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She was
informed that she had one. The nurse explains that this is:
a. generalized edema
b. proteinuria 4+
c. blood pressure of 160/110
d. convulsions
3. The uterus has already risen out of the pelvis and is experiencing
farther into the abdominal area at about the:
a. 8th week of pregnancy
b. 10th week of pregnancy
c. 12th week of pregnancy
d. 18th week of pregnancy
5. Mrs. Jimenez went to the health center for pre-natal check-up. the
student nurse took her weight and revealed 142 lbs. She asked the
student nurse how much should she gain weight in her pregnancy.
a. 20-30 lbs
b. 25-35 lbs
c. 30- 40 lbs
d. 10-15 lbs
12. During the first hours following delivery, the post partum client is
given IVF with oxytocin added to them. The nurse understands the
primary reason for this is:
a. To facilitate elimination
b. To promote uterine contraction
c. To promote analgesia
d. To prevent infection
13. Nurse Luis is assessing the newborns heart rate. Which of the
following would be considered normal if the newborn is sleeping?
a. 80 beats per minute
b. 100 beats per minute
c. 120 beats per minute
d. 140 beats per minute
14. The infant with Down Syndrome should go through which of the
Eriksons developmental stages first?
a. Initiative vs. Self doubt
b. Industry vs. Inferiority
c. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
d. Trust vs. Mistrust
c. 5 inches
d. 6 inches
21. Nurse Jonas assesses a 2 year old boy with a tentative diagnosis
of nephroblastoma. Symptoms the nurse observes that suggest this
problem include:
a. Toddler
b. Preschool
c. School
d. Adolescence
a. blurred vision
b. nasal stuffiness
c. breast tenderness
d. constipation
23. Nurse Jacob is assessing a 15 month old child with acute otitis
media. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse anticipate
finding?
18. Isabelle, a 2 year old girl loves to move around and oftentimes
manifests negativism and temper tantrums. What is the best way to
deal with her behavior?
a. Tell her that she would not be loved by others is she behaves that
way..
b. Withholding giving her toys until she behaves properly.
c. Ignore her behavior as long as she does not hurt herself and others.
d. Ask her what she wants and give it to pacify her.
19. Baby boy Villanueva, 4 months old, was seen at the pediatric
clinic for his scheduled check-up. By this period, baby Villanueva
has already increased his height by how many inches?
a. 3 inches
b. 4 inches
11.Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to
take a crying toddlers temperature is:
a. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
b. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.
c. Encourage the mother to hold the child.
d. Ignore the crying and screaming.
a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Adequacy
d. Appropriateness
a. Department of Health
b. Provincial Health Office
c. Regional Health Office
d. Rural Health Unit
a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician
a. 6 months
b. 4 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Rabies
d. Neonatal tetanus
a. Integration
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Core group formation
a. Anemia
b. Decreased urine output
c. Hyperreflexia
d. Increased respiratory rate
31.A 23 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks
that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by:
a. Menorrhagia
b. Metrorrhagia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Amenorrhea
27.A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal
heart rate would be:
a. 80 to 100 beats/minute
b. 100 to 120 beats/minute
c. 120 to 160 beats/minute
d. 160 to 180 beats/minute
44.Nurse Carla should know that the most common causative factor
of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:
a. I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use
it
b. I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight
more than 20 pounds
c. The diaphragm must be left in place for atleast 6 hours after
intercourse
d. I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the
middle of my menstrual cycle.
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch
45.During tube feeding, how far above an infants stomach should the
nurse hold the syringe with formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
46. In a mothers class, Nurse Lhynnete discussed childhood diseases
such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about
chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the
complications of chicken pox.
b. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes,
including conditions such as shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be
imposed by health authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending
outbreak in the community.
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
49.A 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health
center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying
symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the
start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera.
History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before
the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease condition
will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
50.Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with
the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of rice water
stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery
53.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that
there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you
pressed does not return within how many seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
c. 5 years
d. Lifetime
61.Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the RHU because of
cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the
following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to
a hospital?
a. Inability to drink
b. High grade fever
c. Signs of severe dehydration
d. Cough for more than 30 days
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. At the end of the day
a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 32 weeks
66.Maylene had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. She is
aware that her baby will have protection against tetanus for
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
82.A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should the
nurse do first?
