CODE : GANESH

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

PPART TEST 5
LT-IIT (REG)

Time : 3 hours

Ma xi mum ma rk s : 24 6
Da te : 21 -0 3 -09

MATHS
SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1.

2.
3.

4.

5.

6.

In a two player game there is always a winner. A,B and C are there players. The probabilities of A
beating B, B beating C and C beating A are equal and equal to 2/3. If two players play, the winner
will play with the third. If B and C play, then the probability of A being the final winner is
a) 2/9
b) 5/9
c) 1/9
d) 4/9
abc
If 0 a, b, c 1 and a b c 2 , then the minimum value of
1 a 1 b 1 c is
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3
If A and B are different square matrices of same order such that A B 3 and A2 B B 2 A then
2
2
2
2
a) det A B 0
b) det A B 0 c) det A B 0
d)det A B 0
a a a
a wher x is the greatest integer not
The number of real solutions a such that
2 3 5
exceeding x is
a) 15
b) 25
c) 35
d) 30
2
If the quadratic equation ax bx 6 0 has no distinct real roots, then the minimum value of
3a b is
a) -2
b) -1
c) 4
d) 1
1 0 0
A 2 1 0
X 1 , X 2 and X3 are the column vectors such that
Let
and
3 2 1
1
AX 1 0 , AX 2
0

2
2
3 and AX 3
. B is the 3 3 matrix whose columns are X 1 , X 2 and X3.

3
0
1
Then det B is equal to
a) 3/2
b) 2
c) -3
d) 3

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

SECTION B
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

7.

6 5
, then
7 6
6 5
a) adj A

7 6
If A

6 5

7 6
1 1
2
d) A

1 1
1
b) A

c) A2 12 A I 0
8.

Z1 , Z 2 , Z 3 are complex numbers such that Z1 Z 2 Z 3 1 and

a) Z1 Z 2 Z 3 1

Z12
Z2
Z2
2 3 1 . Then
Z 2 Z 3 Z 3 Z1 Z1Z 2

b) Z1 Z 2 Z 3 2 c) Z1 Z 2 Z 3 1 or 2

d) The distance between the origin circumcentre and orthocenter of the triangle with vertices at
Z1 , Z 2 and Z 3 is 2.
9.

Coefficient of x 50 in the expansion of 1 1 x 1 x ... 1 x

2

a)
10.

100

C51

b)

99

C50

c)

100

C49

d)

99

is

99

C49

Let a and b be two positive real numbers. Suppose A1 , A2 are two arithmetic means; G1 and G2 are
two geometric means and H1 , H 2 are two harmonic means t\between a and b. then
G1G2
A A2
G1G2 5 2 a b
1

a)
b)
H1 H 2 H1 H 2
H1 H 2 9 9 b a
H1 H 2
9ab

c)
A1 A2 2a b a 2b

H1 H 2 2 5 a 2 b 2

d)

A1 A2 9 9 a b

SECTION C
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.

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11.

Assertion (A):
4 9 16

is 81.
x y z

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

If x,y,z are positive reals such that x y z 1 then the minimum value of

4 9 16 4 9 16
x y z .
x y z x y z
Assertion (A): There are FOUR machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty. They
are tested one by one, in a random order till both the faulty machines are identified. Then the
probability that only two tests are needed is 1/6.
Reason (R):
Two faulty machines can be identified, if the first two tests yield the two good ones or
faulty ones.
2
Assertion (A): Let an n 20 and d n is the greatest common divisor of an and an 1 . Then 81 is the
least positive integer which is divisible by d n .
Reason (R):

12.

13.

Reason (R): If a non-zero integer p divides two integers m and n, then p divides m n .
133
1
cos ec10 .
14. Assertion (A):
0
0
k 45 sin k sin k 1
Reason (R):

1
sin k sin k 1
0

cos ec10 cot k 0 cot k 1

SECTION D
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 15 to 17

PASSAGE-I
1
a1 , a2 ,.........an
a1a2 a3 .....an n
n
(equality holds if and only if a1 a2 a3 ..... an ). Answer the questions numbered 15,16 and 17.

