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CONFIDENTIAL

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1. Below are four statements about lipids. Which of the following
combination of
statements is correct?
I
Lipids consist of glycerol combined with alcohol
II Both fats and oils are triglycerides
III Oils are more saturated with hydrogen than fats
IV Lipids which has fatty acids with double bonds are
unsaturated
A II only

B II and IV C I and IV

D I, III and IV

2. A common feature of starch and glycogen is that molecules of both


A
B
C
D

are water soluble polysaccharides


contain repeated monomers of glucose and galactose
are important structural components of plant cell walls
are polymers of glucose

3. Each phosphodiester linkage in DNA or RNA includes a phosphate


joined by
covalent bonds to
A
B
C
D

two bases
two sugars
a sugar, a base and a phosphate
a sugar and a base

4. Which of the following is not true of a mitochondrion?


A
B
C
D

It is the of Krebs cycle


It contains DNA
It possesses two layers of membranes
The folded inner membrane is called thylakoid

5. The drawing below was made from macerated secondary tissue of a


hardwood
tree. It represents a

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A tracheid B sieve element C vessel elementD xylem parenchyma


cell
6. Which of the following graphs shows the possible changes in the
rate of a
reaction catalysed by an enzyme in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor?

7. The scheme below outlines the major steps in the industrial


production of the
sweetener fructose syrup from starch.

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What type of enzymes are involved in steps I and II?


A Hydrolases
C Decarboxylase

B Oxidases
D Dehydrogenase

8. Which of the following combinations correctly matches a description


and a
process?
A
B
C
D

Description
The production of the amino acid sequence of
a protein as determined by the base sequence
of mRNA
The semi-conservative replication of a DNA
molecule to form two identical molecules
The production of mRNA molecules by joining
together of nucleotides
The joining of nucleic acids in a specific
sequence of DNA

process
Transcription
DNA synthesis
Translation
Protein synthesis

9. Which of the following shows the correct match?


I
uses RuBP; produces PGA
(a) Cyclic photophosphorylation
II
uses ATP and NADPH
(b) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
III
forms NADPH
(c) Carbon dioxide fixation
IV
produces ATP
and NADPH
(d) Formation of PGAL
V
produces only ATP
(e) Transfers H+ and electrons to
NADP+
A
B
C
D

I
(c )
(b)
(d)
(c )

II
(d)
(a)
(c )
(d)

III
(a)
(e)
(a)
(e)

IV
(e)
(d)
(b)
(b)

V
(b)
(c )
(e)
(a)

10. Which of the following differences between chloroplast of the


mesophyll cell
and the bundle sheath cell of C4 plants are correct?
Chloroplast of mesophyll cell Chloroplast of bundle sheath
cell
I
Large grana
Small grana
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II

The activity of photosystem II is low


photosystem II is
High
Fixation of carbon dioxide is by
dioxide is by
PEP carboxylase
RuBP
Less ATP, NADPH2 and oxygen
and oxygen
are produced
Few starch granules

A
C

I, II and III
II,IV and V

III
IV

B
D

The activity of
Fixation of carbon
carboxylase
More ATP, NADPH2
are produced
Many starch granules

I, III and V
III, IV and V

11. In photorespiration, the two substrates that compete for the active
sites in
RuBP are
A O2 and CO2
C H2O and O2

B CO2 and H2O


D H2O and NADPH

12. Where are the enzymes located which are involved in the chemical
reactions
which occur during glycolysis?
A
B
C
D

in the fluid matrix of cytoplasm


in the mitochondrial matrix
in the nuclear sap
on the cristae of a mitochondrion

13. Aerobic respiration involves the following pathways:


I
Glycolysis
II
Link reaction
III
Krebs cycle
IV
Electron transport system
Which of the following are the products of the above pathway?
A

