Micro - para FINAL

MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
1.
Many of this type of bacteria do not possess superoxide dismutase and catalase
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. microaerophiles
p. 66
2.
It is the period when the bacterium is assessing the nutrients present in medium; the
bacterium does not divide but there is an intense metabolic activity. The phase of
bacterial growth is
A. Lag
B. Log
C. Stationary
D. Decline
p. 53
3.
Which the best to sterilize scissors and other sharps?

A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Formaldehyde
C. Iodophor
D. Phenol
p. 60
4.
These are groups of genes that are clustered together in the DNA of some bacterial
species and which may enable them to invade a host
A. Pathogenicity island
B. Episomes
C. Transposons
D. Replicons
p. 98
5.
Which is true about the bacterial chromosome?

A. Contains histones that stabilize the DNA
B. Composed of a single pair of homologous chromosomes
C. Replicates in a very different manner from that of eukaryotic chromosomes
D. Contain single copy of each gene
p. 99
6.
A non-encapsulated strain of Hemophilus influenzae acquires the gene for capsule

production from a DNA extract of another encapsulated strain. The event that has
occurred is
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. Transcription
p. 106
7.
What is the substance primarily responsible for the structural integrity of the bacterial
cell wall and is susceptible to lysozyme?
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Teichoic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Lipopolysaccharide
p. 22
8.
A hospitalized patient with dysuria and suprapubic pain is treated with ciprofloxacin.
What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?
A. It inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B. It inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
C. It inhibits protein subunits by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
D. It inhibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)
p. 164
9.
Which bacterial structure may carry gene for antibiotic resistance?

A. Mesosome
B. Periplasm
C. Plasmid
D. Outer membrane
p. 98
10.
What is the predominant indigenous flora of the colon?

A. Anaerobic, gram-negative, non-spore-forming bacteria
B. Anaerobic, gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria
C. Aerobic, gram-negative, non-spore-forming bacteria
D. Aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria
p. 199
11.
Which of the following is the true regarding the bacterial cell?

A. He motility of bacteria is due to flagella, axial filaments or cilia
B. The ability to colonize cell surfaces is dependent on toxic production
C. The ability to survive in soil for a long period of time is dependent on
the production of endospores
D. It has the same ribosomes as that of a eukaryotic cells
p. 35
12.
Which of the following is the counterpart of mitochondria in a bacterial cell?

A. Cell wall
B. Endospores
C. Ribosomes
D. Cell membrane
p. 17
13.
Which of the following agents possess either DNA or RNA?

A. Viruses
B. Prions
C. Bacteria
D. Fungi
p. 2
2
14.
Most pathogenic microorganism grow best at the temperature range of about _____.
A. 15-20C
B. 30-37C
C. 50-60C
D. 80-100C
p. 65
15.
A 22-year-old woman came in due to meningococcemia. Few hours after the admission,
the patient experienced disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The patient
shock was due to what component of the causative agent?
A. Cell wall
B. Capsule
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Endospores
pp. 155-156
16.
Which one of the following antimicrobial agents acts on microorganisms by inhibiting

nucleic acid synthesis?
A. Streptomycin
B. Cefalexin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Erythromycin
p. 189
17.
A newborn was diagnosed with neonatal meningitis. The causative agent was found out
to be isolated in the vagina of the mother. Which one of the following microorganisms
can be a part of the normal vaginal flora of the mother and can cause neonatal
meningitis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
p. 199
18.
Which of the following is the C3 activation unit in the classical complement pathway?
A. C1q
B. C3
C. C4b, C2a
D. C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9
p. 136
19.
The classic pathway of the complement system is activated when__

A. The Fab portion of IgM binds to the C1s of the complement pathway
B. The Fc portion of IgE binds to the C1q of the complement pathway
C. The hypervariable regions of the heavy and light chains binds to the
membrane of the bacterial cell
D. The mannose binding lectin stimulates mannose associated serine protease
p. 136
20.
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cell must express which one of the
following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Class II MHC antigens
p. 139
21.
Increased susceptibility with Hepatitis virus and Candida albicans would be expected
with a deficiency of which of the following cells?
A. PMN
B. Eosinophils
C. B cells
D. T cells
p. 138
22.
In Type I hypersensitivity, the predominant antibody that is elicited is:

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
p. 140
23.
Contact dermatitis is an example of:

A. IgE mediated
B. Complement mediated
C. IgG mediated
D. Cell mediated
p. 141
24.
This immunoglobulin is important in preventing diarrhea in the newborn

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD
p. 129
25.
Main component in secondary response.

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
p. 135
26.
At birth, the main source of Hematopoetic Stem Cell is the

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone Marrow
D. Thymus
p. 126
27.
Which method will you see to detect antigens directly from tissue?
A. ELISA
B. Ouchterlony technic
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Complement fixation
p. 142
28.
Which is true about humoral immunity and antibodies?

A. Antibodies found on the surface of B cells are IgA
B. IgG has two bindings sites for an antigen
C. IgM is the main protection of the newborn up to 6 (six) months
D. The Fab region of IgE binds to mast cell receptor
p. 128
29.
Which of the following complement cascade does not involve C3b?

A. C5 convertase of the alternative pathway
B. C5 convertase of the classic pathway
C. C3 convertase of the alternative pathway
D. C3 convertase of the classic pathway
p. 136
30.
Which of the following cells is a part of the innate immune response?

A. B-lymphocytes
B. T-helper lymphocytes
C. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
p. 123
31.
Which of the following is LEAST associated with Enterohemorrahgic E. coli?

A. fermentation of sorbitol
B. strain 0157:H7
C. undercooked hamburgers
D. hemolytic-uremic syndrome
p. 253
32.
Which of the following is true about cholera and its causative agent?
A. A secretory diarrhea due to increases in cGMP in the intestinal cells
B. The stool is described as rice water-like
C. The causative agent is non-motile, nonfermentative
D. Grows poorly in medium with alkaline pH
p. 271
33.
The appearance of moistpale papules or condylomas in the anogenital area is

characteristic of
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. T. pallidum
p. 332
34.
A 4-year old Asian child develops an infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. How does
infection with this organism cause blindness?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Cataract formation
C. Hemorrhage of the anterior chamber
D. Scarring of the cornea
p.360
35.
Which is associated with atherosclerosis?

A. K. pneumoniae
B. C. trachomatis
C. S. pyogenes
D. C. pneumoniae
p.364
36.
Which of the following is LEAST effective against M. pneumoniae infection?

A. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Kanamycin
D. Vancomycin
p. 345
37.
The only disease that can be diagnosed by demonstration of spirochetes in peripheral

blood smear
A. Relapsing fever
B. Leptopirosis
C. Pinta
D. Lyme disease
p. 335
38.
Which of the following is LEAST associated with Helicopter pylori?

A. It requires at least 2% NaCl for growth (halophilic)
B. It requires increased carbon dioxide tension and decreased oxygen tension
C. It is sensitive to the acidity of the gastric juice
D. Most commonly diagnosed by the demonstration of urease production
p.275
39.
In which type of diarrhea is the use of antibiotics not recommended?

A. Salmonellosis
B. Campylobacter infection
C. Cholera
D. Shigellosis
p. 259
40.
Which causes urinary tract infection characterized by alkaline urine and formation of
urinary calculi?
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Enterobacter cloacae
p. 254
41.
Which is LEAST acceptable as specimen for the diagnosis of anaerobic infection

A. Transtracheal aspirate
B. Suprapubic aspirate
C. Vaginal swab
D. Sample of tissue from infected site
p. 309
42.
Which of the following microorganisms takes up the color of Crystal violet upon properly
performed Gram staining?
A. Neisseria gonorrheae
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas sp.
p. 208
43.
Which of the following is a Toxoid vaccine?

A. Pnuemococcal
B. Measles
C. Varicella
D. Diphtheria
p. 215
44.
The most infectious stage in pertussis is:

A. Catarrhal stage
B. Prodomal stage
C. Paroxysmal stage
D. Convalescent stage
p. 283
45.
Regarded as a TB marker in the diagnosis of tuberculous effusion:

A. Gamma interferon
B. AFB smear
C. Caseation necrosis
D. PPD positivity
p. 407
46.
Presence of immunity to C. diphtheriae is indicated by:

A. Positive elek test
B. Negative elek test
C. Positive schick test
D. Negatice schick test
p. 215
47.
Which of the following is MOST likely acquired from caves?

A. Blastomycosis
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D. Paracoccidioidomycosis
p. 642
48.
Asteroid bodies are seen tissue infected with

A. P. verrucosa
B. P. boydii
C. S. schenckii
D. L. loboi
p. 634
49.
The agents of chromomycosis are seen in infected tissues as

A. Intracellular yeast
B. Granules
C. Sclerotic bodies
D. Cigar-shaped bodies
p. 635
50.
Which of the following is NOT dimorphic?

A. P. boydii
B. H. capsulatum
C. S. schenckii
D. C. immitis
p. 636
51.
The agent of blastomycosis are seen in infected tissues as

A. Intracellular yeast
B. Single budding yeast
C. Multiple budding yeast
D. Cigar-shaped bodies
p. 642
52.
The physician closely monitored the patients serum creatinine and ion levels. The
patient is taking certain anti-fungal drug. What possible antifungal agent may affect the
renal function of this patient?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Terbinafine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Amphotericin B
p. 653
53.
The primary site of echovirus multiplication in the human host is

A. The muscular system
B. The alimentary tract
C. The anterior horn cells
D. The respiratory system
p. 487
54.
Which of the following properties of polioviruses is not shared by rhinovirus?

