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# Physics 141B, Spring 2010

## Problem Set #10 Solutions

David Strubbe

1. (Kittel 12.3)
This problem is like the ferrimagnetic one on p. 338, except that we have a
next-nearest-neighbor coupling , and that the two sublattices are symmetric. The effective fields on the A and B sublattices are
BA = Ba MB MA

(1)

BB = Ba MA MB

(2)

## The magnetizations in the mean-field approximation, given a paramagnetic

susceptibility p = C/T , are
C
(Ba MB MA )
T
C
MB = p BB = (Ba MA MB )
T
MA = p BA =

Ba = 0 when

TN + C
C

C
TN + C

(3)
(4)

## TN satisfying the system of equations at

= (TN + C)2 2 C 2 = 0

(5)

## The solution is TN = ( ) C. Only the + root gives TN > 0.

Now consider Ba 6= 0. The total magnetization is
M = MA + MB =

C
(2Ba MA MB MA MB )
T
C
= (2Ba ( + ) (MA + MB ))
T
M T = C (2Ba ( + ) M )

(6)
(7)
(8)

Solving for M ,
2Ba C
T + ( + ) C
2C
M
=
=
Ba
T + ( + ) C
M=

(9)
(10)

## Rewriting into the form of equation (12.40),

2C
T +
+
TN
= ( + ) C =

(11)
(12)

2. (Kittel 12.5)
a) The total energy has anisotropy, magnetic, and exchange contributions. The
exchange part does not depend on angle.
U = UK + UM + UX = Ksin2 Ba M cos + UX

(13)

1.0

0.5

-0.5

-1.0

## Take the derivative with respect to angle to find the extrema.

U
= 2Ksin cos + Ba M sin = sin (2Kcos + Ba M )

(14)

The global minimum is always = 0, aligned with the field. There is also an
extremum at anti-alignment, = . Both of these correspond to the root
sin = 0. There can be additionally a pair of extrema defined by
2Kcos + Ba M = 0
Ba M
cos =
2K
2

(15)
(16)

These are always maxima, as you can see in the plot. They merge together
with the extremum = and cease to exist as the field is increased, when
the equation above no longer has a solution as the right-hand side moves
outside the allowed range for the cos function. The critical field is given by
Ba M
=1
2K
2K
Ba =
M

|cos | =

(17)
(18)

Despite the hint given in the problem, there is really no need to expand for
small angles around .
b) The magnetic energy is due to the interaction of magnetic dipoles with
the magnetic field, here in the absence of an applied field. From Jackson
equation (5.147):
Z Z
Z
1
H dB dV = V
H dB
(19)
UM =
4
We were given in problem 10.7 that the demagnetization field of a uniformly
8
magnetized sphere is H = 4
3 M . The field B then is B = H+4M = 3 M ,
8
so dB = 3 dM .

Z Ms 
Z Ms
1
4
8
8
UM = 0 V
M dM
(20)
M
dM =
V
4
3
3
9
0
0
8 4r3 1 2 4 2 d3
2 2 2 3
=
Ms =
Ms
=
M d Ms2 d3
(21)
9 3 2
9
6
27 s
R 2
1
B dV ,
(Another approach is to get the energy of the dipole field with U = 8
which gives the same answer.) The domain-wall energy is
Ew = Aw =

w d2
4

(22)

w d2
4
w
d<
4Ms2

Ms2 d3 <

(23)
(24)

w = 2

KJS 2
a

1/2

(25)

Co
w

Fe
w

K Co
K Fe

1/2

(26)

## Fe = 1 erg/cm2 (p. 351), K Fe = 4.2

For numerical evaluation we take w
1
3
6
5
Co
10 erg/cm , K1 = 4.1 10 erg/cm3 (p. 349), where we are using the
Co = 3 erg/cm2 .
first and more significant term of the anisotropy. Thus w
Ms = 1400 G for Co (Table 12.1) at room temperature. The result is
d . 1 106 cm = 10 nm. (Note that gauss2 / cm3 = erg.)

3. (Kittel 12.6)
We start with Kittel eqn. (12.9), describing the magnetization in the meanfield approximation:
m = tanh

M
kB T
m
,m =
,t =
t
N
N 2

(27)

## Close to the transition, m is small and we can Taylor-expand the right-hand

side.
m
m 1  m 3
+ ...
(28)
m = tanh

t
t
3 t
If we keep only the first term, we have m = mt , so t = 1. This defines
2
TC = NkB , so t = T /TC . If we includes the second term as well, we can
study the dependence of m on t. Let x = mt . Then
m
1
m 1  m 3
xt = x x3

(29)
t=
t
t
3 t
3
1
x (t 1) = x3
(30)
3
1
(31)
t 1 = x2
3
p
(32)
x = 3 (1 t)
where we have chosen the ferromagnetic x 6= 0 solution instead of the
magnetic x = 0 solution. Back in non-rescaled variables, this means
p
m = t 3 (1 t)
s 

M
kB T
T
3
=
1

N
N 2
TC
s 

Tc T
kB T
3
T (TC T )1/2
M=

TC
4

para(33)
(34)
(35)

Since the derivative of (TC T )1/2 diverges at TC but that of T does not,
the dominant temperature-dependence of M is (TC T )1/2 .
4. (Kittel 12.7)
The exchange part of the energy is exactly the same as discussed for Bloch
walls, 2 JS 2 /N a2 . To calculate the magnetic energy we will use
Z
1
UM =
B 2 dV
(36)
8
The volume of the wall, with thickness N a, is V = AN a. The saturation
magnetization is M = Ms . To find the magnetic field inside the wall, we can
use the concept of magnetic charge, valid when there are no free currents
(J = 0). The magnetic surface charge density is M = n
M , where n
is
the unit vector normal to the surface. As in electrostatics, the magnetic
field between two planes of equal and opposite uniform charge density is
B = 4M = 4M , constant in space (provided we are in the limit of a film
much thicker than the wall thickness). For the Bloch wall, since M is out
of the plane of the film, M is zero on the interface of the wall with the rest
of the film, but nonzero on the film surface. For the Neel wall, the situation
is reversed, and M is zero on the film surface, but nonzero on the interface
with the rest of the film. The energy is
Z
1
(4Ms )2 dV = 2Ms2 AN a
(37)
UM =
8
The energy per unit area of wall is
w =

2 JS 2 UM
2 JS 2
+
=
+ 2Ms2 N a
N a2
A
N a2

(38)

## Another way of solving this problem is to think of surface currents in the

other faces of the domain wall, which gives the same magnetic field.
To find N , we look for a minimum where
w
2 JS 2
= 2 2 + 2Ms2 a = 0
N
N a
1
2 JS 2
JS 2
N2 =
=
2Ms2 a a2
2Ms2 a3
1/2

JS 2
N=
2Ms2 a3
5

(39)
(40)
(41)

## For Fe, J = 11.9 meV = 1.91 1014 erg (p. 326). S 12 , so JS 2

5 1015 erg. Ms B /a3 . a 3
A. Evaluating numerically, N 50, and
w 3 108 erg/cm2 + 1 erg/cm2 1 erg/cm2 .