Section - I : Reasoning

Directions for questions 1- 3 : In each question there is a statement followed by two arguments. If argument I is strong
the answer is (1), if II is strong then answer is (2). Give answer (3) if both are strong; (4) if none of the two are strong.
Q 1. Statement - Should there be a world government?
Arguments :
I.
Yes, it will help in eliminating tensions among the nations.
II.
No, then only the developed countries will dominate in the government.
Q2. Statement - Should the political parties be banned?
Arguments :
I.
Yes, it is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
II.
No, it will lead to an end of democracy.
Q 3. Statement - Should the institution of marriage be abolished?
Arguments :
I.
Yes, it is already showing cracks.
II.
No, it is necessary for the survival of the society.
Directions for question 4- 6 : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and
II. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit, give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit; give answer (3) if either I or
II is implicit; give answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit .
Q 4. Statement : "If you are interested in practising Yoga, you must come to India" - An invitation.
Assumptions :
I.
Some foreigners are interested in practising Yoga.
II.
India is the place to learn Yoga effectively.
Q 5. Statement : "The real impact of the Gulf crisis would be felt only during early next year" - a news item.
Assumptions :
I.
There was a good stock of oil before the crisis began.
II.
World is not generally dependent on Gulf oil.
Q 6. Statement : "Available Diamond 800 - Deluxe Van new and used" - An advertisement.
Assumptions :
I.
People generally prefer new and used vans.
II.
Diamond 800 - Deluxe vans are in demand.
Directions for question 7- 11 : In each question below are given two statements followed by four conclusions numbered
I, II, III and IV. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Q 7. Statements : Some pens are books. All books are rods.
Conclusions :
I.
All pens are rods.
II.
Some pens are rods.
III.
Some books are pens.
IV.
All rods are pens.
(1)
Only II and III follow
(2)
All follow
(3)
None follow
(4)
Only I and IV follow
Q 8. Statements: All cats are parrots. No parrot is green.
Conclusions:
I.
No cat is green
II.
All parrots are cats.
III.
Some parrots are cats.
IV.
Some cats are green.
(1)
Only I follows
(2)
All follow
(3)
Only I and III follow
(4)
Only II and IV follow
Q9. Statements: All windows are carpets. Some carpets are rats.
Conclusions:
I.
All rats are carpets
II.
All carpets are windows.
III.
All windows are rats.
IV.
All rats are windows.
(1)
Only II, III and IV follow
(2)
Only I, II and IV follow
(3)
All follow
(4)
None follow
Q10. Statements: All doors are chairs. All chairs are tables.
Conclusions:
I.
All doors are tables.
II.
Some tables are chairs.
III.
Some tables are doors.
IV.
All tables are doors
(1)
Only I, II and III follow
(2)
Only III and IV follow
(3)
All follow
(4)
Only II, III and IV follow
Q11. Statements: Some cups are tigers. Some tigers are goats.

Conclusions:
I.
Some cups are goats.
II.
No cup is goat.
III.
All cups are goats.
IV.
All goats are cups.
(1)
Only either I or IV follows
(2)
Only either II or IV follows
(3)
Only either II or III follows
(4)
None of these
Directions for Q 12 to 26: Select the best answer for each question.
Q 12. In Los Angeles, a political candidate who buys saturation radio advertising will get maximum name recognition.
The statement above logically conveys which of the following?
(1)
Radio advertising is the most important factor in political campaigns in Los Angeles.
(2)
Maximum name recognition in Los Angeles will help a candidate to win a higher percentage of votes cast in
the city.
(3)
Saturation radio advertising reaches every demographically distinct sector of the voting population in Los
Angeles.
(4)
For maximum name recognition a candidate need not spend on media channels other than radio advertising.
Q13. In recent years, attacks by Dobermans on small children have risen dramatically. Last year saw 35 such attacks in
the United States alone, an increase of almost 21% over the previous year's total. Clearly, then, it is unsafe to keep
dogs as pets if one has small children in the house.
The argument above depends upon which of the following assumptions?
(1)
No reasonable justification for these attacks by Dobermans on small children has been discovered.
(2)
Other household pets, such as cats, don't display the same violent tendencies that dogs do.
(3)
The number of attacks by Doberman on small children will continue to rise in the coming years.
(4)
The behaviour toward small children exhibited by Dobermans is representative of dogs in general.
Q14. An investigation must be launched into the operations of the private group that is training recruits to fight against
the Balaland Republic. The U.S. Neutrality Act plainly forbids U.S. citizens from engaging in military campaigns
against any nation with which we are not at war. Since no war has been declared between the United States and
the Balaland Republic, we should bring charges against these fanatics, who are in open defiance of the law.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
(1)
The Balaland Republic is currently engaged in a bloody and escalating civil war.
(2)
Diplomatic relations between the United States and the Balaland Republic were severed last year.
(3)
The recruits are being trained to fight only in the event the United States goes to war against the Balaland
Republic
(4)
The training of recruits is funded not by U.S. citizens, but rather by a consortium of individuals from abroad.
Q15. Critics of strict "promotional gates" at the grade school level point to a recent study comparing students forced to
repeat a grade, with those promoted despite failing scores on an unscheduled, experimental competency test.
Since there was no significant difference between the two groups' scores on a second test administered after
completion of the next higher grade level, these critics argue that the retention policy has failed in its expressed
purpose of improving students' basic skills.
Which of the following best expresses the argument made by critics of promotional gates?
(1)
Anxiety over performance on standardized tests often hinders a student's ability to master challenging new
material
(2)
A student's true intellectual development cannot be gauged by his score on a standardized competency test.
(3)
The psychological damage, a child suffers by repeating a grade outweighs the potential intellectual benefits
of a second chance at learning.
(4)
Strict requirements for promotion do not lead to harder work and greater mastery of fundamentals among
students fearful of being held back.
Q16. Statistics show that more than half of the nation's murder victims knew their assailants; in fact, 24% last year were
killed by relatives. Nor was death always completely unexpected. In one study, about half the murder victims in a
particular city had called for police protection at least 5 times during the 24 months before they were murdered.
Nonetheless, most people are more likely to fear being killed by a stranger in an unfamiliar situation than by a
friend or relative at home.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the reaction of most people to the likelihood of being murdered?
(1)
Statistics are likely to be discounted no matter what the source, if their implication seems to run counter to
common sense.
(2)
In the face of such upsetting problems as murder and assault, most people are more likely to react
emotionally than rationally.
(3)
Most people do not consider themselves to be in the high-risk groups in which murder occurs frequently
between relations, but do see themselves as at least minimally susceptible to random violence.
(4)
People who seek police protection from relatives and friends are often unwilling to press charges when the
emotions of the moment have cooled.