A. Icosahedral symmetry
B. Resistance to lipid solvents
C. Naked virus
D. Stability at acid pH (pH3.0)
p. 489
55.
Segmented, double-stranded RNA genome that is a common cause of

viral gastroenteritis?
A. Astrovirus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Calicivirus
D. Rotavirus
pp. 505-507
56.
Diagnostic of Congenital rubella is the demonstration of rubella antibodies like:

A. Maternal IgM
B. Neonatal IgM
C. Neonatal IgA
D. Maternal IgA
p. 568
57.
A viral cause of nephropathy in immunocompromised patient is

A. Human papillomavirus, all types
B. Human papillomavirus, low-risk types
C. Hepatitis C
D. Polyomavirus BK
pp. 598-599
58.
Which of the following individuals may be at increased risk of acquiring and

HIV infection?
A. A pregnant mother with a seafarers husband
B. A secretary at an AIDS institute
C. A doctor with a colleague that is HIV positive
D. A male celebrity who has multiple sexual partner including a prostitute
pp. 616-617
59.
Type of papillomavirus that is commonly associated with cervical carcinoma

A. Type 1
B. Type 6
C. Type 9
D. Type 18
p. 601
60.
Progressive Multifocal leukuencepalopathy is associated with a virus that is described

as __.
A. ssDNA, icosahedral, naked
B. dsDNA, helical, enveloped
C. dsDNA, icosahedral, naked
D. ssRNA, segmented, naked
pp. 597-599
9
61.
Which of the following virus that can enter a skin through abrasions?
A. Adenovirus
B. Polyomavirus
C. Papillomavirus
D. Rhinovirus
p. 599
62.
A 6-year old child had recently had fifth disease. Her 43-year old mother subsequently
developed a rash and arthalgia. Which one of the following best describes the causative
agent?
A. It has the same size as poxvirus
B. It has a helical symmetry
C. Inactivated by ether
D. A single-stranded DNA genome
pp. 414-416
63.
HIV is a retrovirus. A retrovirus is a

A. Cause tumors in mouse
B. Contain a DNA genome
C. Cause rapidly progressive neurological disease
D. Multiplies in the nucleus
p. 605
64.
Most common cause of post transfusion hepatitis

A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
p. 466
65.
Site of latent infections is at the sacral ganglia:

A. HSV 1
B. HSV 2
C. EBV
D. CMV
pp. 433-434
66.
Which of the following viruses can establish a latent infection?

A. Poxviruses
B. Rubella viruses
C. Herpesviruses
D. Coronaviruses
p. 371
67.
A 23-year-old medical student experienced fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy.

These were accompanied by lymphocytosis and atypical cells in the blood smear. True
statement regarding the causative agent
A. the major target cell of the virus is the T lymphocyte
B. the agent multiplies in the cytoplasm
C. it can be transmitted thru direct contact with the lesion
D. it possess a double-stranded DNA genome
p. 429
10
68.
The following hepatitis B marker is indicative of active viral replication

A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. Anti- HBs
D. Anti- HBe
p. 468
69.
The habitat is the large intestine.

A. Entamoeba gingivalis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Naegleria fowleri
p. 104
70.
The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica to man has

A. Pseudopodia
B. Ingested red blood cells
C. Bulls eye karyosome
D. Pointed chromatoidal bodies
pp. 103-104
71.
The most commonly involved area in Amoebiasis is the

A. Brain
B. Cecum
C. Liver
D. Recto-sigmoid region
pp. 108-109
72.
There is no increase in the number of nuclei of

A. Balantidium coli
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Entamoeba
D. Giardia lamblia
p. 215
73.
Tissue invasion is relatively slow and tends to stimulate granuloma formation

A. Acanthamoeba castellanii
B. Balantidium coli
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Naegleria fowleri
p. 142
74.
Mosquito vector of Malaria in the Philippines is

A. Aedes aegypti
B. Anopheles flavirostris
C. Culex quinquefasciatus
D. Mansonia annulata
p. 164
11
75.
There is secondary exo-erythrocytic phase in

A. Benign tertian malaria
B. Malignant tertian malaria
C. Quartan malaria
D. Sub-tertian malaria
p. 177
76.
The duration of the Erythrocytic-Schizogonic Cycle is 72 hours.

A. A. Benign tertian malaria
B. Malignant tertian malaria
C. Quartan malaria
D. Sub-tertian malaria
pp. 184-191
77.
The gametocytes of the organism are described as banana or crescent-shaped.

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium vivax
pp. 188-190
78.
Produces rectal prolapse in heavy infection especially among children

A. Capillaria philippinensis
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Trchuris trichiura
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
p. 243
79.
Bachman intradermal test & Xenodiagnosis are use for the diagnosis of infection cause
by
C. Trchuris trichiura
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
p. 239
80.
The most common cause of Greeping Eruption or Cutaneous Larva Migran

A. Ancytostoma braziliense
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. toxocara canis
p. 281
81.
The most common cause of Visceral Larva Migran

A. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Strngyloides stercolaris
D. Toxocara canis
p. 325
12
82.
Produces autoinfection to man

A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Necator americanus
D. Strongyloides stercolaris
p. 256
83.
What parasite produces Iron deficiency anemia to man?

A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Necator americanus
C. Strongyloides stercolaris
D. Trichuris trichiura
p. 284
84.
Associated with Noctrunal Pruritus Ani.

p. 304
85.
Graham Scotch tape technique is used for the diagnosis of the infection caused by
A. A. Ascaris lumbricoides
p. 305
86.
What parasite sucks and ingests blood?

B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis
p. 284
87.
What parasite shows Tramway sign in the X-ray?

p. 317
88.
The infective stage of the parasite is found in crabs or crayfishes

A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Echinostoma ilocanum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Paragonimus westermani
p. 465
13
89.
What parasite is associated with neoplasm of the biliary duct or cancer of the liver?
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Opisthorchis felineus
p. 477
90.
What parasite produces infection that stimulates tuberculosis?

B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Opisthorchis felineus
pp. 467-468
91.
What is the infective stage of Schistosoma to man?

A. Cercariae
B. Embryonated egg
C. Metacerciae
D. Miracidium
p. 417
92.
Molluscan host of Schistosoma in the Philippines is

A. Australorbis mystax
B. Biomphalaria alexandrina
C. Coxiella burnetii
D. Oncomelania quadrasi
p. 416
93.
Laboratory procedure that makes use of the egg in the test is

A. CFT
B. CHR
C. COPT
D. Casoni test
p. 770
94.
The infective of Diphyllobothrium latum to man to produce adult infection is the

A. Cysticercoid larva
B. Cysticercus larva
C. Procercoid larva
D. Sparganum larva
p. 497
95.
Produces Ocular cysticercosis to man

A. Dipylidium caninum
B. Taenia saginata
C. Taenia solium
D. Hymenolepis nana
p. 518
14
96.
Lateral uterine branches in gravid proglottid are counted for diagnosis of infection cause
by
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Teania saginata
p. 522
97.
Taenia saginata is associated with

A. Cat
B. Cattle
C. Dog
D. Pig
p. 521
98.
Ultrasound and MRI usually help in the diagnosis of the infection cause by
A. Dipylidium caninum
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Hymenolepis diminuta
D. Hymenolepis nan
p. 532
99.
This organism produces a blue-green pigment and therefore produces a characteristic

blue-green pus.
A. Staph aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Strep. pyogenes
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce pyocyanin pigment w/c is blue green in
color and also has antibiotic-like characteristics against some bacteria
Reference: Zinsser p. 577
100.
Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct
EXCEPT:
A. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
B. Polysaccharides capsules retard phagocytosis
C. Both gram negative rods and cocci have polysaccharides (endotoxin in their
cell wall)
D. Bacterial flagella are not antigenic in humans
Bacterial flagella are made of proteins and are useful in distinguishing
serovars or variation of gram negative bacteria such as E. coli H. antigens
Sal. H .antigens.
Reference: Zinsser. Chapter 3
101.
The most common site of asymptomatic gonococcal infection in women is the:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Vagina
Myometrium
Urethra
Endocervix
15
The columnar epithelial cells here are the ones that are being infected by N.
gonorrhea.(A). Vaginal walls composed of stratified squamous epithelial cells
which are not colonized. (B) and (C) are not affected.
102.
The following etiologic agents are known to cause diarrhea EXCEPT:

A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Rotavirus
C. V. cholera
D. Proteus vulgaris
Protues vulgaris produce urinary tract infection. C. clostridium perfringens
diarrhea thru its invasiveness so blood and mucus is (+) V. cholera-produced
diarrhea by virtue of enterotoxin. Rotavirus most common cause of viral
gastroenteritis in small children.
103.
A 20 year old male developed a carbuncle with surrounding cellulitis. Gram stain
revealed gram positive cocci, catalase and coagulase positive. Which of the following
antibiotics is initially appropriate for this patient?
A. Vancomycin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Cefriaxone
D. Penicillin
90% of S. aureus strains are resistant to penicillin because pf production of
plasmid-derived -lactamses. Such organisms can be treated with lactamase-resistant penicillin such as cloxacillin or dicloxacillin oxacillin.
Oxacillin and Nafcillin have unpredictable absorption by oral route, thus is not
recommended
104.
Which of the following features help distinguish group A streptococcus from other
streptococcal species?
A. Bacitracin susceptibility
B. Bile solubility
C. Optochin sensitivity
D. Growth inhibition in 6.5 % NaCl
Group A streptococcus is a -hemolytic streptococcus and can usually be
distinguished from the other -hemolytics by its bacitracin susceptibility or by
precipitation with specific anti sera (against its "Lancefrield antigen"). Bile
solubility test and optochin test distinguishes the L-hemolytic streptococci, S.
pneumoniae is bile soluble and optochin sensitive. Among the hemolytic
streptococci, S. viridans growth is inhibited by 6.5% NaCl while Enterococcus
species grows in 6.5% NaCl.
105.
Which of the following Clostridia cause gangrene?

