Sample Papers

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NATIONAL UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCES &

TECNOLOGY (NUST)
Sample Admission Test
BIOLOGY:
Directions:
For each question below you are given four choices. SELECT ANY ONE THAT IS MOST
APPROPRIATE ANSWER
ALL ANSWER MUST BE GIVEN ON THE ANSWER SHEET.
YOUR ANSWERS MUST BE INDICATED BY LETTERS (A, B, C, D) AND NOT BY THE WORDS
THEMSELVES.
1.
A largest community primarily determined by climate is a
A) Ecosystem B) Biodiversity
C) Biome
D) Diversity
2.
The molecules with high molecular weight such as starch and proteins are
A) Micromolecules
B) Macromolecules
C) Organic molecules D) Inorganic molecules

3.
If a theory is continuously supported by experimental evidence it becomes a
A) Law
B) Theory
C) Hypotheses D) Scientific law

4.
The most abundant compound in all organisms is
A) Protein
B) Carbohydrate
C) Water
D) Lipid
5.
The compound that has tow amino acid sub- units is called
A) Polypeptide B) Peptide
C) Dipeptide
D) None of these
6.
The poisons, antibodies and anti-metabolites are examples of
A) Coenzymes B) Prosthetic groups
C) Activators D) Inhibitors
7.
The soluble part of the cytoplasm is called
A) Cytosol
B) Suspension
C) Collide
D) True solution
8.
The flattened vesicles in chloroplasts that arrange themselves to form Grana and intergrana are called
A) Thylakoids B) Grana
C) Stroma
D) Cisternae
9.
The assembly and disassembly of the spindle structure during mitosis is the role of
A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments
C) Intermediate filaments D) All these
10.
Which of the following is considered self replicating organelle?

A) Ribosomes B) Lysosomes
C) Mitochondria D) Leucoplasts
11.
A Bacteriophages reproduces by using the metabolic machinery of bacteria cell, i, e chromosomes and
A) Mitochondria B) Cell membrane
C) Ribosomes D) Golgi bodies
12.
Cell wall is absent in one of the following bacteria.
A) Escherichia coli B) Mycoplasma
C) Pseudomonas D) Spirochete
13.
Bacteria lack
A) Mitosis
B) Cell division
C) Traditional sexual reproduction D) All these

14.
Trypansoma is transmitted by the bite of infected
A) House fly B) Mosquito
C) Tsetse fly D) All these
15.
Fungal hyphae that are in the form of an elongated multinucleate large cell are called
A) Septate
B) Aseptate
C) Coenocytic D) Multinucleate
16.
An ascus is to ascomycetes as is a to basidiomycetes

A) Basidiospore B) Basidicarp
C) Basidium
D) Haustorium
17.
The loose smut of wheat is caused by
A) Puccinia
B) Ustilago
C) Fusarium D) Morchella
18.
A small outgrowth present on the upper isde of leaves of leaves of sporophylls near the base in selaginella
is
A) Ligule
B) Prophyll
C) Microphyll D) Megaphyll
19.
When the frond is immature and young it is coiled. This pattern of development is called circinate
A) Venation B) Vernation
C) Phyllotaxis D) Aestivation
20.
Double fertilization is characteristics of which of the following
A) Thallophytes B) Embryophytes
C) Spermatophytes D) Angiosperms
21.
A gelatinous layer present between the body wall layers of the sponges is
A) Mesenchyme B) Mesoderm
C) Mesogloea D) Mesenchyma
22.
Which of the following is host for liver fluke?

A) Snail
B) Sheep
C) Man
D) All these
23.
A group of ancient fish that modified their breathing system and developed lungs to adapt to terrestrial
mode of life is
A) Pisces
B) Dipnoi
C) Varanope D) Cotylsaurs
24.
The group of mammal that form connecting link between reptiles an mammals is
A) Prototheria B) Metatheria
C) Eutheria
D) None
25.
Which of the following chlorophylls is most abundant and takes part directly, in the light reaction of
photosynthesis?
A) Chlorophylls a B) Chlorophylls b
C) Chlorophylls c D) Bacteriochlorophyll
26.
The process that uses membranes to couple redox reactions to ATP production is known as
A) Photosystem B) Z Scheme
C) Chemosmosis D) Glycolysis
27.
The products of light reactions ATP and NADPH are used in which of the following phases of Calvin
cycle.
A) Carbon fixation B) Reduction
C) Regeneration of RuBP D) All these

