101.

The clinical instructor is discussing with the nursing students the differences between the male and female
reproductive organs, emphasizing the organs parts that are analogous; which is INCORRECT?
a. Penis- vagina
c. Glans penis-clitoris
b. Scrotum- labia majora
d. Spermatocytogenesis- oogenesis
2. 102.The clitoris is the seat of sexual excitement in the female. Its value in obstetrics is that it:
3.
a. guides catheterization.
5.
c. guides internal examination.
4.
b. serves as the sexual organ of
6.
d. protects vestibular parts.
stimulation.
103. The uterus functions as the organ:
3.
1. of gestation which houses growing fetus.
4.
2. that propels the products of conception into the birth canal.
5.
3. of nidation.
6.
4. of female copulation.
7.
a. 1,2& 3
9.
c. 2& 3
8.
b. 1& 3
10.
d. 2,3 & 4
104. The most common site of implantation is which part of the uterus?
105. a. Uterine fundus, posterior portion
107. c. Uterine corpus
106. b. Uterine isthmus
108. d. Outer portion of the uterine tube
105. The characteristics of INFERTILE mucus do NOT include:
5.
a. not stretchy.
7.
c. sticky.
6.
b. opaque color.
8.
d. positive ferning.
106. Which of the following is a function of the ovarian hormone estrogen?
107. a. it is responsible for development of secondary sex characteristics.
108. b. it decreases vascularity.
109. c. it elevates basal body temperature during ovulation.
110.
d. it is responsible for infertile mucus.
111. Progesterone is the hormone that:
112.
a. is responsible for the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
113.
b. elevates basal temperature at ovulation.
114.
c. maintains pregnancy by maintaining the myometrium.
115.
d. is responsible for the stretchy and fertile cervical mucus.
116. Ovulation is the process of:
117.
a. rupture of the ovary followed by the release of an immature follicle.
118.
b. monthly release of a mature ovum by the Graafian follicle.
119.
c. rupture of the primordial follicle followed by the release of an egg cell happening in the middle of
the menstrual cycle.
120. d. maturity of the female reproductive function.
121. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is a 32-day cycle, when do you expect her to ovulate?
122. a. 14th day counting from the 1st day of menses.
123. b. 18th day counting from the first day of menses.
124. c. 14th day counting from the 1st day of menses.
125. d. 16th day counting from the 1st of menses.
126. During which of the following periods is a woman absolutely INFERTILE?
127. a. Days 1-4 of the menstrual period
cycle.
128. b. Days 13-14 of the menstrual period
130. d. Days 24-28 of the cycle
129. c. Days 9-14 days of the menstrual
131. Signs of ovulation include the following, except:
132. a. spinnbarkeit.
134. c. slight rise in BBT preceded by a
133. b. cervical mucus that is dense and
drop.
opaque.
135. d. mittelschmerz.
136. Which of the following is not a characteristic of corpus luteum?
137. a. It is the yellow body.
138. b. it serves as the endocrine organ in early pregnancy.
139. c. The life span is 14 days.
140. d. it secretes estrogen in large quantity.
141. The following characteristics are true of the male gamete sperm, EXCEPT:
142. a. lifespan: 72 hours.
143. b. with 23 chromosomes, 22 autosomes and Y-sex chromosome.
144. c. produced by testes.
145. d. has two types: the androsperm carries the Y-sex chromosome and the gynosperm, carries
the X- sex chromosome.
146. The Clinical Instructor explains certain obstetrical terms to the junior students in the OB Ward. Which of
the following statements are CORRECT?
147. 1. Nidation happens in the upper 1/3 of the uterus.
148. 2. The union of the ovum and the sperm is conception which happens in the ampulla of the
fallopian tube.
149. 3. Gametogenesis is the development of mature male gamete called egg cell.
150. 4. Oogenesis is the development of mature female gamete.