If a1 , a2 ,.........an are positive real numbers, then

15.

If a,b,c and d are positive reals such that a b c d 2 , then M a b c d satisfies the
relation:
a) 0 M 1

16.

c) 2 M 3

In ABC whose side lengths are a,b and c,d. let M

a) 0 M 3

17.

b) 1 M 2

b) 0 M 3

Let a,b,c be positive reals and M

a) 0 M a
c) a b M a b c

c) M 3

d) 3 M 4

a
. Then
b c a
d) 3 M 9

b2 c 2 c 2 a 2 a 2 b2
then

bc
ca
ab
b) a M a b
d) a b c M 2 a b c

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

PASSAGE-II

The system of equation a1 x b1 y c1 z 0, a2 x b2 y c2 z 0 and a3 x b3 y c3 z 0

a1 b1 c1
has common non-zero solution if and only if a2 b2 c2 0 . Consider the system of equation
a3 b3 c3
x k 4 y 4k 2 z 0 ,

2 x 3ky 3k 4 z 0, x 2 k 1 y 3k 4 z 0

answer

the

questions numbered 18,19 and 20.

18.
19.
20.

The system has no no-zero solution if

a) k 2
b) k 0
The system has non-zero solution if
a) k = 0
b) k 2
when k = -2, then
a) x 4t , y t , z t
c) x t , y t , z 3t

c) k 2
c) k 1

d) k is any real
d) no real value for k

b) x 2t , y 4t , z t
d) x t , y 2t , z 4t
PASSAGE-III

2
Let f x ax bx c 0 be a quadratic equation and be real roots. Then for all

x , , f x and a have opposite signs and for all x or x , f x and a have same sign.

If f x 0 has no real roots, then for all x R , f x and a will have the same sign. Answer the
21.

22.

questions numbered 21,22 and 23.

If both roots of x 2 mx 1 0 are less than unity then
a) m 2
b) 0 m 2
c) m 2
d) m

2
If 6 lies between the roots of the equation x 2 m 3 x 9 0 , then

3
3
3
3
b) m
c) m
d) m 0
4
4
4
4
2
Suppose one root of a 5 x 2ax a 4 0 is les then unity and the other is greater then 2, then
A) m

23.

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29
a) a
4

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009
29
c) 5 a
4

b) a 5

d) 5 a 24

PHYSICS
SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

24.

25.

In a resonating air column experiment, when the air-column is vibrated with a tuning fork, the first
and the second resonating lengths are measured as l1 and l2 . When a tuning fork of relatively high
frequency is used, the measurement of
a) l1 becomes more sharp

b) l2 becomes more sharp

c) both l1 and l2 remain equally sharp

d) none of these

Plane wavefronts are incident on a spherical concave mirror as shown in the figure. Which of the
following figures best represents the reflected wavefrant ?

a)

b)

c)

d)

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26.

27.

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

64
Masses of two isobars 29 Cu and
data, is can be concluded that

64
30

Zn are 63.9298 amu and 63.9292 amu. Respectively from this

a) Zn decays to Cu through - decay

b) Cu decays to Zn through decay

c) Cu decays to Zn through - decay

d) nothing can be concluded.

In the circuit shown in the figure, the ammeter is accurate but the voltmeter has zero-error. When the
ammeter reads 1.75 A, the voltmeter reads 14.4 V but when the ammeter reads 2.75 A, the voltmeter
reading changes to 22.4V. The zero error of the voltmeter is
R
V
A

a) 0.2 V

28.

b) 0.4 V

c) 0.3 V

d) 0.1 V

In the figure shown, if a parallel bean of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then the
nearest white spot on the screen form O is at a distance of (assume d << D and d )
S1
2d/3
O
d/3
a) 0

29.

b) d/2

S2

D
c) d/3

d) d/6

15 1
15 1
Light described at a place by the equation E 100 v m sin 5 10 s t sin 8 10 s t falls
on a metal surface having work function 2 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo
electrons is

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a) 1.29 eV

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009
b) 2.05 eV

c) 3.27 eV

d) 6.56 eV

SECTION B
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

30.