76. When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a new mother, the
nurse Jenny would include which information?
a. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change
b. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing
c. Keep the cord dry and open to air
d. Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath.
83. When a client states that her "water broke," which of the
following actions would be inappropriate for the nurse to do?
77.Nurse John is performing an assessment on a neonate. Which of
the following findings is considered common in the healthy neonate?
a. Simian crease
b. Conjunctival hemorrhage
c. Cystic hygroma
d. Bulging fontanelle
10
c. I.V. fluids
d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain
a. 16 to 18 weeks
b. 18 to 22 weeks
c. 30 to 32 weeks
d. 38 to 40 weeks
94. Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit.
An intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) of the
tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to have a positive test
for which of the following results?
a. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12
hours.
b. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72
hours.
c. A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12
hours.
d. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to
72 hours.
a. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
a. Diet
b. Long-acting insulin
c. Oral hypoglycemic
d. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin
92. Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased risk for having
a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy. Aggressive management of a
sickle cell crisis includes which of the following measures?
97. To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client
to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which position may
cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?
a. Lateral position
b. Squatting position
c. Supine position
d. Standing position
a. Antihypertensive agents
b. Diuretic agents
11
98. Celeste who used heroin during her pregnancy delivers a neonate.
When assessing the neonate, the nurse Lhynnette expects to find:
a. Lethargy 2 days after birth.
b. Irritability and poor sucking.
c. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin lips.
d. Congenital defects such as limb anomalies.
99. The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which of the following
time frames?
a. 7th to 9th day postpartum.
b. 2 weeks postpartum.
c. End of 6th week postpartum.
d. When the lochia changes to alba.
12
13
42. Answer: (C) More oxygen, and the newborns metabolic rate
increases.
Rationale: When cold, the infant requires more oxygen and there is
an increase in metabolic rate. Non-shievering thermogenesis is a
complex process that increases the metabolic rate and rate of oxygen
consumption, therefore, the newborn increase heat production.
14
Rationale: Postdate fetuses lose the vernix caseosa, and the epidermis
may become desquamated. These neonates are usually very alert.
Lanugo is missing in the postdate neonate.
74. Answer: (C) Respiratory depression
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate crosses the placenta and adverse
neonatal effects are respiratory depression, hypotonia, and
bradycardia. The serum blood sugar isnt affected by magnesium
sulfate. The neonate would be floppy, not jittery.
75. Answer: (C) Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
Rationale: A respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute is normal for a
neonate during the transitional period. Nasal flaring, respiratory rate
more than 60 breaths/minute, and audible grunting are signs of
respiratory distress.
76. Answer: (C) Keep the cord dry and open to air
Rationale: Keeping the cord dry and open to air helps reduce
infection and hastens drying. Infants arent given tub bath but are
sponged off until the cord falls off. Petroleum jelly prevents the cord
from drying and encourages infection. Peroxide could be painful and
isnt recommended.
77. Answer: (B) Conjunctival hemorrhage
Rationale: Conjunctival hemorrhages are commonly seen in neonates
secondary to the cranial pressure applied during the birth process.
Bulging fontanelles are a sign of intracranial pressure. Simian creases
are present in 40% of the neonates with trisomy 21. Cystic hygroma
is a neck mass that can affect the airway.
78. Answer: (B) To assess for prolapsed cord
Rationale: After a client has an amniotomy, the nurse should assure
that the cord isn't prolapsed and that the baby tolerated the procedure
well. The most effective way to do this is to check the fetal heart rate.
Fetal well-being is assessed via a nonstress test. Fetal position is
determined by vaginal examination. Artificial rupture of membranes
doesn't indicate an imminent delivery.
79. Answer: (D) The parents interactions with each other.
Rationale: Parental interaction will provide the nurse with a good
assessment of the stability of the family's home life but it has no
indication for parental bonding. Willingness to touch and hold the
newborn, expressing interest about the newborn's size, and indicating
a desire to see the newborn are behaviors indicating parental bonding.