Q17. The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic expression. Freedom of
expression can easily be violated in even the most outwardly democratic societies. When a government arts
council withholds funding from a dance performance that its members deem "obscene," the voices of a few
bureaucrats have in fact censored the work of the choreographer, thereby committing the real obscenity of
repression.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(1)
Members of government arts councils are screened to ensure that their beliefs reflect those of the majority.
(2)
The term obscenity has several different definitions that should not be used interchangeably for rhetorical
effect.
(3)
Failing to provide financial support for a performance is not the same as actively preventing or inhibiting it.
(4)
The definition of obscenity is something on which most members of a society can agree.
Q18. The local high school students have been clamouring for the freedom to design their own curricula. Allowing this
would be as disastrous as allowing 3-year-olds to choose their own diets. These students have neither the maturity
nor the experience to equal that of the professional educators now doing the job.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the above argument?
(1)
High school students have less formal education than those who currently design the curricula.
(2)
The local high school students are less intelligent than the average teenager.
(3)
Individualized curricula are more beneficial to high school students than are the standard curricula, which are
rigid and unresponsive to their particular strengths and weaknesses.
(4)
The ability to design good curricula develops only after years of familiarity with educational life.
Q19. The rate of violent crime in this state is up 30% from last year. The fault lies entirely in our court system : Recently
our judges' sentences have been so lenient, that the criminals can now do almost anything without fear for a long
prison term.
(1)
85% of the other states in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state
(2)
white-collor crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year
(3)
35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts
(4)
polls show that 65% of the population in this state oppose capital punishment
Q 20. The education offered by junior colleges just after the World War II had a tremendous practical effect on family-run
businesses throughout the country. After learning new methods of marketing, finance, and accounting, the sons
and daughters of merchants returned home, often to increase significantly the size of the family's enterprise or to
maximize profits in other ways.
Which of the following statements is best supported by the information above?
(1)
The junior colleges principally emphasized methods of increasing the size of small businesses.
(2)
The business curricula at junior colleges did not include theoretical principles of management.
(3)
Without the influence of junior colleges, many family-run businesses would have been abandoned as
unprofitable.
(4)
Business methods in many post war family-run businesses changed significantly as a result of the junior
colleges.
Q21. Techniques to increase productivity in the performance of discrete tasks, by requiring less human labour in each
step of the production process, are widely utilized. Consultants on productivity enhancement point out, however,
that although these techniques achieve their specific goal, they are not without drawbacks. They often instill
enough resentment in the workforce eventually to lead to a slowdown in the production process as a whole.
Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the statements above?
(1)
The fact that productivity enhancement techniques are so widely employed has led to a decline in the ability
of American businesses to compete abroad.
(2)
If productivity enhancement consultants continue to utilize these techniques, complete work stoppages will
eventually result.
(3)
Ironically, an increase in the productivity of discrete tasks may result in a decrease in the productivity of the
whole production process.
(4)
Production managers are dissatisfied with the efforts that productivity enhancement consultants have made
to increase productivity.
Q22. Time and time again, it has been shown that students who attend colleges with low faculty / student ratios get the
most well-rounded education. As a result, when my children are ready for college, I'll be sure they attend a school
with a very small student population.
Which of the following, if true, identifies the greatest flaw in the reasoning above?
(1)
A low faculty / student ratio is the effect of a well-rounded education, not its source.
(2)
A very small student population does not, by itself, ensure a low faculty / student ratio.
(3)
Parental desires and preferences rarely determine a child's choice of a college or university.
(4)
Students must take advantage of the low faculty / student ratio by intentionally choosing small classes.

Q23. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention that
publishers are more interested in boosting circulation than in printing the truth. Even minor publications have staff
to check such obvious fraud.
The argument above assumes that
(1)
newspaper stories exposed as fabrications are a recent phenomenon
(2)
everything a newspaper prints must be factually verifiable
(3)
only recently have newspaper admitted to publishing intentionally fraudulent stories
(4)
the publishers of newspapers are the people who decide what to print in their newspapers
Q24. Our architecture schools must be doing something wrong. Almost monthly we hear of domes and walkways
collapsing in public places, causing great harm to human life. In their pursuit of some dubious aesthetic, architects
design buildings that sway, crumble, and even shed windows into our cities' streets. This kind of incompetence will
disappear only when the curricula of our architecture schools devote less time to so-called artistic consideration
and more time to the basics of good design.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(1)
All architecture students are given training in basic physics and mechanics.
(2)
Most of the problems with modern buildings stem from poor construction rather than poor design.
(3)
Less than 50% of the curriculum at most architecture schools is devoted to aesthetics.
(4)
Architects study as long and as intensively as most other professionals.
Q25. World War II had a profound effect on the growth of nascent businesses. The Acme Packaging Company netted
only $10,000 in the year before the war. By 1948 it was earning almost 10 times that figure.
The argument above depends upon which of the following assumptions
(1)
Acme's growth rate is representative of other nascent businesses.
(2)
An annual profit of $10,000 is not especially high.
(3)
Wars inevitably stimulate a nation's economy.
(4)
Acme is not characterized by responsible, far-sighted managers.
Q26. This editorial cannot be a good argument because it is barely literate. Run-on sentences, slang, and perfectly
dreadful grammar appear regularly throughout. Anything that is poorly written cannot be making very much sense.
Which of the following identifies an assumption in the argument above.
(1)
This editorial was written by someone other than the usual editor.
(2)
Generally speaking, very few editorials are poor in style or grammar.
(3)
The language of an argument is indicative of its validity.
(4)
The author of the editorial purposely uses poor grammar to disguise what he knows is a bad argument.
Directions for Q. No. 27 to 29 : - Read the following passage below and solve the questions based on it.
(i)
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle and are facing the centre.
(ii)
G is second to the left of C, who is on the immediate left of F.
(iii)
A is third to the left of E.
(iv) B is between D and E.
Q27. Which of the following is true?
(1)
B is second to the right of G.
(2)
D is second to the left of E
(3)
A is on the immediate right of G.
(4)
C is fourth to the left of B.
Q28. Which of the following is false?
(1)
F is third to the right of D.
(2)
B is on the immediate left of D.
(3)
G is on the immediate right of D.
(4)
A is fourth to the right of E.
Q 29. Which of the following is the position of F?
(1)
On the immediate left of C
(2)
Fourth to the right of D
(3)
Between A and E
(4)
On the immediate right of A
Directions for questions 30 to 34 : Solve the following questions as per the instructions given.
Q30. Which of the following has the same relationship between them as is between QT : PS?
(1)
PN : PM
(2)
BE : FC
(3)
IL : HK
(4)
None of these
Q31. Rewrite the word 'VOCALIST' in the numeric form by writing its first four letters in the reverse order and then the
next four letters in the reverse order by substituting I by 8, O by 1, L by 3, T by 2, V by 5, S by 7, A by 9 and C by 6.
(1)
92516783
(2)
92156783
(3)
92157683
(4)
96152783
Q32. In a row of boys facing the North, A is 16th from the left end and C is 16th from the right end. B, who is fourth to the
right of A, is fifth to the left of C in the row. How many boys are there in the row?
(1)
42
(2)
41
(3)
40
(4)
39
Q33. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is the second tallest and S is immediately taller than the shortest. Which of the following
is (are) necessary to decide who among them is at the middle when they stand according to their height?
(1)
T is not the shortest.
(2)
R is taller than S but shorter than Q.
(3)
P ranks third in height above S when all are arranged according to height.

(1)

Only (B)

(2)

Only (A) and (B)

(3)

Only (B) and (C)

(4)

(B) or [(A) and (C)]