I
2 ATP
1 NADH

II
1 NADH

III
1 ATP
3 NADH
1 FADH2

IV
17 ATP

2 ATP
1 NADH

1 NADH

1 ATP
3 NADH

20 ATP

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1 FADH2
C

2 ATP
2 NADH

2 NADH

2 ATP
6 NADH
2 FADH2

34 ATP

2 ATP
2 NADH

2 NADH

2 ATP
6 NADH
2 FADH2

38 ATP

14. What type of nutrition is shown by nitrifying bacteria in the soil?


A
B
C
D
15.
of

Photoautotrophic nutrition
Chemoautotrophic nutrition
Holozoic nutrition
Saprotrophic nutrition
Oxygen can easily dissociate from oxyhaemoglobin in condition
I
II
III
IV

A
B
C
D

Low carbon dioxide concentration


Low blood pH
High H+ ion concentration
High oxygen content

I, II and III
I, and III
II, and III
II, III and IV

16. Bohr effect is


A
Too high urea concentration in the blood
B
The affinity of haemoglobin to cabon dioxide
C
The influence of carbon dioxide concentration on the
dissociation of
oxyhaemoglobin
D
The increase in rate of dissociation of carbon dioxide caused by
Fe2+ ions
17. Which of the following statements about the control of heart beat
is true
I
The secretion of thyroxine increases the rate of heart beat
II
Stimulation of chemoreceptors in the carotid artery increase the
rate of
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heart beat
III
The propagation of impulse through the sympathetic nerve
towards the
sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes decreases the rate of heart
beat
III
The propagation of impulse through the parasympathetic nerve
towards
the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes increases the rate of
heart beat
A
C

I and II
III and IV

B
D

I, III and IV
I, II, III and IV

18. The graph shows pressure changes in the aorta, the left ventricle
and the left
atrium. Which statement is correct?

A At M a sound is heard
B At N the semilunar valves close
C At O nerve impulses from the pacemaker reach the ventricular wall
muscles
D At P the atrioventricular valves close
19. A researcher, who wants to study the composition of a plants sap,
inserts a
capillary tube into the phloem. What causes the sap to flow out of
the tube?
A Capillarity
B Hydrostatic pressure
C Root pressure
D Transpiration stream
20. Which of the following are functions of the mammalian liver?
I
II

Synthesis of plasma protein


Breakdown of digestive enzymes
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III
IV
V

Regulation of fat metabolism


Storage of vitamin A
Regulation of plasma hydrogen carbonate

A I, II and III
C I, III, IV and V

B I, III and IV
D I, II, III, IV and V

21. The diagram below shows the changes in osmotic concentration


in kg-1 , in the
loop of Henle. Which of the following causes a lowering of the
osmotic
concentration in the ascending limb?

A Na+ and Cl- ions goes out of the ascending limb by active transport
B Water diffuses out of the descending limb by osmosis
C The
descending limb is permeable to dissolved solutes
D The ascending limb is permeable to water
22. Which of the following reactions require addition of ammonia and
carbon
dioxide in the formation of urea?
A
B
C
D

arginine urea
arginine ornithine
ornithine citruline
citruline arginine

23. The following events occur during muscle contraction. Which one
of the
following shows the correct sequence of events during muscle
contraction?

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I
Hydrolysis of ATP molecules
II
Impulse transmission along the T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic
vesicles
III
Formation of cross-bridges between myosin and actin filaments
IV
Ratchet mechanism action develops
V
Secretion of Ca2+ ions by the sarcoplasmic vesicles
VI
The intake of Ca2+ ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum
A
B
C
D

I, V, II, VI, III,


II, V, I, III, IV,
II, III, I, V, IV,
V, IV, III, I, II,

IV
VI
VI
VI

24. Among the following characteristics, which are true of the


sympathetic system
of the autonomous nervous system?
I
II
short
III
IV
V
VI
A
C

The ganglia are located near the spinal cord, away from effectors
Preganglionic nerves are long and postganglionic nerves are
Ganglia connect with large ganglion called plexus
It effect is more localized
Norepinephrine is used in postganglionic nerves
One of its effect is dilation of the pupils
I, II,IV and VI
I, III, V and VI