28.
Digestive system in man is associated with which of the following glands.
A) Salivary glands B) Liver
C) Pancreas D) All these
29.
A blind sac that project from the large intestine between ileum and colon is
A) Caecum
B) Jejunum
C) Rectum
D) Appendix
30.
The glycoiate produced during photorespiration enters
A) Mitochondria B) Ribosomes
C) Peroxisomes D) Glyoxysomes
31.
The pulmonary disorder associated with breakdown of alveoli is referred to as
A) Cancer
B) Tuberculosis
C) Asthma
D) Emphysema
32.
One of the following is considered to act as multisensory hydraulic valves and respond to environment
stimuli.
A) Stomata
B) Guard cells
C) Lenticels D) Hydathodes
33.
In embryonic life blood cells are formed in the
A) Bone marrow B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Liver and spleen
34.
One of the following phenomenon is responsible for the loss of liquid water through water secreting
glands or
Hydathodes
A) Bleeding
B) Gutlation
C) Transportation D) Imbibition
35.
Which of the following type of cells are produced by the spleen thymus tonsils and adenoids
A) Platelets B) Agraulocytes
C) Erythrocytes D) Lymphocytes
36.
The elimination of wasteful metabolites, mainly of the nitrogenous nature is called
A) Osmoregulation B) Excretion
C) Pyrexia
D) Regulation strategies
37.
The excretory structures in animal kingdom that are associated with digestive tract are
A) Nephridia B) Malpighian tubules
C) Flame cells D) Nephrons
38.
Bats use one of the following for evaporative cooling in warm temperatures
A) Sweet
B) Saliva
C) Urine
D) Saliva and urine
39.
Nutation is because of
A) Growth on opposite side of contact B) Alternate changes in growth
C) Loss of turgor in the cells of pulvinus D) Movement of K ions from the cells of pulvinus
40.
Epinasty is because of
A) Auxins
B) Gibberellins
C) Abcissic acid D) Ethylene
Mathematics:
Directions:
APPROPRIATE ANSWER
THEMSELVES.
1.
A set having no element is called

1. Singleton
2. Super set
3. Overlaping
4. Power set
2.
Two matrix A and B are equal if

1.
2.
3.
4.
They are square matrix

They have same order
Their corresponding elements are equal
They have same number of columns
3.
(Z) is not a group because

1.
2.
3.
4.
. is not commutative
. is not associative
It has not identity w.r.t. .
It has not inverse w.r.t. .
4.
Tick the false statement

1.
2.
3.
4.
is not a binary operation on N

+ is a binary operation on N
is a binary operation on N
is a binary operation on N
5.
7. Degree of x4 + 2x 1 is
1.
2.
3.
4.
0
1
2
4
6.
The quadratic eq. Having roots 2 and is
1.
2.
3.
4.
x2 + x 6 = 0
X2 + x 6 = 0
X2 x 6 = 0
X2 + x + 6 = 0
7.
The general term of a sequence is denoted by

1.
2.
3.
4.
an
na
Sn
a+d
8.
N
P0 = ___________
1.
2.
3.
4.
0
N
1
1
9.
A coin is tossed five times, total no. of outcomes is

1.
2.
3.
4.
22
25
23
24
10.
How many kinds of trigonometry are?

1.
2.
3.
4.
Only one
Four
Two
Three
11.
2 sin 300cos 300 = __________
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sin 600
Cos 600
sin 600
Cot 300
12.
cos ( &beta) = __________

1.
2.
3.
4.
cos&beta
cos &beta
sin &beta
sin&beta
13.
2 sin 3 a cos a = _________

1.
2.
3.
4.
sin 3a cos a
sina cosa
sin 2a + sina
2 cos 800 sin 40
14.
Range of cot & theta is

1.
2.
3.
4.
R
Q
N
Z
15.
Range of 2 cos x is
1.
2.
3.
4.
[0 1]
[ 1 0]
[ 1 1]
[ 2 2]
16.
A subset of A B is called a ___________