Q34. A is the uncle of B, who is the daughter of C, and C is the daughter-in-law of P. How is A related to P?
(1)
Son
(2)
Son-in-law
(3)
Brother
(4)
Data inadequate
Directions for Q. No. 35 to 38 : - Study the following informtion carefully to answer the questions given below.
Lectures on six different subjects were arranged in a week from Monday to Saturday one after the other. Different
subjects Psychology, Sociology, Economics, Maths, History and Physics are taught by different professors B, D, F, G, K
and L, not necessarily in the same order.
D teaches Economics but not on Tuesday or Friday and is immediately followed by History, which is taught by L.
Physics is taught on the first day of the week but not by K. F teaches Maths on Saturday immediately on the next day of
Psychology, which is taught by G.
Q35. Which subject is taught on Friday?
(1)
Maths
(2)
Psychology
(3)
Physics
(4)
Data inadequate
Q36. Which subject is taught on Tuesday and by whom?
(1)
Sociology by K
(2)
Sociology by B
(3)
Physics by B
(4)
Physics by L
Q37. Economics is taught on which day of the week?
(1)
Monday
(2)
Wednesday
(3)
Thursday
(4)
Data inadequate
Q38. Which of the following combinations of subject, day and professor is correct?
(1)
Sociology-Monday-L
(2)
Physics-Monday-G
(3)
History-Wednesday-L
(4)
Physics-Monday-B
Directions for questions 39 to 44 : Solve the following questions as per the instruction.
Q39. The number in the series 6, 13, 28, (.....) is
(1)
56
(2)
57
(3)
58
(4)
59
Q40. At what approximate time between 5 and 6 are the hands of a clock 7 minute spaces apart?
(1)
5 : 30
(2)
5 : 32
(3)
5 : 35
(4)
5 : 25
Q41. At what time between 9 and 10 will the lands of a watch be together?
(1) 45 minutes past 9
(2) 50 minutes past 9
(3)
55 minutes past 9
(4)
60 minutes past 9
Q42. After how many years the calender of 2020 will repeat completely.
(1)
28
(2)
14
(3)
7
(4)
27
Q43. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as
(1)
RIDTCENOI
(2)
NORTECDII
(3)
NOIETCRID
(4)
IRDCTIONE
Q44. Five girls are sitting in a row .Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha.Rashi
is adjacent to Monika . Monika is seated in the middle of the row. Then to whom is Anuradha adjacent in the given
choices?
(1)
Rashi
(2)
Sulekha
(3)
Abha
(4)
Monika
Directions for question no. 45 : In the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong
term
Q45. 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834
(1)
26
(2)
74
(3)
218
(4)
654
Section - II : ENGLISH
Directions for Question no. 46-55: The passage in this section is followed by questions based on the content of the
reading passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
No one has ever suggested that grinding pauperism can lead to anything else but moral degradation. Every human
being has a right to live and therefore to find the wherewithal to feed himself and where necessary to clothe and house
himself. But for this very simple performance we need no assistance from economists or their laws. 'Take no thought for
the morrow' is an injunction which finds an echo in almost all the religious scriptures of the world. In a well - ordered
society, the securing of one's livelihood should be and is found to be the easiest thing in the world. Indeed, the test of
orderliness in a country is not the number of millionaires it owns but the absence of starvation among its masses. The
only statement that has to be examined is : whether it can be laid down as a law of universal application that material
advancement means moral progress.
Now let us take a few illustrations. Rome suffered moral fall when it attained high material affluence. So did Egypt
and perhaps most countries of which we have any historical record. The descendants and kinsmen of the royal and divine
Krishna too fell when they were rolling in riches. We do not deny to the Rockefellers and the Carnegies possession of an
ordinary measure of morality, but we gladly judge them indulgently. I mean that we do not even expect them to satisfy the
highest standard of morality. With them material gain has not necessarily meant moral gain. In South Africa, where I had
the privilege of associating with thousands of our countrymen on most intimate terms, I observed almost invariably that
the greater the possession of riches, the greater was their moral turpitude.

Q.46 What does grinding pauperism lead to ?

(1)
Spiritual elevation
(2)
Intellectual progress
(3)
Moral degradation
(4)
Appreciation of aesthetic beauty
Q47. What right does every individual have ?
(i)
A right to live
(ii)
A right to find food to feed himself
(iii) A right to clothe and house himself
(1)
I only is correct
(2)
II only is correct
(3)
III only is correct (4)
I, II and III are correct
Q48. Which injunction finds an echo in religious books ?
(1)
Think of tomorrow
(2)
Think of the past
(3)
Take no thought for tomorrow
(4)
Submit to God's service
Q49. The easiest thing available in a well - ordered society is (1)
Richness
(2)
Fashion
(3)
Employment
(4)
The securing of one's livelihood
Q50. What is the acid test of orderliness in a country?
(1)
Absence of starvation
(2)
Order and safety
(3)
Absence of diseases
(4)
Absence of unemployment
Q51. What is to be examined by the author ?
(1)
Whether material progress means moral progress
(2)
Whether absence of starvation means prosperity
(3)
Whether absence of diseases means a good society
(4)
Whether security and order mean civilization
Q52. When did Rome suffer moral downfall ?
(1)
When it was spiritually advanced
(2)
When it attained high material progress
(3)
When it attained progress in fashion
(4)
When it attained progress in knowledge
Q53. What happened to the descendants and kinsmen of the royal Krishna ?
(1)
They fought like dogs
(2)
They settled their old scores
(3)
They also fell when they were rolling in riches
(4)
They fought the battle of Mahabharat
Q54. The Rockefellers and the Carnegies do not (1)
Help the poor nations
(2)
Rise above personal prejudices
(3)
Compete with each other
(4)
Satisfy the highest standard of morality
Q55. The title below that best expresses the ideas of the passage is(1)
Take no Thought for the Morrow
(2)
The fall of Great nations
(3)
Material versus Moral progress
(4)
The standard of Morality
Directions for Questions no. 56 to 60 : Choose the most suitable preposition from the options given below each
sentence, and place them next to the verb in the bold to obtain the correct phrasal verb which makes the sentence
complete and meaningful.
Q56. The exhaust fumes from the cars were so strong that Sheila passed _______ .
(1)
out
(2)
off
(3)
by
(4)
up
Q57. When they offered me that job in Mumbai, I immediately accepted. There was no way I was going to pass ______
the opportunity to move to the glittering city.
(1)
out
(2)
off
(3)
through
(4)
up
Q58. He tried to pass _________ the painting as an original Picasso, but I recognized at once that it was a fake.
(1)
off
(2)
up
(3)
around
(4)
back
Q59. Every day, when the yellow bus passes________ my house on its way to school, I think of my childhood in India
and simpler times.
(1)
by
(2)
off
(3)
into
(4)
onto
Q60. I momentarily lost my cell phone connection when the train passed________ the tunnel.
(1)
through
(2)
in
(3)
over
(4)
on
Directions for Question no. 61- 65 : In the following sets, find out which part of the sentence has error. If there is no
mistake, the answer is 'no error'.
Q61. (1) The three finalists / (2) Tanya, Rohan, and me / (c) were best friends. / (d) no error
Q62. (1) Everything,/ (2) including, my new pair of trousers,/ (3) are dirty./ (4) no error
Q63. (1) One of the reason / (2) why students fail at / (c) school is the absence / (d) of parental support.
Q64. (1) His sworn statement, together with / (2) copies of the testimony and statements from others / (3) connected with
the case, / (d) were made a part of the file.
Q65. (1) School was cancelled today / (2) due to the fact that / (3) there was a snowstorm./ (4) no error.
Directions for Q no. 66- 68 : Choose the most appropriate word for the given meaning.
Q66. A book published after the death of its author
(1)
post mortem
(2)
posthumous
(3)
anterior
(4)
after demise

