KAKADEO, KIDWAI NAGAR, KANPUR

NDA MODEL TEST PAPER - I

Time Allowed : 2 hour

Maximum Marks : 300

PAPER - I (Mathematics)
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

Suppose A represents the symbol 1, B represents the

symbol 0, C represents the symbol 1, D represents the
symbol 0 and so on. If we divide INDIA by AGRA,
then which one of the following is the remainder in Binary
Representation?
(a) (1101)2
(b) (101)2
(c) (11)2
(d) (110)2
How many number of digits are there in 298 ? (Given that
log102 = 0.30103)
(a) 98
(b) 99
(c) 30
(d) 29
What is the area of the triangle on the Argand diagram
formed by the complex numbers z, iz, z iz ?
(a) | z |2
(b) 2 | z |2
2
(c) | z | /2
(d) | z |2/4
In a quadratic equation, with leading coefficient 1, Sheela
reads the coefficient 16 of x wrongly as 19 and obtains the
roots as 15 and 4. Which of the following are the correct
roots of the equation ?
(a) 8, 8
(b) 6, 10
(c) 6, 10
(d) 12, 5
Out of 40 children 30 can swim, 27 can play chess and only
5 can do neither. How many children can swim only ?
(a) 30
(b) 22
(c) 12
(d) 8
Both the roots of a quadratic equation x2 mx + 121 = 0 are
greater than 10. What is the minimum value of m ?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) cannot be determined
What is the simplified representation of
( A B C ) ( B C ) ( A C ) where A, B, C are
subsets of a set X ?
(a) A
(b) B

8.

9.

(c) C
(d) X ( A B C )
Which one of the following is the domain of the relation R
defined on the set N of natural numbers as
R {(m, n) : 2m 3n 30; m, n N } ?
(a) {2, 4, 6, 8}
(b) {3, 7, 11, 15}
(c) {3, 6, 9, 12}
(d) {3, 6, 9, 12, 15}
How many terms are there in the expansion of

( x y z )10 ?
(a) 11
(c) 66

(b) 33
(d) 310

10. Which one of the following is correct ?

(a) The relation R0 defined on the set of Real numbers as
R0 = {(a, b) such that a2 + b2 = 1 for all a, b R} is an
equivalence relation.
(b) The relation R0 defined on the set of Real numbers as
R0 = {(a, b) such that | a b | 1 / 3 for all a, b R } is an
equivalence relation
(c) The relation I0 defined on the set of integers as I1I0I2 : I12
3I1I2 + 2I22 = 0 for all I1, I2 I is an equivalence relation.
(d) We define AEcB by the open sentence : A is cardinally
equivalent to B on the family of sets. Then the relation Ec
on family of sets is an equivalence relation.
11. How many arrangements can be made out of the letters of
the word MOTHER taken four at a time so that each
arrangement contains the letter M ?
(a) 240
(b) 120
(c) 60
(d) 360
12. What are the values of k if the term independent of x in the
10

expansion of x 2
x

is 405 ?

(a) 3

(b) 6

(c) 5

(d) 4

13. If the equations (1) x 2 px q 0 and (2) x 2 rx s 0

have a root in common and the second equation has equal
roots then q + s is equal to which one of the following ?
(a) pr/2
(b) 2pr
(c) pr
(d) p2r
14. If the pth, qth and rth terms of a GP are again in GP, then
which of the following is correct ?
(a) p, q, r are in AP
(b) p, q, r are in GP
(c) p, q, r are in HP
(d) p, q, r are neither in AP nor in GP nor in HP
15. In how many ways can 10 lions and 6 tigers be arranged in
a row so that no two tigers are together ?
(a) 10! 11P6
(b) 10! 10P6
(c) 6! 10P7
(d) 6! 10P6
16. The Geometric Mean of two numbers is 6. Their Arithmetic
Mean A and Harmonic Mean H satisfy the equation
90A + 5H = 918.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) A = 10
(b) A = 1/5, A = 10
(c) A = 5; A = 10
(d) A = 1/5, A = 5

17. Eighteen football teams take part in the national

championship and every team meets the same oppponent
twice. How many matches are played during the
championship ?
(a) 306
(b) 300
(c) 72
(d) 153
18. If x, y, z are distinct positive numbers different from 1 such
that (logyx . logxx logxx) + (logxy . logzy logyy) +
(logxz . logyz logzz) = 0, what is the value of xyz ?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 1
(d) 0
19. Which one of the following is the union of the closed sets?
1
1

2 n , 10 n , n 1, 2,....... ?

