the kidney
when ADH is absent Answer: a
Level: 3
85. 1) level of ACTH during stress 2) level of ACTH during relaxation Answer: a
Level: 3
86. 1) metabolic rate if thyroid hormones are under secreted 2) metabolic rate if thyroid hormones are over secreted
Answer: b
Level: 3
87. 1) blood calcium levels if parathyroid secretion decreases 2) blood calcium levels if parathyroid hormone secretion
increases Answer: b
Level: 3
88. 1) amount of potassium excreted by the kidney if aldosterone secretion is high 2) amount of potassium excreted
by the kidney if aldosterone secretion is low
Answer: a
Level: 3
For questions 89 to 93 match the hormone with its appropriate function.
A) stimulates synthesis of thyroid hormones
B) increases adrenal cortex secretions
C) development of immune system
D) milk production
E) decreases blood calcium levels
89. calcitonin Answer: e
Level: 1
90. TSH Answer: a Level: 1
91. ACTH Answer: b Level: 1

92. prolactin Answer: d Level: 1

93. thymosin Answer: c Level: 1
For questions 94 through 98 match the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes.
A) glucagon
B) progesterone
C) cortisol
D) T3
E) prolactin
94. thyroid Answer: d Level: 1
95. pancreas Answer: a Level: 1
96. adrenal cortex Answer: c
Level: 1
97. anterior pituitary Answer: e
Level: 1
98. ovary Answer: b Level: 1
For questions 99 to 103 match the cell type with the hormone produced by that cell type.
A) mineralocorticoids
B) PTH
C) insulin
D) ADH
E) T3
99. beta cells Answer: c Level: 1
100. follicular cells of thyroid Answer: e
Level: 1
101. zona glomerulosa cells Answer: a
Level: 1
102. cells of parathyroid gland Answer: b
Level: 1
103. neurosecretory cells Answer: d
Level: 1
For questions 104 to 108 match the following pathological conditions with their cause.
A) decreased amounts of thyroid hormone
B) increased amounts of thyroid hormone
C) abnormally low levels of aldosterone and cortisol
D) increased levels of growth hormone in adults
E) lack of ADH
104. diabetes insipidus Answer: e
Level: 2
105. cretinism Answer: a Level: 2
106. Grave's Disease Answer: b
Level: 2
107. acromegaly Answer: d
Level: 2
108. Addison's disease Answer: c
Level: 2
For questions 109 to 112 use the following information to determine the best answer.
Normal serum levels for T3, T4, and TSH
T3 90 to 230 ng/dl

T4 5 to 13.5 mcg/dl
TSH 15 U/ml
Consider the following laboratory results T3
are as follows:
of thyroid function and TSH levels.
Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D
550 ng/dl 400 ng/dl 40 ng/dl 50 ng/dl
T4
30 mcg/dl 20 mcg/dl 3 mcg/dl 3 mcg/dl
TSH
30 U/ml 10 U/ml 3 U/ml 30 U/ml
109. Based on these laboratory results,
pathological condition: destructive tumor of anterior pituitary that destroys TSH secreting cells? Answer: Patient C
Level: 3
110. Based on these laboratory results, which patient is most likely to have the following pathological condition:
proliferative tumor of anterior pituitary cells that produce TSH? Answer: Patient A
Level: 3
111. Based on these laboratory results, which patient is most likely to have the following pathological condition:
Graves disease?
Answer: Patient B
Level: 3
112. Based on these laboratory results, which patient is most likely to have the following pathological condition: goiter
due to iodine deficiency?
Answer: Patient D
which patient is most likely to have the following
Level: 3
Fill in the Blank
113. The ________ pituitary is a neural extension of the hypothalamus. Answer: posterior
Level: 1
114. Another name for the anterior pituitary is the ________. Answer: adenohypophysis
Level: 1
115. The hypothalamohypophysial portal system extends from the hypothalamus to the ________.
Answer: anterior pituitary
Level: 1
116. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is an anterior pituitary hormone derived from a precursor molecule called
________.
Answer: proopiomelanocortin
Level: 1
117. Glucagon is synthesized by the ________ cells of the pancreas. Answer: alpha
Level: 1
118. ________ monitor the concentration of solutes in the plasma. Answer: osmoreceptors
Level: 1
Essay Questions
119. In Hashimoto's disease, thyroid gland function is depressed.
A) Would the levels of T3 and T4 be higher or lower than normal? Explain.
B) Would the level of TSH be higher or lower than normal? Explain.
Answer: a) The levels of T3 and T4 would be lower than normal because there is a deficiency of iodine, which is
needed to produce these two hormones.

