PROGRESS TEST YR 2

GENERAL MODULE
2009/2010 6TH BATCH
1. The rate of absorption of orally administered drugs
A. increases with high degree of ionization.
B. decreases with high degree of lipid solubility.
C. increases with small molecular size.
D. increases with intestinal motility.
E. is high in stomach if the drug is weakly acidic.
2. Regarding active transport of molecules across the biological membranes:
A. It is a saturable process.
B. Concentration of transporter molecule affects the pharmacokinetics of drugs.
C. Genetic polymorphism affecting transporters affinity for substrate affects the
pharmacokinetics of drugs.
D. P-glycoprotein is involved in active transport of xenobiotics.
E. Glucose absorption by sodium-glucose transporter in intestines is an example of secondary
active transport.
3. Highly plasma protein bound drugs
A. tend to have smaller volume of distribution.
B. tend to have longer duration of action.
C. are eliminated following zero order kinetics.
D. undergo slow clearance, if actively secreted by kidney tubules.
E. do not necessarily displace each other.
4. Phase II reactions
A. are conjugation reactions with endogenous substances.
B. require cytochrome P450 enzymes.
C. involving N-acetyltransferase are affected by genetic polymorphism.
D. involving glucuronidation favour excretion in bile.
E. cause rapid hepatic biotransformation of succinylcholine.
5. Regarding renal excretion of drugs:
A. Highly plasma protein bound drugs undergo glomerular filtration.
B. A change in urinary pH affects tubular reabsorption.
C. Organic acids and bases are excreted by tubular secretion.
D. High protein binding inhibits excretion by tubular secretion.
E. Probenecid decreases renal excretion of penicillin.
6. Clearance of a drug
A. predicts the rate of elimination in relation to drugs concentration.
B. following first order kinetics involves elimination of a constant fraction.
C. increases with an increase in concentration for drugs that follow zero order kinetics.
D. is one of the factors determining the half-life of drug.
E. with high hepatic extraction ration is affected by changes in protein binding.

7. Regarding adverse drug reactions:

A. Elderly patients are less susceptible to get adverse drug reactions.
B. Idiosyncracy is due to a genetic abnormality.
C. Teratogenicity refers to a drug-induced birth defect.
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms due to administration of typical antipsychotics is an example
of an iatrogenic effect.
E. Sulfonamides cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
8. Regarding volume of distribution (Vd):
A. It is the determinant of the size of the loading dose of a drug.
B. The concentration of drugs with a high Vd is lower in extravascular tissues than in the
vascular compartment.
C. It can greatly exceed the total volume of the body.
D. It is the relating amount of drug in the body to the plasma drug concentration.
E. It is altered for highly plasma protein bound drugs in liver disease.
9. The following routes of administration avoids first-pass effects:
A. Buccal
B. Sublingual
C. Intravenous
D. Oral
E. Transdermal
10. Regarding the molecular mechanisms of drug actions:
A. Drugs compete for the substrate binding sites of enzymes.
B. Drugs compete for the binding sites on G-proteins.
C. Regulation of ion channels not linked to receptors, involves second messengers.
D. Receptors for corticosteroids are intracellular.
E. An example of a second messenger is adenylate cyclase.
11. The following terms & their definitions are correctly matched:
A. Efficacy- ability of the drug to initiate response after the formation of drug-receptor
complex.
B. Potency- magnitude of the response produced with a maximum dose.
C. Affinity- ability of a drug to bind to receptors.
D. Partial antagonist- a drug that requires a larger dose to produce a maximum response.
E. Antagonist- a drug that has affinity but no efficacy.
12. Regarding receptors:
A. They are usually proteins.
B. An increase in the number of receptors causes tolerance.
C. The number of occupied receptors is proportional to drug effects.
D. They provide a means of blocking drug action as well as mediating drug action.
E. They determine drug action selectivity.

13. Regarding dose-response curves:

A. In the presence of non-competitive (irreversible) antagonist, the dose response curve is
shifted parallel to the right.
B. EC50 is an indication of the potency of a drug.
C. The margin of safety from a drug used to produce a specified effect is obtained from a
quantal dose-effect curve.
D. In the presence of a competitive (reversible) antagonist, the dose response curve is shifted
parallel to the right.
E. The shift of the drug-response curve to the right in the absence of an antagonist indicates
tolerance.
14. Regarding necrosis:
A. The cell membrane is intact.
B. Coagulative necrosis is seen in myocardial infarct.
C. Gangrene refers to necrosis of significant amount of tissue.
D. The gross changes are visible immediately following cell death.
E. There is influx of potassium into the cells.
15. Regarding apoptosis:
A. Cytoplasmic bleb formation is seen.
B. If decrease, it leads to formation of cancers.
C. p53 is an anti-apoptotic gene.
D. There is a total digestion of DNA material.
E. On light microscopy, preservation of the basic outline of the cell is seen.
16. Regarding acute inflammation:
A. Granuloma formation is a feature.
B. Malignancy is one of the outcomes.
C. It occurs in response to cell death.
D. Vasodilation is mediated by chemokines.
E. Increase in vascular permeability results in formation of oedema.
17. Chronic inflammation is characterized by
A. tissue destruction.
B. angiogenesis.
C. infiltration by neutrophils.
D. fibrosis.
E. an increase in tissue concentration of lymphocyte.
18. Regarding granulomatous inflammation:
A. Lepromatous leprosy is associated with good host immunity.
B. Non-caseating granuloma is seen in sarcoidosis.
C. Epithelioid cells are transformed macrophages.
D. Staphylococcus aureus infection is a cause.
E. Delayed type IV hypersensitivity is the pathogenic mechanism in tuberculosis.