B
D

I, II, V and VI
II, III and IV

25. How do steroid hormones alter the activity of specific target cells?
I
by transferring information to a particular molecule which acts as
a second
messenger in the cell
II
by entering target cells and triggering specific gene activation
III
by digesting the plasma membrane of the target cells
IV
by digesting the lysosomes of the target cells
A I and III
B II only
C II and IV
D I, III and IV
26. Ovulation does not occur during pregnancy in the human female
because
A the follicles are not influenced by the level of progesterone in the
blood
B the corpus luteum and later the placenta produce large amounts of
progesterone
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C the corpus luteum degenerates as luteinizing hormone is no longer
produced
D menstruation does not occur during pregnancy
27. The diagram below shows the findings of an experiment on the
effect of light
on the flowering of a plant

Which of the following are true of the plant?


I
II
III
IV

The plant is a long day plant


The plant is a short day plant
Far-red light cancels off the action of red light
Red light can replace the requirement of dark period

A I and III

B I and IV

C II and III

D II and IV

28. Which of the following are true of T cell?


I
It forms immunity through the humoral response
II
It forms immunity through the cell mediated mechanism
III
It is produced and achieves maturity in the bone marrow
IV
It is produced in the bone marrow and achieves maturity in the
thymus gland
A I and III B I and II

C II and IV D III and IV

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29. The table below lists the types of blood cells involved in the
immune response
and their actions.
Types of blood cell
I
T helper cell
II Memory cell
III Plasma cell
IV T cytotoxic cell
V Macrophage

A
B
C

I
(a)
(c)
(c)

II
(e)
(e)
(b)

III
(d)
(b)
(e)

Action
(a) Engulfs bacteria and virus
(b) Produces antibody
(c) Activates T cells and B cells
(d) Releases perforin to disintegrate
affected cells
(e) Divides rapidly to become clone cells
when
encountering antigens
IV
(b)
(d)
(d)

IV
(c)
(a)
(a)

30. HIV affects the immune system mainly by infecting


A
C

B cells
helper T cells

B
D

suppressor T cells
cytotoxic T cells

31. The diagram below shows the life cycle of Dryopteris.

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What do P, Q and R represent?
A
B
C
D

P
Gametophyte
Gametophyte
Sporophyte
Sporophyte

Q
R
Meiosis
Sporophyte
Sporophyte
Meiosis
Gametophyte
Sporophyte
Meiosis
Gametophyte

32. The following are the stages of early development of vertebrate


embryos
I
II
III
IV

Cleavage
Organogenesis
Blastula formation
Gastrula formation

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the early


development of vertebrate embyryos?
A I, III, IV, II
C III, IV, II,I

B II, I, IV, III


D IV, I, II,III

33. Which of the statements below is incorrect?


A Ecdysone is a hormone that causes moulting in insects
B Ecdysone is produced by the corpus allata
C Juvenile hormone suppresses metamorphosis in insects
D Environmental factors like light and temperature can affect the
development
of insects
34. The table below gives the types of growth and examples of growth
in organisms.
Which of the following combinations is true?
Type of growth
Example
I allometric
(a) increase in size of baby to become an adult
II isometric
(b) increase in size of zygote to become a
blastula
(c) increase in weight of a child
(d) increase in number of cells of a zygote

A
B

I
(b)
(d)

II
(a)
(a)
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C
D

(a)
(c)

(b)
(b)

35. Gregor Mendel crossed a purple flowered plant with pollen of a


whiteflowered plant. The resulting progeny are all purple-flowered
plants. He then
carried out a series of crosses as follows.
I
F1 plant with any white flowered plant
II
F1 plant with purple-flowered parent
III
Pollen of homozygous purple-flowered plant with white-flowered
plant
Which of the following
I
A
Test cross
B
Back cross
C
Back cross
D
Reciprocal cross

are true of the above crosses?