80. Answer: (B) Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to
cushion the area
Rationale: Using two or more peripads would do little to reduce the
pain or promote perineal healing. Cold applications, sitz baths, and
Kegel
exercises are important measures when the client has a fourth-degree
laceration.
81. Answer: (C) What is your expected due date?
Rationale: When obtaining the history of a client who may be in
labor, the nurse's highest priority is to determine her current status,
particularly her due date, gravidity, and parity. Gravidity and parity
affect the duration of labor and the potential for labor complications.
Later, the nurse should ask about chronic illnesses, allergies, and
support persons.
82. Answer: (D) Aspirate the neonates nose and mouth with a bulb
syringe.
15
16
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3.
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50. The first stage of labor begins with the onset of labor and
ends with full cervical dilation at 10 cm.
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Nursing Bullets: Maternal and Child Health Nursing VI
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Nursing Bullets: Maternal and Child Health Nursing VII
26.
24
amniocentesis is performed.
27. Maternal hypotension is a complication of spinal block.
28. After delivery, if the fundus is boggy and deviated to the
right side, the patient should empty her bladder.
29. Before providing a specimen for a sperm count, the patient
should avoid ejaculation for 48 to 72 hours.
30. The hormone human chorionic gonadotropin is a marker
for pregnancy.
31. Painless vaginal bleeding during the last trimester of
pregnancy may indicate placenta previa.
32. During the transition phase of labor, the woman usually is
irritable and restless.
33. Because women with diabetes have a higher incidence of
birth anomalies than women without diabetes, an alphafetoprotein level may be ordered at 15 to 17 weeks
gestation.
34. To avoid puncturing the placenta, a vaginal examination
shouldnt be performed on a pregnant patient who is
bleeding.
35. A patient who has postpartum hemorrhage caused by
uterine atony should be given oxytocin as prescribed.
36. Laceration of the vagina, cervix, or perineum produces
bright red bleeding that often comes in spurts. The bleeding
is continuous, even when the fundus is firm.
37. Hot compresses can help to relieve breast tenderness after
breast-feeding.
38. The fundus of a postpartum patient is massaged to
stimulate contraction of the uterus and prevent hemorrhage.
39. A mother who has a positive human immunodeficiency
virus test result shouldnt breast-feed her infant.
40. Dinoprostone (Cervidil) is used to ripen the cervix.
41. Breast-feeding of a premature neonate born at 32 weeks
gestation can be accomplished if the mother expresses milk
and feeds the neonate by gavage.
42. If a pregnant patients rubella titer is less than 1:8, she
should be immunized after delivery.
43. The administration of oxytocin (Pitocin) is stopped if the
contractions are 90 seconds or longer.
44. For an extramural delivery (one that takes place outside of
a normal delivery center), the priorities for care of the
neonate include maintaining a patent airway, supporting
efforts to breathe, monitoring vital signs, and maintaining
adequate body temperature.
45. Subinvolution may occur if the bladder is distended after
delivery.
46. The nurse must place identification bands on both the
mother and the neonate before they leave the delivery
room.
47. Erythromycin is given at birth to prevent ophthalmia
neonatorum.
48. Pelvic-tilt exercises can help to prevent or relieve backache
during pregnancy.
49. Before performing a Leopold maneuver, the nurse should
ask the patient to empty her bladder.
50. According to the Unang Yakap program, the cord should
not be clamped until pulsations have stopped (thats about
1-3 minutes).