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
C. tetani causes lockjaw. C. botilinum causes botulism. C. difficile causes
antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis. C. perfringens cause
gasgangrene and Food poisoning.
16
106.
This gram positive rod is usually associated with bacterial vaginosis producing
malodorous vaginal discharge and "clue cells"
A. Erysipelothrix rhusopathiae
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Gardenella vaginalis
D. Propionibacterium acnes
E. rhusopathiae causes erysipeloid skin infection that resembles erysipelas
occurring among meat and fish handlers. L. acidphilus is normal flora of
genital tract and is the main source of lactic acid. P. acnes produces lipase
which contributes to the genesis of acne.
Reference: Zinsser p. 604-605
107.
Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of the intestinal
mucosa.
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
D. Clostridium botulinum
Shigella sonnei is the only invasive, presence of blood and mucus in the
stool. Clostridium botilinum , V. cholera and Enterotoxigenic E. coli causes
diarrhea by producing enterotoxin
108.
Food poisoning that produces gastrointestinal symptoms approximately 1-2 hours after
eating is most likely to be due to:
A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Staph. aureus
Staph aureus the incubation period is 1-2 hrs. after ingestion of
contaminated food. Sal. enteritidis 6 hrs. 2 days. Campylobcacter 8
hrs. l day. C. perfringens 8 hrs. 12 hrs. Bacillus aureus 8 hrs. 12 hrs.
V. cholera 2 3 days. V. parahaemolyticus 8 hrs. 2 days
109.
A 30 year old pregnant woman had a normal delivery but the fetus was stillborn. CSF
examination showed positive rods. The pathogen is most likely:
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gardenerella vaginalis
C. Group B Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Listeria monocytogenes is a gram positive rod and can infect pregnant
women and poses the threat of stillbirth or serious damage to the fetus and
also cause neurological disease. Gardenella vaginalis gives rise to frothy,
fishy odor vaginal discharge, it can also cause premature births and low-birthweight infants.
Reference: Zinsser 484
17
110.
Which of these organisms is a major pathogen for nosocomial infections because of its
ubiquitous present in the hospital environment?
A. Staph. Aureus
B. Staph. Epidermidis
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, S. aureus - yellow gold pigment when cultured at
room temperature. S, epidermidis - white pigment when cultured at room
temperature. Serratia marcescens - red pigment
111.
An individual experiences severe diarrhea after eating sushi (raw fish) in a West Coast
restaurant. The most probable etiologic agent is:
A. Yersenia enterocolitica
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Vibrio parahaemolyticus - is a salt loving organism and found in fishes.
Salmonella enteritidis - found in chicken, pig. Yersenia enterocoliticareserviors rodents
112.
When symptoms to typhoid fever first become apparent, Salmonella typhi is most
frequently isolated from:
A. Feces
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. Bone marrow
Blood - on the first week of infection, Feces - second week. Urine - third
week.
113.
The area in the body where Salmonella typhi resides if one is a chronic carrier
A. small intestine
B. kidney
C. blood stream
D. gall bladder
Gall bladder - where organisms are found and are excreted in the stool and
urine of the chronic carrier of Salmonella.
114.
A 3 year old boy was diagnose to have meningitis CSF culture on Chocolate agar
showed growth of small gram negative rods. The most probable etiologic agent is:
A. N. meningitides
B. S. aureus
C. Group B Streptococcus
D. H. influenzae type b
H. influenzae type b - is the most commonly isolated etiologic gram negative
rods causing meningitis. N. meningtidis - gram negative plo. Group B Strep gram positive cocci.
18
115.
Among the gram negative rods producing gastroenteritis, the most infectious is:
A. V. cholera
B. E. coli (0157)
C. Sal. Typhimurium
D. Shig. Dysenteriae type 1
Shigella - only 200 cells is enough to cause diarrhea while A-C you need to
10 3 - 10 5 cells to produce infection.
Reference: Tortora et al
116.
Pneumococci primarily cause disease by:

A. toxin production
B. enzyme production
C. eluding phagocytosis and favoring invasiveness
D. producing delayed immunologic reaction
Pneumococci does not produce toxins and enzymes. Capsules are virulence
factors which interfere with phagocytosis and favoring invasiveness.
117.
The formation of pseudomembrane in diphtheria is due to:

A. inhibitions by toxin of protein synthesis by ADP ribosyslation of EF-2
B. spores which spread subcutaneously
C. invasion of mononuclear phagocytic cells
D. neutralization of exotoxin by antibody of blocking the interaction of fragment B
with receptors
Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis of eukaryotic cells thereby causing
cell death. Pseudomembrane formation is due to accumulation of necrotic
tissue.
118.
Lyme disease is an endemic inflammatory disorder with this distinctive skin disorder.
A. Chronic dermatitis
B. erythema marginatum
C. erythema chronicum migrans
D. ecthyma gangrenosum
Erythema chronicum migrans is a tick-borne associated syndrome.
Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review in Microbiology p. 225
119.
Serology in the diagnosis of Syphilis using a non-treponemal tests is the following

EXCEPT:
A. Microhemagglutination assay
B. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory
C. Fluorescent Antibody Tests
D. Reiter Protein Complement Fixation
Two different types of test are used. Non-treponemal tests detects
Wasserman or reagenic antibodies; a few examples of the nontreponemal
tests include VDRL, automated regin, Kahn, plasmacrit, Hinton and Kline
tests. Treponemal tests detect antibodies specific for treponemal antigens;
they include FTA=ABS, T. pallidium immunobolization and hemagglutination
tests.
Reference: Zinsser p. 663-664
19
120.
Mycoplasmas are very pleomorphic and cannot be classified as to shape because they
lack the following:
A. Peptidoglycan
B. lipid bilayer
C. nucleus
D. lipopolysaccharide
Lacking cell walls, mycoplasmas are enclosed instead by a membrane
composed of a lipid bilayer. They are therefore plastic and very pleomorphic.
121.
A definitive identification of M. tuberculosis can be obtained by doing the following

procedure?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. AFB Culture
C. Biopsy of Tuberculin test
D. Nucleic acid amplification
Cultures can detect small numbers of organism in the original sample. The
presence of Acid-fast organism on Ziehl Neelsen cannot distinguish on
morphologic groups M. tuberculosis from the other mycobacteria that are
saprophytic. Nucleic acid amplification utilizes enzymes that rapidly IGS
ribosomal RNA which can be used for patients with positive smears and while
culture results are pending.
Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review for Microbiology p. 251
122.
Rifamficin a broad antimicrobial agent is effective treatment for tuberculosis by:

A. selective inhibition of the biosynthesis of the arabinogalactan and lipoarabinomannan
B. mediating drug permeability and efflux
C. Inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis by blocking action of D-alanise synthesis
D. binding to RNA polymerase thereby interfering with mRNA synthesis
Rifamficin is a broad spectrum antimicrobial agent that acts the interferring
with the synthesis of mRNA by binding to RNA polymerase. Selective
inhibitions by ethamentol of the biosynthesis of arabinogalactan and
lipoarabinomannan, key structural components of the mycobacterial cell wall.
Cyclosine inhibits synthesis of peptidoglycan by blocking the action of the Dalanine synthetase.
Reference: Tortora p. 561
123.
In primary disease, M. tuberculosis survives and grows within these host cells
A. macrophages
B. basophils
C. neutrophils
D. eosinophils
M. tuberculosis may continue to survive and remain dormant in activated
macrophages where it is protected from phagocytosis
Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review of Microbiology p. 247
124.
Members of the genus Rickettsia are morphologically & biochemically similar to

A. gram-positive bacteria
B. gram negative bacteria
C. clostridia
D. viruses
20
Rickettsias are short-rod shaped or cocci bacillary organisms measuring 0.8

to 2.0 um long
Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review of Microbiology p. 259
125.
The hallmark of viral infection of the cell is the production of

A. inclusion bodies
B. multinucleated giant cells
C. cytopathic effect
D. granule formation
The hallmark of viral infection of the cell is the cytopathic effect. This change
begin with a rounding and darkening of the cell and culminates in either lysis
or giant cell formation. Infected cells frequently contain inclusion bodies
which are discrete areas containing viral particles.
126.
The complete infectious forms of Hepatitis B is:

A. HBeAg
B. Dane particles
C. HBsAg
D. HBcAg
The Dane particle is the complete form of Hepatitis B whereas the antigens
are subunit forms of the surface and core of the virus.
127.
Which of the following virus/es contain/s Hemagglutinin on its surface?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis C
C. Influenza virus
D. all of the above
The antigen hemagglutinin is characteristic of Influenza virus.
128.
In their multiplication, they produce DNA which is integrated into the cell genome.
A. Hepadnavirus
B. Reovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Herpesvirus
Hepadnavirus transforms non-permissive cells by integration of DNA
transcripts into host cell genome. They carry an RNA-dependent DNA
polymerase (reverse transcriptase).
129.
The most common intrauterine viral infection is caused by:

A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Rubella
C. Adenovirus
D. Herpes simplex
Cytomegalovirus accounts for the biggest # of intrauterine infection followed
by rubella.
21
130.
Smallpox was eradicated by the global use of vaccine which contains:

A. killed virus
B. attenuated live virus
C. preformed antibodies
D. preformed antibodies and live attenuated virus
Smallpox disease was eradicated by use of a live attenuated vaccine. Live
vaccine are used because duration of immunity is longer with greater
effectiveness of protection, both IgA and IgG are elicited when administered
by the natural route of infection which is intradermally where the virus
replicates. Cell mediated immunity is produced.
131.
The most important laboratory test for the detection of early Hepatitis B virus infection is:
A. immunoassay for HBsAg
B. immunoassay for HBeAg
C. immunoassay for Anti HBc
D. immunoassay for Anti HBs
HBsAg appears during the incubation period and is detectable in most
patients during the prodrome and acute phase; falls to undetectable levels
during convalescence. HBeAg arises during the incubation period and is
present during the prodome and early acute disease. Its presence is an
important indicator of transmissibility. Anti HBc is detectable during prodrome
and acute disease. Anti HBs is detectable during late convalescence.
132.
A common upper respiratory tract disease produced by adenovirus is:

A. Rhinitis
B. atypical pneumonia
C. pharyngoconjunctivitis
D. parotitis
Adenoviruses cause a variety of upper and lower respiratory tract disease.
Pharyngoconjunctivitis is common.
133.
The virus that is increasingly being recognized as cause of nonbacterial infant diarrhea
A. Retrovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Orbivirus
D. Calicivirus
Rotavirus gastroenteritis is one of the most common childhood illness and a
leading cause of infant deaths in developing countries.
134. In the laboratory this protein from Influenza virus agglutinates red blood cells whereas in
vivo, it binds to the surface receptor of the host cell to initiate infection.
A. Hemagglutinin
B. Neuramidase
C. Hemolysin
D. capsid antigen
The Influenza virus has an envelope covered with 2 different spikes
Hemagglutinatinin and neuramidase. Hemagglutination initiates infection in
the host and in the lab causes agglutination of RBC's. Neuramidase cleaves
22
neuramic acid (sialic acid) to release progeny virus from the infected cell.
Hemolysin is from bacterial cells and causes hemolysis of RBC.
135.
In the prevention of poliomyeletis, the use of oral vaccine is preferred because:

A. induces intestinal IgA
B. induces humoral IgG
C. can produce lifelong immunity
D. can produce immunity to unimmunized adults
The oral vaccine or Sabin vaccine which is a live attenuated vaccine is
preferred over the Salk vaccine or killed vaccine because (1) it interrupts
fecal-oral transmission by inducing secretory IgA in the GIT; killed vaccine
does not. Both kinds of vaccine induce humoral IgG. Infection provides
lifelong type specific immunity.
136. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease characterized by versicular rash on the hands and feet
and ulcerations in the mouth, mainly in children is caused by:
A. Echovirus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Coxsackie virus Group A
D. Coxsackie virus Group B
Echovirus causes aseptic meningitis. Parainfluenza causes croup. Coxsackie
B causes pleurodynia. Coxsackie A causes herpangina and hand-foot-andmouth disease.
137.
The most common fungal opportunistic infection is caused by:

A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans
D. Mucor
Candida albicans - it is endogenous, a lot of risk factors like pregnancy,
diabetic person, prolonged used of antibiotic, used of birth control pills
138.
The most common mode of infection of systemic fungi is thru:

A. ingestion
B. traumatic implantation
C. inhalation
D. all of the above
Inhalation of infectious particles (spores) which are suspended in the air.
139. A 45 year old post kidney transplant patient develop fever and pneumonia with
marked neutropenia. Bronchial washing show dichotomously branching filamentous
fungi. The fungi involved is:
A. sprorothrix
B. cryptococcus
C. candida
D. aspergillus
23
In immunocompromised patient, inhalation of spores of Aspergillus can lead

to pneumonia and are seen as dichotomous branching hyphae
(filamentous).
140. In a 7 year old malnourished boy with multiple nematode infections, the most severe
complication will come from:
B. Trichuris trichiura
D. Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris has a tendency to migrate to other openings causing more severe
disease.
Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 141-142, Roberts and Janovy p. 422
141.
Loefflers syndrome can be seen in the following parasitic infections EXCEPT:

A. Ascariasis
B. Strongyloidiasis
C. Necatoriasis
D. Trichuriasis
Loefflers syndrome is eosinophilic lung. As the parasitic larvae (rhaditiform
for Ascaris, filariform for Strongyloides and Necator) travels to the pulmonarycirculatory system, the body reacts with an anaphylactic type of
hypersensitivity that produces the eosinophilic lung condition. Trichuris does
not have a pulmonary circulatory pathway.
Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 141, 126, 130; Roberts & Janovy p. 386, 422
142.
All cestodes require an intermediate host EXCEPT:

B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
Man gets H. nana infection by ingesting the eggs directly. All other cestodes
require an intermediate host
Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 192
143.
Cysticercosis due to Taenia solium is acquired through ingestion of:

A. cysticercus larva
B. cysticercoid larva
C. procercoid larva
D. egg
A more dangerous sequence can occurs when a person ingests the egg of
Taenia solium in contaminated food or water rather than eating raw or
undercooked pork containing the larva cystercus. Cysticercoid larva pertains
to D. caninum and H. nana. Procercoid larva is for D. latum. The ingested
egg hatch in the small intestines and the oncopheres burrow through the wall
into a blood vessel, where they can disseminate to many organs. This
condition is called cysticercosis.
Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 207
24
144.
The infective stage to man of Necator americanus is:

A. rhabditiform larva
B. filariform larvae
C. embryonated egg
D. Microfilaria
Filariform larvae of hookworms penetrate the skin
Reference: Roberts & Janovy p. 410
145.
This cestode possess a quadrate scolex with 4 circular suckers and no rostellum or
hooklets:
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus granulosus
D. latum has an elongated scolex. H. nana has a globular scolex with 4
suckers, a short retractile rostellum armed with a single row of hooklets. E.
granulosus has 4 suckers with a rostellum and a double row of hooklets.
Reference: Brown 6th p. 194, Roberts & Janovy p. 333
146.
Amoebic abscess of the liver is mostly found in the

A. left anteromedial lobe
B. right posterosuperior lobe
C. inferior lobe
D. middle lobe
Spread of amoeba from the large intestines is by the portal vein and deposit
on the right posterosuperior lobe
Reference: Chatterjee p. 25
147.
Little Joey was frequently sick of various infectious diseases. He was found to have low
CD4+ lymphocytes titers. Which of the following immune response processes would still
be functional in Joeys body?
A. T cell help for B lymphocytes
B. Recognition of peptide-MHC complex
C. Phagocytic function for foreign molecules
D. T-dependent antigen recognition
This is an innate natural cellular immune ability of the host to respond to
foreign molecules which is
independent of the Th series.
Reference: Stanley p. 92; 124
148.
The host immune response in viral infections is mostly by:

A. Th cells
B. B cells
C. Tc cells
D. NK cells
Viral infections produce endogenous peptides which are presented on the
surface of cells in conjunction with MHC Class 2. These are recognize
primarily by Tc cells. B cells are mostly for exogenous peptides that are
antibody mediated mainly stimulated by Th cells while the NK cells major
activity is to directly destroy aberrant cells such as in cancer.
Reference: Roitt, Brostoff & Male p. 15.3-15.4
25
149.
A killed virus is the major component of the vaccine against this pathogenic organism.
A. measles
B. rubella
C. mumps
D. rabies
Measles, rubella, mumps vaccines contain living but attenuated virus (also for
chickenpox, Sabin polio) Rabies vaccine (also for Hep A, Salk polio,
influenza) contain killed or inactivated viruses. Hep B vaccine contains
antigenic fragments of the virus usually using recombinant technology (yeastderived). Subunit vaccines are also used as in pertussis. Tetanus and
diphtheria utilize toxoids which are inactivated toxins or antitoxins, antibodies
against these. H. influenzae type b vaccine is conjugated to a protein which
can be a diphtheria toxoid.
Reference: Tortora p. 502
150.
Alkaline pH in urine seen in Proteus is due to its ability to split urea into:
A. NH3 & C02
B. Cl & Ca
C. Ca & Mg
D. Na & Cl
Answer: A (pp.208)
151.
It is responsible for Escherichia coli causing meningitis in infants

A. H antigen
B. LPS
C. K antigen
D. O antigen
Answer: C (pp.208)
152.
Vi antigen for Salmonella typhi

A. penetrates epithelial lining of the intestinal tract
B. antigenic structure associated with invasiveness
C. interfere with antibody binding to bacteria
D. confers a certain degree of immunity
Answer: B (p 209)
153.
Initial recognition event for the activation of the alternative pathway

A. C3b
B. C1
C. C4
D. Factor D
Answer: A (p 108)
154.
The characteristic morphologic feature of influenza responsible for antigenic changes of

the virus
A. Envelope
B. segmented genome
C. capsid
D. nucleic acid
Answer: B (p 320)
26
155.
Replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell

A. Adenovirus
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Poxviruses
D. HIV
Answer: C (p332)
156.
The exudative lung parenchymal lesion with lympadenopathy in primary tuberculosis

infection is called
A. tuberculosis
B. granuloma
C. ghon complex
D. fibrotic lesion
Answer: C (p278)
157.
Which of the following statement/s is correct regarding neonatal herpes