In the experiment for the determination of the focal length of a concave mirror, the following reading
were noted. (u = object distance and v = image distance)
1/u

0.040

0.034

0.029

0.025

0.023

0.020

1/v

0.010

0.017

0.022

0.025

0.028

0.032

Which of the following is correct?

a)

31.

1/v

0.05 cm-1

20 cm

b)

B
0.05 cm-1

1/u

c) the radius of
curvature of the mirror is 40 cm
A
450
u marked as 40 cm then (a) would be correct
d) In the option 20
(a) cm
if A and B were
Two point coherent sources are d 4 apart. A detector is moved to register maxima. How many
maxima will it register?
a) when it moves along a line parallel to the slits. It registers 9 maxima
b) when it moves along a line perpendicular to the line joining the slits and passing through one of
the slits it registers 9 maxima
c) when it moves along the perpendicular bisector to the line joining the two slits then it registers 9
maxima
d) it will not register any maxima, whatever be the line of motion

32.

The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 n2 where n1 and n2 are the principal
quantum numbers of the two states. Assume Bohrs model to be valid. The time period of the
electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are
a) n1 4, n2 2

33.

b) n1 8, n2 2

c) n1 8, n2 1

d) n1 6, n2 3

In two system of units, the relation between velocity, acceleration and force is given by
2
v2 v1 e , a2 a1 e.t, and F2 F1 where e and t are constants. In these systems
t
et

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

a) m2 e t m1

b) m1 e t m2

2 2

2 2

c) l1e l2t
3

d) l2 e3 l1t 3

SECTION C
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.
34.

Assertion (A): In the experiment of the verification of Ohms law, using voltmeter-ammeter
method, an experimenter noted the readings of voltmeter and the ammeter as 2.15 V and 1.60 A. He
should find the volue of resistance upto 3 significant digits.
Reason (R): Reliability in the computed value canot be greater than that of the measured values.

35.

Assertion (A) : In -decay, the kinetic energy of the emitted -particle is never equal to the
disintegration energy of the reaction.
Reason (R) : In -decay, the daughter nucleus recoils as -particle is emitted to conserve the
momentum.

36.

Assertion (A) : Two sources of same frequency but of different amplitudes. Also have phase
difference between the waves is time independent. When they superpose, observable interference is
obtained
Reason(R) : The sources are not coherent due to unequal amplitudes

37.

Assertion (A) : If the accelerating potential in an X-ray tube is increased, the wvelengths of the
characteristic X-rays donot change
Reason (R) : When an electron beam strikes the target in an X-ray tube, part of kinetic energy is
converted into X ray.
SECTION D
Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

PASSAGE-I
P l1 20 m, l2 40 m light of
In youngs double slit experiment shown in the figure,
wavelength
S 500nm is incident on the slits separated by a distance of d 10 m , a screen is
placed at a distance D
l1 = 2 m away from the slits.
S1
l2

S2
D

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38.

The values of relative to the central line where maxima appears on the screen are given by ( n is
an integer)
n
1
1
a) sin 2
40

39.

1 n
1
b) sin
40

n
1
1
c) sin 2
60

1 n
1
d) sin
60

How many maxima can occur on the screen ?

a) 41

40.

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

b) 61

c) 31

d) 21

What should be minimum thickness of a slab of refractive index 1.5 to be placed in the path of one
of the ray so that minima occurs at C?
a) 200 nm

b) 100 nm

c) 400 cm
PASSAGE-II

d) 500 nm

Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a piece
of sodium. The kinetic energy of the fastest photo electrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The
work function for sodium is 1.82 eV.
41.