Placenta
posted Sep 4, 2012, 11:02 PM by RNpedia.com Administration
PLACENTA-CROSSING SUBSTANCES
Preterm Infant
posted Aug 30, 2012, 11:13 PM by RNpedia.com Administration
Preterm infant: anticipated problems"TRIES"
Gravida
Term
Preterm
Abortions (SAB, TAB)
25
Living children
Newborn Assessment
posted Aug 30, 2012, 11:02 PM by RNpedia.com Administration
Newborn assessment components"APGAR"
Toxoplasmosis
Other (hepatitis B, syphilis, group B beta strep)
Appearance
Rubella
Pulse
Cytomegalovirus
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effort
Episiotomy
posted Aug 29, 2012, 7:04 AM by RNpedia.com Administration
Episiotomy assessment"REEDA"
Family Planning
posted Aug 30, 2012, 8:17 PM by RNpedia.com Administration [
updated Aug 30, 2012, 11:06 PM ]
IUD: potential problems with use"PAINS"
Redness
Edema
Ecchymosis
Discharge
Approximation of skin
Dystocia
posted Aug 29, 2012, 7:02 AM by RNpedia.com Administration [
updated Aug 29, 2012, 7:02 AM ]
Power
Passageway
Passenger
26
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen
Placenta
Position
Preeclampsia
posted Aug 29, 2012, 6:41 AM by RNpedia.com Administration [
updated Aug 29, 2012, 6:46 AM ]
Complication of severe preeclampsia"HELLP" syndrome
Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelet count
Umbilical Cord
posted Aug 28, 2012, 6:00 AM by RNpedia.com Administration
Blood vessels in umbilical cord"AVA" (2 arteries and 1 vein)
Artery
Vein
Artery
Introduction: The questions are coded according to their sources and
will only be for my personal reference. RED questions are original
questions I created. FATIMA students READ and DIGEST each of
these questions carefully. Goodluck.
SITUATION : [ND89] Aling Julia, a 32 year old fish vendor from
baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She
brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3
and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral
contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant.
She cannot remember her LMP.
1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Julia's
EDC? [3]
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema
2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test? [1]
A. Progesterone
27
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography
SITUATION : [FFC] Maternal and child health is the program of the
department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother
in the philippines. [2]
16. What is the goal of this program?
11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Julia, you know the
minimum weight gain during pregnancy is [3]
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk
19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It
serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors [1]
14. Aling julia has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes
with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain
during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often
promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention
is effective because [2]
28
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair
22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle? [3]
A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus
23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is [1]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation? [2]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle?
[4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
D. 1/3 cup
29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism? [2]
A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone
30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will
approximately [2]
A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th
day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th
day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th
day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th
day to the 30th day of her cycle
SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests
during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.
31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is
atleast [4]
A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm
32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what
week of gestation do they start to experience quickening? [4]
26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must [2]
A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle
27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the
menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period?
[4]
A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th
33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The
mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from
120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the
result? [3]
A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat
34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope?
[4]
A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
29
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month
35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler
Ultrasound? [4]
A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month
36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alpha
feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer [4]
A. It is normal
B. It is not normal
C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect
30
A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy
60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest? [3]
A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
31
D. Pulmonary artery
61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable,
complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The
membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates [1]
A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be
notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in
dealing with labor
SITUATION : [J2I246] Katherine, a 32 year old primigravida at 3940 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric
and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced
cervix. Station 0.
62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the
following conditions signify that delivery is near? [2]
I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds
duration
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the
following nursing diagnoses is the priority? [2]
A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine
contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
64. Katherine complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain
during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be
MOST effective in reducing pain? [4]
I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques
A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II
32
75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON
supplementation be taken? [4]
81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the
pillar is in the [1]
A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor
76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it
ends? [4]
A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage
33
A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm
84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that [1]
A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine
85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor [1]
A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above
92. Baby boy perez must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours
for [2]
86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause
by FEAR [4]
A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry
C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature
A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read
87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second
stage of labor? [1]
94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the
medication dosage for infants and children? [3]
88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include [1]
A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage
patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient
SITUATION : [NBLUE170] Baby boy perez was delivered
spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9
respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.
A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height
95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within [4]
A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month
96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the philippines is [3]
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium
97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a
commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution? [4]
34
35
36
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths
* Fundal height is measured in cm not mm. centimeters is
the more accurate method of measuring fundic height than
inches or fingerbreadths.
13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers,
the first maneuver is to [1]
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
* Leopold's one determines what is it in the fundus. This
37
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair
38
* Refer to #23
25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the
menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup
* The average blood loss during pregnancy is 60 cc. A, half
cup is equivalent to 120 cc. C, is equivalent to 90 cc while
39
A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm
A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month
40
41
42
43
44
I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50
seconds duration
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
* Again, lifted word per word from Pillitteri and this is
from the NLE. A is the right answer. A woman near labor
experiences desire to defecate because of the pressure of
the fetal head that forces the stool out from the anus. She
cannot help but bear down with each of the contractions
and as crowning occurs, The perineum bulges. A woman
with a 50 second contraction is still at the ACTIVE
PHASE labor [ 40 to 60 seconds duration, 3 to 5 minutes
interval ] Women who are about to give birth experience
60-90 seconds contraction occuring at 2-3 minutes interval.
