PROGRESS TEST

MODULE: GENERAL
YEAR 2 2008/2009 5TH BATCH
1. Regarding mechanism of drug action
a. An agonist has affinity but no efficacy
b. Most drugs act through receptor mechanisms
c. When all receptors are occupied by full agonists, the addition of a
full agonist will reduce the effect of the agonist
d. The dose response curve of an agonist is sigmoid in shape
e. In clinical practice, the efficacy of a drug is more important than the
potency
2. Regarding pharmacokinetics
a. A loading dose is given in order to achieve a quick therapeutic
effect
b. Time to reach steady state is shortened if a loading dose is given
c. Bioavailability is influenced by protein binding of the drug
d. The plasma steady state level of a drug is reached after 4 to 5 half
lives when the dosing rate is constant
e. The rate of elimination of drugs following zero-order kinetics is
dependent on the blood level of the drug
3. Non-competitive antagonist
a. Shifts the log dose response curve to a parallel manner to the
right
b. Occupies the receptor irreversibly
c. Have affinity to the receptor
d. Haves efficacy
e. Block the receptor for a long time ( days or longer)
4. Regarding drug toxicity
a. Side effects are the effects other than the desired effect of the drug
b. Tolerance is a state of increased responsiveness to the effect of the
drug
c. Idiosyncrasy is a genetically determined abnormal response to a
drug
d. LD50 is the dose that kills 50% of the experimental animals
e. Margin of safety is a better measurement of drug safety than the
therapeutic index
5. Cytochrome P450 enzymes
a. Are present in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes
b. Are involved in Phase II metabolism
c. Are inducible enzymes
d. Are inhibited by many drugs
e. Exhibit genetic polymorphism

6. Drugs
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

with a high 1st pass effect

Have low oral bioavailability
Are excreted unchanged by the kidneys
Are poorly absorbed
Achieve higher plasma levels in the presence of hepatic failure
Have a shorter half life

7. Protein binding of a drug is affected by

a. Pregnancy
b. pH
c. liver disease
d. renal disease
e. body weight
8. Competitive antagonists
a. shifts the dose response curve of an agonist to the right
b. acts at the same receptor site as the agonist
c. binds irreversibly to the receptor
d. have efficacy
e. prevent binding of the agonist with the receptors
9. Plasma half life of a drug is
a. inversely proportional to its volume of distribution
b. useful to determine the appropriate dosage interval
c. affected with changes in its hepatic metabolism
d. inversely proportional to the rate of clearance
e. useful to determine the amount taken to achieve a steady state
10.Regarding pharmacokinetics
a. lipid soluble are readily absorbed across mucous membrane
b. ionized state of a drug helps in its passage across the membranes
c. basic drugs are ionized to a greater extent in an acidic than a basic
environment
d. drugs with high volume of distribution have higher concentration in
vascular compartment than in tissues
e. sublingual route of administration bypasses the 1 st pass effect
11.I/ V administration
a. Is dangerous in case of oily solutions
b. Is not suitable for unconscious patients
c. Produces faster response than oral administration
d. Is contraindicated in children
e. Is not subject to 1st pass effect

12.Bioavailability of a drug
a. Is a measure of availability of a drug from natural sources
b. Is a measure of stability of a drug to the plasma
c. Is a measure of the proportion of a drug appearing in the plasma
d. Is 100% after I/V administration
e. Depends on the plasma half-life of a drug
13.Regarding drug excretion
a. The kidney is the main organ of drug excretion
b. Bound drugs are excreted through the glomerulus
c. Active secretion of weak acid drugs by the proximal tubules occurs
by a different transport mechanism to that of weak basic drugs
d. Drugs which are unionized will be reabsorbed by the kidney tubules
e. The lung is an important organ for excretion of anaesthetic gasses
14.Regarding necrosis
a. It is a reversible cell injury
b. Liquefactive necrosis is seen in cerebral infarct
c. Fat necrosis is seen in trauma of the breast
d. The nuclear morphology remains unchanged
e. There is an influx of calcium into the cell
15.Regarding apoptosis
a. Cytoplasmic bleb formation is seen
b. It occurs in embryogenesis
c. p53 is a pro-apoptotic gene
d. There is total digestion of the DNA material
e. On light microscopy, preservation of the basic outline of the cell is
seen
16.The sequelae of acute inflammation includes
a. Resolution
b. Malignancy
c. Fibrosis
d. Progression to chronic inflammation
e. Abscess formation
17.Adaptive changes in cell growth and differentiation includes
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Atrophy
d. Metaplasia
e. Neoplasia