The quantum numbers of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons are
a) n1 2, n2 4

42.

c) n1 1, n2 3

d) n1 3, n2 1

The change in the angular momentum of the hydrogen atom in the above transition is
a) 2h

43.

b) n1 4, n2 2
b) 4h

c) h

d) 3h

The recoil speed of the emitting atom assuming it to be at rest before the transition.
a) 0.814 ms 1

b) 8.14 ms 1

c) 81.4 ms 1

d) 814 ms 1

PASSAGE-III
+
In the circuit shown, the internal resistance of the cell is negligible.
The distance of the jockey from left hand end of the wire is l. the adjoining graph shows the variation
6V
of current I with length l of the slide wise.
100 cm

l
G

R
+

Cell

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

i(in mA)
50
40
0

100
20

l( in cm)

-125
44.

For balancing condition of the instrument value of l =

a) 40 cm

45.

c) 100 cm

d) 60 cm

b) 40

c) 38

d) 45

c) 1.2 V

d) 3 V

The value of R =
a) 30

46.

b) 20 cm

The value of emf of the cell is

a) 0.98 V

b) 1.86 V

CHEMISTRY
SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

47.

48.

An impure sample of sodium oxalate Na2C2O4 weighing 0.20 g is dissolved in aqueous solution of
H 2 SO4 and solution is titrated at 700 C, requiring 45mL of 0.02 M KMnO4 solution. the point is
overrun, and back titration in carried out with 10 ml of 0.1 M oxalic acid solution. Find the % purity
of Na2C2O4 in simple:
a) 75
b) 83.75
c) 90.25
d) None of these
To a 10 ml, 1 M aqueous solution of Br2 , excess of NaOH is added so that all Br2 is disproportional
to Br - and BrO3 -. the resulting solution is free from Br - , by extraction and excess of OH -

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

neutralised by acidifying the solution. the resulting solution is sufficient to react with 2 g of impure
CaC2O4 M 128 g / mol sample. the % purity of oxalate sample is :
49.

a) 85.3%
b) 12.5%
Match Ka values with suitable acid :
Ka
1) 3.3 105

c) 90%

d) 64%

Acid
COOH

2) 4.2 105

3) 6.3 105

50.

51.
52.

Me

COOH

Cl

COOH

4) 6.4 105

Meo

COOH

5) 30.6 105

O2N

COOH

I
II
a)
a
b
b)
d
b
c)
d
b
d)
d
c
Identity the correct statements(s)

III
c
c
a
b

IV
d
e
c
e

V
e
a
e
a

I
II
III
IV
a) I & II are antiaromatic
b) III & IV are non-aromatic
c) II alone is aromatic
d) II & IV are non-aromatic
Phenol & benzoic acid, can be separated by
a) NaHCO3
b) NaOH sol
c) FeCl3 sol d) all of these
Match list -I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I
List II
A)
van arkel method
1) Manufacture of caustic soda
B)
Solvay process
2) Purification of titanium
C)
Cupellation
3) Manufacture of Na2Co3
D)
poling
4) Refining of silver
5) purification of Cu

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

Codes
a)
b)
c)
d)

A
2
4
2
2

B
1
3
3
1

C
3
2
4
3

D
4
1
5
4

SECTION B
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

53.

54.

55.
56.

Which of the following are non-ideal solutions & form azeotzopes

a) cyclohezane + cycloheptane
b) cyclohexane + CH3OH
c) CH3OH + C2H5OH
d) C2H5OH +H2O
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to isoelectric point ?
a) The isoelectric point is the pH at which the aminoacid bears no net charge.
b) It corresponds to pH at with the concentration of the zwitter ion is at a maximum
c) It is the average of pKa1 & pKa2 values
d) Isoelectric point may have pH 27 or close to 7 to < 7 depending on nature of amino acids
Which of the following reacts with three moles of phenyl hydrazine to given same osazone
a) glucose
b) fructose
c) mannose
d) galactose

The E will attack which ring in the following compounds & which is the rate of ESR in this
O
Y
O
C

(A)
O
C

a)
b)
c)
d)

NH

P
(B)
In A, ring X will take part in electrophilic substitution reaction
In A, ring Y will take part in electophilic substitute an reaction (ESR)
In B, ring Q will take part in ESR
Compoind B is more reactive than compound A.