63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of
the following nursing diagnoses is the priority? [2]
A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of
uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
* Nursing diagnosis is frequently ask. In any case that
INFECTION was one of the choices, remove it as soon as
you see it in ALL CASES during the intra and pre
operative nursing care. Infection will only occur after 48
hours of operation or event. B is much more immediate and
more likely to occur than A, and is much more FATAL.
Prioritization and Appropriateness is the key in correctly
answering this question. High risk for infection is an
appropriate nursing diagnosis, but as I said, Infection will
occur in much later time and not as immediate as B.
Readily remove D and C because physiologic needs of the
mother and fetus take precedence over comfort measures
and psychosocial needs.
64. Katherine complains of severe abdominal pain and back
pain during contraction. Which two of the following
measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain? [4]
I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques
45
A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II
* Remove B. Imagery is not used in severe pain. This is a
labor pain and the mother will never try to imagine a nice
and beautiful scenery with you at this point because the
pain is all encompassing and severe during the transition
phase of labor. Remove A and C Because breathing
techniques is not a method to ELIMINATE PAIN but a
method to reduce anxiety, improve pushing and prevent
rapid expulsion of the fetus during crowning [ By
PANTING ]
Back pain is so severe during labor in cases of Posterior
presentations [ ROP,LOP,RMP,LSaP, etc... ] Mother is
asked to pull her knees towards her chest and rock her
back. [ As in a rocking chair ] A Tennis ball rubbed at the
client's back can relieve the pain due to the pressure of the
presenting part on the posterior part of the birth canal. Also,
rubbing a tennis ball to the client's back OPENS THE
LARGE FIBER NERVE GATE. Effleurage or a simple
rotational massage on the abdomen simply relieves the
client's pain by opening the large fiber nerve gate and
closing the the small fiber nerve gate. [ Please read about
Gate control theory by Mezack and Wall ].
65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of
the following nursing responsibilities should be done
immediately following procedure? [1]
A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension
* Hypotension is one of the side effects of an epidural
anesthesia. An epidural anesthesia is injected on the L3 L4 or L4 - L5 area. The injection lies just above the dura
and must not cross the dura [ spinal anesthesia crosses the
dura ]. Nursing intervention revolves in assesing RR, BP
and other vital signs for possible complication and side
effects. There is no need to position the client from side to
side, The preferred position during the transition phase of
labor is LITHOTOMY. Oxygen is not specific after
administration of an epidural anesthesia. IV fluid is not
increased without doctor's order. AS INDICATED is
different from AS ORDERED.
66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural
anesthesia? [4]
A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine
* A,B and D are all drugs of choice for epidural anesthesia.
Ephedrine is the drug use to reverse the symptom of
hypotension caused by epidural anesthesia. It is a
sympathomimetic agent that causes vasoconstriction,
bronchodilation [ in asthma ] and can increase the amount
of energy and alertness. Ephedrine is somewhat similar to
epinephrine in terms of action as well as it's adverse effects
of urinary retention, tremor, hypersalivation, dyspnea,
tachycardia, hypertension.
SITUATION : [SORANGE217] Alpha, a 24 year old G4P3
at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of
fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday
shopping.
67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be
114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse
do first? [2]
A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position
* Remove A. A FHR of 114 bpm is 6 beats below normal.
Though monitoring is continuous and appropriate, This is
not your immediate action. B, Oxygen inhalation needs
doctor's order and therefore, is a DEPENDENT nursing
action and won't be your first option. Although
administration of oxygen by the nurse is allowed when
given at the lowest setting during emergency situation. C is
appropriate, but should not be your IMMEDIATE action.