II
III
Back cross
Reciprocal cross
Test cross
Reciprocal cross
Reciprocal cross Test cross
Test cross
Back cross

36. Gene pool consists of


A
B
C
D

all the alleles exposed to natural selection


the entire genome of a reproducing individual
the total of all alleles present in a population
all the gametes in a population

37. In a population in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of the


individuals show the
recessive trait. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the
population?
A
0.4
B
0.6
C
0.32
D
0.84
38. Which is true of the examples of mutations as shown in the table?
Types of mutation
I
Base deletion
II Aneuploidy
III Base substitution
Iv Chromosomal deletion

Example
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickle-cell anaemia
(c) Klinefelter syndrome
(d) Cri-du-chat syndrome

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A
B
C
D

I
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

II
(c)
(c)
(a)
(a)

III
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)

IV
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)

39. The bacterium E.coli producers -galactosidase only in the


presence of lactose.
-galactosidase hydrolyses the lactose sugar into glucose and
galactose. The diagram below represents the section of DNA which
controls the synthesis of
-galactosidase

Which of the arrows 1,2,3 and 4 from T correctly shows the new
position of T
correctly shows the new position of T if lactose is absent?
A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

40. Which of the following is/are the use(s) of recombinant DNA?


I
Produce sheep clone
II
Produce agriculturally important plants and animals which have
better
nutritional values
III
Produce plants that have bacterial genes to destroy pathogenic
insects

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IV
Produce microbes which secrete enzymes to overcome the
problems
of oil spillage in the sea
A III only

B I and Iv

C III and IV

D II, III and IV

41. The diagram below shows how a genetically modified organism


may be
produced by inserting a human gene into a bacterium

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Enzymes X,Y and Z respectively are


Enzyme X
A Restriction endonuclease
B Reverse transcriptase
C Restriction endonuclease
D DNA ligase
polymerase

Enzyme Y
Enzyme Z
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
DNA ligase
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase DNA

42. Which of the following are true regarding the plants from the
phylum
Angiospermatophyta.
I
II
III
IV
V

They have vascular tissues, produce pollen grains and seeds


Their sporophytes are dominant and they are homosporous
Their gametophytes are very small in size
Their xylems have vessel elements
They bear no fruits because their ovaries are absent

A
C

I, II and III
I, II and V

B
D

I, III and IV
II, III and V

43. The diagram below is a cross section of the body plan of an animal

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One example of an animal with the above body plan is
A Hydra

B Planaria

C Ascaris

D Pheretima

44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about taxon in


taxonomy?
I
Division is equivalent to phylum
II
Organisms of the same family belong to the same order
III
The species that interbreeds are closely evolutionary related
compared to
The organisms of the same genus
A I only

B III only

C II and III

D I, II and III

45. The following events occurred in evolution. Which is true of the


sequence of
events during evolution.
I
II
III
IV
V

Change in allele frequency


Develop different chromosome numbers
Barrier to gene flow
Mutations occur
Different selection pressures

A I, II, III, IV, V


C IV, V, I, II, III

B III, IV, V, I,II


D V, IV, III, I, II

46. Based on the table below, match the evidence of evolution theory
to its example.
Evidence of evolution theory
I
Palaeontology
II
Geographical distribution
structure
III
Comparative anatomy
IV
Comparative biochemistry
A

I
P

II
Q

III
S

Example
P Mar
supials
Q Homologous
R

IV
R
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Fossil record
S
Cytochrome

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B
C
D

P
R
R

S
P
Q

R
Q
P

Q
S
S

47. Phosphorus recycles in the form of


A
C

HPO3PO43-

B
D

P2 (a gas)
AIPO4

48. The figure below represents energy flow through a terrestrial food
chain. P and
Q represent energy values.

What is the percentage of directed light energy that will be converted


into net primary production?
A 0.1%

B 0.5%

C 1.0%

D 5.0%

49. Which of the following statements explain natality?


I
The number of
in a year
II
The number of
population in a year
III
The number of
IV
The number of
unit time
A I and II
IV

births per thousand individuals in the population


mortality per thousand individuals in the
eggs produced in a reproductive cycle
offspring produced by the individual female per

B II and IV

C I, III and IV

50. Which statement is true of K-selected species?


18

D II, III and

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A
B
C
D

The body size is small


The development period to achieve maturity is short
It involves parental care
The lifespan is short

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