Q67. Words written on the tomb of a person

(1)
epitaph
(2)
epilogue
(3)
inter
(4)
engrave
Q68. Murder of a brother by a brother
(1)
fratricide
(2)
homicide
(3)
patricide
(4)
regicide
Directions for Q no. 69- 73 : In each of the following questions, there are sentences which are in a jumbled up state.
Arrange the sentences in the most logical and coherent sequence to make them meaningful.
Q69. (a)
The full two years are not over yet
(b)
In three and thirty days from today I should be discharged, if indeed I am not released sooner, as the jailor
sometimes threatens to do
(c)
It was time I finished, for the end of my two-year term draws near
(d)
but I have received three and a half months' remission of my sentence, as all well-behaved prisoners do.
(1)
bacd
(2)
adbc
(3)
dcba
(4)
cbad
Q70. (a)
Great empires have risen and fallen and have been forgotten by man for thousands of years
(b)
And yet, many an idea, many a fancy, have survived and proved stronger and more persistent than the
empire
(c)
from under the sands that covered them
(d)
till their remains were dug up again by patient explorers
(1)
acbd
(2)
abcd
(3)
adcb
(4)
adbc
Q71. (a)
it is right that we acknowledge our obligation to the past
(b)
but the past does not exhaust our duty or obligation; we owe a duty to the future also
(c)
and perhaps that obligation is even greater than the one we owe to the past
(d)
for the past is past and done with; we cannot change it; the future is yet to come and perhaps we may be
able to shape it a little
(1)
dabc
(2)
abcd
(3)
dcab
(4)
abdc
Q72. (a)
we read the praises of one of the kings of this race
(b)
who was said to be the best monarch of his time
(c)
and when he died he left his kingdom in a more prosperous and powerful condition than any king had done
before him
(d)
his subjects loved him, and his neighbours feared him
(e)
In the chronicles of the ancient dynasty of the Sassanidae, which reigned for about four hundred years
(1)
abcde
(2)
eabdc
(3)
eabcd
(4)
abdec
Q73. (a)
they achieve their successes by setting themselves strategic targets and taking action to achieve them
(b)
and of course, all the major military battles in history, from Roman times to modern battles
(c)
were all won (or lost) as a result of a strategy that evolved from a simple goal
(d)
and today's entrepreneurs and business-leaders - are no different
(e)
all of the great wonders of ancient civilizations would not exist if some visionary didn't have the goal to build
them.
(1)
ebcda
(2)
ebcad
(3)
edabc
(4)
ecbda
Directions for Question no. 74- 78 : In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed as the missing links in the passage and against each, some words are suggested. One of the word
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word.
The history of Indian Cinema can be _____74______ back to 1896 when the famous Lumiere Brothers of France
demonstrated six soundless short films in Bombay. By 1899, Harishchandra Bhatvadekar made India's first short film.
This was one of the major ____75______ in Indian Cinema. Throughout the first two decades, the trend continued with
filmmakers. The 1930s saw ______76_____ changes in the industry, technically and stylistically. The most remarkable
thing that happened in Indian film industry was in 1931, when India's first talkie, 'Alam Ara', directed by Ardeshir Irani was
released. Dubbed into Hindi and Urdu, the film was a smash hit and a new revolution began in the Indian film industry. Its
phenomenal success all over India lead to other 'Talking, Singing and Dancing' productions to be hurriedly put into
production. The 50s was a unique time in Indian cinema, blessed with talented directors and artists who could
___77_____ their individuality in their work.. The big ___78_____ point came in 1953 with the arrival of Bengali director
Satyajit Ray and his classic 'Pather Panchali'. International recognition came to it with the Cannes award for the best
human document, followed by foreign and national awards.
Q.74. (1)
taken
(2)
traced
(3)
timed
(4)
remembered
Q.75. (1)
milestone
(2)
setback
(3)
breakthrough
(4)
stepping stone
Q.76. (1)
sweeping
(2)
swiping
(3)
swaying
(4)
staggering
Q.77. (1)
label
(2)
resemble
(3)
stamp
(4)
thrive
Q.78. (1)
turning
(2)
burning
(3)
learning
(4)
moot
Directions for Question no. 79- 81 : Identify the word, which has been spelt incorrectly, in each set.
Q79. (1)
Pusellanimous
(2)
Psychology
(3)
diffidence
(4)
demeanour
Q.80 (1)
dessicate
(2)
behaviour
(3)
indispensible
(4)
malfeasance

Q.81 (1)
matress
(2)
impugn
(3)
consternation
(4)
ornithology
Directions for Question no. 82- 85 : In each of the following questions, some alternatives are suggested for idioms/
phrases that are highlighted in the sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the highlighted
idioms/phrases.
Q.82 One who was thought of as the black sheep of the family has turned out to be most sought after sports person
(1)
person who is very popular
(2)
person who is different and notorious
(3)
person who is different from others in the family and least respected.
(4)
person who is most revered
Q.83. "You should sit down. You look a bit blue around the gills."
(1)
looks unwell and sick
(2)
looks sour faced
(3)
looks poisoned
(4)
looks hale and hearty
Q.84. "He's the director's blue-eyed boy!"
(1)
somebody's favourite
(2)
somebody's errand boy
(3)
not a favourite person
(4)
director's assistant
Q.85. "Look, bureaucracy is a red herring. How to deal with the oil crisis is the important issue today."
(1)
a fact or argument introduced into a discussion which draws attention away from the main point.
(2)
a fact or argument introduced into a discussion which draws attention towards the main point.
(3)
a fact or argument introduced into a discussion to make it look attractive.
(4)
none of the above.
Section - III : Mathematics
Direction for Question no. 86 - 105) : Solve the following questions and choose the most appropriate answer.

1
1
1
1 1

...
1 1
3 1 4 1

100

5
99
Q86. The simplified value of
is :
2
1
1
1
99
25
50
100
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q87. A merchant purchased two qualities of pulses at the rate of Rs. 200 per quintal and Rs. 260 per quintal. In 52
quintals of the second quality, how much pulse of the first quality should be mixed so that by selling the resulting
mixture at Rs. 300 per quintal, he gains a profit of 25% ?
(1)
100 quintals
(2)
104 quintals
(3)
26 quintals
(4)
None of these
Q88. Radha spends 40% of her salary on food, 20% on house rent, 10% on entertainment and 10% on conveyance. If
her savings at the end of a month are Rs. 1500, then her salary per month (in Rs.) is :
(1)
8000
(2)
7500
(3)
6000
(4)
10000
Q89. If on selling 12 notebooks any seller makes a profit equal to the selling price of 4 notebooks, what is his percent
profit ?
2
16
3
(1)
50
(2)
25
(3)
(4)
data inadequate
6 6 6 ...
Q90. The value of
is ...
62/3
31/3
(1)
(2)
6
(3)
(4)
3
Q91. The average score per innings of a batsman for certain innings was 21.75. In the next three innings he scored 28,
34 and 37 runs and his average thus increased by 1.125 runs. How many innings did he play ?
(1)
27
(2)
28
(3)
29
(4)
31
Q92. Ajay borrows Rs. 1500 from two moneylenders. He pays interest at the rate of 12% per annum for one loan and at
the rate of 14% per annum for the other. The total interest he pays for the entire year is Rs. 186. How much does
he borrow at the rate of 12% ?
(1)
Rs. 1200
(2)
Rs. 1300
(3)
Rs. 1400
(4)
Rs. 300
Q93. A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days, B and C in 15 days, and C and A in 20 days. C alone can do the whole
work in
(1)
60 days
(2)
120 days
(3)
80 days
(4)
30 days

x
3 0.008,
0.0064
Q94. If,
the value of is :
(1)
0.256
(2)
0.0256
(3)
0.000256
(4)
0.00256
Q95. If 391 bananas were distributed among three monkeys in the ratio 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4, how many bananas did the first
monkey get ?
(1)
102
(2)
108
(3)
112
(4)
104
Q96. At an election, the candidate who got 56% of the votes cast, won by 144 votes. Find the total number of votes on
the voting list if 80% people cast their vote and there were no invalid votes.
(1)
360
(2)
720
(3)
1800
(4)
1500
Q97. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13,380 after 3 years and Rs. 20,070 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum is:
(1)
Rs. 8800
(2)
Rs. 8890
(3)
Rs. 8920
(4)
Rs. 9040
35 49
21
,
and
.
12 30
20
Q98. Find the HCF of
.
7
105
7
105
60
60
12
12
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q99. The monthly incomes of two persons are in the ratio 4 : 7, and their expenses are in the ratio 11 : 20. If each of
them saves Rs. 400 per month, then their monthly income must be respectively :
(1)
Rs. 3,600, Rs. 4,200
(2)
Rs. 4,000, Rs. 7,000
(3)
Rs. 4,200, Rs. 7,350
(4)
Rs. 4,800, Rs. 8,400
Q100. Raju can do a piece of work in 10 days, Vicky in 12 days and Tinku in 15 days. They all start the work together, but
Raju leaves after 2 days and Vicky leaves 3 days before the work is completed. In how many days is the work
completed?
(1)
5 days
(2)
6 days
(3)
7 days
(4)
8 days
Q101. What annual payment will discarge a debt of Rs. 19,350 due 4 years hence at the rate of 5% simple interest?
(1)
Rs. 4500
(2)
Rs. 5400
(3)
Rs. 4000
(4)
None of these
31/2.91/4.271/6....