18.Factors that delay wound healing includes

a. Protein deficiency
b. Vitamin C deficiency
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Administration of growth factors
e. Foreign body
19.Regarding granulomatous inflammation
a. Involvement of peripheral nerve is seen in tuberculosis leprosy
b. Lepromatous leprosy is associated with good host immunity
c. Mycobacterium leprae is the causative organism of tuberculosis
d. Tubercle bacilli can be demonstrated within the epitheloid cells
e. Delayed type IV hypersensitity is the pathogenic mechanism in
tuberculosis
20.Regarding pigmentation
a. Bronze diabetes occurs with haemolysis deposition in the pancreas
b. Haemachromatosis is associated with functional impairment of the
organs involved
c. Melanin is derived from haemoglobin
d. Pearls Prussion blue is useful to demonstrate iron on microscopy
e. Lipofuscin is an aging pigment
21.The following are characteristics of benign tumour
a. Histologically, the cells resemble the cell of origin
b. Invasion of blood vessels
c. Invasion of surrounding tissues
d. Expansible growth
e. Abnormal mitosis
22.The following is/are the cause(s) of thrombosis
a. Hypertension
b. Cigarette smoking
c. Hypercholesterolemia
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Prolonged bed rest
23.Regarding haemorrhage and abnormal haemostasis
a. Bleeding time is prolonged in patients with thrombocytopenia
b. Prothrombin time ( PT) is prolonged in liver disease
c. Vitamin K is needed for the synthesis of factor V
d. Dengue causes increased capillary fragility
e. Haemarthrosis is a presentation of patients with Von Willebrands
disease
24.Regarding ischemia
a. It occurs when the blood supply to a tissue is inadequate to meet
the tissues metabolic demands
b. Vasculitis is a complication
c. Arterial emboli to the brain causes ischemic necrosis of brain tissue

d. Ischemic necrosis of the extremities is a serious problem in

hypertension patients
e. Atherosclerosis of the major coronary arteries is responsible for the
vast majority of the cases of ischemic heart disease
25.Regarding 1st intention healing
a. It is the type of healing seen in ulcers
b. Contracture is a complication
c. There is minimal scarring
d. Acute inflammation is seen in the early stages
e. Granulation tissue formation occurs
26.Regarding shock
a. Heart failure is a complication of hypovolaemic shock
b. Pulmonary oedema occurs in shock
c. Acute ulceration of the stomach complicates shock
d. The secretory function of the kidneys is always disturbed by shock
e. Adrenal haemorrhage occurs in the majority of severe shock cases
27.Regarding calcification
a. Metastatic calcification is associated with hypercalcemia
b. The most common site of calcium deposition is in atherosclerosis
c. Calcium deposition in tissues is a normal physiological mechanism
d. Histologically, it appears as eosinophilic debris
e. Dystrophic calcification occurs in the site of necrosis
28.Regarding prokaryotic cell
a. It is unicellular
b. Its nucleus is well developed
c. All bacterial cells contain envelope
d. Mitochondria are present
e. Cell wall consist of peptidoglycan
29.Regarding infection
a. Secondary infection occurs after another infection
b. A carrier is a person who is asymptomatic, but the infectious agent
is present
c. igM is the 1st antibody to appear in acute infection
d. Kochs postulates is to establish an organism is the cause of a
disease
e. The period between infection and the onset of symptoms is called
the incubation period
30.Regarding bacterial genetics
a. Bacterial DNA is circular
b. Plasmids are chromosomal DNA
c. Transposons can be inserted into target DNA without homology
d. Mutations can be induced by acridine dyes
e. A Missense mutation causes no change in the activity of the protein
31.Regarding disinfection
a. 70% alcohol is an antiseptic agent
b. Disinfection of the skin for surgery is carried out by using alcohol

c. Disinfection of water is done by phenol

d. It is the most suitable method for sterilizing culture media
e. Disinfection by copper sulphate is much more effective against
algae and molds by bacteria
32.Regarding staphylococcus
a. Staphylococcus is a gram positive coccus in clusters
b. Staphylococcus aureus is a normal flora on human skin
c. Staphylococcus aureus gives a negative catalase test
d. Catheter associated infections are caused by Staphylococcus
epidermidis
e. Staphylococcus aureus produces coagulase enzymes
33.The following are gram positive bacteria that causes diarrhoeal diseases
a. Escherichia coli
b. Camplybacter jejuni
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
e. Helicobacter pylori
34.Regarding mycobacteria
a. Acid fast, spore forming bacterium
b. A thick mycolate-rich outer layer covering functions as an efficient
barrier
c. Kinyoun stain is an acid fast staining technique
d. Mycobacterium leprae can be cultured on LJ media
e. Mycobacterium kansasii causes pulmonary disease in
immunocompromised patients
35.Regarding spirochetes
a. Syphilis is transmitted by arthropods
b. Leptospira interrogans causes relapsing fever
c. Lyme disease is caused by Borelia burgdoferi
d. Treponema palladium can be examined under light microscope
e. Borrelia reccurentis is capable of antigenic variation

