for

2015
Practice Paper
for
Test No. 3 (Code-B)
TOPICS OF THE TEST
Physics
Chemistry

Biology

Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell Structure and Function: Cell theory and
cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant
cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organellesstructure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro
bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function);
Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle,
mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing
and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation

Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ PHYSICS ]
1.

2.

3.

A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a

height of 6R above the surface of the earth, where R
is the radius of earth. The time period of another
satellite at a height of 2.5R from the surface of the
earth is
(1) 6 h
(2) 8.48 h
(3) 48 h
(4) 67.2 h
A satellite of mass m is raised from its orbit at
height R to new orbit at a height 2R from surface of
earth. Find the work done in this process. (g =
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
and R = Radius oef earth)
(1)

mgR
6

(2)

mgR
4

(3)

mgR
8

(4)

mgR
12

A pressure P is applied on a sphere. By how much

should its temperature be raised to maintain its
original volume ? The material of sphere has a and
b as its thermal coefficient of superficial expansion
and its Bulk's modulus respectively.
(1)

(2)

5.

2P
2P
(4)
3
3
There are two Cu spheres having same size, one of
them is hollow and the other one is solid. They are
supplied with same amount of heat
(1) Solid sphere will get more rise in temperature
(2) Hollow sphere will expand more
(3) Solid sphere will expand more
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct

(4) 98 F

8g of He at T0 is mixed with 32 g of O2 at 3.2 T0 at

constant volume. The temperature of the mixture is
(1) T0

8.

(3) 3 6

(4) 2

9.

A polyatomic gas with six degree of freedom does

25 J of work, when it is expanded at constant
pressure. The heat given to the gas is
(1) 100 J
(2) 150 J
(3) 200 J
(4) 250 J
10. A unif orm rod has a length L. The rod gets
elongated due to its own weight. Which one of the
following graphs represents the variation of its
elongation with length L? (Elongation and length are
taken on Y and X axes respectively)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11. A bar of crosssection area A is subjected two equal

and opposite tensile forces at its ends as shown in
figure. Consider a plane BBmaking an angle with
the length. For what value of , shearing stress is
maximum ?

(2) 5.6 km/s

(3) 11.2 km/s

(4) 4.3 km/s
Temperature of triple point of water in Fahrenheit is
(1) 32 F
(2) 32.018 F
(3) 212 F

7.

(2) 4

A particle is thrown with escape velocity ve = 11.2

km/s from the surface of earth. Its velocity at height,
3R = 19200 km is
(1) 9.25 km/s

6.

(1) 2 6

(3)
4.

v1
is equal to
v2

(1) 90
(2) 30
(3) 45
(4) 0
12. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a
horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube
is P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point,
where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is
(= density of water)

(2) 2T0

(3) 2.5 T0
(4) 4T0
The root mean square speed of hydrogen molecule
is v1 at temperature TK. The most probable speed of
oxygen molecule is v 2 at same temperature. Then

(1)

v2

(2)

v2

(3)

v2

2P

(4)

v2

2P

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

13. A uniform wire fixed at its upper end hangs vertically

and supports a weight at its lower end. If its radius
is r, length is L and the Youngs modulus for the
material of the wire is E, then extension produced in
the wire is
(1) Directly proportional to E
(2) Inversely proportional to r
(3) Directly proportional to L
(4) All of these
14. Radius of soap bubble having surface tension T is
increased from r to 2r. Work done in increasing its
radius is
(1) 24r2T
(2) 8r2T
(3) 32r2T
(4) 16r2T
15. A tank is filled with a liquid upto a height H. A small
hole is made at the bottom of this tank. If t1 be the
time taken to empty first half of the tank and t2 the
time taken to empty rest half of the tank, then
(1) t1 > t2

t1
1
(4) t
2
2
16. Heat absorbed by the ideal gas in the cyclic process
ABCDA in one cycle is
P

(3) t1 = t2

P0
0
(1)

2V0

P0V0
2

(2) 2P0V0

(3) P0V0

(4)

P0V0
4

3G
(4)
4
21. A thin rod of mass m and length L is bent to from
semicircle, then gravitational potential at the centre
of semicircle is

(1)

GM
L

(2)

GM
L

Which one of the following graphs best represents

variation of rate of cooling (R) with temperature of the
body?

ba
(2) AE

Ea
Ab

(3) AE

temperature (0) of surrounding in which it is kept.

(1)

of the mixture is

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.67
(3) 1.4
(4) 1.33
20. An infinite number of masses, each of 1 kg are
placed on the positive x-axis at 1 m, 2 m, 4 m....
from the origin. The magnitude of the gravitational
field at origin due to this distribution of masses is
4G
(1) 2G
(2)
3

(1)

17. Temperature of a body () is slightly more than the

Cv

(3)

V0

Cp

GM
GM
(4)
2L
2L
22. A steel ring of radius a and cross-sectional area A
is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius b (b > a). If
modulus of elasticity is E then, necessary tension
to expand the steel ring is

temperature. The ratio of

(3)

(2) t1 < t2

2P0

18. A Carnot engine operates with efficiency of 50%,

when its sink temperature is 27C. How much should
the temperature of source be raised in order to
increase efficiency to 70%?
(1) 400 K
(2) 500 K
(3) 600 K
(4) 700 K
19. Two mole He is mixed with 2 mole N2 at room

b
a

(4)

E ba
A a

23. An ice block floats in a liquid, whose density is

less than water. A part of block is outside the liquid.
When whole of ice has melted, the liquid level will
(1) Remain same
(2) Fall
(3) Rise
(4) First rise then fall
24. When a body dropped in a viscous fluid, then
velocity-time graph is