A. infections are almost always asymptomatic
B. most common route of infection is thru contact with herpetic lesion
during vaginal delivery
C. causes latent infection
D. usually cause by HSV 1
Answer: B (p376)
158.
An 18 year old college student developed fever followed by jaundice. Acute viral
hepatitis was entertained. Results of the hepatitis profile are as follows: anti-HAV IgM
(-), anti-HbsAg (-), anti-HBc IgM (+), anti-HBc IgG negative. He most probably has:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis E
Answer: B ( p 410)
159.
A 21 y/o male with history of sexual contact 4 days ago resents with painful urination
and purulent penile discharge. Which of the following is most likely?
A. primary syphilis
B. genital herpes
C. gonorrhea
D. lymphogranuloma venerum
Answer: C (p259)
160.
A 1 and half y/o boy developed fever, coryza and cough followed 4 days later by
maculopapular rashes starting from the hairline and becoming generalized. Fever
persisted. The most likely etiology is a/an
A. RNA virus
B. DNA virus
C. gram positive coccus
D. gram negative bacillus
Answer: A ( p 470)
27
161.
A neonate is born with the following features: microcephaly, jaundice, poor suck and
chorioretinitis. A congenital infection is entertained. The most common congenital
infection is due to:
A. Chlamydia
B. HIV
C. CMV
D. HSV
Answer: C ( p 382)
162.
A 2 month old girl was brought to you because of milk curd-like lesions in the mouth
noted for a week. The whitish lesions were adherent to the oral mucosa with pinpoint
bleeding when the mother tried to remove them. This is caused by
A. herpes simplex 1
B. Coxsackie A
C. albicans
D. neoformans
Answer: C ( p 550)
163.
A 23 y/o office worker found out that his sexual partner had HIV infection. The screening
procedure of choice for HIV infection is
A. PCR
B. HIV Elisa
C. western blot
D. northern blot
Answer: B (p 525)
164.
A 6 month old baby has acute watery diarrhea. Which of the following is the most
common cause of diarrhea in this age group?
A. ETEC
B. Rotavirus
C. EPEC
D. V. cholerae
Answer: B ( p434)
165.
A health worker who did not receive prior mumps vaccine developed parotid swelling
and fever. The following belongs to the same virus family as mumps virus
A. A. german measles
B. RSV
C. Influenza
D. Japanese B virus
Answer: B ( p 471)
166.
A 25 yr old saleslady developed high fever, chills and cough. On PE she had crackling
rales on the right lung base. The diagnosis is pneumonia. The most common bacterial
cause of this condition in this age group is:
A. S. aureus
B. N. meningitidis
C. S. pneumoniae
D. Hemophilus influenzae
Answer: C ( p 213)
28
167.
Infection with this organism is the most common risk factor for cervical CA
A. HIV
B. N. gonorrhea
C. HPV
D. HSV 2
Answer: C ( p512)
168.
Most common cause of UTI in women is characterized by

A. Urease production
B. fruity odor on culture
C. greenish metallic sheen
D. swarming phenomenon
Answer: C ( p 219)
169.
Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to monitor response to treatment in
syphilis?
A. FTA-ABS
B. VDRL
C. Darkfield microscopy
D. ELISA
Answer: B ( p 287)
170.
An encapsulated fungi that causes meningitis is

A. H. capsulatum
B. neoformans
C. C albicans
D. immitis
Answer: B ( p 552)
171.
The following statements are true regarding N. meningitidis

A. it is the only specie that is oxidase positive
B. oxidizes maltose and glucose
C. oxidizes glucose only
D. it is the only gram negative specie
Answer: B (p256)
172.
The following statements are true about S. aureus

A. it is catalase negative
B. can secrete preformed toxins
C. prefers anaerobic condition
D. cannot grow in 7.5% NACL
Answer: B (p.199)
173.
Toxic shock syndrome secondary to Staphylococcus tend to commonly cause infection

among
A. tampon users
B. asthamtics
C. IV drug users
D. infants
Answer: A (p 201)
29
174.
A 14 year old male has high fever for a week, tonsillitis, hepatosplenomegaly and
cervical lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows 10% atypical lymphocytes. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A. Streptococcal sore throat
B. leukemia
C. infectious mononucleosis
D. diphtheria
Answer: C (p 386)
175.
Streptococcal sore throat is definitively diagnosed by

A. ASO titer
B. throat swab culture
C. rapid antigen testing from throat swab
D. Gram stain
Answer: B (p 210)
176.
Which of the following, when positive, indicates an acute Epstein-Barr virus infection?
A. anti-EBNA
B. anti-VCA IgG
C. anti-VCA IgM
D. anti-EBV DNA
Answer: C (p 388)
177.
The hallmark of Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever is

A. thrombocytopenia
B. shock
C. plasma loss
D. positive tourniquet test
Answer: C (p 452)
178.
Dengue virus has how many serotypes?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: D ( p 452)
179.
The most common vector of Dengue virus is ( p 452)

A. Anopheles minimus
B. Mansonia sp.
C. Aedes aegypti
D. Aedes albopictus
180.
A 1 year old girl has high fever for four days, coryza, hacking cough and poor
appetite. On PE, she has congested pharynx and Kopliks spots. The causative agent of
this condition
A. is a DNA virus
B. has three serotypes
C. belongs to the paramyxovirus family
D. has double-stranded RNA
Answer: C ( P482)
30
181.
Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable?

A. cytomegalic inclusion disease
B. German measles
C. Dengue fever
D. Hepatitis C
Answer: B ( p 485)
182.
A 20 year old male developed fever, vomiting and poor appetite for four days
followed by jaundice. A diagnosis of viral hepatitis is entertained. The results
of the hepatitis profile are as follows: positive anti-HAV IgM, negative antiHBsAg, positive HBsAg, negative anti-HBc IgM. Which is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The patient has acute Hepatitis A and is most likely a Hepatitis B carrier
He has acute Hepatitis B
He has acute Hepatitis C
He does not have acute viral hepatitis
Answer: A ( p 411)
183.
The protective antibody following immunization against Hepatitis B is

A. anti-HBc IgM
B. anti-HBc IgG
C. anti-HBsAg
D. anti-HCV
Answer: C ( p 415)
184.
Which of the following agents of viral hepatitis is fecal-oral in transmission

and causes more severe disease in pregnant women?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis E
Answer: D ( p 408)
185.
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) is caused by an agent which

has the following characteristic
A. double-stranded DNA
B. single-stranded RNA
C. double-stranded RNA
D. does not contain nucleic acid
Answer: D ( p 500)
186.
Human influenza virus which undergoes antigenic shift and can cause pandemics
A.
influenza A
B.
influenza B
C. influenza C
D. highly-pathogenic avian flu
Answer: A (p 463)
31
187.
Fetal hydrops is a prominent complication of maternal infection with

A. rubella
B. parvovirus B19
C. measles
D. cytomegalovirus
Answer: B ( p 357)
188.
An 8 month old girl developed high fever for three days but was otherwise playful. On
the fourth day, fever was gone but she had maculopapular rashes on the face
which rapidly spread all over the body. This common disease is caused by
A.
B.
C.
D.
measles virus
human herpesvirus 6
parvovirus B19
rubella virus
Answer: B ( p389)
189.
A 22 year old sex care worker wanted to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV). What test would you initially recommend?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Western blot
HIV Elisa
CD4:CD8 ratio
VDRL
Answer: B ( p 526)
190.
HIV infection causes the ratio of CD4 to CD8 T cell ratio to fall. CD4 T cells are also
called
A. T cytotoxic cells
B. cytolytic T cells
C. T helper cells
D. suppressor T cells
Answer: C (p 521)
191.
The major function of CD8 T lymphocytes is

A. to kill cells infected by intracellular pathogens like viruses
B. antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
C. opsonization
D. phagocytosis
Answer: A (p 116)
192.
A one and a half year old boy has recurrent bacterial pneumonia and middle ear
infection. An antibody deficiency is entertained. Antibodies are produced in large
quantities by
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. plasma cells
D. mast cells
Answer: C (p 125)
32
193.
Immunoglobulins aid phagocytosis because they can bind to phagocytes via

A. Fab receptors
B. Fc receptors
C. CD4 receptors
D. C3b receptors
Answer: B ( p 125)
194.
The following virus/viruses exhibit/s latency in nerve ganglia

A. smallpox virus
B. chickenpox virus
C. cytomegalovirus
D. adenovirus
Answer: B (p 378)
195.
A virus which infects B lymphocytes by attaching to the latters complement

Receptors
A. cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Japanese B encephalitis virus
D. HIV
Answer: B ( p 386)
196.
A 1 year old infant had exposure to a caregiver with cavitary tuberculosis. Chest
x-ray was negative. Mantoux test done showed induration of 12 mm after 2 days.
The Mantoux tuberculin test result is an example of
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. delayed-type hypersensitivity
D. Arthus reaction
Answer: C ( p 130)
197.
The following are characteristics of M. tuberculosis

A. have minimal lipid content in their cell wall
B. cannot be grown on artificial media
C. retain carbolfuchsin dye after exposure to acid-alcohol
D. appear as round chains on Gram stain
Answer: C ( p25)
198.
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a late complication of infection with this virus

A. Varicella
B. Rubeola
C. West Nile virus
D. poliovirus
Answer: B ( p483)
33
199.
A newborn presents with lethargy, purpura, chorioretinitis and pulmonary infiltrates.

Which of the following could be a cause of this syndrome?
A. Amebiasis
B. Candidiasis
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Human papillomavirus
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz.,23rd edition, page 445
200.
Which one of the following is a subcellular structure that is found only in Gram negative
bacteria?
A. endospores
B. lipopolysaccharide
C. mitochondria
D. phosphatidylethanolamine
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 28
201.
Which one of the following statements best describes a function of the peptidoglycan
layer in bacteria?
A. The ability of bacteria to survive changes in the osmolarity of their
environment is due to the physical properties of the peptidoglycan
layer.
B. The peptidoglycan layer contains all the enzymes responsible for the
synthesis of membrane phospholipids.
C. The peptidoglycan layer protects bacteria from the effects of ultraviolet
light.
D. The peptidolgycan layer renders Gram negative bacteria resistant to
detergents.
ANS: A
202.
4. Which one of the following structures is responsible for the passage of low molecular
weight solutes through the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria?
A. capsules
B. endospores
C. flagella
D. porins
ANS: D
203.
Your patient, suffering from a bacterial infection, receives a penicillin injection and
almost immediately experiences respiratory distress and loses consciousness. This
reaction is MOST LIKELY mediated by
A. complement.
B. CD8+ cytolytic T cells.
C. macrophages.
D. mast cells.
ANS: D
34
204.
Which one of these statements explains the origin of Rh antibodies in the blood of an
Rh-negative mother?
A. They are naturally occurring in the blood of all Rh-negative persons.
B. They are received through mis-matched blood transfusions.
C. They are synthesized by the mother in response to Rh-positive cells
from her first child.
D. They are transferred from the Rh-positive father during intercourse.
ANS: C
205.
Which one of the following bacterial pathogens requires selective culture conditions for
reliable isolation from the stool, including media with antibiotics and incubation at 42 C
in increased CO2?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella sp.
D. Shigella sp.
ANS: A
206.
11. Which one of the following is considered facultatively intracellular for human
macrophages?
A. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sp.
ANS: C
207.
A 20-year-old female presents with severe pelvic pain, fever, nausea and vomiting. She
was on the second day of her menstrual cycle. A purulent cervical discharge was
detected upon physical examination. Oxidase positive, Gram-negative diplococci were
isolated on Thayer Martin agar from the endocervical swab. What is the MOST LIKELY
identity of this organism?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
ANS: D
208.
A large outbreak of food poisoning occurred at a company picnic. Eighty people