b) The level of TSH would be higher than normal because the low levels of thyroid hormones would cause the
hypothalamus to release more TRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release more TSH.
Level: 3
120. Suppose that a person's immune system made antibodies that destroyed receptors for testosterone in the target
cells of this hormone. What effect(s) would this have on the
functioning of the body?
Answer: If these receptors were destroyed early in embryonic development, then development of the reproductive
system would proceed as if no testosterone were present. The male reproductive system would not develop, and the
indifferent genitalia would develop as female structures. If the immune system began destroying the testosterone
receptors later in life, then the maintenance of a functional reproductive system, male sexual characteristics and
behavior, and spermatogenesis would not be possible.
Level: 3
121. Roger had his posterior pituitary removed by accident during surgery. Immediately after surgery, Roger's ADH
levels declined dramatically. About 10 days after surgery, Roger's ADH levels began to climb again. While his ADH
levels never quite reached pre-surgical levels, they were certainly adequate. How do you explain these results?
Answer: The sudden decline in ADH after surgery occurred because the posterior pituitary, the storage site of ADH,
was removed. ADH levels increased later because neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus continued to produce
ADH and this ADH found its way into the blood stream. Level: 3
122. Joshua and Jennifer are studying for an exam over the endocrine system. Joshua tells Jennifer that the adrenal
cortex has three zones of cells that produce hormones:
Answer: zona fasciculata - produces aldosterone
zona glomerulosa - produces cortisol
zona reticularis - produces epinephrine
Jennifer told Joshua he had some of his information mixed up. Correct Joshua's mistakes. Answer: The zona
fasciculata produces cortisol; the zona glomerulosa produces aldosterone and the zona reticularis produces adrenal
cortex androgens.
Level: 2
Chapter 25: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Temperature Regulation
Multiple Choice
1. Nutrition includes the study of
A) the nutrients in foods.
B) the body's utilization of nutrients.
C) how nutrients play a role in your body's health.
D) digestion, absorption, and transportation of nutrients.
E) all of the above
Answer: e Level: 1
2. Which of the following are energy nutrients?
A) carbohydrates, proteins, and fat
B) proteins, water, and minerals
C) fats, minerals, and vitamins
D) vitamins, fats, and carbohydrates
E) water, minerals, vitamins
Answer: a Level: 2
3. Essential nutrients
A) are important in the diet but not necessary for life.
B) are the only nutrients required by the body.
C) cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body.
D) are needed to make food taste good.

E) are manufactured by the body.

Answer: c Level: 1
4. A food guide pyramid suggests that
A) you eat as many sweets as you want.
B) your diet should contain a variety of foods.
C) meats are the most important part of your diet.
D) milk and cheese should be the main part of your diet.
E) you should only eat one or two servings of bread, cereal, rice, pasta per day.
Answer: b Level: 1
5. A kilocalorie (kcal) is a measure of the
A) protein content of food.
B) acidity of food.
C) fat content of food.
D) energy content of food.
E) heat content of food.
Answer: d Level: 1
6. One gram of carbohydrate, one gram of fat, and one gram of protein yield ____, ____, and ____ kilocalories
respectively.
A) 4, 4, 4
B) 9, 9, 9
C) 4, 9, 4
D) 4, 9, 9
E) 9, 9, 4
Answer: c Level: 1
7. Starches and sugars are examples of
A) carbohydrates.
B) lipids.
C) proteins.
D) vitamins.
E) minerals.
Answer: a Level: 1
8. Complex carbohydrates include
A) glucose and fructose.
B) maltose and sucrose.
C) starch, glycogen, and cellulose.
D) cellulose and glucose.
E) glucose and lactose.
Answer: c Level: 1
9. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The primary role of carbohydrates is to serve as an energy source.
B) Carbohydrates include sugars, starches, and amino acids.
C) Maltose is a complex carbohydrate.
D) Sucrose is the primary source of energy for most cells.
E) Most carbohydrates come from animal products.
Answer: a Level: 1
10. Carbohydrates are absorbed into the blood stream as
A) disaccharides.
B) monosaccharides.
C) oligosaccharides.