(a) [2, 10]

(b) (2, 10)
(c) [2, 10)
(d) (2, 10]
20. Indicate which one of the points given below is not a part
of the solution of the inequation ?

3 x 4 y 12; x 0, y 0 ?
(a) (4, 2)
(b) (1, 3)
(c) (2, 1)
(d) (2/3, 11/4)
21. If A is a square matrix of order n n and k is a scalar, then
adj(kA) is equal to which one of the following ?
(a) k adj A
(b) k2 adj A
n1
(c) k adj A
(d) kn adj A
22. For what value of k, the system of linear equations
x + y + z = 2, 2x + y z = 3, 3x + 2y + kz = 4
has a unique solution ?
(a) k is any real number other than zero
(b) k is any real number
(c) k is any integer
(d) k = 0
a1

23. If the determinant of a non-singular matrix a2

a
3

b1
b2
b3

c1

c2
c3

x
y
M

26. If
and G [3 4 5] are two matrices, then
z

which one of the following is correct ?

(a) In the product matrix MG = [h ij], the element h32 is 5y.
(b) In the product matrix MG = [h ij], the element h32 is
3x + 4y + 5z.
(c) In the product matrix MG = [hij], the element h32 is 4z.
(d) In the product matrix MG = [h ij], the element h32 does
not exist
0 1
27. If A
, then which one of the following is equal to
0 0
(aI + bA)n ?

(a) a n I na n 1bA

(b) a n na n 1bA

(c) a n I a n 1bA
(d) a n I b n A n
28. If A is a non-singular matrix such that A1 = AT, then which
one of the following represents A ? (Here AT denotes the
transpose of A)
1 2 2
1

(a) 2 1 1
3
2 2 1

(c)

1 2 2
1
2 1 1
2
2 2 1

2
1 2
1
(b) 2 1 2
3
2 2 1

(d)

1 2 2
1
2 1 1
2
2 2 1

29. The matrix X satisfies the following equation

1 3
1 1
0 1 X 0 1

Which one of the following represents X ?

1 4
(a)

1 0

1 4
(b)

1 0

4
1
(c)

0
1

1
(d)
0

is denoted by , what is the determinant of the matrix

a1 3b1 4c1

a2 3b2 4c2
a 3b 4c
3
3
3

(a)
(c) 7

b1
b2
b3

4c1

4c 2 ?
4c3

2
1

0 1 2
30. The matrix M 1 2 3 and its inverse N = [nij]. What
3 1 1

(b)
(d) 4
1 a a 2 bc

is the element n23 of the matrix N ?

(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 1

24. What is the value of the determinant 1 b b ca ?

1 c c 2 ab
(a) abc
(b) ab + bc + ca
(c) 0
(d) (a b)(b c)(c a)
25. If A is a non-singular matrix of order n n, then which one
of the following is equal to |adj A| ?
(a) |A|n + 1
(b) |A|n
(c) |A|n 1
(d) |A|n 1

31. If sin 1 x sin 1 y sin1 z

of x y z ?
(a) 3
(b) 3

(d) 1

3
, then what is the value
2

(c) 1/3

(d) 1/3

32. If 11Y 90 , then what is the value of the expression

tanY tan 2Y tan 3Y tan 4Y tan 5Y tan 6Y tan 7Y tan 8Y tan 9Y

tan 10Y ?
(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 1

(d) 2

33. If sin A p and sin B q where |p| and |q| are both less
than 1, then what are the total number of possible (and
distinct) values of sin (A + B) ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
34. If x sin 3 y cos 3 sin cos and x sin y cos ,
then which one of the following is correct ?
(a) x 2 y 2 0

(b) x 2 y 2 1

(c) x 2 y 2 0
(d) x 2 y 2 1
35. If sin C and cos C are the two roots of a quadratic equation

2 x 2 px 1 0 where

0C

, then how many

2

possible values can p have ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
36. Let n be a natural number such that n > 4 and

U n sin n X cos n X . Which one of the following is

correct ?
2

(a) U n U n 2 U n 4 sin X cos X

(b) U n U n 2 U n 3 sin X cos X
(c) U n U n 4 U n 2 sin 2 X cos 2 X
(d) U n U n 2 2U n 4 sin X cos X
37. The three angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC are in AP and
c2 = a2 + b2. If c = 50 metres, then what is the area of the
triangle is square metres ?
(a)