The best action is to place the client on the LEFT
LATERAL POSITION to decrease the pressure in the
inferior vena cava [ by the gravid uterus ] thereby
increasing venus return and giving an adequate perfusion to
the fetus. Your next action is to call and notify the
obstetrician. Remember to look for an independent nursing
action first before trying to call the physician.
68. The nurse checks the perineum of alpha. Which of the
following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause
an alarm to the nurse? [1]
A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged
* A greenish amniotic fluid heralds fetal distress not unless
the fetus is in breech presentation and pressure is present on
46
47
D. Iron supplementation
48
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage
* Oxytocin [ Pitocin ] is a synthetic form of hormone
naturally released by the PPG. It is used to augment labor
and delivery. Dosage is about 1 to 2 milli units per minute
and this can be doubled until the desired contraction is met.
Side effects are Water intoxication, Diuresis,
Hypertonicity of the uterus, Uterine rupture,
Precipitated labor, Walang kamatayang Nausea and
Vomiting and Fetal bradycardia. Diuresis occurs because
of water intoxication, The kidney will try to compensate to
balance the fluid in the body.
NEVER give pitocin when FHR is below 120. Even
without knowing anything about Pitocin, A cerebral
hemorrhage is LETHAL and DAMAGE IS
IRREVERSIBLE and if this is a side effect of a drug, I do
not think that FDA or BFAD will approve it.
A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read
* Believe it or not, this is an actual board question.
Grantley Dick-Read is just one person. Usually a two name
theory means two theorist. He published a book in 1933
"CHILDBIRTH WITHOUT FEAR". He believes that
PAIN in labor is caused by FEAR that causes muscle
tension, thereby halting the blood towards the uterus and
causing decreased oxygenation which causes the PAIN.
1950s French obstetrician, Dr. Ferdinand Lamaze perhaps
is the most popular theorist when it comes to labor. The
theory behind Lamaze is that birth is a normal, natural and
healthy event that should occur without unnecessary
medical intervention. Rather than resorting to pain
medication, different breathing techniques are used for each
stage of labor to control pain. Fathers are assigned the role
of labor coach, and are responsible for monitoring and
adjusting their partner's breathing pattern throughout
childbirth.
In 1965, obstetrician Robert A. Bradley, MD wrote
"Husband Coached Childbirth." The Bradley method
perhaps is the easiest to remember, BRAD ley necessitates
the presence of the FATHER during labor. Bradley
Method views birth as a natural process. This method also
emphasizes the importance of actively involving fathers in
the labor process. Fathers are taught ways to help ease their
partner's pain during childbirth through guided relaxation
and slow abdominal breathing.
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50
51
52
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
53
54
22.
23.
24.
25.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
would be an appropriate toy choice. Multiplepiece toys, such as puzzle, are too difficult to
manipulate and may be hazardous if the pieces
are small enough to be aspirated. Miniature
cars also have a high potential for aspiration.
Comic books are on too high a level for
toddlers. Although they may enjoy looking at
some of the pictures, toddlers are more likely to
rip a comic book apart.
9. D. The child must be able to sate the need to
go to the bathroom to initiate toilet training.
Usually, a child needs to be dry for only 2 hours,
not 4 hours. The child also must be able to sit,
walk, and squat. A new sibling would most likely
hinder toilet training.
10. A. Toddlers become picky eaters,
experiencing food jags and eating large
amounts one day and very little the next. A
toddlers food gags express a preference for the
ritualism of eating one type of food for several
days at a time. Toddlers typically enjoy
socialization and limiting others at meal time.
Toddlers prefer to feed themselves and thus are
too young to have table manners. A toddlers
appetite and need for calories, protein, and
fluid decrease due to the dramatic slowing of
growth rate.
11. D. Preschoolers commonly have fears of the
dark, being left alone especially at bedtime, and
ghosts, which may affect the childs going to
bed at night. Quiet play and time with parents is
a positive bedtime routine that provides
security and also readies the child for sleep. The
child should sleep in his own bed. Telling the
child about locking him in his room will viewed
by the child as a threat. Additionally, a locked
door is frightening and potentially hazardous.
Vigorous activity at bedtime stirs up the child
and makes more difficult to fall asleep.