D) polysaccharides.
E) glycoproteins.
Answer: b Level: 1
11. The primary source of energy for most cells is
A) sucrose.
B) fructose.
C) glucose.
D) maltose.
E) lactose.
Answer: c Level: 1
12. The most common monosaccharides in the diet are
A) glucose and fructose.
B) galactose and fructose.
C) glucose and glycerol.
D) glycogen and glucose.
E) lactose and maltose.
Answer: a Level: 1
13. Excess glucose is stored as ___________.
A) glucagon.
B) sucrose.
C) glycogen.
D) galactose.
E) glycoprotein.
Answer: c Level: 2
14. Which of the following organs can store glycogen?
A) spleen and pancreas
B) kidney and adrenal gland
C) large and small intestines
D) liver and muscles
E) stomach and pancreas
Answer: d Level: 1
15. Which of the following statements regarding cellulose is true?
A) Cellulose can be digested by human digestive enzymes.
B) Cellulose provides fiber or "roughage.
C) Cellulose is another name for glucose.
D) Cellulose is one of the units of a sucrose molecule.
E) Cellulose is a source of energy. Answer: b
Level: 1
16. If your daily diet is deficient in carbohydrates, the result might be
A) obesity.
B) increased subcutaneous fat.
C) decrease of muscle mass.
D) constipation.
E) sensation of thirst.
Answer: c Level: 2
17. A compound composed of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol molecule would be a
A) monoglyceride.
B) diglyceride.

C) triglyceride.
D) phospholipid.
E) cholesterol.
Answer: c Level: 2
18. If the fatty acid portion of a fat molecule has ten double covalent bonds, the fat is said to be
A) hydrogenated.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) monounsaturated.
D) saturated.
E) disaturated.
Answer: b
Level: 2
19. Olive and peanut oils are both
A) solid fats.
B) polyunsaturated fats.
C) monounsaturated fats.
D) fatty acids.
E) hydrogenated.
Answer: c Level: 1
20. Polyunsaturated vegetable oils can be changed from liquids to solids by
A) adding more unsaturated fatty acids to the molecules.
B) removing the glycerol portion of the molecules.
C) decreasing the number of double covalent bonds in their fatty acids.
D) removing hydrogens from the molecules.
E) none of the above Answer: c
Level: 2
21. Phospholipids
A) are found in cell membranes.
B) are used as an energy source by cells.
C) can be modified to form cholesterol.
D) are involved in the process of inflammation.
E) are found in organelle membranes.
Answer: a Level: 2
22. About 95% of the lipids in the human diet are
A) cholesterol derivatives.
B) lecithins.
C) triglycerides.
D) starches and other complex polysaccharides.
E) phospholipids.
Answer: c Level: 1
23. Cholesterol
A) must be obtained from plants.
B) can be manufactured by most tissues.
C) is a hormone.
D) is necessary for blood clotting.
E) has no constructive function in the body.
Answer: b Level: 1
24. A student's dietary intake includes 100 grams of fat and a total of 2000 kilocalories. What percentage of the total
kilocalories in this student's diet comes from fat?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 37%
D) 45%
E) 50%
Answer: d Level: 3
25. Excess triglycerides are stored in adipose tissue. Adipose tissue functions
A) to assist the body in temperature homeostasis.
B) pads and protects.
C) energy storage.
D) insulates.
E) all of the above Answer: e
Level: 1
26. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
A) lecithin
B) linoleic acid
C) stearic acid
D) butyric acid
E) hydrochloric acid
Answer: b Level: 1
27. Eicosanoids are involved in
A) inflammation.
B) blood clotting.
C) tissue repair.
D) smooth muscle contraction.
E) all of the above
Answer: e Level: 2
28. An essential amino acid
A) can be formed from fats in the body.
B) can be synthesized by the body if there is enough nitrogen.
C) must be made from glucose.
D) must be supplied in the diet.
E) can not be converted to nonessential amino acids.
Answer: d Level: 1
29. Proteins regulate the acid-base balance of the blood by
A) acting as buffers.
B) releasing nitrogen.
C) transporting iron.
D) binding sodium ions.
E) removing carbon dioxide from the blood.
Answer: a Level: 2
30. Which of the following recommendations regarding daily requirements is correct?
A) Fats should account for 45% of total caloric intake.
B) Carbohydrate intake should be around 500 grams daily.
C) Protein consumption should be 0.8 gram per kilogram of body weight.
D) Cholesterol intake should be about 300 milligrams per day.
E) Protein consumption should be about 25% of total kilocalorie intake.
Answer: c Level: 1