(2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

25. A tank is filled upto a height h with a liquid and is

placed on a platform of height h from the ground, to
get maximum range (R) a small hole is punched a
distance of y from free surface of liquid, then
(1) R = 2h

3h
(2) R
2

(3) y = h

(4) Both (1) and (3)

26. A cubical closed vessel of side l is completely filled

with water. It is accelerated with acceleration a
along positive x-axis as shown. Select correct
relation

29. When some heat is added to a gaseous system,

then select incorrect statement
(1) Its temperature must increase
(2) Its temperature may increase
(3) Its temperature m,ay remains unchanged
(4) Both (2) and (3)
30. For a body to escape from the surface of the earth,
the angle with the horizontal at which it should be
projected is
(1) 30

(2) 45

(3) 60

(4) Any angle

31. A metallic sphere weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water

and 120 g in an unknown liquid. The density of the
unknown liquid in (kg/m3) is
(1) PA < PD = PC

(2) PD > PC > PB

(3) PA = PB < PC

(4) PA < PD < PC

27. A glass slab is kept vertical in water. Water surface

in contact with slab rises upto a height h as shown.
The radius of curvature of free surface of water varies
from point P to Q. If angle of contact is zero and
after Q surface becomes horizontal, then the radius
of curvature of free surface at point P is

(1) 1000

(2) 2000

(3) 3000

(4) 4000

32. A square metal plate of area 2 m 2 is moving

horizontally at a speed of 2 m/s by applying a
horizontal tangential force over the free surface of a
liquid. If the depth of the liquid is 4 m and liquid at
the bottom is stationary then the tangential force
needed to move the plate is (coefficient of viscosity
of liquid is 103 decapoise)
(1) 2 103 N

(2) 1 103 N

(3) 3 103 N

(4) 4 103 N

33. A steel tape (thermal coefficient of linear expansion

= 1.2 105 (C)1 ) is calibrated at 25C. On a
cold day when the temperature i s 0C, the
percentage error in the measurement would be
(1)

2h
3

(2)

(3)

h
3

(4) h

h
2

(1) 0.01

(2) 0.02

(3) 0.03

(4) 0.04

34. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken round

the cyclic process ABCA as shown in figure. The
work done by the gas is

28. Two moles of an ideal diatomic gas is taken through

a cyclic process A B C D A as shown.

(TA = 100K, T B = 200K, T C = 300K, T D = 150K,

R = 8.31 J/mol-K)
The net work done by the gas during the cyclic
process A B C D A is
(1) 831 J

(2) 1662 J

(3) + 831 J

(4) + 1662 J

(1) 4P0V0

(2) 3P0V0

(3) 2P0V0

(4) P0V0

35. A body cools from 60C to 40C in 10 minute. If the

temperature of the surroundings is 10C then the
temperature after next 10 minute will be
(1) 20C

(2) 22C

(3) 25C

(4) 28C

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

36. Three point objects each of mass m are placed at

the three vertices of an equilateral triangle. They
start rotating about centroid of triangle with an
angular velocity due to mutual gravitational
attraction. The time period of revolution will be
(r = distance of the masses from the centroid of
equilateral triangle)

(1)

3 :1

(3) 3 : 1

(2) 1: 3
(4) 1 : 3

40. Which of the following cannot be the coefficient of

performance of a heat pump?

(1) 2

3 r3
Gm

(3) 2

r3
3Gm

3r 3
(2)
Gm

(4)

(1) 0.8

(2) 100

(3) 200

(4) 300

41. The escape speed of particle of mass m from earth

surface varies as

r3

(1) m2

(2)

3Gm

(3) m0

(4) m1

37. Gravitational potential varies according to the

equations Vx = x2y, Vy = xy, Vz = y2z, the correct
relation for gravitational acceleration will be

(1) g [2xyi xj y 2 k]

(2) g [2xyi yj y 2 k]

42. Bulk modulus of water is 2 1011 N/m2. change in

pressure required to increase density of water by
0.1% is
(1) 2 104 N/m2

(2) 2 106 N/m2

(3) 2 108 N/m2

(4) 2 109 N/m2

43. At which speed, the velocity head of water is equal

to pressure head of 5 cm ?

(3) g [2xyi yj y 2 k]

(4) g [x 2 i yj 2yzk]

38. Masses of the earth and the moon are M and 2M

respectively and d is distance between centre of
Earth and Moon. The minimum speed with which a
particle of mass m should be projected from a point
d
at a distance
from the centre of earth so as to
3
escape is

(1) 10 m/s

(2) 1 m/s

(3) 10 2 m/s

(4)

2 m/s

44. Force of buoyancy does not depend on

(1) Density of fluid
(2) Density of solid body immersed in the fluid
(3) Volume of fluid displaced by the solid body
(4) Effective acceleration due to gravity

(1)

GM
d

(2)

6GM
d

(3)

3GM
d

(4)

12GM
d

39. The volume V versus temperature T graphs for a

certain amount of a perfect gas at two pressure,
P1
then P will be
2

45. In a 8 m deep lake, the bottom is a constant

temperature 4C, the air temperature is 3C, the
thermal conductivity of ice is 4 times that of water.
Neglecting the expansion of water on freezing, the
maximum thickness of ice will be
(1) 6m

(2) 5m

(3) 4m

(4) 3m

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. An ionic solid is hexagonal close packing of
Q2 ions and P+x ions are half of tetrahedral voids.
The value of x should be
(1) 1

(2) 2

1
2
47. Scandium oxide (Sc2O3) crystallises with the oxide
ions in a closed packed array with the scandium
ions in octahedral holes. W hat fraction of the
octahedral holes are filled?