151. a. 1,2,3 & 4

153. c. 2,3 & 4
152. b. 1,3 & 4
154. d. 1,2 & 4
155.
156. Nursing student Fe is determining the duration of her client's menstrual cycle. If the woman's menstrual period
in March started on the 5th day, lasting for 4 days, and the menstrual period in April started on the 4th day, again
lasting for 4 days, how long is the client's menstrual cycle?
157. a. 30 days
159. c. 28 days
158. b. 33 days
160. d. 29 days
161. Nursing student Ms. Sanchez is assigned to care for prenatal in the health care clinic. The instructor reviews
the signs of pregnancy with Ms. Sanchez, and later evaluates her knowledge regarding the probable signs of
pregnancy. Ms. Sanchez accurately responds if she adds to positive pregnancy test and Hegar's sign which of
these?
162. a. Amenorrhea, Chadwick's, frequency of voiding.
163. b. Goodell's sign, Braxton- Hicks contractions, abdominal enlargement
164. c. FHT, ballottement, fetal outline
165. d. Chloasma, Linea nigra, striae gravidarum
166. Multigravid Mrs. Lim has missed three menstrual periods and thinks she might be pregnant. During her
first visit to the prenatal clinic it is confirmed that she is pregnant. If Mrs. Lim's last menstrual period (LMP)
began on APRIL 10, 2009, what is her estimated date of confinement (EDC)/ delivery (EDD) according to
Naegele's rule?
167. a. March 17
169. c. January 3
168. b. July 3
170.
d. January 17

118. The senior head- nursing student in the maternity unit reviews with the junior students ways of estimating
the expected date of delivery (EDD) of pregnant clients. If the LMP of Mrs. Juan, pregnant for the second
time, is April 10, 2009, what is her EDD using the Mittendorf Rule?
18.
a. January 27
20.
c. January 25
19.
b. January 30
21.
d. January 20
119. When measuring the fundal height of a multigravid client at 28 weeks' gestation, the nurse would
anticipate locating the fundal height at which of the following points?
120. a. At about the level of the client's umbilicus
121. b. Between the client's symphysis pubis and umbilicus
122. c. Between the client's umbilicus and xiphoid process
123. d. Near the client's xiphoid process and compressing the diaphragm
124. Mrs. Felipe, a 22-year-old nulligravida, tells the nurse that she and her husband are trying to conceive a
normal baby. When teaching the client about reducing the incidence of neural tube defects in newborns,
the nurse would emphasize the need for intake of which of the following nutrients?
125. a. Iron (Fe)
127. c. Calcium (Ca)
126. b. Folate (folic acid)
128. d. Magnesium (Mg)