31. A food that contains all nine essential amino acids is called a(n)
A) plasma protein.
B) incomplete protein.
C) complete protein.
D) intracellular protein.
E) adequate protein.
Answer: c Level: 1
32. An example of an incomplete protein food is
A) eggs.
B) meat.
C) milk.
D) leafy green vegetables.
E) cheese
Answer: d Level: 1
33. Proteins that function in immunity include
A) enzymes.
B) antibodies.
C) hormones.
D) collagens.
E) fibrin.
Answer: b Level: 2
34. Functions of proteins include
A) providing structural strength in connective tissue.
B) serving as a part of the cholesterol molecule.
C) serving as the primary energy source of cells.
D) transport of nitrogen gas in the blood.
E) padding and insulation.
Answer: a Level: 2
35. Water-soluble vitamins include
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin C.
C) vitamin D.
D) vitamin K.
E) vitamin E.
Answer: b
Level: 2
36. Which of the following individuals is most likely to be in a negative nitrogen balance?
A) a healthy pregnant woman
B) a 10-year-old child
C) an adult woman with adequate protein intake
D) an elderly homeless man.
E) a healthy adult man who exercises
Answer: d Level: 3
37. Fat soluble vitamins can be toxic in large doses because they
A) do not dissolve in water.
B) can be stored and accumulate in body tissues.
C) are rapidly excreted.
D) release free radicals.

E) are flushed out of the body.

Answer: b Level: 1
38. Excessive bleeding due to slowed blood clotting is a symptom of vitamin _____ deficiency.
A) A
B) D
C) E D) K E) C Answer: d Level: 1
39. Vitamin E and vitamin C
A) both release free radicals.
B) are needed in RBC production.
C) are both antioxidants.
D) are formed from provitamins.
E) are required for blood clotting.
Answer: c Level: 1
40. Which of the following vitamins is mismatched with its function?
A) vitamin D - bone growth
B) vitamin A - rhodopsin synthesis
C) folate - synthesis of clotting factors
D) vitamin C - collagen synthesis
E) vitamin B12 - red blood cell production
Answer: c
Level: 1
41. What would happen to a vitamin if its chemical structure is destroyed by catabolism?
A) It could be recycled.
B) It would become nonfunctional.
C) It becomes a provitamin.
D) It becomes a coenzyme.
E) Nothing; this in normal.
Answer: b Level: 2
42. Minerals
A) are organic nutrients.
B) can be manufactured by the body if the diet does not supply enough.
C) can serve as buffers and components of enzymes.
D) are found in high concentrations in refined cereals and breads.
E) are not necessary for normal metabolic function.
Answer: c Level: 2
43. Which of the following minerals is important in acid-base balance?
A) calcium
B) chlorine
C) iron
D) manganese
E) sodium
Answer: b Level: 1
44. Which of the following minerals is part of the hemoglobin molecule?
A) calcium
B) iodine
C) iron
D) zinc
E) fluorine

Answer: c Level: 1
45. Which of the following minerals is mismatched with its function?
A) calcium - bone formation
B) zinc - hemoglobin synthesis
C) potassium - muscle and nerve function
D) cobalt - erythrocyte production
E) selenium - component of many enzymes
Answer: b Level: 1
46. The sum of all chemical reactions that occur in the body is known as
A) absorption.
B) metabolism.
C) digestion.
D) catabolism.
E) anabolism
Answer: b Level: 1
47. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions.
B) Anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids.
C) The energy derived from anabolism is used to drive catabolism.
D) Anabolic reactions release energy.
E) Catabolic reactions consume energy.
Answer: b Level: 2
48. The digestion of complex carbohydrates is an example of
A) anabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) absorption.
D) excretion.
E) metabolism.
Answer: b Level: 2
49. The production of protein by cells is an example of
A) anabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) glycolysis.
D) phosphorylation.
E) decomposition.
Answer: a Level: 2
50. The energy currency of the cell is a molecule called
A) glucose.
B) pyruvate.
C) fat.
D) ADP .
E) ATP.
Answer: e Level: 1
51. High ATP concentrations would be found in
A) active cells.
B) resting cells.
C) exhausted cells.
D) dead cells.