(3) 4

(4)

(1) All

(2)

2
3

1
1
(4)
3
2
48. Diazonium salt decomposes as

(3)

N 2 Cl

Cl + N2

At 0C, the evolution of N2 becomes four times faster

when the initial concentration of the salt is increased
four times. Therefore, it is
(1) A first order reaction
(2) A second order reaction
(3) Zero order reaction
(4) A third order reaction
49. Which of the following reaction energy diagrams best
represents a reaction in the forward direction, that is
non-spontaneous with two intermediate states?
G
G
Reactant

Reactant

(1)

(2)
Product

Product

Reaction coordinate

Reaction coordinate

Product

(3)

Product

(4)

Reactant

Reaction coordinate

Reactant

Reaction coordinate

50. The reaction rates for many spontaneous reactions

are actually very slow. Which of the following is the
best explanation for this observation?
(1) The standard entropy change is < 0
(2) The activation energy is high
(3) The standard free energy change for the reaction
is > 0
(4) These reactions are endothermic

51. 0.5% aqueous solution of KCl was found to freeze at

0.24C. Calculate the vant Hoff factor and degree
of dissociation of the solute at this concentration
(Kf for H2O = 1.86 K kg mol1).
(1) 74.5%
(2) 19.2%
(3) 92%
(4) 48%
52. Which of the following is the correct order of boiling
points of the following solutions?
a. 0.15 M NaCl
b. 0.4 M glucose solution
c. 0.15 M CaCl2 solution
d. 0.15 M urea solution
(1) d < a < c < b
(2) d < b < a < c
(3) d < a < b < c
(4) d < c < b < a
53. At 323 K, the vapour pressure in millimeters of Hg
of a methanol-ethanol solution is represented by the
equation p = 120 xA + 140, where xA is the mole
fraction of methanol. Then the value of lim

pA

x A 1 x

is

(1) 250 mm
(2) 140 mm
(3) 260 mm
(4) 20 mm
54. For the galvanic cell
Ag |AgCl(s), KCl(0.2 M)| |KBr(0.001 M); AgBr(s)| Ag.
Calculate the emf generated f or the abov e
combination at 25C.
Given ksp(AgCl) = 2.8 1010
ksp(AgBr) = 3.3 1013
(1) 0.0371 volt
(2) 0.0371 volt
(3) 0.371 volt
(4) 0.371 volt
55. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Both conductance and molar conductance
increase on increasing concentration
(2) Both conductance and molar conductance
decrease on increasing concentration
(3) Conductance increases but molar conductance
decreases on increasing concentration
(4) Conductance decreases but molar conductance
increases on increasing concentration
56. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Increase in temperature increases electrolyte
conductivity but decreases metallic conductivity
(2) Increases in temperature increases reduction
electrode potential
(3) Increasing temperature increases rate of
exothermic reactions
(4) Increasing temperature increases defects in
NaCl
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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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x
and log p is a straight line at
m
an angle 45 with intercept on y-axis, 0.3010.
Calculate the amount of the gas adsorbed in gram
per gram of the adsorbent when pressure is 0.2 atm.

57. Graph between log

(1) 0.4

(2) 0.6

(3) 0.8

(4) 0.2

58. Find the incorrect match

Sol.

Coagulating power

(1) Fe(OH)3 sol prepared

NaCl > CaCl2

by adding FeCl3 to
Fe(OH)3 precipitate
(2) Gold

NaCl < CaCl2

(3) Soap sol

AlCl3 > NaCl

(4) As2S3

AlCl3 > CaCl2

59. HF is a weak acid at 25C, the molar conductivity of

0.002 M HF solution is 176 s cm 2 mol 1. Also,
molar conductiv ity at inf inite dilution (HF) is
405 s cm2 mol1, Ka of HF is
(1) 6.4 102

(2) 6.48 104

(3) 2 103

(4) 2.6 104

60. At constant temperature, S will be maximum for

which of the following processes?
(1) Vaporisation of a pure solvent
(2) Vaporisation of solvent from solution containing
nonvolatile and non-electrolytic solute in it
(3) Vaporisation of solvent from a solution containing
nonvolatile but electrolytic solute in it
(4) Entropy change will be same in all the above
cases
61. In the given body centered cubic unit cell each sphere
has a radius r and edge length a. What fraction of
the total cube volume is empty?

(1) 2

8 r 3
3 a3

(2)

8 r 3
3 a3

(3) 1

8 r 3
3 a3

(4)