1.
2.
3.
4.
Binary relation
range
Domain
Digit
17.
x-coordinate of a point is also called _________

1.
2.
3.
4.
Ordinate
Origin
Component
Abscissa
18.
A particle moves according to the eq x = 2t2. Its velocity at t = 3 is __________

1.
2.
3.
4.
2
4
8
12
19.
Fifth order derivative of x4 is ___________

1.
2.
3.
4.
0
24
24x
12x2
20.
If f(x) is decreasing in (a, b) then if __________

1.
2.
3.
4.
F(c) = 0
F(c) > 0
F(c) = 1
F(c) < 0
21.
A plane cutting the cone parallel to its axis gives a _________

1.
2.
3.
4.
Ellipse
Parabola
Circle
Hyperbola
22.
Radius of the circle concentric with x2 + y2 + 6x 10y 2 = 0 and touching x axis is _______
1.
2.
3.
4.
5
6
10
2
23.
The conic is a hyperbola if __________

1.
2.
3.
4.
E=1
E<1
E>1
E=0
24.
Two vectors a and b are equal if they have same _________

1.
2.
3.
4.
Length
Magnitude
Direction
Magnitude and direction
25.
What is arranged diagram?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A figure showing a set

A figure representing complex number
A figure in three dimension
A figure of a complex plane
26.
The value of determinant of a square matrix is zero if

1.
2.
3.
4.
Two rows have same no. of element

Two rows are identical
Each element of any row is equal to 1
Each element of a column has negative sign
27.
When x3 2 is divided by x + 1 then remainder is

1.
2.
3.
4.
0
3
1
2
28.
Which of the following is an infinite series

1.
2.
3.
4.
4, 7, 10, .........
1, 0, 1, 2, .........
2 + 6 + 10 +..... 26
2 + 6 + 10 + .......
29.
The words that can be formed from the letters of the word ARTICLE using all letters are
1.
2.
3.
4.
144
140
441
44
30.
Range of cot &theta is

1.
2.
3.
4.
R
Q
N
Z
31.
2 sin 250 cos 350 = ________

1.
2.
3.
4.
sin 100 sin 600

sin 300 sin 50
sin 300 sin 100
sin 250 sin 350
32.
Tangent and cotangent have period

1.
2.
3.
4.
0
&pi /2
2&pi
&pi
33.
The radius of in-circle is called

1.
2.
3.
4.
Circumradius
e-radius
Inradius
none
34.
The y-coordinate of a point is also called _______.

1.
2.
3.
4.
Ordinate
Origin
Abscissa
Interval
35.
If f(x) is an increasing function in (a, b) if f(c) __________

1.
2.
3.
4.
=1
=0
>0
<0
36.
Plane cutting the cone parallel to the side gives a _________.

1.
2.
3.
4.
Hyperbola
Parabola
Circle
Ellipse
37.
The centre of the circle concentric with the circle x 2 + y2 2x + 4y 1 = 0 is _________

1.
2.
3.
4.
(2, )
( 1, 2)
(1, 2)
( 1, 2)
38.
The conic is ellipse if _________

1.
2.
3.
4.
E<1
E>1
E=1
E=0
39.
Scalar triple product a . b c represents the volume of _________.

1.
2.
3.
4.
Parallelepiped
Parallelogram
Square
Rectangle
CHEMISTRY:
Directions:
APPROPRIATE ANSWER
THEMSELVES.
1.
Spodumene is the mineral of
(a) Lithium (b) Sodium (c) Potassium (d) None
2.
Chose the correct statement for the Law of Mass Action.

1.
2.
3.
4.
The rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction.