36.The following are true of anaerobic bacteria

a. Facultative bacteria uses oxygen as terminal oxygen acceptor
b. Animal bites are one of the routes of transmission of anaerobes
c. Bacteriodes fragillis is found in the gastrointestinal tract
d. Actinomyces sp. is characterized by its branching rods
e. Infection by Clostridium tetani is strictly localized to the area of
infectious tissue
37.The following are true of the characteristics of mycoplasma
a. It possesses double layered membrane
b. Its colony appears like fried eggs
c. It is sensitive to penicillin

d. It is a gram positive rod

e. It is culturable in blood agar
38.Regarding rickettsiae
a. It is best observed by Giemsas stain
b. It survives well in dry and harsh environment
c. It multiplies into endothelial cells
d. It is diagnosed by direct microscopy of tissues
e. Ricketsia ricketsii causes scrub typhus
39.The following are true regarding specimen collection and transport
a. Blood cultures are best performed when the patient is having spikes
of temperature
b. Throat is used for the diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis
c. Urine for culture is to be transported to the laboratory immediately
d. Amies media is used to transport pus swabs for bacterial culture
e. Collection of samples from sterile sites requires adherence to
aseptic techniques
40.Regarding viral structures
a. Virus with a complex viral structure
b. All viruses posses an envelope
c. Naked viruses are easily damaged by membrane destroying agents
d. Viral nucleic acid is protected by a capsid
e. Al l viruses possesses spikes of attachment
41.The following are true regarding influenza virus
a. It is a DNA virus
b. It can cause Reyes syndrome
c. Annual vaccination is recommended for elderly people
d. Influenza virus type C exhibits antigenic shifts
e. Influenza virus type A cause epidemic outbreak of influenza

42.Viruses that are associated with human cancer include

a. HIV
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Measles virus
d. Hepatitis C virus
e. Rubella virus
43.Regarding viruses and its portal of entry
a. Dengue
: skin
b. Rhinovirus
: GIT
c. Influenza virus
: Respiratory tract
d. Human immunodeficiency virus : urogenital tract
e. Human papilloma virus
: blood
44.The following are rapid diagnostic methods for viral diseases
a. Immunofluorescence assay
b. ELISA
c. Heamabsorption inhibition test

d. Virus isolation
e. PCR
45.The following are true about fungi
a. Cryptococcus neoformans is a yeast
b. Molds can grow in anaerobic conditions
c. Conidia are spores that are derived from asexual reproduction
d. Sabarouds dextrose agar is the media for growth of Candida
albicans
e. Lactophenol blue preparation identifies fungi species based on
morphological structures
46.Factors to be considered during the prevention and control of parasitic
disease include
a. Modes of transmission
b. Personal hygiene
c. Drug resistance
d. Life-span of the parasite
e. Environment conditions
47.The following are true of host parasite relationship
a. Symbiosis is a successful host-parasite relationship
b. Obligatory parasite occasionally live on the host
c. The capability of a parasite to cause a disease is known as
pathogenesis
d. Acquired immunity is conferred by a host immune response to
previous parasitic infection
e. Parasitic infection gives rise to clinical manifestation
48.The following are true of protozoa
a. Most of them are pathogens
b. They are classified as prokaryotes
c. Transmission is through consumption of raw meat
d. One of the infective stages is oocyst
e. Their infections can be diagnosed by tissue biopsy
49.The following are true of helminths
a. All trematodes are hermaphrodites
b. Flukes are classified according to their habitat
c. Transmission of helminths occur through autoinfection
d. Brugia malayi is an important cestode in Malaysia
e. Taenia solium is more pathogenic than taenia saginata
50.The following are true of arthropods
a. They are bilaterally asymmetrical
b. They are invertebrate with joined appendages
c. They play a role in forensic investigation
d. Flies undergo hemimetabolous life cycle
e. Mosquitoes transmit plasmodium trough transovarial route
ANSWERS

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A
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B
T
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C
T
F
T
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F
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D
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F

E
T
F
T
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T
F
F
T
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T
F
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F
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F
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F