4 r 3
3 a3

62. When 0.45 mole of a compound crystallise in HCP

hexagonal close packed structure, the total number
of octahedral and tetrahedral voids present in lattice
is
(1) 4.54 1023
(2) 2.19 1023
23
(3) 8.13 10
(4) 9.95 1022
r
63. The value of radius ratio for ionic solid having
r
coordination number 4 for cation would be
(1) 0.225 to 0.414
(2) 0.414 to 0.732
(3) 0.732 to 1
(4) Both (1) & (2)
64. Henrys law constant for CO2, O2 and He in the correct
sequence at constant temperature and pressure is
(1) CO2< O2< He
(2) O2< CO2< He
(3) He < CO2< O2
(4) CO2= O2= He
65. The osmotic pressure of 35% (w/v) glucose solution
is 1.54 atm and that of 21.6% (w/v) urea solution is
2.86 atm. When equal volumes of the above two
solutions are mixed, the osmotic pressure of resulting
solution is
(1) 2.2 atm
(2) 4.4 atm
(3) 1.1 atm
(4) 1.32 atm
66. Which of the following binary solutions shows negative
deviation from Raoults law?
(1) Chloroform + Acetone
(2) Acetone + Aniline
(3) HNO3+ H2O (water)
(4) All of these
67. 1 g acetone (d = 0.6 g ml1) is mixed with 2 g of water
(d = 1.0 g /mL) hence volume percent of acetone (v/v)
is nearly
(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 45%
(4) 60%
68. Which of the following is not correct for dry cell?
(1) Zinc is used as anode
(2) Manganese is reduced from + 4 to + 3 state
(3) It is a primary cell
(4) NH3 gas is liberated out
69. A 500 ml of 0.2 M Cd+2 electrolysed with a current of
96.5 A. If the remaining concentration of Cd+2 ions is
0.1 M, then the duration of electrolysis is
(1) 50 s
(2) 75 s
(3) 125 s
(4) 100 s
70. Which of the following is/are correct statement?
A. If salf bridge is removed, potential of cell falls to
zero.
B. Cell reaction is spontaneous if emf is positive.
C. At equilibrium E cell becomes zero.
(1) B only
(2) A & B
(3) A, B & C
(4) B & C

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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1
A 2 g B g C g exhibit an
2
increase in pressure from 140 mm to 160 mm in 10
min. The rate of disappearance of A2 in mm per min is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 10
(4) 20
72. Which of the following is/are correct for first order
reaction?

71. A react ion,

I.

II.

(1)

x
kP
m

(2)

x
kP n
m

(3)

x
kP1
m

(4)

x
kPn
m

76. Which of the following is a shape selective catalyst?

(1) Cu|ZnO-Cr2O3
(2) Platinised asbestose
(3) ZSM-5
(4) Acetanilide
77. Henry law constant (KH) values for P, Q, R and S are
40.39, 1.67, 1.83 105 and 0.413 respectively. Which
one has maximum solubility?
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S
78. An electrochemical cell can behave like an electrolytic
cell when
(1) Eext > Ecell
(2) Eext < Ecell
(3) Ecell = 0
(4) Eext = Ecell
79. Which of the following is a zero-order reaction?
Au
H2 I2 (2) NO + O3 NO2 + O2
(1) 2HI
Surface

80.

III.

(1) I only
(2) I & II
(3) II & III
(4) I, II & III
73. The Arrhenius equation shows the dependence of rate

Ea

constant on temperature. In which k Ae RT

condition the rate constant k is smallest for a reaction?
(1) Small Ea and low T (2) Small Ea and high T
(3) Large Ea and low T (4) Large Ea and high T
74. If a is initial concentration of reactant and n is the
order of reaction then correct expression for half life
(t1/2) would be
(1)

(3)

1
1n

1
an

(2)

(4)

81.

1
1n

1
a

82.

n1

75. When a graph is plotted between x/m versus pressure

at constant temperature. The Freundlich equation at
B is (if n > 1)

83.

(3) H2O2 H2O + O2 (4) N2O5 NO2 + O2

Select the correct statement
(1) Molecularity of the reaction can be zero or
fractional
(2) We determine order of reaction from balanced
chemical equation always
(3) The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the
presence of catalyst
(4) All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product
formation
Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Catalyst alters the rate of reaction by changing
Ea
(2) eEa/RT is fraction of molecules with energy equal
or greater than Ea
(3) Second t1/2 of first order reaction is half of the first
t1/2
(4) All of these
Which of the following is not true to the phenomenon
of physisorption?
(1) H < 0
(2) H > 0
(3) S < 0
(4) G = ve
A first order reaction is 30% completed in 30 minute.
How much time will it require for 100% completion?
(1) 100 minute
(2) 90 minute
(3) 60 minute
(4) Infinite

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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84. Consider the following statements regarding complex

reaction :
I. A complex reaction proceeds through several
steps.
II. The molecularity of reaction is the sum of
molecularity of each step.
III. Order of a complex reaction is determined by the
fastest step in its mechanism.
Choose the correct statement(s)
(1) I & II
(2) II & III
(3) Only I
(4) I, II & III
85. Collodion is
(1) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of
alcohol and ether
(2) 95.5% solution of ethanol
(3) Colloidal solution of gold
(4) A type of semipermeable membrane
86. Choose the correct statement(s)
(1) Eocell is zero for concentration cell
(2) Ecell 0 , when cell reacti on approaches
equilibrium
(3) Specific conductance of all electrolytes decreases
on dilution

(4) All are correct

87. During rusting following redox reaction takes place :
1

2
2H O2 Fe H2O Fe ;Eo 1.67V
2

What is G of the reaction?

(1) 322.31 kJ
(2) 161.155 kJ
(3) 322.31 kJ
(4) +161.155 kJ
88. Which of the following has the highest Kf?
(1) Camphor
(2) Water
(3) Chloroform
(4) Benzene
89. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains
0.63 g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such a
solution at 27C is found to be 2.57 103 bar.
What will be the approx molar mass of the protein?
[R = 0.083 L bar mol1 K1]
(1) 61022 g mol1
(2) 30520 g mol1
(3) 15255.5 g mol1
(4) 122044 g mol1
90. 31 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 500 g
of water. What will be the freezing point of water? [Kf
for water = 1.86 K kg mol1]
(1) 269.14 K
(2) 271.29 K
(3) 275.01 K
(4) 273.95 K

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Elaioplasts, amyloplasts and aleuroplasts
(1) Contain ds DNA molecule
(2) Store nutrients and pigments
(3) Store starch, fat and protein respectively
(4) Divide by multiple fission
92. Which of the following statements are correct?