Q102.The product
to
is :
(1)
3
(2)
9
(3)
infinity
(4)
27
Q103. 15 men could finish a piece of work in 210 days. But at the end of 100 days, 15 additional men are employed. In
how many days will the remaining work be completed?
(1)
80 days
(2)
60 days
(3)
55 days
(4)
50 days
Q104. An article is listed at Rs. 75. After a discount of 20% what additional discount must be offered to a customer to bring
the net price at Rs. 54?
(1)
8%
(2)
9%
(3)
10%
(4)
12%
Q105. How many square pieces (as large as possible) of identical dimensions can be cut from a rectangular field, 200 m
long and 80 m wide ?
(1)
20
(2)
10
(3)
12
(4)
15
Section - IV : General Knowledge
Directions for Question no. 106 to 155 : Read the questions carefully and mark the correct choice in your answer sheet
Q106. How is the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference wherein the agreements were signed to set up
IBRD, GATT and IMF, commonly known?
(1)
Bandung Conference
(2)
Bretton Woods Conference
(3)
Versailles Conference
(4)
Yalta Conference
Q107. Among the Indian languages, which one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi?
(1)
Telugu
(2)
Tamil
(3)
Bengali
(4)
Malayalam
Q108. Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the
Secretary of State for India?
(1)
Motilal Nehru
(2)
M. G. Ranade
(3)
G. K. Gokhale
(4)
B. G. Tilak
Q109. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?
(1)
Malacca Strait
(2)
Bering Strait
(3)
Strait of Florida
(4)
Strait of Gibraltar
Q110. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Theory / Law
Associated Scientist
1.
Continental Drift
Edwin Hubble
2.
Expansion of Universe
Alfred Wegener

3.
Photoelectric Effect
Albert Einstein
Select the correct answer using the code given below Codes :
(1)
2 and 3 only
(2)
3 only
(3)
2 only
(4)
1 only
Q111. Ebraham Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following areas?
(1)
Heart surgery
(2)
Civil aviation
(3)
Theatre training
(4)
Transport engineering
Q112. Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?
(1)
Manipuri
(2)
Bharat Natyam
(3)
Kuchipudi
(4)
Odissi
Q113. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List - I
List - II
(author)
(Work)
(a)
Bankim Chandra
1.
Shatranj Ke Khilari
(b)
Dinabandhu Mitra
2.
Devi Chaudharani
(c)
Premchand
3.
Nil-Darpan
4.
Chandrakanta
Codes :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1)
2
4
1
(2)
3
4
2
(3)
2
3
1
(4)
3
1
4
Q114. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
(1)
Ministry of Defence
(2)
Ministry of Home Affairs
(3)
Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(4)
Ministry of Environment and Forests
Q115. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List - I
List - II
(Board)
(Headquarters)
(a)
Coffee Board
1.
Bengaluru
(b)
Rubber Board
2.
Guntur
(c)
Tea Board
3.
Kottayam
(d)
Tobacco Board
4.
Kolkata
Codes :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
2
4
3
1
(2)
1
3
4
2
(3)
2
3
4
1
(4)
1
4
3
2
Q116. Which one among the following states has the maximum number of National Parks?
(1)
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(2)
Arunachal Pradesh
(3)
Assam
(4)
Meghalaya
Q117. In the context of the Indian defence, what is 'Dhruv' ?
(1)
Aircraft-carrying warship
(2)
Missile-carrying submarine
(3)
Advanced light helicopter
(4)
Intercontinental ballistic missile
Q118. Starting with the Australian Open Lawn Tennis Tournament, which one of the following is the correct chronological
order of the other three major Lawn Tennis Tournaments?
(1)
French Open - US Open - Wimbledon
(2)
French Open - Wimbledon - US Open
(3)
Wimbledon - US Open - French Open
(4)
Wimbledon - French Open - US Open
Q119. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
(1)
Mohammad Hidayatullah
(2)
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(3)
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(4)
Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes :
(1)
1, 2, 3 and 4
(2)
1 and 4 only
(3)
2 and 3 only
(4)
3 and 4 only
Q120. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(1)
Passion flower plant
(2)
Pitcher plant
(3)
Night queen
(4)
Flame of the forest
Q121. Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Physics with his son?
(1)
Max Planck
(2)
Albert Einstein
(3)
William Henry Bragg
(4)
Enrico Fermi

Q122. What are Rubies and Sapphires Chemically known as?

(1)
Silicon dioxide
(2)
Aluminium oxide (3)
Lead tetroxide
(4)
Boron nitride
Q123. Who among the following started the newspaper Shome Prakash?
(1)
Dayanand Saraswati
(2)
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(3)
Raja Rammohan Roy
(4)
Surendranath Banerjee
Q124. Through which one of the following Straits, does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France?
(1)
Davis Strait
(2)
Denmark Strait
(3)
Strait of Dover
(4)
Strait of Gibraltar
Q125. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (WWW) ?
(1)
Edward Kasner
(2)
Bill Gates
(3)
Tim Berners - Lee (4)
Vinod Dham
Q126. Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate
trade between India and China?
(1)
Chang La
(2)
Jara La
(3)
Nathu La
(4)
Shipki La
Q127. Raghu Rai is well-known for which one of the following areas?
(1)
Research in Mathematics
(2)
Photography
(3)
Water harvesting
(4)
Pollution control
Q128. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(1)
Environmental protection
(2)
Olympic Games
(3)
Journalism
(4)
Civil Aviation
Q129. Near the end of the year 2006, which one of the following countries was suspended from the Commonwealth after
a military coup?
(1)
Kenya
(2)
Myanmar
(3)
Fiji
(4)
Tanzania
Q130. The First Factory Act restricting the working hours of women and children, and authorizing local governments to
make necessary rules was adopted during whose time?
(1)
Lord Lytton
(2)
Lord Bentinck
(3)
Lord Ripon
(4)
Lord Canning
Q131. The song 'Amar Sonar Bangla' written during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the liberation struggle of
Bangladesh and was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song?
(1)
Rajni Kanta Sen (2)
Dwijendralal Ray (3)
Mukunda Das
(4) Rabindranath Tagore
Q132. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List - I
List - II
(Writer)
(Book)
(a)
V. S. Naipaul
1. The Siege of Krishnapur
(b)
Salman Rushdie
2. In a Free State
(c)
Paul Scott
3. Midnight's Children
(d)
J. G. Farrell
4. Staying On
Codes :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
2
3
4
1
(2)
4
1
2
3
(3)
2
1
4
3
(4)
4
3
2
1
Q133. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List - I
List - II
(Person)
(Known as)
(a)
John C. Mather
1. Co-founder of Microsoft
(b)
Michael Griffin
2. Space Walker
(c)
Paul G. Allen
3. Administrator of NASA
(d)
Piers Sellers
4. Nobel Prize Winner, 2006 in Physics
Codes :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
4
1
3
2
(2)
2
3
1
4
(3)
4
3
1
2
(4)
2
1
3
4
Q134. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List - I
List - II
(Aluminium Company)
(Location)
(a)
BALCO
1.
Hirakud
(b)
HINDALCO
2.
Korba
(c)
Indian Aluminium Company
3.
Koraput
(d)
NALCO
4.
Renukoot