The rate at which a substance reacts is directly proportional to the substances.
The rate at which a substance reacts is directly proportional to its initial concentrations.
The rate at which a substance reacts is directly proportional to its final concentrations.
3.
For the reaction N1O4 &hArr 2 NO2 before the equilibrium is reached, the ratio in change of
concentration of NO2 to the concentration of N2O4 is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Equal
Half
Twice
Four time
4.
Which is not the mineral of Silicon
(a) Analcite
(b) Asbestos
(c) Dolomite
(d) Zircon
5.
Substance that affects the rate of reaction but remains unaltered at the end of the reaction is called
(a) Catalyst (b) Acid (c) Base (d) None of the above
6.
If one mole of solute is dissolved in one liter of solution, the solution is called
(a) None of the following (b) One molal (c) One molar (d) One normal
7.
If one gram equivalent of a solute is dissolved in one liter of solution, the solution is called
(a) One normal (b) One molal (c) One molar (d) None of the above
8.
At constant temperature, volume of a given mass of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure exerted
on it is called
(a) Coulombs Law (b) Boyles Law (c) General Gas Law (d) Charles Law
9.
Very small and very large quantities are expressed in terms of
(a) Significant igures (b) Logarithm (c) None of these (d) Exponential notation
10.
The number of atoms or molecules whose concentration determine the rate of reaction is called
(a) Molecularity (b) Rate of reaction (c) Order of reaction (d) None of the above
11.
Electrolytes which ionize to a very small extent in a solution are called
(a) Neutral (b) Weak electrolytes (c) Strong electolytes (d) None of the above
12.
The change of concentration of reactants or products is called,
(a) Order of reaction (b) Rate of reaction (c) Molecularity (d) None of the above
13.
Reactions which proceed in the forward direction and go to completion are called
(a) Irreversible reaction (b) Equilibrium reaction (c) Reversible reaction (d) None of the above
14.
The substance through which electricity cannot flow in molten state or solution form is called,
(a) Molecularity (b) Conductor (c) Electrolyte (d) Non electrolyte
15.
The law which states, The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a process in the same whether the
process takes place in one or several steps is called
(a) Newtons law (b) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Hesss law (d) Law of conservation of energy
16.
The amount of solute dissolved in 100g of solvent to form saturated solution at a given temperature is
called,
(a) Dissolution (b) Solubility (c) Solution (d) None of the above
17.
The theory which states that a molecule is a collection of positive nuclei surrounded by electrons
distributed in bonding and antibonding molecular obrital of different energies is called,
(a) None of the following (b) V.B theory (c) VSEPR theory (d) M.O. theory
18.
When a weak electrolyte is dissolved in water only a small amount o molecules is
(a) Remains constant (b) Ionized (c) Deionized (d) Increases
19.
The mixture whose constitutes are 50% hydrogen, 35% methane and 8% carbon mono-oxide is
(a) Coal gas (b) Coultar (c) Coke (d) None of the above
20.
In common ion effect the degree of ionization is suppressed by the addition of
(a) A compound (b) Another electrolyte (c) An element (d) None of the
above
21.
The reaction in which heat is absorbed from the surrounding to the system is called
(a) Endothermic reaction (b) Fast reaction (c) Slow reaction (d) Exothermic reaction
22.
The process in which solvent particles surround solute particles is called,
(a) Hydration (b) Hydrolysis (c) Saturation (d) Salvation
23.
If one mole of solute dissolved in one Kg of solvent, the solution is called
(a) One normal (b) One molar
(c) One molal (d) None of the above
24.
Equilibrium involving reactants and products in more than one phase is called
(a) Heterogeneous (b) Hemogenouss (c) Dynamic (d) None of the Above
25.
On heating a liquid at its dynamic equilibrium the concentration of molecules in vapour state as
well as in liquid state
1.
2.
3.
4.
Increase
Decreases
Remains constant
Neither increase nor decreases
26.
A change in which chemical composition of a substance does not change is called
(a) Change in shape (b) Physical change (c) Chemical change (d) None of the
above
27.
The process in which the electrolytes and molecules are split up into positively and negatively charge
ions is called,
(a) Electrolysis (b) Ionization (c) Deionization (d) None of the above
28.
The average relative mass of one atom of an element compared with atomic mass of one atom of carbon
taken as 12 is called
(a) Atomic mass (b) Molecular mass (c) Relative mass (d) Gram-molecular mass
29.
Symbolic representation of a molecule of substance is called:
(a) Symbol (b) Formula (c) Equation (d) None of the
above
30.
A substance in which all atoms are chemically identical having same atomic number is called:
(a) Element (b) Compound (c) Matter (d) Mixture
PHYSICS:
Directions:
APPROPRIATE ANSWER
THEMSELVES.
1.
Einstein explained the photo-electric effect making the following assumption as a basis that,
(a) The mass of the electrons increases (b) Light consists the photons or quanta
(c) The energy of light increases with speed (d) The photo-electrons are identical with atomic
electrons
2.
An elevator initially accerlerates upward from rest and ascends with uniform speed. Time period of a
simple pendulum in the elevator will,
(a) Increase and then decrease (b) Decrease and then increase (c) Increase (d) Decrease
3.
A simple arrangement by means of which e.m.f,s. are compared is known
(a) Voltmeter (b) Potentiometer
(c) Ammeter
(d) None of the above
4.
The physics underlying the operation of a refrigerator most closely resembles the physics underlying,
(a) The freezing of water (b) The melting of ice (c) The evaporation of water (d) A heat engine
5.
Let a certain body of mass m placed on a horizontal surface move down the inclined plane then
downward component of weight is
(a) .mgCos (b) .mgSin (c) .mg Tan (d) None
6.
The plane faces of two identical plano convex lens, each having focal length 40 cm are pressed against
each other to form a usual convex lens. The distance from this lens at which an object must be placed to
obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is.
(a) 40 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 60 cm
7.
The law which gives definition of force is
(a) Newtons law of gravitation (b) Third law of motion
(c) Second law of motion (d) First law of motion
8.
Hygrometer is an instrument used for measuring
(a) The compression of water vapour with temperature (b) The amount of water vapour in the
atmosphere (c) Specific gravity of air (d) The density of air
9.
An inertial frame of reference is one whose:
(a) Acceleration is zero (b) Velocity is changing with time
(c) Acceleration is uniform (d) Inertia is not zero
10.
A moving car whose engine is switched off. comes to rest after some time due to:
(a) Inertia (b) Its mass (c) Friction (d) Earths gravitation
11.
(a) When two bodies separate instantaneously after collision, the collision is said to be perfectly
elastic.
(b) When to bodies separate instantaneously after collision, the collision is said to be perfectly inelastic
12.
According to the second law of motion, acceleration is proportional to:

(a) Fores (b) Time (c) Mass (d) Distance
14.
When the object is placed at 2f of convex lens then the image formed behind the lens will be
A) At the focus B) At 2f C) Beyond 2f D) Between f and 2f
15.
When the object is placed at principal focus of a convex lens then the image is formed at
A) Same distance B) Infinity C) Same side of lens D) Centre of
Curvature
16.
A second is defined as the duration of vibration of

1.
2.
3.
4.
Carbon atom
Cesium atom
Radium atom
Nitrogen atom
17.
The equation of state for n moles of an ideal gas is PV=nRT. The SI unit of universal gas
constant R is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Erg K-1 mole-1

Watt K-1 mole-1
Newton K-4 mole-1
Joule K-1(K mole) -1
18.
Two farces of same magnitude are acting on an object, the magnitude of their resultant is
minimum if the angle between them is
1.
2.
3.
4.
45
60
90
180
19.
If two forces each of magnitude 5N act along the same line on a body, then the magnitude of
their resultant will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
5N
10N
20N
30N
20.
Applied force F on a body of mass m, moving with acceleration a is
1.
2.
3.
4.
m/a
a/m
ma
m:a
21.
A force of 1000N acts on a body for 0.01 sec. And changes its velocity from 10m/s to 20m/s,
what will be the impulse?
1.
2.
3.
4.
100 N-sec
50 N-sec
10 N-sec
5 N-sec
22.
When a projectile moves upwards, its vertical component of velocity
1.
2.
3.
4.
Remains constant
Decreases
Increases
Becomes equal to horizontal velocity
23.
At the highest point, a projectile has its vertical component of velocity equal to
1. Maximum
2. Minimum
3. Equal to horizontal component of velocity
4. Equal to initial velocity

24.
The center of gravity of a cylinder is at
1.
2.
3.
4.
The center of the top of the cylinder

The center of the bottom of the cylinder
A point on curved side of the cylinder
The mid-point of axis
25.
The center of gravity of a cylinder is at
1.
2.
3.
4.
The center of the top of the cylinder

The center of the bottom of the cylinder
A point on curved side of the cylinder
The mid-point of axis
26.
Angular momentum is defined as
1.
2.
3.
4.
The dot product of position vector and linear momentum