93. Which of the following organelle is not bounded by

two lipoprotein membranes?
(1) Nucleus

(2) Golgi body

(3) Mitochondria

(4) Plastid

94. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

a. Colchicine inhibits the formation of mitotic
spindle.

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is frequently

observed in the cells actively involved in protein
synthesis.

b. Centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm of dicot

plants during interphase.

b. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are

synthesised on free ribosomes.

(1) Only a is correct

(2) b and c are correct

(3) Only b is correct

(4) a and c are correct

c. In eukaryotic cell there is an extensiv e

compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through the
presence of membrane bound organelles

c. Cell cycle is under the genetic control.

95. Prophase of the mitotic division is

(1) Longer and more complex than prophase-I of
meiosis

d. ER is found prominently in human eggs and

sperms.

(2) Shorter and less complex than prophase-I of

meiosis

(1) All are correct

(2) b and d

(3) a, b and d

(4) a and c

(3) Longer and less complex than prophase-I of

meiosis
(4) Shorter and more complex than prophase-I of
meiosis
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96. Choose the incorrect match

103. Conjoint type of vascular bundles are present in

(1) Synapsis

Zygotene

(1) Root, stem

(2) Root, leaves

(2) Phragmoplast

E.coli

(3) Stem, leaves

(4) Root only

(3) DNA replication

S-phase

(4) Pachytene

Crossing over

97. Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant

such as young stem and petiole of leaf is provided
by a living tissue called

104. Which of the following functions are performed by

heart wood?
a. Mechanical support
b. Durable

(1) Collenchyma

(2) Aerenchyma

c. Conduction

(3) Chlorenchyma

(4) Sclerenchyma

d. Pathogen resistant

98. Dicot root is different from monocot root in having

(1) Fewer xylem bundles
(2) Polyarch condition
(3) Large and well developed pith

(1) a, c and d

(2) a, b, c and d

(3) a, b and c

(4) a, b and d

105. Undifferentiated mesophyll is present in the leaf of

(1) Potato

(2) Sunflower

(3) Pea

(4) Wheat

(4) Pericycle
99. Pick the odd one out
(1) Glyoxysome oxidation of fatty acid

106. Discovery of nucleus is credited to

(2) Peroxisome Enzyme for peroxide synthesis

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Leeuwenhoek

(3) Sphaerosome Synthesise and storage of fats

(3) Robert Brown

(4) Purkinje

(4) Mitochondria Absence of enzymes in outer

membrane
100. Choose correct option with respect to origin and
position of meristem responsible for the regeneration
of parts removed by the grazing herbivores.

107. Along with genomic DNA, small circular DNA is

present in
(1) Chlorella

(2) Spirogyra

(3) Spirullina

(4) Chlamydomonas

108. Which of the following microbodies are present both

in plant and animal cells?

101. Companion cells are

(1) Thin, parenchymatous, enucleated cells

(1) Sphaerosomes

(2) Glyoxisomes

(3) Peroxisomes

(4) Centrosomes

109. Cells which do not divide further will show which of

the following transition in the cell cycle?

(2) Thick, sclerenchymatous, nucleated cells

(1) G1 S

(2) G2 M

(3) Thin, parenchymatous, nucleated cells

(3) G1 G0

(4) G0 S

(4) Thick, collenchymatous, enucleated cells

102. From the given options choose the cells/tissue which
loose their protoplasm during the maturation.

110. Choose the correct time duration for the given below
phases of cell cycle in human cell
(1) C, K 2 hr; G1, S, G2 >95%

(1) Collenchyma, sclerenchyma

(2) G1, C, K 1 hr; G0, S, G2 23 hr

(2) Aerenchyma, chlorenchyma

(3) G1, S, G2 5%; C, K 95%

(3) Sclerenchyma, bast fibres

(4) C, K 1 hr; G1, S, G2 >95%

(4) Sclereids, xylem parenchyma

[where C-Cytokinesis, K-Karyokinesis, S-Synthetic

phase, G1-Gap 1 phase, G2-Gap 2 phase]

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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111. What is the site of DNA and centriole duplication

respectively?

118. How many of the following events occur in the

meiosis twice?

(1) Nucleus, nucleus

a. Karyokinesis

(2) Nucleus, cytoplasm

b. Cytokinesis

(3) Cytoplasm, nucleus

c. DNA duplication
d. Centriole duplication

(4) Nucleus, nucleolus

112. Spindle f ibres attach to kinetochores of
chromosomes during
(1) Early prophase

(2) Anaphase

(3) Metaphase

(4) Telophase

113. Choose the correct sequence of steps which occurs

during anaphase:
a. Chromatids move
b. Chromatids separate

e. Condensation of chromatin
f.