12. B. Dress-up clothes enhance imaginative
play and imagination, allowing preschoolers to
engage in rich fantasy play. Building blocks and
58
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
a) Cephallic hematoma.
b) Caput succedaneum.
c) Hemorrhage edema.
d) Perinatal caput.
8.
b) Smell
c) Touch
d) Hearing
C. Nurse Joan works in a childrens clinic and
helps with the care for well and ill children of
various ages.
11. A mother brings her 4 month old infant
to the clinic. The mother asks the nurse
when she should wean the infant from
breastfeeding and begin using a cup.
Nurse Joan should explain that the
infant will show readiness to be weaned
by
65
b) Emotional development.
a) Oral.
c) Social and physical activities.
b) Intramascular
d) Pre-disposition to genetic and
allergic illnesses.
15. When discussing a seven month old
infants mother regarding the motor
skill development, the nurse should
explain that by age seven months, an
infant most likely will be able to
a) Walk with support.
c) Subcutaneous
d) Intradermal
18. The nurse teaches the clients mother
about the normal reaction that the
infant might experience 12 to 24 hours
after the DPT immunization, which of
the following reactions would the nurse
discuss?
b) Mild fever.
c) Diarrhea
d) Nasal Congestion
a) Two months.
b) Four months
c) Six months
d) Eight months.
20. The mother says, the soft spot near the
front of her babys head is still big,
when will it close? Nurse Lilibeths
correct response would be at
a) 2 to 4 months.
b) Pulling toys
b) 5 to 8 months.
c) 9 to 12 months.
d) 13 to 18 months. prop
21. A mother states that she thinks her 9month old is developing slowly. When
evaluating the infants development,
the nurse would not expect a normal 9month old to be able to
a) Riding a bicycle
b) Tying shoelaces
c) Stringing large beads
b) Training equipment is
inappropriate
a) Structured interaction
b) Spanking
c) Reasoning
d) Scolding
29. When a nurse assesses for pain in
toddlers, which of the following
techniques would be least effective?
a) Ask them about the pain
b) Observe them for
restlessness
c) Watch their face for grimness
d) Listen for pain cues in their
cries.
30. The mother reports that her child
creates a quite scene every night at
bedtime and asks what she can do to
make bedtime a little more pleasant.
The nurse should suggest that the
mother to
a) Allow the child to stay up
later one or two nights a
week.
b) Establish a set bedtime and
follow a routine
c) Conservation of matter
d) Object permanence
28. Mother asks the nurse for advice about
discipline. The nurse would suggest that
the mother would first use
68
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 7 years
33. The mother tells the nurse that her
other child, a 4-year old boy, has
developed some strange eating
habits, including not finishing her
meals and eating the same foods for
several days in a row. She would like to
develop a plan to connect this situation.
69
b) Motor development
c) Neurological development
d) Social development
36. The child probably tells the nurse that
brushing and flossing her teeth is her
responsibility. When responding to this
information, the nurse should realize
that the child
a)
Inadequately parental
attention
b) Mastery of language
ambiguities
c) Coordination of
70
d) Intimacy
42. The school nurse is planning a series of
safety and accident prevention classes
for a group of third grades. What
preventive measures should the nurse
stress during the first class, knowing the
leading cause of incidental injury and
death in this age?
a) Flame-retardant clothing
b) Life preserves
c) Protective eyewear
d) Auto seat belts
43. The mother of a 10-year old boy
expresses concern that he is
overweight. When developing a plan of
care with the mother, Nurse Katrina
should encourage her to
a) Limit childs between-,meal
snacks
b) The dark
c) Ghosts
a) A big red balloon
d) Going to sleep
b) A teddy bear with button
eyes
a) Taking a nap
b) Peer play group
c) Large cuddly dog
d) Favorite blanket
48. Which of the following is an appropriate
toy for an 18 month old?
a) Multiple-piece puzzle
1. C
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. B
28. A
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. C
33. B
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. B
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. B
45. B
46. D
47. D
48. C
49. A
50. D
b) Miniature Cars
c) Finger paints
d) Comic Book
49. When teaching parents about typical
toddler eating patterns, which of the
following should be included?
a) Food jags
b) Preference to eat alone
c) Consistent table manners
d) Increase in appetite
72