19. Regarding pigmentation:

A. Bronze diabetes occurs with hemosiderin deposition in pancreas.
B. Hemochromatosis is associated with functional impairment of the organs involved.
C. Melanin is derived from hemoglobin.
D. Pearls Prussian blue is useful to demonstrate iron on microscopy.
E. Lipofuscin is an aging pigment.
20. Factors that promote wound healing include
A. protein deficiency.
B. fibrin.
C. diabetes mellitus.
D. administration of growth factors.
E. foreign body.
21. Regarding second intention healing:
A. It is the type of healing seen in clean incised wounds.
B. Contracture is a complication.
C. There is minimal scarring.
D. Acute inflammation is seen in early stages.
E. Granulation tissue formation occurs.
22. Regarding cell growth disturbances:
A. Atrophy involves necrosis of cells.
B. Dysplasia predisposes to neoplasia.
C. Growth factors inhibit cell growth.
D. The myocardium of a hypertensive patient contains more myocardial cells than normal.
E. Bronchial epithelium of chronic smokers is metaplastic.
23. Regarding malignant tumours:
A. They are well encapsulated masses.
B. They exhibit pleomorphic nuclei.
C. If they arise from epithelial cells, are sarcomas.
D. Carcinoma frequently metastasis via blood vessels.
E. Majority of carcinoma have exophytic growth.
24. Regarding thromboembolism:
A. Turbulent blood flow is a predisposing factor to thrombus formation.
B. Organization is a sequelae of a thrombus.
C. Red thrombus is characteristic of arterial thrombosis.
D. Brain infarction is a complication of mural thrombus.
E. Pulmonary embolism is a complication of deep venous thrombosis.
25. Regarding ischaemia:
A. It occurs when the blood supply to a tissue is inadequate to meet the tissues metabolic
demands.
B. Artherosclerosis is a cause.
C. Arterial emboli to the brain cause ischaemic necrosis of brain tissue.
D. Ischaemic necrosis of the extremities is a serious problem in the hypertension patients.
E. Ischaemic encephalopathy is usually as a result of hypotension.

26. Regarding haemorrhage and abnormal haemostasis:

A. Bleeding time is prolonged in patients with thrombocytopaenia.
B. Prothrombin Time (PT) is prolonged in the liver disease.
C. Vitamin K is needed in the synthesis if factor V.
D. Dengue causes increased capillary fragility.
E. Haemarthrosis is a presentation of patients with von Willebrands disease.
27. The clinical outcomes and the different stages of shock are correctly matched:
A. Tachycardia
Non-progessive stage (early stage)
B. Renal conservation of fluid
Non-progessive stage
C. Mental confusion
Progressive stage
D. Decrease urine output
Progressive stage
E. Acute tubular necrosis
Irreversible stage (advanced stage)
28. Regarding basic epidemiologic concepts:
A. Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or
events in specified populations.
B. An epidemic refers to a disease that has a low rate of occurrence but that is constantly
present in a community.
C. Descriptive epidemiology determines association between agent, host and environmental
factors in disease occurrence.
D. A steep upslope and a comparatively gradual down-slope of the epidemic curve indicate a
point source of epidemic.
E. Isolation is separation of the infected person from well persons during the period of
communicability.
29. Regarding prokaryotic cell:
A. It is unicellular.
B. Its nucleus is well developed.
C. Capsule is present in all bacteria.
D. It has mitochondria.
E. Its cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
30. Regarding bacterial genetics:
A. Bacterial DNA is circular.
B. Plasmids are chromosomal DNA.
C. Transposons can insert into target DNA without homology.
D. Mutation can be induced by acridine dyes.
E. A missense mutation causes no change in the activity of the proteins.
31. Regarding Gram positive bacteria:
A. Enterotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus causes food poisoning.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae colonises the genitourinary tract.
C. The capsule Streptococcus pneumoniae is antiphagocytic.
D. Clostridium bolutinum is a spore forming aerobe.
E. Overgrowth of Clostridium difficile is due to exposure to antibiotics.