Bivalent formation

(1) Four

(2) Five

(3) Three

(4) Six

119. Mention the DNA content of cell at the S, prophase

I, prophase II of meiocyte.
(1) 4C, 4C, 2C

(2) 2C, 1C, 2C

(3) 4C, 2C, 2C

(4) 1C, 4C, 2C

120. Interkinesis is a short phase between

c. Centromere split

(1) Prophase I and prophase II

(1) a b c

(2) c b a

(3) b c a

(4) a c b

114. Reformation of nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER

occurs during
(1) Anaphase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Prophase

(4) Telophase

115. What would be the DNA content in the cell at G1,

G2, anaphase stage, when the content after mitotic
phase is 40 Pg?
(1) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, Anaphase = 40 Pg
(2) G1 = 40 Pg, G2 = 80 Pg, Anaphase = 80 Pg

(2) Meiosis I and meiosis II

(3) Telophase I and prophase II
(4) More than one option is correct
121. How many bivalents are formed in meiocyte of
human?
(1) 2

(2) 23

(3) 46

(4) 21

122. How many chromosomes and DNA content will the

cell have in G 1 phase, after S-phase and after
M-phase respectively, if root tip cells possess 14
chromosomes?
(1)

14 28
14
,
and
2C 4C
4C

(2)

14 14
14
,
and
2C 4C
2C

(3)

14 14
7
,
and
2C 2C
2C

(4)

28 28
14
,
and
4C 8C
2C

(3) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, Anaphase = 40 Pg

(4) G1 = 80 Pg, G2 = 40 Pg, Anaphase = 80 Pg
116. Mitosis is usually restricted to diploid cells.However,
haploid cells also divide by mitosis in some
(1) Lower plants
(2) Social insects
(3) Colonial insects
(4) More than one option is correct
117. In which of the following phase of the cell cycle
recombinase enzyme is activated?
(1) Leptotene

(2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene

(4) Diplotene

123. The most dramatic period of the cell cycle which

involves a major reorganisation of virtually all
components of the cell, is
(1) Pre-mitotic phase
(2) Post-mitotic phase
(3) Synthesis phase
(4) M-phase

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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124. Mitosis is also called equational division since the

(1) Chromosomes are shortest and thickest in
metaphase
(2) Condensation of chromosomes completes on
equator
(3) Number of chromosomes in the parent and
progeny cells is the same

(2) High nucleocytoplasmic ratio

(3) Low surface area/volume ratio
(4) More than one option is correct
129. Match the following correctly
Column I

Column II

a. First phase of prophase-I (i) Diakinesis

(4) Alignment of tractile fibres with chromosomes

occurs on equator

b. Formation of synaptone- (ii) Diplotene

125. In the light of given diagrams A and B, select the

correct events

c. Terminalisation start pha- (iii) Zygotene

se

mal complex

d. Fully condensed and

meiotic spindle assem-

(iv) Leptotene

bled phase
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
130. Metaphase-I is different from metaphase in
(1) A Condensation
completes

of

chromosomes

(1) Attachment of spindle fibres with kinetochores

B Spindle fibres attach to centromeres

(2) Arrangement of monad chromosomes on single

metaphase plate

(2) A Cells do not show Golgi complexes, ER,

nucleolus and nuclear envelope

(3) Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on the

equatorial plate

B Each chromosome is connected by two

chromosomal fibres
(3) A Cells show Golgi bodies, chromosomes
and ER at the end of this phase
B Centromere divides
(4) A Spireme stage of chromosomes
B Congression of chromosomes and
centrosomes
126. G0 phase or quiescent stage is characterised by
(1) Presence of metabolically inactive cells with no
synthesis of RNA and protein
(2) Metabolically active and non-proliferating cells
(3) Presence of metabolically inactive cells with
synthesis of RNA and protein

(4) Having fully decondensed stage of chromosomes

131. The tendency of the recombined homologous
chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from
each other except at the sites of crossing over
can be observed in
(1) Metaphase I

(2) Anaphase I

(3) Pachytene

(4) Diplotene

132. Actual phase of the reduction in chromosomes

number during meiosis is
(1) Prophase I

(2) Anaphase I

(3) Anaphase II

(4) Telophase I

133. Identify the given diagrams marked by A and B with

respect to stages of cell division

(4) Exit of cells from S-phase

127. Division of centromere and poleward movement of
chromatids is characterised by
(1) Anaphase and Metaphase I
(2) Anaphase and Anaphase I
(3) Anaphase I and Anaphase II
(4) Anaphase and Anaphase II
128. Cell growth is maximum in G1 phase which results
in developing
(1) High surface area/volume ratio

(1) A Anaphase I,

B Telophase I

(2) A Anaphase II,

B Telophase I

(3) A Anaphase I,

B Telophase II

(4) A Anaphase II,

B Telophase II

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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134. Meiosis involves all, except

(1) Two sequential cycles of DNA replication

c. Tachypnea

(iii) No breathing

d. Eupnea

(iv) Painful breathing except in

upright position

(2) Single cycle of DNA duplication

(3) Two sequential cycles of cell division

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(4) Twice duplication of centrioles

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

135. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) MitosisEquational division

140. Oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to left

due to all of the following factors except

(3) Meiosis IReduction division

(1) Increase in partial pressure of oxygen and

decrease in partial pressure of CO2

(4) Meiosis IIHeterotypic division

(2) Increase in pH

(2) MeiocytesSporophytes in Bryophytes

(3) Excess of DPG

136. Gastric glands are found in

(4) Low body temperature

(1) Mucosa and submucosa

141. Find the correct statement

(2) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

(1) Ventral respiratory group is located in medulla

and controls the switch off point of inspiration

(3) Mucosa
(4) Muscularis externa

(2) Dead space is the amount of air left in lungs

after normal expiration

137. Mark the incorrect match

Deficiency
Disease

Deficient
nutrient

Symptoms

(3) Mountain sickness is due to decreased partial

pressure of oxygen at high altitude

(1)

Beri beri

Vitamin B1
(Thiamine)

Inflammation
of
peripheral nerves,
weakness of limb
muscles, paralysis

(4) Hering-Breuers reflex is mainly a protective

mechanism for preventing excessive deflation of
lungs

(2)

Cheilosis

Vitamin B2
(Riboflavin)

Bleeding of gums,
falling of teeth

142. Which of the following can be measured with the

help of simple spirometer?