E) none of the above

Answer: b Level: 2
52. Glycolysis is best defined as the breakdown of
A) glucose to carbon dioxide and water.
B) glucose to two of pyruvic acid molecules.
C) pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
D) glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate.
E) glucose to glycogen.
Answer: b Level: 1
53. Which of the following steps in glycolysis occurs last?
A) oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B) production of ATP from phosphoenolpyruvic acid
C) phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate
D) cleavage of fructose 1, 6 diphosphate
E) input of 2 A TP molecules
Answer: b Level: 2
54. In glycolysis,
A) NAD+ is reduced to form NADH.
B) more energy is used than produced.
C) glucose is formed as an end product.
D) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is used as an enzyme.
E) oxygen must be present for it to start.
Answer: a Level: 2
55. When glucose is metabolized in the absence of oxygen, one of the end products is
A) pyruvic acid.
B) ketone bodies.
C) lactic acid.
D) citric acid.
E) nitric acid.
Answer: c Level: 1
56. One difference between anaerobic and aerobic respiration is that
A) anaerobic respiration utilizes the citric acid cycle but aerobic respiration does not.
B) aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.
C) anaerobic respiration takes place inside cells while aerobic respiration takes place in the
plasma.
D) aerobic respiration does not require oxygen.
E) aerobic respiration takes place after anaerobic respiration.
Answer: b Level: 1
57. A series of metabolic reactions in the liver that converts lactic acid into glucose is called
A) the electron transport system.
B) the Cori cycle.
C) the citric acid cycle.
D) beta oxidation.
E) sugar cleavage.
Answer: b Level: 1
58. The citric acid cycle begins by combining
A) carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid.
B) pyruvic acid and acetic acid to form acetoacetic acid.

C) pyruvic acid and carbon dioxide to form lactic acid.

D) oxaloacetic acid and acetyl-CoA to form citric acid.
E) pyruvic acid and citric acid.
Answer: d Level: 1
59. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
A) acetyl-CoA formation, glycolysis, electron-transport chain, citric acid cycle
B) acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
C) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain
D) glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
E) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain
Answer: d Level: 2
60. Which of the following statements about the citric acid cycle is false?
A) The process occurs in the mitochondria.
B) The major end product of the cycle is lactic acid.
C) At several steps, NADH molecules are formed.
D) Carbon dioxide is produced at several steps in the cycle.
E) Water is formed at the end of the chain.
Answer: b Level: 2
61. The result of five turns of the citric acid cycle would be
A) 5 ATP, 5 NADH, 5 FADH2, 5 carbon dioxide.
B) 5 ATP, 15 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 carbon dioxide.
C) 10 ATP, 30 NADH, 10 FADH2, 20 carbon dioxide.
D) 10 ATP, 10 NADH, 5 FADH2, 10 carbon dioxide.
E) 15 ATP, 15 NADH, 15 FADH2, 15 carbon dioxide
Answer: b Level: 3
62. The mitochondria are the sites of
A) glycolysis.
B) the citric acid cycle.
C) anaerobic respiration.
D) lactic acid formation.
E) all of the above
Answer: b Level: 1
63. The electron transport chain
A) results in the formation of ATP.
B) converts acetate to ketone bodies.
C) converts glucose to fatty acids.
D) converts fatty acids to glucose.
E) removes a phosphate from A TP .
Answer: a Level: 1
64. If oxygen is present, how many molecules (net) of ATP are produced by the oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
A) 4
B) 18
C) 32
D) 38
E) 40
Answer: d Level: 1
65. A molecule that moves electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain is
A) pyruvic acid.