32. Regarding Gram negative bacteria:

A. Escherichia coli is arranged in chains.
B. Salmonella typhi posseses virulence antigen.
C. Acinetobacter sp. causes hospital-acquired infections.
D. Haemophilus influenzae is the cause of common cold.
E. Vibrio cholera infection is due to consumption of contaminated sea-food.
33. Regarding bacterial pathogenicity:
A. Pathogenicity is the ability of a bacteria to cause infection.
B. Acute infection is partial recovery of infection and continuously demonstrate symptoms.
C. Adherence to mucous membranes is usually by pili.
D. Biological activity of endotoxin is associated with lipopolysaccharide.
E. Kochs postulate is to establish the treatment of a disease.
34. Regarding sterilization:
A. Pasteurization is one of its methods.
B. Radiation is used in the industry for sterilization of plastic goods.
C. Heat is the method of choice for sterilization of antibiotics.
D. Steam under pressure is able to kill mycobacteria.
E. Bacillus cereus spores are used to monitor the satisfactory performances of autoclave.
35. Regarding Mycobacterium:
A. It is a slow growing acid-fast bacilli.
B. The organisms can be stained by Ziehl-Neelsen staining.
C. Mycobacterium leprae can be cultured on LJ medium.
D. Cell mediated immunity plays an important role in mycobacterial infection.
E. Atypical mycobacteria are non-pathogenic organisms.
36. Regarding laboratory diagnosis of bacterial infection:
A. Gram stain detects the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum.
B. Fluorescent microscopy is used in laboratory diagnosis for syphilis.
C. ELISA detects the presence of nucleic acid.
D. Elek test is used to determine the toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
E. A four fold-rise in antibody indicates acute infection.
37. Regarding anaerobes:
A. They obtain energy from fermentation.
B. Actinomyces sp. produces spores.
C. Clostridium perfringens causes gangrene of soft tissues.
D. Foul-smelling discharge is an indicative of an infection.
E. They are culturable on artificial media.
38. Regarding spirochaetes:
A. Syphillis is transmitted by arthropods.
B. Treponema pallidum can be examined under dark-field microscopy.
C. Non-specific regins can be used in serology diagnosis of syphilis.
D. Borellia burgdoferi causes Lyme disease.
E. Leptospira interrogans causes relapsing fever.

39. Regarding mycoplasma:

A. They are smaller than viruses.
B. They are resistant to penicillin.
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a pathogen that originated from animals.
D. Mycoplasma hominis infects upper respiratory tract.
E. Mycoplasma genitalium causes non-gonococcal urethritis.
40. Virus
A. is an intracellular parasite.
B. contains both DNA and RNA.
C. replicates by binary fission.
D. is susceptible to the action of antibiotics.
E. can be non-enveloped.
41. Regarding measles:
A. The virus spreads through respiratory route.
B. Human is the only natural host.
C. Infection confers life-long immunity.
D. Kopliks spot is a clinical presentation.
E. Infection is prevented by vaccination.
42. The following viruses and cancers are correctly matched:
A. Human papilloma virus - oropharyngeal carcinoma
B. Epstein-Barr virus
- Burkitts lymphoma
C. Cytomegalovirus
- nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. HTLV-1
- adult T-cell leukemia
E. Hepatitis C
- hepatocellular carcinoma
43. The pathogenesis of viral infection:
A. Virus may produce disease on site distant from site of entry.
B. Virus can spread in host through nervous system.
C. Viral infection may result in latent infection.
D. Interferon blocks viral replication and protein synthesis.
E. Viral infection induces only cell-mediated immunity.
44. Regarding laboratory diagnosis of viral infection:
A. Diagnosis of most viral infections are mainly based on serological tests.
B. Unclotted blood sample is collected for the diagnosis for HIV.
C. Viral isolation is a rapid diagnostic method.
D. Viruses can be seen under electron microscope.
E. Embryonated chicken eggs can be used for viral isolation.
45. Regarding fungi:
A. The aerial hyphae of yeasts have reproductive structures.
B. Penicillium mannerfeii is dimorphic.
C. MacConkey agar is the media for culture.
D. Capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans is detected by Indian ink preparation.
E. Candida albicans infection can be diagnosed by Germ-tube test.

46. Factors to be considered during the prevention and control of parasitic disease
include
A. Modes of transmission.
B. Hosts personal hygiene.
C. Drug resistance.
D. Life-span of the parasite.
E. Environmental conditions.
47. The degree of pathogenicity of protozoa depends on the following factors:
A. Species of protozoa
B. Age of the host
C. Climatic conditions
D. Immune status of the host
E. Dose of the infective stage
48. Regarding host-parasite relationship:
A. Obligatory parasites are in the host all the time.
B. Host susceptibility depends on the nutritional status.
C. Parasite undergoes sexual reproduction in the final host.
D. Dead-end host permits transmission to the definite host.
E. Carrier host harbors parasite without clinical symptoms.
49. Regarding helminthes:
A. All trematodes are hermaphrodites.
B. Their transmission occurs through autoinfection.
C. Night soil is the source of helminthic infections.
D. Cestodes require one host to complete life cycle.
E. Diagnosis is based on the detection of eggs and larvae in the stools.
50. Regarding arthropods:
A. They are invertebrates with jointed appendages.
B. They are bilateral symmetrical.
C. They are classified according to their habitat.
D. Mosquitoes undergo hemimetabolous life cycle.
E. They act as intermediate host for parasitic diseases.
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