(3)

Pellagra

Nicotinamide

Canine or black
tongue disease in
dogs

a. FRC

b. RV

c. TLC

d. VC

Less rhodopsin in
rod cells, no vision
in dim light

(1) c only

(2) d only

(3) a and b only

(4) c and d only

(4)

Nyctalopia

Vitamin A
(Retinol)

138. Select the incorrect statement

143. Incomplete double circulation is found in

(1) Pepsinogen has no proteolytic activity, unless

activated into pepsin

(1) Amphibians and reptiles

(2) Bile is a watery greenish fluid containing bile

pigments, bile salts, cholesterol and
phospholipids

(3) Mammals

(3) In stomach, hydrochloric acid denatures the

salivary amylase and prevents further breakdown
of carbohydrates (disaccharides)
(4) Bilirubin and biliverdin are formed from the
breakdown of globin protein of haemoglobin
molecule
139. Match the following
Column I

(2) Fishes
(4) Birds
144. Bundle of His comprises of
(1) Right and left bundle on the top of interventricular
septum
(2) Right and left bundle branches along with
Purkinje fibres
(3) Right and left bundle in the atrioventricular
septum
(4) Purkinje fibres only

Column II

a. Apnea

(i) Rapid shallow breathing

b. Dyspnea

(ii) Normal breathing

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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145. Cardiac output of an athlete during exercise is much

higher than an ordinary man. It means that human
body has the ability to alter

149. The duct of gall bladder (cystic duct) along with the
hepatic duct from the liver, together form _____
(1) Common hepatic duct

a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate

(2) Common bile duct

c. Duration of cardiac cycle

(3) Cystic duct

Choose the correct options

(4) Hepatopancreatic duct

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b only

(4) a, b and c

146. Which of the following cardiac functions can be

moderated by neural signals from special neural
centre in the medulla oblongata?
a. Rate of heart beat
b. Cardiac output
c. Speed of conduction of action potential
d. Strength of ventricular contraction and thereby
the cardiac output
(1) a and b

(2) a, b and c

(3) a, b, c and d

(4) a, b and d

147. Which of the following is the incorrect match with

respect to disorders of circulatory system?
(1) Heart murmur

An abnormal sound due to

defective AV valves

(2) Angina

A symptom of acute chest

pain appears when no
enough oxygen is
reaching the heart muscle

(3) Heart failure

The state of heart when it

is not pumping blood
effectively enough to meet
the needs of the body

(4) Stokes-Adams When SA node fails to

generate the cardiac
syndrome
impulse
148. Find the incorrect statement.
(1) There is one pair of parotid gland present
beneath and in front of ears which releases
secretion in buccal cavity
(2) Small intestine is the longest part of alimentary
canal
(3) The innermost layer lining the alimentary canal
is mucosa. This layer forms irregular folds, villi in
stomach
(4) Secretion of saliva is under autonomic control

150. Although 90% of all water absorption occurs in the

small intestine but still, the large intestine absorbs
enough of water that makes it an important organ in
maintaining bodys water balance. This water
absorption in large intestine is by
(1) Active transport
(2) Osmosis
(3) Diffusion
(4) Facilitate diffusion
151. Which of the following is the principal enzyme for the
digestion of fats?
(1) Lingual lipase
(2) Gastric lipase
(3) Pancreatic lipase
(4) Intestinal lipase
152. If the inspiratory capacity is 3000 ml, expiratory
capacity is 1500 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml. Find
out the vital capacity of a person.
(1) 4000 ml
(2) 4500 ml
(3) 2000 ml
(4) 5000 ml
153. The most important function of diaphragm in
mammals is to
(1) Protect lungs
(2) Aid in transport of gases in blood
(3) Aid in pulmonary ventilation
(4) Divide body cavity into compartments
154. Expiration is a process by which deoxygenated air
is expelled out from the lungs. W hich of the
following process does not occur during normal or
forceful expiration?
(1) Relaxation of diaphragm
(2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscle
(3) Contraction of abdominal muscles
(4) Ribs are pulled upward and outward
155. Match the following
Column I

Column II

a. Inspiration

(i) Supplemental air

b. IRV

(ii) Active process

c. ERV
d. Expiration

(iii) Passive process

(iv) Complemental air

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
156. Thoracic breathing is more prominent in
(1) Normal healthy man
(2) Old age
(3) Pregnant female
(4) Slow, normal, quiet breathing