129. Maternity ward head-nursing student Susie is developing a teaching plan for a group of students about
the role of the placenta; which of the following would be incorporated?
130. a. The placenta is formed by the fusion of chrorionic villi and the decidua basalis.
131. b. Viruses generally do not cross the placental barrier.
132. c. In the male fetus, human placental lactogen promotes synthesis of testoscterone.
133. d. The total weight of a term placenta is 1000.
134. During a scheduled prenatal visit, primigravid Viola asks, How does the baby breathe inside of me? The
nurse responds explaining the fetal circulation, stating that circulation of oxygenated blood from the
placenta begins with which of the following?
135. a. Umbilical vein
137. c. Ductus arteriosus
136. b. Ductus venosus
138. d. Umbilical arteries
139. Alma, a 21-year-old primigravid client visiting the clinic for a routine examination asks you about vaginal
secretions that occur during pregnancy. Which of the following statements would you NOT include in
Alma's teaching plan?
140. a. Whitsh, mucoid vaginal secretions called leucorrhea do occur in pregnancy.
141. b. The increased in maternal hormone estrogen is responsible for vaginal secretions.
142. c. The use of vaginal douching is recommended to prevent leucorrhea.
143. d. The presence of whitish, cheese-like vaginal discharge is due to a fungal infection.
144. Cathy, a primigravid client who is 20 weeks pregnant, complains of frequency of voiding. The nurse
performs which of these actions FIRST?
a. Reassure the mother that frequent urination is normal in pregnancy.
145. b. Explain the reason for burning sensation on urination.
146. c. Ask if she feels burning sensation on urination.
147. d. instruct the woman to increase her fluid intake to replace loses.
148. An adolescent primigravida who is 8 weeks asks you, How much alcohol is safe to drink during
pregnancy? Which of the following is your best response?
149. a. Up to 3 oz daily
151. c. Social drinking only
150. b. No alcohol
152. d. Up to 0.5 oz daily
153.
154.
155. 126. A client whos 7 months pregnant reports severe leg cramps at night. Which nursing action would be
most effective in helping her cope with these cramps?
a) Suggesting that she walk for 1 hour twice per day.
b) Advising her to take over-the-counter calcium supplements per day
c) Teaching her to dorsiflex her foot during the cramp.
d) Instructing her to increase milk and cheese intake to 8 to 10 servings per day
156. 127.A pregnant client who has just learned she is pregnant tells the nurse that she smokes two packs of
cigarettes a day. In counseling , the nurse encourages her two stop smoking because studies show that
newborns of mother who smoke are often.
157. a. Born with congenital facial malformation
158. b. Excessively large for gestational age
159. c. Small for gestational age
160. d. Postmature with meconium aspiration syndrome
128. In the rural health unit (RHU) , the nurse is interviewing primigravid Carla for the health history information.
What should be considered by the nurse to elicit accurate responses to questions that refer to sexually
transmitted diseases?
161. 1. Establish a therapeutic relationship between the nurse and pregnant client.
162. 2. Provide privacy.
163. 3. Use open- ended questions.
164. 4. Omit highly personal area of
166. b. 2, 3 & 4.
questions.
167. c. 1,2 & 3.
165. a. 1,2 & 4.
168. d. 1& 3.
129. In early pregnancy, a serology test for syphilis is given to pregnant women. The nurse explains to the client
that the reason this test is given is because:
130. a. The hormonal changes of pregnancy cause an exacerbation of latent syphilis.
131. b. Syphilis may be passed to the fetus after 4 months of pregnancy.
132. c. The law requires the serology test serology test for all pregnant women.
133. d. syphilis may be passed to the infant during delivery and cause congenital syphilis.
134. As part of the prenatal teaching, the nurse instructs the client to immediately report any blurring or dimness of
vision. The best rationale for this instruction is that the symptom is:
135. a. indicative of renal failure.
137. c. a sign of avitaminosis A.
136. b. a forerunner to preeclampsia.
138. d. indicative of liver failure.
139. Primigravid Belen, 30 weeks pregnant, is admitted for management of severe preeclampsia. Among Belens
treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate; which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to
suspect hypermagnesemia?
140. a. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
141. b. Cool skin temperature
(DTR)
142. c. Rapid pulse rate