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VSP-VR / 21-03-2009
SECTION C
Reasoning Type

This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

57.

58.
59.

60.

a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.
Assertion (A): An organic compound on diazotization followed by reaction with alkaline solution of
- naphthol gives orange dye.
Reason (R): An organic compound is aromatic amino compound which forms diazonium salts &
undergo coupling reaction to form azo dye.
Assertion (A): Elevation in B.P will be high if the molar elevation constant of the liquid is high
Reason (R): Elevation in B.P is a colligative property
Assertion (A): Benzene on heating with concH 2 SO4 gives benzene sulphoric acid (used in forming
detergends) which when heated with super heated steam under pressure gives benzene.
Reason (R): Sulphonaton is a reversible process
Assertion (A): Reducing sugar gives brick red ppt. with fehlings solution & show
mutarotation
Reason (R): During mutarotaton, one pure ananer is converted in to mixture of two
anamers

SECTION D
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Hg+S

2
1
Bi S Bi2 S3
3
3
H 2 S H 2S
1
1
C S CS 2
2
2

-0
-50
G 0 kj / mol 1

PASSAGE-I
HgS

-100
Pb S PbS

-150
t,00C
500

1000

1500

2000

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61.
62.
63.

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009

The Ellingham diagram for a number of metallic sulphides is shown below

formation of which of the sulphides is most spontaneous?
a) HgS
b) Bi2S3
c) PbS
d) CS2
which occurs to minimum extent in nature?
a) HgS
b) H2S
c) Bi2S3
d) CS2
which of the following sulphides can not be reduced to metal by H2 at about 100C
a) HgS
b) PbS
c) Bi2S3
d) all of these
PASSAGE-II
Oleum is considered as a solution of SO3 in H2SO4. which is obtained by passing SO3
in solution of H2SO4. when 100g sample of oleum is diluted with desired weight of H2O then the total
mass of H2SO4 obtained after dilution is known as % labeling in oleum.
For example, a oleum bottle labeled as 109% H 2SO4 means the 109 g total mass of pure H 2SO4
will be formed when 100g of oleum is diluted by 9g of H 2O which combines with all the free SO3
present in oleum to from H2SO4 as SO3 H 2O H 2 SO4 .

64.
65.

66.

what is the % of free SO3 in an oleum that is labeled as 104.5% H2SO4?

a) 10
b) 20
c) 40
d) none of these
9.0g water is added into oleum sample labeled as 112 % H 2SO4 then the amount of free SO 3
remaining in the solution is
a) 14.93l at STP
b) 7.46L at STP
c) 3.37L at STP
d) 11.2L at STP
if excess water is added into a bottle sample labeled as 112% H 2SO4 and is reacted with 5.3 g
Na2CO3, then find the volume of CO 2 evolved at 1 atm pressure and 300 k temperature after the
completion of the reaction:
a) 2.46 L
b) 24.6 L
c) 1.23 L
d) 12.3 L
PASSAGE-III
A dilute solution contains t moles of solute X in 1 kg of solvent with molal elevation
constant Kb. The solute dimerises in the solution according to the following equation. The degree of
association is .
2X X 2

67.

68.

the vant hoff factor will be (if we start with one mole of X)

a) i 1 2
b) i 1
c) i 1
d) i 1
2
2
the degree of association is equal to
Kb
2 Kbt Tb
a)
b)
Tb
Kb.t

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69.

2Tb
c) 2
Kb.t
the mole cular weight observed will be
a) greater than actual molecular wt
c) equal to the actual molecular wt

MATHS
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY

VSP-VR / 21-03-2009
d) Tb 2 Kb.t
b) lesser than actual molecular wt
d) cannot be predicted by the data given

Paper Setter: VSP-VR

Sri G. S N MURTHY
Sri B S R MURTHY
Sri K. MOHANA RAO

9849127144
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