Codes :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
3
1
4
2
(2)
2
4
1
3
(3)
3
4
1
2
(4)
2
1
4
3
Q135.Tarapore Committee was associated with which one of the following?
(1)
Special Economic Zones
(2)
Fuller capital account convertibility
(3)
Foreign exchange reserves
(4)
Effect of oil-prices on the Indian economy
Q136. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?
(1)
Consolidated Fund of India
(2)
Foreign Institutional Investors
(3)
United Nations Development Programme
(4)
Kyoto Protocol
Q137. Recently government has announced which animal as National Heritage Animal?
(1)
Elephant
(2)
Cow
(3)
Tiger Tail Monkey (4)
Deer
Q138. Match the following for 57th National Film Award - 2009.
(a)
Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(1)
Anjuli Shukla
(b)
Best supporting actor
(2)
Shaj N. Karun
(c)
Best Director (Swarn Kamal)
(3)
D. Ramanaidu
(d)
Best Cinematography
(4)
Farooque Shiekh
(1)
a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 (2)
a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 (3)
a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 (4)
a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
Q139. Which country is World's biggest newspaper market
(1)
China
(2)
USA
(3)
Brazil
(4)
India
Q140. Who is the Chairman of National Advisory Council?
(1)
Montek Singh
(2)
Sonia Gandhi
(3)
Kiran Majumdar (4)
Sam Pitroda
Q141. Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahayog Yojana (IGMSY) is a New scheme to be implemented from coming 5 year plan is
for the benefit of
(1)
Children of below 2 years age
(2)
Pregnant and lactating women
(3)
Women labours
(4)
Old Age Women's Rehabilitation
Q142. What is Laskar Award
(1)
An Award in the field of biomedical research (2)
A galantry award
(3)
An award in the field of music
(4)
An award given by the terrorist outfit TET.
Q143. ISRO has declared to launch a mission to study the Sun, naming
(1)
Ravi
(2)
Bhaskar
(3)
Aditya
(4)
Uday
Q144. 'Conscience of a Maverick' is a book written by
(1)
Kushwant Singh (2)
Ram Jeth Malani (3)
Justice Krishna Iyer (4) M. S. Swaminathan
Q145. Louise Joy Brown is the world's first
(1)
Test Tube Baby
(2)
In Vitrio Mother
(3)
Female Olympion (4)
None of these
Q146. Who is the National Security Advisor of India
(1)
Shiv Shankar Menon
(2)
Arti Shukla
(3)
Madhwa Menon
(4)
Suresh Tendulkar
Q147. What is the Full Form of WADA?
(1)
World Anti Distruction Agency
(2)
World Agency for Developing Automation
(3)
Weekly Analysis on Demographic Attributes (4)
World Anti Doping Agency
Q148. Director General of United Nation, food and Agriculture organization is
(1)
Dr. Jacques Diouf (2)
Thomas Marcus (3)
Mark Antoni
(4)
Fredrich De Cout
Q149. Who is the 1st Chief Justice of India born after Independence?
(1)
K G Balakrishnan (2)
Krishna Iyer
(3) Y K Sabarwal
(4)
S H Kapadia
Q150. Gobi desert is in which country.
(1)
Mangolia
(2)
Uzbekistan
(3)
Afghanistan
(4)
Turkmenistan
Q151. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament ?
(1)
Dadabhai Naoroji
(2)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3)
Bipin Chandra Pal
(4)
Lala Lajpat Rai
Q152. The Torah is the Holy Book of which community?
(1)
Muslims
(2)
Jews
(3)
Hans
(4)
Parsis
Q153. Server of Blackberry is located in which country?
(1)
USA
(2)
Germany
(3)
Canada
(4)
Japan
Q154. Which country will host 2015 World Cup Cricket?
(1)
Australia
(2)
England
(3)
South Africa
(4)
West Indies

Q155. Mullaperiyar Dam dispute is in between which states?

(1)
Tamilnadu and Kerala
(2)
(3)
Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(4)

Tamilnadu, Karnataka and Kerala

Tamilnadu and Pondichery

Section - V : Legal Reasoning

Q156. Read the facts and the principle situation carefully and then choose the most appropriate option.
Facts : Cheryl, who had been learning Jazz and Ballet from Ricky for the last 15 years, was elated when he
informed her that a great contract with the established dance company, Ballet Inc. had come her way. The
contract's terms included: she would not be allowed to enter into a contract with any other company for a period of
20 years, 10% of her earnings would go to Ricky and 20% to the company. A few years after she had signed the
deal, she realised that the limitations under the contract far outweighed the benefits; also that Ricky had been paid
large sum to get her to sign the contract. Feeling cheated, Cheryl approaches you to determine the legal validity of
the contract.
Principle: A contract is said to be induced by undue influence where the relations existing between the parties are
such that one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an
unfair advantage over the other.
1.
The contract is void as Ricky was in a position to influence her will and he abused that position by making
her sign a contract that was obviously to her detriment.
2.
The contract is voidable by virtue of the consent being obtained by undue influence.
3.
The contract is valid as Cheryl should have used her discretion when signing the same instead of relying on
Ricky's words.
4.
The contract is validated by the passage of a reasonable period of time after it had been signed; hence
rendering the presence of undue influence is irrelevant
Q157. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : A patent is granted to the inventor for exclusive commercial use of his invention. A patent is granted only
if the thing invented is novel, non obvious and industrially useful.
Facts: Arogya Singh, a farmer comes to know that the roots of 'Senthilia' herb has unique healing properties. He
applies the paste of the roots of the said herb to many persons and their wounds were cured. He even
experimented it on animals and found that applying the roots of Senthilia cured many serious sores on the bodies
of cows. He applies for the grant of patent for inventing Senthilia as a herbal medicine.
1.
Arogya Singh would get a patent because he has invented something, which is novel and industrially useful.
2.
Arogya Singh would not get a patent because herbal products are not patented.
3.
Arogya Singh would get a patent because he has experimented in finding healing properties of Senthalia on
men and animals.
4.
Arogya Singh would not get a patent because his research is not novel and non-obvious.
Q158. Read the facts and the principle situation carefully and then choose the most appropriate option.
Principle : Whosoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person
without that person's consent, and moves that property in order to such taking is said to commit theft.
Fact: A man sees an attractive watch on his friend's dresser. Intending to steal it, he picks it up and starts walking
out of the door. Just before he can exit, his friend notices that the watch is missing and exclaims loudly. Panicking,
the man leaves it on a table near the exit and leaves.
1.
He has committed theft, even though the property hasn't managed to gain possession of that property, and
not moved it out of the house.
2.
It is only an attempt to commit theft.
3.
An attempt to commit an offence, even though unsuccessful, still does not absolve a person of his liability
under criminal law.
4.
No offence has been committed, because the attempt was ultimately foiled.
Q159. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : No one can accept a proposal without any knowledge thereof.
Facts: Honey Tandon's prized pet Lindsay, a Pomerian could not be found as it wandered away from its kennel.
Distraught with grief, she advertised everywhere- newspapers, television channels, radio, the Internet, promising a
hefty reward to anyone who could find the dog and bring it back. Mahendra, an ardent animal lover and
Greenpeace activist, was told by his friend Vinod that he had heard something about a lost precious dog of a movie
star. Driven by his sense of activism and being a Good Samaritan, Mahendra searched high and low for the dog,
and finally, after being able to locate it, asked around about its owner, and guided by some neighbourhood people,
could reach Honey Tandon's house and return the dog to her. While he was returning after having given back the
dog, those who had guided him congratulated him for the hefty reward he had received. Mahendra was completely
taken by surprise because he had no clue about the reward
1.
Mahendra would not get the money because he had taken the action without knowing about the reward.
2.
Honey would have to pay because the reward was promised to anyone who found and returned the dog.

3.