143. d. Tingling in the toes

144. When a woman who is confirmed to be at 12 weeks' gestation has sudden vaginal bleeding and uterine
cramps, she would be suspected to be experiencing:
145. a. hydatidiform mole.
147. c. placenta previa.
146. b. abortion.
148. d. abruptio placenta.
149. The factors that play a significant role in the causation of spontaneous abortion include:
150. a. smoking, paternal factors, young age.
151. b. accidents, early pregnancy coitus, high parity.
c. infection, defective ovum, diabetes mellitus, incompetent cervix.
152. d. competent cervix, high parity, heart defects.
153. A competent maternity care provider should be able to identify early signs of abortion in order to be able to
save a product of conception. Which of the following represents an incomplete abortion?
154. 1. Profuse vaginal bleeding
155. 2. Passage of fetus, placenta, embryonic sac.
156. 3. Mild abdominal pain
157. 4. Severe uterine cramps.
158. a. 1, 2 &3
160. c. 1 & 4
159. b. 2 & 3
161. d. 1 & 3
162. At 16 weeks gestation, a pregnant client is admitted to the maternity unit to have a McDonald procedure
(cerclage) done. When asked about the purpose for this procedure, the nurse answers correctly by explaining
that this procedure is to:
163. a. reinforce an incompetent cervix
165. c. dilate the cervix.
permanently.
166. d. reinforce an incompetent cervix
164. b. evaluate cephalopelvic
temporarily
disproportion.
167. Which of the following is the most common factor related to the development of tubal pregnancy?
a. Primigravidity
c. Multiple pregnancy
b. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
d. Uterine tumor
168. Mrs. Hilario, amenorrheic for two months, is diagnosed to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the
following are signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?
169. 1. Cullens sign
171. 3. sudden bradycardia
170. 2. Kehrs sign
172. 4. profuse external bleeding
173. a. 1 &2
175. c. 2, 3 & 4
174. b. 1, 3 & 4
176. d. 1, 2 & 4
177. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is ordered for a client before she is discharged after an ectopic
pregnancy. The nurse understands that the rationale for RhoGAM administration is to prevent which of the
following?
a. Developing of a future Rh- positive fetus
c. A future pregnancy resulting in abortion
b. An antibody response to Rh-negative blood
d. Developing of Rh-positive antibodies
178. Forty- year-old Mrs. David receives a diagnosis of H-mole which was treated by thorough evacuation with
dilatation and curettage. Which of the following discharge health instructions is INAPPROPRIATE?
a. Avoid pregnancy for 6 months.
b. Report for regular follow-up checkups.
c. Take highly nutritious foods particularly those rich in iron.
d. Do not fail to take her contraceptive method.
179. A client who is ordered for diagnostic PELVIC ultrasound asks what preparations shell take. Appropriate
preparations for this procedure include:
a. Explanation of the procedure.
c. Voiding.
b. Informed consent.
d. NPO 6 hours before
180. Pelvic ultrasound can detect which of the following?
a. Fetal sex, number and lung maturity
b. Congenital defects in structure, fetal gender, H-mole
c. Fetal DM, multiple pregnancy
d. Fetal congenital defects, placenta previa, fetal lung maturity
181. After a nonstress test is completed, the nurse is looking at the test results on the monitor strip. The RN
observes that the fetal heart accelerated 15 BPM with each fetal movement. The accelerations lasted 20
seconds and occurred 3 times during 20 minute test. The nurse is correct in interpreting the test as a:
a. Reactive test
c. Positive test.
b. Nonreactive test
d. Negative test.
182. A client asks you how come she developed placenta previa when she ahs been submitting self regular
prenatal check-up. You will base your response on an understanding of the etiology of placenta previa which
includes:
a. Advancing age, nulliparity, previous low cervical CS.
b. Young age, tumor on lower uterine segment, previous low cervical CS.
c. Multiparity, multifetal pregnancy, scarring or tumor in upper third of the uterus.
d. Low age & parity, previous CS scar.
183. The assessment findings in placenta previa include:
184. 1. hard boardlike abdomen.
186. 3. painless vaginal bleeding.
185. 2. flaccid uterus.
187. 4. signs of anaphylactic shock.

188. a. 2,3 & 4

190. c. 2 &3
189. b. 1,3 & 4
191. d. 1 &3
192. The nurse realizes that the abdominal pain associated with abruption placenta INITIALLY may be caused by:
a. Hemorrhagic shockInflammatory reactions.
b. Concealed hemorrhage.
c. Blood in the uterine muscle.
193. The nurse prepares a teaching plan for a newly diagnosed diabetic pregnant client. Which of the following
should not be included in the teaching plan?
a. Effects of diabetes on the pregnancy and fetus
b. Nutritional requirements for pregnancy and diabetic control
c. To avoid exercise due to its negative effects on insulin production
d. To be aware of any infections and report signs of infection immediately to the health care provider
194. An old primigravida is ordered to have amniocentesis at 16 weeks. Which preparation for amniocentesis will
you include in you plan?
a. Witness the signing of an informed
c. Encourage expression of fears and
consent.
concern.
b. Instruct the mother to empty her bladder.
d. All of the above
148. The exact cause of labor is unknown. Some of the theories that explain labor onset include:
149. 1. Decreased estrogen level.
151. 3. Increased progesterone level.
150. 2. Uterine stretch.
152. 4. oxytocin theory.
153. a. 1,2 & 4
156. d. 2,3& 4
154. b. 1,3 & 4
157.
155. c. 2 &4
158. Nurse Amy is teaching a small group of pregnant women are in their third trimester. During the open forum,
Myrna, pregnant for the first time asks how she would know if labor is near. Nurse Amys response reflects an
understanding of the premonitory signs of labor, which include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Weight gain and edema.
b. Decreased dyspnea, increased leg varicosities and frequency of voiding.
c. Lightening around two weeks before labor.
d. Increased maternal activity and abdominal muscle tightening.
159. What sign could the nurse rely upon as CONCLUSIVE PROOF that a patient is in labor during a natural
disaster?
a.Contractions are progressive and strong.
c.The cervix is effacing.
b.Cervical dilatation has begun.
d.The membranes have ruptured

e.