reported explosive vomiting and diarrhea within 3 hours after eating. All of the victims
recovered within 24 hours without medical intervention. No known bacterial or viral
pathogens were isolated from the stool of affected individuals. A survey of the food
eaten at the picnic suggested that potato salad was the common source of the
poisoning. The individual who prepared the salad had a sty on her left eye. Which one
of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of this outbreak?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
35
ANS: C
209.
Gram-positive cocci and polymorphonuclear leukocytes are observed on Gram stain of

sputum from a 60-year old alcoholic with pneumonia. Culture of the sputum reveals
alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative bacteria. Which one of the following laboratory tests
is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism?
A. bacitracin sensitivity test
B. beta-lactamase production test
C. ELEK test
D. bile solubility test
ANS: D
210.
A 19-year old female is admitted to an outpatient clinic with suprapubic pain, dysuria
and an urgency to urinate frequently. She is otherwise healthy. A clean catch midstream
urine specimen was collected and sent to the laboratory. Numerous neutrophils are
detected in the urine sample. The bacteriology laboratory reports that less than 102
Gram-positive cocci and greater than 105 Gram-negative bacilli were recovered per
milliliter of urine. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
ANS: A
211.
A 40-year old male hog farmer complains of intermittent fever, night sweats and
headaches to his physician. The patient is hospitalized and blood and bone marrow
specimens are collected. The physician requests that the laboratory incubate the
cultures for at least 6 weeks. Nine days after admission, Gram negative coccobacilli that
require increased CO2 for growth are isolated from the blood and bone marrow
cultures. The patient is most likely to be suffering from which one of the following
diseases?
A. Brucellosis
B. Bubonic plague
C. Legionnaires disease
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
ANS: A
212.
Which one of the following diseases is most likely to respond favorably to treatment with
a -lactam antibiotic?
A. Legionellosis
B. Mycoplasmosis
C. Syphilis
D. Trachoma
ANS: C
36
213.
A 20-year old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an irritating vaginal discharge.
Upon examination, you find that the cervix and vaginal walls appear normal. The
discharge is thin and milky, pH 5.5, and has a fishy odor when treated with potassium
hydroxide. You are unable to detect pseudohyphae, buds, or flagellates upon
microscopic examination. A Gram stain reveals numerous curved Gram-negative rods,
epithelial cells, and clue cells, but relatively few Gram-positive rods or WBCs. Cervical
and vaginal cultures are negative for STDs. What is your diagnosis?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Cervicitis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Vaginal candidiasis
ANS: A
214.
A 75-year old man in a nursing home is treated with a broad spectrum antibiotic for bed
sores. Two days later he develops bloody diarrhea. A stool specimen from the patient is
positive in an ELISA test for a necrotizing cytotoxin, and his treatment is switched to
vancomycin. The agent MOST LIKELY to be responsible for this clinical syndrome is
A. Bacteroides fragilis.
B. Campylobacter jejuni.
C. Clostridium difficile.
D. Escherichia coli O157:H7.
ANS: C
215.
Which one of the following toxins is responsible for scalded skin syndrome?
A. Alpha hemolysin
B. Exfoliatin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Staphylococcal enterotoxin
ANS: B
216.
A 50-year old cancer patient with severe neutropenia became septic two weeks after
being admitted to the hospital. An oxidase-positive, Gram-negative rod that did not
ferment glucose was isolated from the patients blood. Which one of the following
organisms is the most likely cause of the patients sepsis?
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ANS: D
217.
Blood culture from a 12-year old with acute osteomyelitis yields Gram-positive cocci that
are b hemolytic and catalase positive. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the
MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism?
A. Coagulase test
B. Optochin sensitivity test
C. Slide agglutination test for capsular antigen type
D. Test for capacity to grow in bile esculin
ANS: A
37
218.
Activated macrophages are the effector cells in the expression of a protective, cellmediated immune response against
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ANS: C
219.
A patient recovering from a crushing leg injury suffered during an a motorcycle accident
develops a temperature of 100o F, a rapid pulse, and extreme pain at the site of his the
wound two days after the accident. The skin overlying the patients sutured wound is
brownish- white, shiny, and studded with vesicles. Gram stain of the watery exudate
from the wound reveals Gram-positive rods, Gram-negative rods, and Gram-positive
cocci. The Gram-positive rods are MOST LIKELY
A. Bacillus cereus.
B. Bacteroides fragilis.
C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Corynebacterium ulcerans.
ANS: C
220.
A 13-year old and her 10-year old brother are seen at an emergency room with
complaints of double vision, difficulty swallowing, and progressive muscular weakness.
A detailed history reveals that both children attended a church picnic three days earlier
but neither child has gastroenteritis. The MOST LIKELY presumptive diagnosis is
A. botulism.
B. Chinese rice syndrome.
C. Guillan-Barr syndrome.
D. salmonellosis.
ANS: A
221.
Epidemics of bacterial meningitis in young, previously healthy adults are MOST LIKELY
caused by
A. Escherichia coli K-1.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. Neisseria meningitidis group A.
ANS: D
222.
A 55-year old woman develops endocarditis following oral surgery. Gram-positive,

alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative cocci are isolated from a blood culture. The MOST
LIKELY agent is
A. Enterococcus faecalis (group D streptococci).
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
D. Viridans streptococci.
ANS: D
38
223.
A 2-month old infant is admitted to the hospital with fever, lymphocytosis, and bouts of
violent coughing that often end in vomiting. The infants mother reveals that the child
has not as yet received any immunizations. The attending physician swabs the infants
nasopharynx and requests that the swab be plated on routine media as well as a
special medium (Bordet-Gengou) that contains blood and glycerol. No organisms are
found on blood or chocolate agar, but small Gram-negative rods are isolated on BordetGengou agar. The MOST LIKELY cause of the infants illness is
A. Bordetella pertussis.
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae.
C. Moraxella catarrhalis.
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
ANS: A
224.
Which one of the following viruses establishes a chronic persistent infection in humans?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Herpesvirus
D. Poliovirus
ANSWER: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 475-476
225.
Which one of the following viruses is transmitted via the gastrointestinal route?
A. Delta-associated agent
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis C
ANSWER: B
226.
A 33-year-old pregnant woman delivered a baby boy via a normal vaginal delivery.
Neither she nor the father has a history of genital or oral herpes. Although she had
chickenpox as a child, she was exposed to a child with chickenpox about 10 days
before delivery. There was no evidence of vesicular skin lesions on either the mother
or the child at the time of delivery. Three days after birth, the baby now develops
vesicular skin lesions on his back, accompanied by a fever. Which one of the following
viruses is MOST LIKELY to be the cause of the baby's infection?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus type 1
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Human herpesvirus 6
ANSWER: C
227.
Examination by dark-field microscopy of scrapings from a genital ulcer of 19-year old

female reveals mobile, spiral-shaped organisms against a black background. The
MOST LIKELY diagnosis is
A. chancroid.
B. Chlamydia trachomatis infection.
C. gonorrhea.
D. syphilis.
ANS: D
39
228.
Gram-positive cocci are observed on a Gram stain of purulent discharge from a skin
lesion of a 7-year-old. Culture of the exudate reveals beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive
organisms. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the MOST APPROPRIATE
next step in the definitive identification of this organism?
A. Bacitracin sensitivity test
B. Bile solubility test
C. Coagulase test
D. Optochin sensitivity test
ANS: C
229.
Which one of the following species or serovars of Chlamydia can be transmitted as a

zoonotic infection?
A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
B. Chlamydia psittaci
C. Chlamydia trachomatis serovar C
D. Chlamydia trachomatis serovar D
ANS: B
230.
Gram stain of synovial fluid from the knee of a 20-year-old woman with arthritis reveals
Gram-negative cocci. To isolate the MOST LIKELY responsible agent, the specimen
should be plated on
A. Bordet-Gengou agar.
B. Chocolate agar.
C. Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar.
D. MacConkey agar.
ANS: B
231.
The formation of colonic ulcers and absesses during Shigella dysentery is due to
A. ability of bacteria to survive stomach acidity because of the production
of urease.
B. bacterial survival within macrophages.
C. invasion of enterocytes and cell-to-cell spread of the bacteria.
D. production of a superantigen by the bacillus.
ANS: C
232.
Which one of the following organisms is the MOST COMMON cause of bacterial
travelers diarrhea?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella cholerasuis
D. Shigella sonnei
ANS: B
40
233.
Dissemination of Salmonella typhi from the intestine to extraintestinal sites requires

survival of this pathogen in which one of the following host cells?
A. Colonic enterocytes
B. Gastric epithelial cells
C. M cells
D. Macrophages
ANS: D
234.
Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid from a 3-year-old child with fever, petechiae, stiff neck
and positive Kernig and Brudzinski's signs reveals PMNs and a few Gram-negative
cocci. The MOST LIKELY agent is
A. Escherichia coli.
C. Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci ).
ANS: C
235.
Listeria monocytogenes infection of an adult is MOST LIKELY to be acquired by

A. ingestion of contaminated food.
B. inhalation of contaminated aerosals.
C. inoculation with a contaminated needle.
D. person-to-person contact.
ANS: A
236.
What is the mechanism of action of the antifungal drug fluconazole?