Honey need not pay because the contract was limited to only those who had seen the advertisement on
television and newspapers, or heard about it on the radio.
4.
Having acted out of his sense of humanism, now Mahendra cannot seek undue benefits.
Q160. A and B set up a windmill on A's land to generate power for both of their properties. In a, freak, unpredicted and
exceptionally violent thunder storm, the windmill is knocked down and kills two sheeps and four cows belonging to
B. Another sheep and cow died of the shock. B seeks to claim damages from A on the grounds of strict liability? Will
he succeed?
Principle : Strict liability is attracted upon a person who brings a dangerous thing on to his land with a view to
making a non-natural use of the land and the thing subsequently escapes. The defences to such liability include
plaintiff's default, plaintiff's consent, act of god, act of third party and statutory authority.
1.
A is liable. All the conditions are met.
2.
A is not liable. He is protected by the defence of "Act of God".
3.
A is not liable. He is protected by the twin defences of Act of God and Plaintiff's consent.
4.
A and B should share the responsibility and remember that friendship is more important than mere monetary
gain.
Q161. Read the fact situation below and the choose the correct option.
Srishti promised Sharmila, vide an agreement, that she would give her daughter Kareena's hand in marriage to the
latter's son Saif after he turns 21. Subsequently, Kareena falls head-over-heels in love with Shahid, and dares her
mother to force her into an unwanted marriage, and even threatens to take her own life. The marriage which Srishti
had promised has to be called off, without any remedy being available to the aggrieved parties, because : If
Kareena goes ahead with her threat, then Shristii and Sharmila would stand the risk of being prosecuted for
abetment of suicide.
1.
A contract in restraint of marriage is void
2.
A contract in restraint of marriage is illegal
3.
Only written agreements have legal validity 4.
Nobody can be held liable for such situations.
Q162. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : In order to declare President's Rule in a particular State, the President of India shall seek a report from
the Governor, and decide on the basis of such report. The Governor shall base this report on his analysis and
judgement of the situation. The report of the Governor is amenable to judicial review only if it is mala fide.
Facts: Following sporadic riots on a large scale in the state of Andhernagari, the ruling party at the Centre wanted
to clamp President's Rule in the State. However, the party which was in the Opposition at the Centre vehemently
opposed it. The same party was also the ruling party in the State of Andhernagari. The Governor of Andhernagari,
in his report, stated that the situation looked difficult, but there was no urgent need for President's Rule. Still, the
Centre goes ahead, and President's Rule is declared. The ruling party in Andhernagari
approached the Supreme Court against the imposition of President's Rule, claiming it was based on irrelevance.
1.
The Governor's report was totally bona fide, and anyway, the basis of such report cannot be challenged in a
Court of law.
2.
The Governor's report would be quashed and held as ultra vires the Constitution.
3.
The Governor's report would be quashed, since it was prepared with a dishonest intention.
4.
The imposition of President's Rule would be quashed, since it was done out of purely political vendetta.
Q163. M was a famous Page Three personality and well known in the media and in society. He died in March. A month
later a popular gossip magazine published a story claiming that M had had many affairs during the course of his life
and that his heirs were fighting amongst each other and allegations of illegitimacy were being bandied about. M's
heirs (children and wife) brought an action against the magazine for defaming them. Will it succeed? Assume that
no defence applies.
Principle 1 : The tort of defamation is established when it is proven that a statement referring to the plaintiff has
been published and the statement is such that could be expected to lower the reputation of the plaintiff in the
estimation of reasonable members of society.
Principle 2: A dead man can't be defamed.
1.
No. M is dead.
2.
Yes. The reputations of his family have been besmirched.
3.
No. This is only the truth and the newspaper has proof.
4.
No. It is only gossip and no reasonable man takes it seriously.
Q164. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : One who institutes prosecution against another without reasonable cause, or out of malice, is guilty of
the tort of malicious prosecution.
Facts : Deep and Kabir are sworn enemies. Once, there is a theft at Deep's house, and smelling a golden
opportunity to have revenge on Kabir, he names the latter as being a key conspirator. Kabir is arrested and tried,
but found innocent and thus acquitted of the crime of committing the robbery at Deep's house. However, in course
of their investigation, the police had come across concrete evidence of Kabir being involved in some other

robberies in the neighbourhood six years ago. Accordingly, proceedings are instituted, and Kabir is convicted and
sentenced. After serving his sentence, Kabir files a suit for malicious prosecution against Deep.
1.
Deep is guilty because he named Kabir in the complaint only to seek revenge.
2.
Deep is not guilty because Kabir has been convicted of robberies in the neighbourhood.
3.
The robberies which Kabir had committed and been convicted of, had taken place way back in the past and
this would in no way weaken Kabir's case against Deep.
4.
Kabir would succeed, because theft and robbery are entirely different offences.
Q165. Read the facts and the principle situation carefully and then choose the most appropriate option.
Facts : Frida entered into a contract with Ms. Sedan to buy a 1950s red Cadillac convertible. She purchased the
car on Jan. 21, 2009 and was all set to drive it when she found out that the car wasn't a1950s but infact 1970s car.
When she demanded an explanation, Ms Sedan informed her that she believed the car to be a 1950s model at the
time of the sale. Frida now seeks to question the validity of the contract.
Principle 1: Where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the
agreement, the agreement is void.
Principle 2: Misrepresentation includes, causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake
as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
1.
The contract is valid as the mistake is only as regards an attribute or quality and not as regards the
substance.
2.
The contract is invalid as the mistake is as regards the substance and not just an attribute or quality.
3.
No contract has been entered into in the first place due to the absence of consensus ad idem.
4.
The contract is binding upon Frida as she being the buyer should have exercised due care to check the car
before purchasing it.
Q166. Read the facts and the principle situation carefully and then choose the most appropriate option.
Facts : Number Game is a daily competition held by a newspaper. One has to complete the cryptic sudoku,
enclose the same along with Rs. 500 in an envelope and send it to the office. After this, a lucky draw would be held
and a winner would be accordingly chosen from among the entire week's entries who would receive Rs. 50,000/- as
prize money. Mr. Gyaan was adjudged the winner one week but was given only Rs. 30,500. He files a suit for the
remainder of the amount.
Principle 1 : An agreement is unenforceable if its consideration or object is forbidden by law.
Principle 2 : Wagering is forbidden by law.
1.
Mr. Gyaan will succeed; by winning the lucky draw he has provided the consideration which can bind the
newspaper to its promise of the payment of Rs. 50,000/2.
Mr. Gyaan will not succeed as the component of a lucky draw converts the character of this contract to a
wagering agreement which is unenforceable.
3.
Mr. Gyaan will succeed as the contract was not a wagering agreement but was infact based on skill,
completing the sudoku, and is hence enforceable.
4.
Mr. Gyaan will not succeed as the contract is void on account of its object being forbidden by law.
Q167. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : No person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same offence more than once.
Facts : Mr. Natwarlal, the Treasurer of Sikandar Cargo Handling Company Pvt. Ltd. was charged with
misappropriating large sums of money from the office funds. Besides a case of theft, departmental proceedings
were also instituted against him for grave professional misconduct and other similar charges. He was convicted by
the Court of the Metropolitan Magistrate, Mumbai and sentenced to three years imprisonment along with a fine. The
Departmental Proceedings had been stayed till the disposal of Mr. Natwarlal's Appeal to the High Court against the
Order of the Magistrate. The High Court affirmed the decision of the Magistrate. After he had served his sentence,
the Departmental Proceedings, which had been kept in abeyance till that time, were started again. Mr. Natwarlal
challenges the fresh institution of Departmental Proceedings in the High Court by way of a Writ Petition.
1.
Mr. Natwarlal is protected by the Fundamental Right against double jeopardy, and hence would succeed in
his Writ.
2.
The Departmental Proceedings would be rendered infructuous since he has already been convicted and
sentenced by the Court, and also served the sentence imposed on him.
3.
Mr. Natwarlal's Writ would fail, since in the Order of conviction, both the Courts had left it open for Sikandar
Cargo Handling Company to pursue separate actions against him.
4.
Remedies in criminal law are independent of Departmental Proceedings.
Q168. John, Thomson, Robert, Smith and Chriss entered into an agreement to destroy an office building of the
Government of India. John purchased AK-47 rifles and guns and explosive. Thomson supplied vehicles. Robert
contributed money. Smith and Chriss made arrangements, conducted meetings and made plans for the
commission of the act. John, Thomson and Robert before reaching the office building were apprehended by police
and were shot dead. Decide about the offence of Smith and Chriss:
1.
Smith and Chris are not guilty of conspiracy as they had not gone in the vehicle for committing crime.

2.