B) CO2.
C) ADP .
D) NADH.
E) H2O.
Answer: d Level: 2
66. Each NADH molecule fed into the electron transport chain produces _____ ATPs.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: b Level: 2
67. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Hydrogen ions are pumped across the cell membrane.
B) Electrons pass from one electron carrier to another in the electron transport chain.
C) Water serves as the final electron acceptor.
D) Chemiosmosis forms carbon dioxide.
E) The chemiosmosis model refers to movement of water.
Answer: b Level: 1
68. The name of the process that couples the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane
to ATP production is the
A) citric acid cycle.
B) glycolytic pathway.
C) chemiosmotic model.
D) Cori cycle.
E) hydrosmotic model.
Answer: c
Level: 2
69. Which of the following events occurs last?
A) Hydrogen ions diffuse into inner mitochondrial compartment.
B) Hydrogen ions are moved from inner to outer mitochondrial compartment.
C) The movement of hydrogen ions through special channels is coupled to ATP production.
D) A hydrogen ion concentration gradient is established.
E) NADH transfer electrons to the electron-transport chain.
Answer: c Level: 2
70. The body's main energy storage molecules are
A) sugars.
B) proteins.
C) lipids.
D) vitamins.
E) carbohydrates.
Answer: c Level: 1
71. The correct sequence of events that occurs when fatty acids are used to generate ATP is
A) beta oxidation, electron transport chain, deamination.
B) electron transport chain, beta oxidation, glycolysis.
C) beta oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain.
D) glycolysis, beta oxidation, citric acid cycle.
E) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, beta oxidation
Answer: c Level: 2

72. Beta oxidation results in the formation of

A) pyruvate.
B) acetyl CoA.
C) carbon monoxide.
D) oxaloacetate.
E) ketone bodies.
Answer: b Level: 1
73. Acetyl CoA
A) can enter the electron transport system directly.
B) is a by product of glycolysis.
C) might be used in ketogenesis.
D) is needed to start oxidative deamination.
E) is converted to pyruvic acid.
Answer: c Level: 1
74. The formation of triglycerides is called
A) glycogenesis.
B) lipogenesis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) ketogenesis.
E) beta-oxidation.
Answer: b Level: 1
75. Fatty acids are catabolized in a process called
A) glycolysis.
B) lipogenesis.
C) beta oxidation.
D) gluconeogenesis.
E) ketogenesis.
Answer: c Level: 1
76. The presence of ketone bodies in the urine indicates increased metabolism of
A) amino acids.
B) lactic acids.
C) fatty acids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) citric acids.
Answer: c
Level: 2
77. Slim N. Trim has been on a low-fat, no carbohydrate diet for two months. Which of the following would you expect
to find in large quantities in the urine?
A) glucose
B) lactic acid
C) pyruvic acid
D) ketone bodies
E) proteins
Answer: d
Level: 3
78. Amino acids can be used as a source of energy
A) by converting them into nucleic acids.
B) by subjecting them to oxidative deamination.
C) in the process of transamination.

D) by converting them to ethanol.

E) and can be stored in the body.
Answer: b Level: 1
79. Transamination
A) results in free fatty acids.
B) requires glucose.
C) can be used to synthesize essential amino acids.
D) involves moving an amine group.
E) produces ammonia.
Answer: d Level: 1
80. Oxidative deamination is a chemical process in which
A) protein is synthesized.
B) amino acids are buffered in the kidney.
C) the amine group is removed from an amino acid.
D) fatty acids are broken down to yield acetyl CoA.
E) glutamic acid is produced.
Answer: c Level: 1
81. When the amine (NH2) group is stripped off of an amino acid, this amine group is
converted to
A) lactic acid.
B) glucose.
C) ammonia.
D) glycerol.
E) urea.
Answer: c Level: 2
82. Arrange the following in correct sequence: 1. Ammonia is converted to urea in the liver.
2. Oxidative deamination of an amino acid.
3. Urea is eliminated by the kidney.
4. Ammonia and keto acids are formed.
A) 1, 3, 4, 2
B) 2, 4, 1, 3
C) 3, 1, 4, 2
D) 4, 1, 3, 2
E) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: b Level: 2
83. The formation of glycogen from glucose is called _____.
A) glycolysis
B) glycogenesis
C) glycogenolysis
D) gluconeogenesis
E) glucogenesis
Answer: b Level: 1
84. The process that uses amino acids and glycerol to form glucose is
A) ketogenesis.
B) glycogenesis.
C) lipogenesis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
E) glycolysis.