A. Binds to ergosterol resulting in membrane disruption
B. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis
C. Inhibits protein synthesis
D. Inhibits RNA synthesis
ANS: B
237.
A 10-year-old with a dog complains of a bump on the back of his head. He says its
redness and itching have increased over the last three weeks. The lesion is several
centimeters in diameter, with hair involvement and scaling. Examination of several of
his hairs in a KOH preparation reveals hyphae in and around the hair shafts. What is
your diagnosis?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Tinea capitis
ANSWER: D, Tinea capitis
238.
You are assigned to a hospital in Phoenix, Arizona. Several patients have been
admitted in the past week with cough, chest pain, fever, and pneumonitis that has not
responded to antibacterial therapy. You discover that most of the patients are new
arrivals to Arizona who had been working outdoors during the dusty wind storms that
had occurred over the past few weeks. The causative organism is observed in a KOH
preparation of sputum. What is your presemptive diagnosis?
41
A.
B.
C.
D.
Blastomycosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Psittacosis
ANSWER: B, Coccidioidomycosis
239.
A 65-year-old male develops endocarditis following urinary catheterization. Grampositive, catalase-negative cocci are isolated from a blood culture. The MOST LIKELY
agent is
A. Enterococcus faecalis (group D streptococci)
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
ANS: A
240.
A 22-year-old develops an abcess in his peritoneum following rupture of his appendix.

Gram stain of the exudate from his foul-smelling abcess reveals numerous
polymorphonuclear leukocytes, Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive rods, and Gramnegative rods. Aerobic culture of the exudate at 37o C on blood and MacConkey agar
plates yields only enterococci (group D streptococci). The Gram-negative rods are
MOST LIKELY
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Shigella dysenteriae.
ANS: A
241.
Several people become ill within two hours after leaving a summer reunion picnic. The
majority of people complain of vomiting and diarrhea without fever, and recovered within
24 hours after the onset of symptoms. The contaminated food is determined to be a
bowl of coleslaw prepared by someone with a stye on her left eyelid. Which one of the
following is the MOST LIKELY source of the food poisoning?
A. Clostridium botulinum
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Shigella sonnei
ANS: C
242.
A 35-year-old female presents with fever, headache and a non-productive cough. The
patient is prescribed penicillin and sent home. Two weeks later, she returns with similar
symptoms. A Gram stain and routine culture of the patient's sputum reveal only normal
mouth flora. Sputum is then cultured on specialized medium containing sterols, and,
after two days, tiny colonies were visible under a microscope. Which one of the
following organisms does the physician suspect is the cause of the patient's
pneumonia?
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
42
ANS: D
243.
A 70-year-old male, who is a chain-smoker, complains of fever, diarrhea, cough and

chest pain. Evidence of pneumonia is seen by chest X-ray. Due to the inability of the
patient to produce a sputum specimen, a transtrachial aspirate is obtained. No
respiratory bacterial pathogen is isolated from aspirated fluid cultured on blood agar
plates. However, poorly staining Gram-negative rods are isolated on buffered charcoalyeast extract (BCYE) agar after three days of incubation. The physician had already
begun treatment with erythromycin due to the detection of bacilli in the aspirated fluid
using a fluorescently-labeled monoclonal antibody specific for the causative agent. The
MOST LIKELY pathogen responsible for this pneumonia is
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides
ANS: B, Legionella pneumophila
244.
Which one of the following fungi exhibits thermal dimorphism?

A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Candida tropicalis.
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
Answer: D
245.
An otherwise healthy 35-year-old female florist presented to her primary care physician
complaining of a persistent lesion on the third digit of her left hand. This had been
present for several weeks and showed no sign of resolving. Upon examination, the
patient was found to have a mild fever (1000F), the aforementioned lesion and two
nodules on her left forearm. A biopsy of the lesion was performed, and the pathology
report indicated the presence of numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and a rare
elongated budding yeast. What is the MOST LIKELY etiologic agent?
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Nocardia asteroides
Answer: B
246.
Mode of transmission of Trichomonas vaginalis is:

A. Ingestion of infested beef
B. Skin contact with larvae
C. Mosquito bites
D. Sexual
ANS:D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 663-664
247.
Mode of transmission of Enterobius vermicularis is:

A. Sexual
B. Blackfly bites
C. Louse bites
D. Fecal-oral
43
Ans. D
248.
Oxygen requirements of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is:

A. Aerobic
B. Facultative anaerobe
C. Microaerophilic
D. Obligate anaerobe
Ans. A
249.
Mode of transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi is:

A. Direct contact with animals
B. Conidia inhalation
C. Sexual
D. Tick bites
Ans. D
250.
Therapy of Vibrio cholerae is:

A. TMP-SMX
B. ORS
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Erythromycin
Ans. B
251.
Family of Measles virus is:

A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Rhabdoviridae
C. Orthomyxoviridae
D. Flaviviridae
Ans. A
252.
Family of Hepatitis A virus is:

A. Papovaviridae
B. Hepadnaviridae
C. Parvoviridae
D. Picornaviridae
Ans. D
253.
Phenotypic characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes is:

A. Alpha-hemolytic
B. Oxidase "+"
C. H2S "-"
D. Beta-hemolytic
Ans. D
44
254.
Mode of transmission of Rickettsia prowazekii is:

A. Droplet nuclei
B. Direct contact with animals
C. Louse bites
D. Wound infection
Ans. C
255.
Phenotypic characteristic of Gonococcus is:

A. Fastidious
B. Mycolic acid in cell wall
C. Catalase "-"
D. Non-lactose fermenter
Ans. A
256.
Staphylococcal food poisoning is the result of

A. a heat labile enterotoxin.
B. ingestion of a pre-formed enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus
aureus during bacterial multiplication in contaminated food.
C. ingestion and multiplication of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus sp.
D. multiplication of Staphylococcus aureus in the small intestine.
ANS: B
257.
A 19-year-old soldier develops fever, carditis, and migratory polyarthritis. While taking
her history, the patient remembers that she had a "sore throat" three weeks previously.
A throat culture of the patient yields normal flora only. The laboratory result MOST
CONSISTENT with these findings is that the patient has high titers of antibody to:
A. meningococcal lipooligosaccharide.
B. pneumococcal IgA protease.
C. pneumococcal polysaccharide.
D. streptolysin O.
ANS: D
258.
A 65-year-old man with a colonic tumor undergoes a bowel resection. Three days later,
the patient develops a fever, and the drainage from the surgical site is foul smelling. The
skin near the site of the drainage is markedly erythematous. Gram stain of the drainage
reveals Gram-positive cocci and Gram-negative rods. Aerobic culture of the drainage
yields streptococci. The Gram-negative rod seen on Gram stain was most likely:
A. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ANS: A
259.
A 50-year-old rancher scrapes his hand with clippers while shearing sheep. Two days
later he notices an ulcer surrounded by vesicles at the site of the wound. Eight days
after the injury, the wound develops a black necrotic center (eschar) surrounded by
edematous fluid. The rancher experiences mild systemic symptoms. The most likely
cause of the infection is:
45
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bacillus anthracis.
Clostridium tetani.
Neisseria meningitidis.
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
ANS: A
260.
A 19-year-old college sophomore dies 24 hours after the development of fever,

petechiae, purpura, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Culture of
cerebrospinal fluid and blood obtained from the patient on admission to the hospital
MOST LIKELY yielded:
A. Gram-negative, lactose fermenting rods.
B. Gram-negative, oxidase positive diplococci.
C. Gram-positive, catalase negative cocci.
D. Gram-positive, catalase positive cocci.
ANS: B
261.
The blood culture of a patient with a presumptive diagnosis of endocarditis yields nonhemolytic colonies of Gram-positive cocci. The isolate is catalase negative, can grow in
6.5% NaCl, and is resistant to penicillin. The isolate is MOST LIKELY:
A. Enterococci.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci).
C. Streptococcus bovis.
D. Streptococcus mutans (Viridans streptoccoci).
ANS: A
262.
A 25-year-old, previously healthy woman develops fever within 24 hours of delivery of

an infant born 6 weeks prematurely. Blood culture of the mother reveals Gram-positive
cocci that are catalase negative, beta-hemolytic on blood agar, and resistant to
bacitracin. The MOST LIKELY cause of the bacteremia is:
A. Enterococci.
C. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci).
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ANS: C
263.
An HIV-infected homosexual man presents with Kaposi's sarcoma. Which viral genome
is MOST LIKELY to be present in his tumor biopsy?
A. Herpes simplex virus tupe 1
B. Human cytomegalvirus
C. Human herpesvirus type 6
D. Human herpesvirus type 8
Answer: D
264.
Which one of the following viral infections is not effectively prevented by vaccination?
A. Hepatitis B virus
46
B. Poliovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Rubella virus
Answer: C
265.
Prions cause spongiform encephalopathies including the human disease

A. AIDS dementia complex.
B. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease.
C. scrapie.
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE).
Answer: B
266.
Congenital infection by which one of the following viruses can result in birth defects?
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Answer: B
267.
Viral carditis of adolescents and adults is frequently caused by