Liability of Smith and Chriss comes to end with the death of main accused persons viz. John,Thomson and
Robert
3.
As no offence is committed no one is responsible
4.
Smith and Chriss are to be punished as it is immaterial in the criminal law, whether illegal act is ultimate
object of the agreement or merely incidental to that object.
Q169. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : Any unreasonable interference with another person's right to enjoy his property constitutes the tort of
nuisance.
Facts : Kumaran, a diehard vegetarian, shifts to Lucknow for work, and is in urgent need of accommodation.
Unable to find anything at such short notice, he has no option but to take a house on rent located very close to the
Kababchi Gali. He is put to severe discomfort because Sukhvinder, his neighbour and a great meat aficionado, is
always cooking fish and sheep's meat, and this smell makes Kumaran vomit quite often. The smell from the kabab
shops all around also bothers him, but he is yet to take up the matter with them. All his requests to Sukhvinder
having been given the cold shoulder, Kumaran files a suit for nuisance.
1.
Kumaran's suit will be dismissed because Sukhvinder was well within his rights to cook anything he pleased
in his own house.
2.
Kumaran will win, because Sukhvinder ought to have given at least some consideration to his requests,
since they were next-door neighbours in the same building.
3.
Kumaran will lose, since he very well knew how things would be like before taking up residence in that area
and building.
4.
Kumaran should have proceeded against the kabab shops first.
Q170. Apply the Principles to the given facts and choose the appropriate option
Principle : Damages cannot be claimed against a risk to which consent has been given.
Facts : Freaky Joe enjoys disrupting cricket matches by streaking into the ground, and trying to hug the players.
While a match was in progress, he streaks into the ground and lunges towards Matthew Bullock and attempts to
give him a bear hug, shouting that he is Matthew's greatest fan. Flabbergasted, Matthew hits him hard with his
cricket bat, and due to this blow, Joe gets a broken cheekbone. Matthew's reaction was brought about partly
because of his frustration at not being able to score runs at the rate required to win the match for his team,
especially when his team was on the verge of losing, and being thrown out of the competition as a result. Freaky
Joe sues Matthew for grievous hurt.
1.
Joe would succeed, as players' code of conduct strictly binds them not to deliberately hit anyone on the
ground, and Matthew had grossly breached that code.
2.
Joe would fail, since he knew how his targets would react.
3.
Joe would succeed, because he had not anticipated such a reaction from any of his targets.
4.
None of these
Q171. Disagreement between the two Houses of Indian Parliament is finally resolved through
1.
a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose.
2.
mediatory efforts by the presiding officers of the two Houses.
3.
a joint committee of the two Houses for the purpose.
4.
mediation by the President.
Q172. Which one of the following Directive Principles is a socialistic principle?
1.
Equal pay for equal work to all
2.
Protection of the health of workers
3.
Prevention of concentration of wealth and the means of production
4.
All of these
Q173. The Rule of Law means
1.
existence of written rules to regulate the conduct of government officials.
2.
that no person can be punished unless his guilt is established by a fair trial.
3.
that the power to make laws vests in the elected representatives of the people.
4.
independence of the Judiciary
Q174. In a particular case, the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers is sent back by the President for
reconsideration. If the Council of Ministers adhere to their earlier advice, the President
1.
can ask for reconsideration of the advice once more
2.
can ask for reconsideration of the advice any number of times
3.
has no option but to accept such advice
4.
must seek the advice of the Supreme Court before rejecting the advice.
Q175. The term of which of the following Lok Sabha was extended beyond the normal period of five years as is laid down
in the Constitution?
1.
Fourth Lok Sabha 2.
Fifth Lok Sabha
3.
Sixth Lok Sabha 4.
Seventh Lok Sabha
Q176. The High Courts at Bombay, Calcutta and Madras were established under the

1.
Indian High Courts Act, 1861
2.
Indian High Courts Act, 1865
3.
Indian High Courts Act, 1911
4.
Government of India Act, 1919
Q177. In India, a tax on agricultural income can be levied by
1.
both the Central and State Governments
2.
neither the Central nor the State Governments
3.
only the State Governments
4.
only the Central Government
Q178. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of
1.
the Chief Justice of a High Court
2.
the Chief Justice of India
3.
the Governor
4.
the Vice-President
Q179. The Constitution of India borrowed the concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy from the Constitution of
1.
Ireland
2.
USA
3.
UK
4.
Canada
Q180. A member elected to Lok Sabha as a candidate of a party crosses the floor of the House. In such a case,
1.
his continued membership of the House is not affected in any way
2.
he ceases to be a member of the House whether or not he resigns his membership
3.
he can continue to be a member of the House if the party on whose symbol he was elected has no objection
4.
he will continue to be a member of the House if the Speaker permits
Q181. The Right to Property was excluded from the Fundamental Rights during the tenure of the Government headed by
1.
Charan Singh
2.
Morarji Desai
3.
Indira Gandhi
4.
Rajiv Gandhi
Q182. Which of the following laws are is being amended to accommodate the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement
Policy 2007:
1.
SEZ Act 2001
2.
The National CRZ Act, 2009
3.
The Land Acquisition Act 1948
4.
All the above
Q183. An insolvent person is
1.
bankrupt
2.
absconder
3.
Approver
4.
Financially unsound
Q184. A previous judgement cited by court to decide on a similar set of facts is
1.
Judicial dicta
2.
Obiter dicta
3.
Precedent
4.
Case
Q185. An Offence in which police officer can arrest without a Warrant is known as:1.
Cognizable offence
2.
Non- Cognizable offence
3.
Compoundable offence
4.
Non-bailable offence
Q186. Borrowing of money against pledge land as security . This system of arrangement is called
1.
Mortgage
2.
Hundi
3.
Pledge
4.
None of the above
Q187. The recent copyright infringement case in the Delhi High Court, Warner Bros vs Mirchi Movies, centred on the issue
of :
1.
Copying an idea
2.
Deceptive Similarity
3.
Taking unfair advantage of another's idea by slightly modifying it and passing it off as unique
4.
Passing of
Q188. Jurisdiction to grant anticipatory bail under section 438 of Cr.P.C. vests with;
1.
The Court of Sessions and the High Court 2.
The High Court
3.
The Court of Sessions
4.
The Court of Magistrate
Q189. The idea of Judicial Review in Indian Constitution was borrowed from
1.
America
2.
England
3.
Canada
4.
Australia
Q190. Defamation is a ...
1.
tort
2.
crime
3.
tort as well as a crime 4. Civil wrong
Q191. Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa is:
1.
No man can be a judge in his own cause.
2.
No man can be a judge in his relative's case.
3.
A man can be a judge in his own case.
4.
None of these.
Q192. A person who makes an affidavit or deposition is called.
1.
Plaintiff
2.
Witness
3.
Deponent
4.
Defendant
Q193. Mens rea means
1.
Intention
2.
Evil
3.
Guilty mind
4.
Unlawful act
Q194. Union territory of Andaman Nicobar Island is within the jurisdiction of
1.
Madras High Court
2.
Calcutta High Court
3.
Gauhathi High Court
4.
Delhi High Court
Q195. Nikita Mehta was in the news for challenging a particular clause in the :
1.
Pre Natal Diagnostic Tests Act
2.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
3.
Anti-abortion Act
4.
Disability Act
Q196. 'Inquiry' means every inquiry conducted under the Criminal Procedure Code by a
1.
CBI
2.
Private detective
3.
Magistrate or court
4.
Police officer
Q197. Sang-Hyun Song is:

1.
A Judge of the ICC
2.
A Judge of the Hague
3.
The Prosecutor of the ICC
4.
The UN Envoy to Sudan
Q198. Phukan Commission is related to1.
Reservations for minorities
2.
Tehelka defence scandal
3.
Anti-Sikh riots of 1984
4.
Reforms in Civil Services
Q199. The Preamble to the Charter of which organisation declares: "Since war begins in the minds of men, it is in the
minds of men that the defences of peace must be constructed"?
1.
UNIDO
2.
UNESCO
3.
UN
4.
Amnesty International
Q200. The Janjaweed is :
1.
A group of mercenaries and recidivists in Congo 2.
A militia group in Sudan
3.
Rebel insurgents in Rwanda
4.
Private armies of Sudanese warlords