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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157. As the size of organism increases one would expect

that
Heart
Cardiac
Metabolic
rate
output
rate
(1) Decreases
Increases
Decreases
(2) Increases
Inceases
Decreases
(3) Decreases
Decreases Increases
(4) Increases
Decreases Increases
158. The sino-atrial node generates an action potential
which stimulates both the atria to contract. This
increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by
about
(1) 70%
(2) 30%
(3) 50%
(4) 20%
159. What is the maximum number of action potential
generated by SAN?
(1) 70-75/min
(2) 40-60/min
(3) 14-16/min
(4) 25-30/min
160. Thoracic duct pours lymph into the
(1) Right subclavian artery
(2) Right subclavian vein
(3) Left subclavian artery
(4) Left subclavian vein
161. The pulmonary trunk is connected with the aorta by
the _ A__ that represent remanant of an embryonic
connection __B__
A
B
(1) Foramen ovale Ductus arteriosus
(2) Foramen ovale Fossa ovalis
(3) Ligamentum
Ductus arteriosum
arteriosum
(4) Ductus
Ligamentum arteriosum
arteriosum
162. In a normal person at rest, the cardiac output or
amount of blood ejected by each ventricle per minute
is
(1) 5 L/min
(2) 10 L/min
1
L/min
2
163. Which one of the following is a characteristic of
myogenic heart?
(1) Impulse is generated by special muscular tissue
that develops within the heart
(2) There are special conducting nerve fibre for
spreading the impulse
(3) It will stop beating immediately when heart is
detached from the body
(4) Impulse of heart beat is generated by nervous
system but spread by muscles

(3) 2 L/min

(4)

164. Lubb-dubb sound during heart beat are due to

(1) Closing of AV valve and opening of semilunar
valve respectively
(2) Closing of AV valve and closing of semilunar
valve respectively
(3) Closing of tricuspid valve and closing bicuspid
valve respectively
(4) Opening of AV valve and closing of semilunar
valve respectively
165. Heart beat is accelerated by
(1) Cranial nerves and adrenaline
(2) Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
(3) Sympathetic nervous system and acetylcholine
(4) Xth cranial nerve and acetylcholine
166. In breathing movements, pulmonary volumes can be
estimated by
(1) Stethoscope
(2) Hygrometer
(3) Sphygmomanometer
(4) Spirometer
167. CO2 dissociates from carbamino haemoglobin when
(1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
(2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low
(3) pCO2 and pO2 are high
(4) pCO2 and pO2 are low
168. A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an
accident, without any damage to the lungs. Its effect
could be
(1) Reduced breathing rate
(2) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(3) No change in respiration
(4) Cessation of breathing
169. The following factors f avour the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin, except
(1) High pO2
(2) Low pCO2
+
(3) High H
(4) Low temperature
170. Long exposure to stone dust can give rise to
inflammation leading to formation of fibrous tissue
and thus causing serious lung damage. Such an
occupational respiratory disorder is
(1) Pneumoconiosis
(2) Byssinosis
(3) Asbestosis
(4) Silicosis
171. As CO2 produced in the tissues combines with H2O
in the blood (RBCs)
(1) Carbonic acid is formed
(2) Cl enters the RBCs
(3) HCO3 leaves the RBCs for the blood plasma
(4) All of these are correct

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Test - 3 (Objective) Code-B

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172. Which of the following is not a structural feature of

the left lung?
(1) Superior lobe

(2) Cardiac notch

(3) Inferior lobe

(4) Middle lobe

177. Choose the true statement regarding pulmonary

surfactant
a. It increases the surface tension of the fluid lining
alveolar walls.
b. It is present in large amount in foetal lungs.

173. In humans, RBCs contain a very high concentration

of enzyme X and minute quantity of the same is
present in the plasma too. This enzyme facilitates
the following reaction in both directions.
x

CO2 + H2O

c. It increases in amount after the birth of baby,

when air enters into it.
d. It increases in amount in smokers.
(1) a, b and c are true

H2CO3

(2) Only c is true

Identify the enzyme X and its co factor

(1) Carbonic anhydrase, Mg2+

(3) c and d are true

(2) Carbonic anhydrase, Zn2+

(4) a and b are true

178. The following are the functions of organs or regions
of digestiv e system. Choose the option with
incorrect description.

(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase, NAD+

(4) Decarboxylase, Cl

Organs/regions

174. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily

related to

Ingests food, grinds food

and mixes it with saliva,
initiates digestion of
carbohydrates; forms and
swallows food bolus

(2) Oesophagus

Transports bolus to
stomach by peristalsis,
oesophageal sphincter
restricts backflow of food

(3) Stomach

Receiv es bolus f rom

oesophagus; churns
bolus with gastric juice
to form chyme; initiates
digestion of proteins and
complex sugars

(4) Small intestine

Receives chyme from

stomach, along with bile
from liver and pancreatic
juice f rom pancreas,
absorbs nutrients

(1) Partial pressure of oxygen

(2) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
(3) Hydrogen ion concentration
(4) Temperarture
175. Which of the following centres in brain is primarily
responsible for regulation of normal rhythm of
respiration in humans?
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre in pons
(2) Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla
(3) Pneumotaxic centre in pons
(4) Apneustic centre in pons
176. The given graph is the oxygen dissociation curve for
normal adult haemoglobin. In which of the following
case, the curve will be towards left?

Functions

(1) Buccal cavity

179. The reflex action in which there is ejection of

stomach contents through mouth is regulated by
___A___ present in ___B___ of brain.
Choose the correct option for A and B .
A

(1) Vomit centre

Hypothalamus

(2) Satiety centre

Hypothalamus

a. Foetal haemoglobin

(3) Hunger centre

Hypothalamus

b. Carboxyhaemoglobin

(4) Vomit centre

Medulla

c. Decrease in P50 value

d. Increase in

H+

ion concentration

180. The mucosal layer is folded. These irregular,

temporary folds in the stomach lining are called

(1) a and c

(2) a and d

(1) Villi

(2) Microvilli

(3) a, b and c

(4) b, c and d

(3) Rugae

(4) Both (1) and (2)

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ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 3

2015
CODE-B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.

(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(1)

37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.

(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)

46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.

(2)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(4)

73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.

(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(4)

101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.

(3)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)

109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.

(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(2)

145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.

(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)