Answer: d Level: 1
85. Glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids can be metabolized within the cell to liberate _____.
A) oxygen
B) energy
C) carbon dioxide
D) hydrogen
E) nitrogen Answer: b Level: 1
86. There is a need for glucose in the body. Which of the following reactions will yield glucose?
A) beta oxidation
B) glycogenolysis
C) glycolysis
D) deamination
E) glucogenesis.
Answer: b Level: 2
87. Why is it important that glucose be converted to glucose-6-phosphate once glucose enters a cell?
A) This form is easier for cells to metabolize.
B) Glucose can't diffuse out of the cell if it is in this form.
C) The cells can easily excrete this molecule.
D) It becomes a long-term storage molecule for glucose.
E) It can now cross the plasma membrane.
Answer: b Level: 1
88. Which of the following events takes place during the absorptive state?
A) Protein is converted into glucose in the process of deamination.
B) Glucose is converted into energy, glycogen, or fats.
C) Ketones are produced from fatty acids.
D) Fats are converted into glucose via beta oxidation.
E) Glycogen is converted to glucose.
Answer: b Level: 2
89. The absorptive state
A) occurs immediately after meals.
B) is when glycogenolysis usually occurs.
C) has gluconeogenesis as one of its main events.
D) occurs in the large intestine.
E) occurs just before breakfast.
Answer: a Level: 1
90. Arrange the following events so that they indicate a possible metabolic sequence the body might use to
interconvert a protein to a fat.
1. Glycerol and three fatty acids combine to form triglycerides.
2. Fatty acids formed from acetyl CoA.
3. Protein digested to release amino acids. 4. Amino acids are converted to acetyl CoA.
A) 2, 3, 4, 1
B) 3, 4, 2, 1
C) 4, 2, 3, 1
D) 2, 4, 3, 1
E) 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: b Level: 3
93. Which of the following is least likely to occur late in the postabsorptive state?
A) hydrolysis of triglycerides
B) use of acetyl-CoA and ketones for energy

C) formation of glycogen
D) use of proteins as an energy source
E) reduced removal of glucose from the blood
Answer: c Level: 2
94. Metabolic rate is the total amount of
A) glucose absorbed by the small intestine each hour.
B) heat produced by body cells in an hour.
C) energy produced and used by the body per unit of time.
D) carbon dioxide exhaled per unit of time.
E) kilocalories consumed.
Answer: c Level: 1
2 use the following key to choose the best answer.
A) Choose A if the first item is greater than the second item.
B) Choose B if the first item is less than the second item.
C) Choose C if the first item is equal or nearly equal to the second item.
110. 1. the number of ATPs produced in aerobic respiration; 2. the number of ATPs produced in anaerobic respiration
Answer: a
Level: 1
For questions 113 to 117 match the following vitamins with their function in the body.
A) required for the synthesis of clotting factors (prothrombin)
B) is a component of the coenzyme FAD
C) promotes calcium and phosphorus use
D) involved in amino acid metabolism
E) a primary constituent of coenzyme A
113. riboflavin Answer: b
Level: 1
114. pantothenic acid
Answer: e Level: 1
115. pyridoxine (B6) Answer: d
Level: 1
116. vitamin D Answer: c
Level: 1
117. vitamin K Answer: a
Level: 1
For questions 118 to 122 match the following vitamins with their associated diseases.
A) scurvy
B) night blindness
C) beriberi
D) pellagra
E) pernicious anemia
118. vitamin A Answer: b
Level: 1
119. thiamin Answer: c Level: 1
120. niacin Answer: d Level: 1
121. vitamin C Answer: a
Level: 1
122. vitamin B12 Answer: e
Level: 1
For questions 123 to 127 match the following minerals with their function.