A. Coxsackieviruses.
B. Orthomyxoviruses.
C. Pseudorabiesvirus.
D. Reoviruses.
Answer: A
268.
Several newborns housed in a neonatal intensive care unit have developed nosocomial
pneumonia. Most are wheezing and some have required care such as mechanical
ventilation, increased doses of oxygen, antibiotic therapy, or monitoring for apnea. A
simple, rapid diagnostic test reveals a common viral antigen in nasal wash specimens
from each of the patients. The virus MOST LIKELY to be responsible is
A. Coronavirus
B. Echovirus B2
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Rubeola virus (measles)
Answer: C
269.
A 7 year-old newly adopted Russian child who has been in the United States 10 days
presents with fever, malaise, sore throat, and a grey membrane on the tonsils, uvula,
and soft palate. The child's immunization history is unknown. The physician obtains a
swab of the child's throat which provokes bleeding of the membrane. The swab is sent
to the laboratory for routine throat culture. Two days later the laboratory reports only the
presence of normal flora in the specimen. The MOST LIKELY organism responsible for
this child's illness is:
A. Bordetella pertussis.
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
47
Answer: B
270.
Soft cheese imported from Mexico was implicated as the vehicle in an outbreak of
meningitis and bacteremia that occurred among attendees of a large company picnic.
Twenty of the 40 affected individuals were pregnant women. One of the victims had
AIDS. Gram positive, non-spore forming rods were isolated from the cheese that had
been stored in the cold. The MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this outbreak is:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Clostridium difficile
D. Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: D
271.
A 25 year old patient presents at a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic with a
painful genital ulcer. On examination, the ulcer does not appear to be typical of herpes
simplex virus. Dark field microscopy of exudate from the ulcer is negative for spiralshaped organisms. However, a small, gram negative rod is isolated from culture of the
exudate on chocolate agar. The organism MOST LIKELY to be responsible for the
lesion is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Haemophilus ducreyi.
C. Neisseria gonorrhoae.
D. Treponema pallidum.
Answer: B
272.
Which ONE of the following diseases is transmitted by lice?

A. Epidemic typhus
B. Ehrlichiosis
C. Psitticosis
D. Scrub typhus
Answer: A
273.
A young army recruit presents at a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic with acute
urethritis. A Gram-stained preparation of his urethral exudate reveals neutrophils with
intracellular Gram-negative diplococci. The patient is treated with ceftriaxone and sent
home. He is requested to return in one week so that a urethral culture can be obtained
to test for proof of antibiotic cure. Which ONE of the following culture media should be
used for the follow-up culture?
A. Blood agar
B. Bordet Gengou agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. Thayer-Martin agar
Answer: D
274.
The growth in the vagina of which ONE of the following bacteria helps maintain a
protective acid pH?
A. Bacteroides
48
B. Gardnerella
C. Lactobacillus
D. Mobiluncus
Answer: C
275.
A 25 year-old sexually active woman complains of vaginal itching, odor, and discharge.
The vaginal walls are red and slightly swollen, but the cervix is normal. A sample of her
vaginal discharge is tested with 10% KOH, which produces a strong fishy odor. Upon
microscopic examination of the discharge, you find clue cells but no pear-shaped
flagellates or pseudohyphae. A Gram stain reveals numerous Gram-negative curved
rods. What is your diagnosis?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C. Syphilis
D. Trichomoniasis
Answer: A
276.
A 25 year-old male develops an ulcerative lesion of the hand and several fluctuant
nodules along the lymphatics draining that site. The patient is seen in the dermatology
clinic at the Naval Hospital. Case history reveals that he is a weekend gardener who
cultivates roses as a hobby. What is the MOST LIKELY fungal disease?
A. Chromoblastomycosis
B. Mycetoma
C. Phaeohyphomycosis
D. Sporotrichosis
Answer: D
277.
A 50 year-old farmer from Sorsogon who is fond of eating freshwater crabs is suffering
from chronic pneumonia with hemoptysis. Which parasite etiology is MOST likely?
B. Necator americanus
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Schistosoma japonicum
278.
Knowing the life cycle of Schistosoma japonicum, a rural health doctor is now tasked
with educating the population of a district in Davao del Sur about prevention of this
disease. Which specific developmental stage of this parasite should be avoided to
prevent initial infection?
A. cercaria
B. metacercaria
C. miracidium
D. schistosomule
279.
In relation to question #72 above, which of the following measures would this doctor
teach is most practical for preventing S. japonicum infection?
A. avoid eating raw fresh water snails
B. boil drinking water for 20 minutes
C. clean and cook vegetables well
D. wear protective high boots while wading in streams
280.
A preventive measure against parasites is footwear. Which of these parasites enters

through the skin and its infective stage is a filariform larva?
A. Necator americanus
49
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Enterobius vermicularis
281.
Some protozoans have organelles which enable them to move around. Which of the
following species possess cilia as motility organelles?
A. Balantidium coli
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Plasmodium malariae
282.
Ten year-old Theira has been having vague periumbilical abdominal discomfort for three
months. She does not have diarrhea. Her fecalysis reveals round golden brown trilayered eggs with cortication. What is the causative agent of her abdominal infection?
B. Balantidium coli
C. Taenia saginata
283.
Mrs. Sintas complains to her family doctor that she has been having vague abdominal
pains and bloody diarrhea for the past two days. She had recently arrived from a
business trip to Leyte. Which of the following intestinal parasitic diseases is LEAST
LIKELY to present with bloody diarrhea?
A. Amebiasis
B. Giardiasis
C. Trichuriasis
D. Strongyloidiasis
284.
Adult stages of intestinal parasites have their own way of establishing themselves in
their chosen habitat. Which of these species has a long anterior end which penetrates
the mucosa to obtain tissues for its nutrition?
A. A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
285.
Except for the Schistosome species, all trematodes have similar life cycles. The
infective stage, for example is which of these developmental stages for the liver, lung,
and intestinal flukes?
A. cercaria
B. metacercaria
C. redia
D. sporocyst
286.
Hydatid Disease is endemic in small areas of Southern Luzon and Bicol region where
sheep are raised. What is the causative parasite of this disease?
B. Brugia malayi
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Fasciolopsis buski
287.
The trophozoite stage of this protozoa has rbc as inclusions in the cytoplasm: (p. 121)
A. Entamoeba coli
50
C. Endolimax nana
D. Entamoeba hartmanii
288.
One of the following is not a pseudophyllidean tapeworm. (p. 513)

B. Ligula intestinalis
C. Sparganum proliferum
D. Taenia solium
289.
Bachman intradermal test is a highly specific test for this disease. (p. 239)
A. Ascariasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. Trichinosis
D. Amoebiasis
290.
One of the following is not a common feature of uncomplicated P. falciparum in

peripheral smear: (p. 186)
A. appliqu form of parasite
B. multiple infection of one rbc
C. presence of Maurers clefts
D. rounded microgametocyte
291.
A 10-year-old girl, with perianal pruritus, was brought by her mother to her pediatrician.
What is your most probable diagnosis?
A. Ascariasis
B. Trichuriasis
C. Enterobiasis
D. Hookworm infection
Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp. 304-305
MPL: 0.75
292.
A 40-year old male overseas worker complaining of muscle pains seek medical
attention upon his arrival to the Philippines. Biochemical tests showed elevated
creatinine, phosphokinase, lactate dehydrogenase and myokinase levels. Results of
complete blood count showed high blood eosinophilia. What is your most probable
diagnosis?
A. Taeniasis
B. Capillariasis
C. Trichinosis
D. Filariasis
Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp.238-239
MPL: 0.5
293.
Sexually active 26-year old woman consulted a VD control clinic for vaginal itching and
purulent discharge. Your tentative diagnosis should include the following:
A. gonorrhea
B. trichomoniasis
C. candidiasis
D. all of the above
Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp. 50
MPL: 0.25
294.
A 30-year old woman, native of Bulacan, traveled to Palawan for a vacation. After 2
weeks she consulted her doctor with chills and fever as her main complains. What
parasitologic test would you request to establish your diagnosis?
51
A.
B.
C.
D.
sputum examination
stool examination
thick blood smear
thick and thin blood smear
MPL: 0.5
295.
A 6-month old baby was brought in for a fever of one-day duration. She is found to have
a temperature of 38.5C and with hepatomegaly (3 cm) and splenomegaly (3 cm).
Microscopic examination revealed infected RBC with presence of band form stages.
What is your most probable diagnosis?
A. Not malaria
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Plasmodium malariae
MPL: 0.75
296.
Hepatosplenomegaly is the hallmark of this disease which is endemic in Leyte, Samar

and Mindoro. This is caused by:
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Echinostoma ilocanum
C. Pila luzonica
D. Capillaria philippinensis
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th
Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 241
297.
Pruritus vulvae is a characteristic symptom in :

A. Trichinosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Enterobiasis
D. Scabies
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th
Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p 46
298.
Finding banana- or sausage-shaped gametocytes in peripheral smear is a unique

characteristic of:
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 81-82
299.
Wearing protective footwear would NOT prevent transmission of which of the following
parasite?
A. Ancylostoma
52
B. Leptospira
C. Trichuris
D. Schistosoma
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. pp. 126
300.
Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis can be prevented by eating properly cooked:
A. fish
B. pork
C. beef
D. vegetables
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. pp. 185, 111
301.
Recommendation for the control of hookworm in endemic areas include the construction
of sanitary facilities and :
A. wearing of footwear
B. reduction of the stray cats population
C. through cooking of meats and fish
D. use of insecticides to control mosquitoes and flies.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 126
302.
Humans become infected when they swallow the eggs and develop cysts in various
organs to cause hydatidosis. This tapeworm is could be best prevented by:
A. reducing larval E. multilocularis in sheep and hogs
B. reducing adult E. granulosus infection in dogs
C. proper and sanitary disposal of waste
D. surgical intervention
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 197
303.
Dyspnea in Loefflers syndrome caused by larval invasion in massive ascariasis in the

lungs could be best treated with:
A. salbutamol nebulization
B. giving mebendazole to treat the infection
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. Pp. 134-135
53

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MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY

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