The cross product of position vector and linear momentum
The simple product of position vector and liner momentum
The product of distance and liner momentum
27.
Newtons Law of Gravitation states that the force of attraction between two bodies is directly
proportional to
1.
2.
3.
4.
Product of mass and distance between them

Square of the distance between them
Product of their masses
Product of square of their masses
28.
If distance between two bodies is doubled and their masses are also doubled the gravitational
force will
1. Increase four times
2. Decrease four times

3. Remain constant
4. None of these
29.
The work done by a force acting on a body is maximum when
1.
2.
3.
4.
The displacement is zero

The force is parallel to the displacement
The force is perpendicular to the displacement
The force is anti-parallel to the displacement
30.
If a force F moves a body with velocity V then power is
1.
2.
3.
4.
FV
F*V
F+V
FV
ENGLISH :
Directions:
For each question below you are given choices. SELECT ANY ONE THAT IS MOST
APPROPRIATE ANSWER
SENTENCE COMPLETION
Directions for Q 1 - 3
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that so meth ing has been
omitted. Beneath in sentence are fiv e
lettered words or sets of wo rds. Choose the word or set of words that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
Miss Watson termed Hocks behavior _____ because in her opinion noting could excuse his
1.
deliberate disregard of her commands.
A. devious B. intolerant
C. Irrevocable D. indefensible
E. Boisterous
2.
Either the surfing at Maui is______, or I went there on an off day.
A. Consistent B. Thrilling
C. Invigorating D. Overrated
E. Scenic
3.
Your ______ remarks spoil the effect of your speech; try not to stray from your subject.
A. innocuous B. Digressive
C. Derogatory D. Persistent
E. Enigmatic
ANALOGIES
Direction:
Each question below consists of a related pairs of words or phrases, followed by five lettered pairs of
words or phrases,
Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
4.
TELLER : BANK ::
(a)
Artist : museum
(b)
Cashier : check
(c)
Waiter : restaurant
(d)
Borrower : loan
(e)
Mourner : funeral
5.
INNING : BASEBALL ::
(a)
round : boxing
(b)
puck : hockey
(c)
touchdown : football
(d)
serve : tennis
(e)
outing : hiking
6.
DEGREE : TEMPERATURE ::
(a)
ounce : weight
(b)
fathom : volume
(c)
mass : energy
(d)
time : length
(e)
light : heat
7.
PICK : GUITAR ::
(a)
peg : ukelele
(b)
string : banjo
(c)
pipe : organ
(d)
bow : violin
(e)
head : tambourine
ANTONYM
Direction:
In each of the following antonym questions, a word printed in capital letters precedes five lettered
words or phrases. From these five lettered words or phrases, pick the one most nearly opposite in meaning
to
the capitalized word.
8.
NERVOUS:
(A) Courageous (B) Puzzle
(C) Bold
(D) Trainee
9.
NOTORIOUS:
(A) Renowned (B) Invincible (C) Inactive (D) Fashionable
10.
NOCTURNAL:
(A) Patrolling (B) Daily
(C) Harsh (D) Marauding
11.
OBDURATE:
(A) Fleeting (B) Finite
(C) Yielding (D) Permanent
READING COMPREHENSION
Direction:
Please read the passage below and answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied.
Passage:
To be happy and really safe, one ought to have at least two or three hobbies and they must all be real. It is
no
use starting late in life to say I will take an interest in this or that. man may acquire great knowledge of
topics unconnected with his daily work and yet hardly get any benefit or relief.
QUESTIONS
12.
The writer argues that for real happiness
A) More than one hobbies are preferable B) Two or three hobbies are essential
C) Hobbies are quite important D) Hobbies should be interesting
13.
The phrase ought to in the first sentence suggests
A) Liking
B) Likelihood
C) Compulsion D) Preference
14.
The words this or that in the second sentence refer to
A) Hobbies
B) Topics
C) Daily work D) None of the above

15.
Select the choice closest in meaning to the word hardly in the last sentence
A) Rarely
B) Never
C) Infrequently D) Scarcely
NOTE
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to improve it further and appreciate your suggestions and feedback. You may
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NATIONAL UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCES &

C) Organic molecules D) Inorganic molecules

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sin 100 sin 600

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