A) functions in carbon dioxide metabolism and transport, also needed for protein metabolism
B) component of hemoglobin
C) a constituent of coenzymes; needed for bone formation and proper function of nerve and
muscle
D) needed for the production of thyroxine
E) component of nucleic acids and ATP; used in bone formation
123. iodine Answer: d Level: 1
124. iron Answer: b Level: 1
125. magnesium Answer: c
Level: 1
126. phosphorus Answer: e
Level: 1
127. zinc Answer: a Level: 1
Fill in the Blank
128. __________ are chemicals that are taken into the body and used to produce energy or provide building blocks
for new molecules.
Answer: nutrients
Level: 1
129. In the process called __________, glucose is broken down to two pyruvic acid molecules. Answer: glycolysis
Level: 1
130. Catabolism within cells liberates energy, which is then captured and used to phosphorylate ADP to form
__________.
Answer: ATP
Level: 1
131. The formation of fat from excess glucose is called __________. Answer: lipogenesis
133. When glucose enters a cell, it is phosphorylated to form __________. Answer: glucose-6-phosphate
Essay Questions
135. What happens in cells when energy input exceeds energy output? When energy output exceeds energy input?
Answer: If energy input exceeds output, the cell will engage in metabolic activities that lead to biosynthesis of
complex molecules and energy storage by synthesizing large amounts of high energy compounds, such at ATP and
creatine phosphate. The organism might begin to convert the extra kilocalories (energy) to adipose tissue and gain
weight. If energy output exceeds energy input, the cell because of the decrease in available energy, will begin to
function at a lower efficiency level, or may be unable to survive at all. In order to obtain energy, cellular components
would be degraded. The organism might begin to lose weight or even die as the cells degrade their component parts.
Level: 3
136. Explain the importance of the ATP-ADP energy transfer system with respect to the normal, day-to-day
functioning of our body cells.
Answer: Energy must be available in a form cells can use. The ATP-ADP energy transfer system is responsible for
supplying this usable energy. The oxidation of nutrients by the cell releases energy that is used to produce ATP. In this
process, inorganic phosphate is added to ADP in a process called phosphorylation. The energy released from the
oxidation of nutrients in the cell is stored by incorporating it into the bond that attaches the terminal phosphate
group to the ATP molecule. When energy is required by the cell, the ATP molecule can serve as a source of energy.
Upon hydrolysis of this high energy bond, the terminal phosphate with its energy can be transferred to another
compound, thereby transferring the energy.
Level: 3
137. Cyanide, the respiratory poison used in the gas chamber, binds to one of the molecules in the electron transport
system and blocks the flow of electrons. Using this fact, explain why ingestion of cyanide is lethal.
Answer: Cyanide is fatal because cyanide inhibits the action of certain enzymes (cytochrome oxidases) that are needed
to run the electron transport system. The only mechanism left to the cell is anaerobic respiration, and this cannot
yield the large numbers of ATPs needed by the cell to survive.

Level: 3
138. Two ATPs are required to start beta-oxidation of a fatty acid chain. For each acetyl CoA formed (except for the
last one), one NADH and one FADH2 are also produced during beta- oxidation. Given this information, compare the
production of ATP molecules from the metabolism of a 6 carbon fatty acid with the production of ATP molecules from
a single molecule of glucose.
Answer: Six carbon fatty acid will yield three molecules of acetyl CoA. With beta oxidation and three acetyl CoA, the
yield will be:
3 turns of citric acid cycle: Beta oxidation:
Single glucose molecule Glycolysis:
Transition step:
Citric acid cycle (2 turns):
9 NADH 3 FADH2 3 ATP
2 NADH 2 FADH2
2 ATP
2 NADH 2 NADH 2 ATP
6 NADH 2 FADH2
27 ATP (from ETS) 6 ATP (from ETS) 3 ATP
6 ATP (from ETS) 4 ATP (from ETS)
TOTAL 46 ATP
2 ATP
6 ATP (from ETS) 6 ATP (from ETS) 2 ATP
18 ATP (from ETS) 4 APT (from ETS)

TOTAL 38 ATP
So you get more energy from the catabolism of the six carbon fatty acid than from one glucose
molecule. Level: 3
139. If 1,992 molecules of Acetyl CoA are available to use in the citric acid cycle, what is the maximum number of
times a cell could "turn" the cycle?
Answer: 1,992 times, assuming that all CoA molecules will be used.
Level: 2
140. What does the phrase, "we are what we eat" mean?
Answer: Our bodies convert nutrients from the foods we eat into the various components of our body's cells. So the
nutrient material of the food becomes part of the structure of the cell, and "We are what we eat."
Level: 2