625
2

(b)

625 2
2

(c)

625 3
2

(d) 625

(where n is an integer) and x + y is not

4
an odd multiple of /2, then what is the value of the

38. If x y (4n 1)

following expression

sin 2 x sin 2 y
?
cos 2 x cos 2 y

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1/2
(d) 1
39. From the top of a tower 60 metres high, the angles of
depression of two objects which are on the horizontal
plane and in a line with the foot of the tower are and
with > .What is the distance between the two objects in
metres?
(a) 60 sin( ) cos ec cos ec
(b) 60 cos( ) sec sec
(c) 60 (cot cot )
(d) 60 (tan tan )
40. The points (3, 4) and (2, 6) lie on opposite sides of which
one of the following lines ?
(a) 10x y = 26
(b) 5x + 3y = 9
(c) 3x 4y = 8
(d) x y = 10

41. Two equal parabolas have the same vertex and their axes
are at right angles. What is the angle between the tangents
drawn to them at their point of intersection (other than
vertex) ?
(a) /4
(b) tan12
(c) /3
(d) tan1(3/4)
42. Which one of the following is the nearest point on the line
3x 4y = 25 from the origin ?
(a) (1, 7)
(b) (3, 4)
(c) (5, 8)
(d) (3, 4)
43. Which one of the following is the reflection of the point
(4, 3) on the line x + y = 0 ?
(a) (4, 3)
(b) (3, 4)
(c) (3, 4)
(d) (4, 3)
44. Which one of the following is the orthocentre of the
triangle whose sides are x = 0, y = 1 and x + y 2 = 0 ?
(a) (1, 1)
(b) (0, 1)
(c) (1, 0)
(d) (0, 1)
45. What is the length of the focal distance from the point t of
the parabola y2 = 4ax ?
(a) at2
(b) a(1 + t2)
2

1
(c) a t
(d) at 2
t
46. Which of the following are the equations of circles which
touch the x-axis at a distance 3 from the origin and
intercept a distance 6 on the y-axis ?

(a) x 2 y 2 6 x 6 2 y 9 0
(b) x 2 y 2 6 x 6 2 y 9 0
(c) x 2 y 2 6 x 6 2 y 9 0
(d) x 2 y 2 6 2 x 6 y 9 0
47. Under what condition the lines x = ay + b, z = cy + d and
x ay b, z c y d are perpendicular to each other?
(a) a / a c / c 0
(c) a / a c / c 1

(b) aa cc 1
(d) aa cc 1

48. What is the range of the function f ( x) (3 cos 2 x) 1 ?

(a) [1/4, 1]
(b) (1/4, 1/2)
(c) [1/4, 1/2]
(d) [1/4, 1/2]
49. Let f : R R be defined as f(x) = x|x|. Which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) f is only onto
(b) f is only one-one
(c) f is neither onto nor one-one
(d) f is one-one and onto
x 3

x3
50. What is the value of Lim
?
x x 1
(a) e2
(b) e3
4
(c) e
(d) e4
1
1
51. If Lim x sin A and Lim x sin B, then which
x
x 0
x
x
one of the following is correct ?
(a) A = 1 and B = 0
(b) A = 0 and B = 1
(c) A = 0 and B = 0
(d) A = 1 and B = 1

10 x 2 x 5 x 1
?
x 0
x sin x
(a) (ln 2) (ln 5)
(b) (ln 3) (ln 5)
(c) (ln 10) (ln 5)
(d) 0
53. Let f(x) = [x], where [x] denotes the greatest integer
contained in x. Consider the following statements :
I. f(x) is not onto.
II. f(x) is continuous at x = 0.
III. f(x) is discontinuous for all positive integral values of x.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III

52. What is the value of Lim

54. If ( x y) m n x m y n then what is the value of dy/dx ?

(a) x/y
(b) xy
(c) y/x
(d) 1
55. For what values of p the function
px 2 1 if x 1
f ( x)
if x 1
x p
is derivable at x = 1 ?
(a) 1/2
(b) 2
(c) 1/2

62. The population of a country doubles in 50 years.

Assuming that the rate of increase of population of
proportional to the number of inhabitants, in how many
years would the population become three times ?
ln 3
(b) 50 ln 2
(c) 50 ln 6
(d) 75
ln 2
ln 3
63. Which one of the following represents the differential
equation of all parabolas having the axes of symmetry
coincident with the axis of x ?

(a) 50

d2y

d2y
(b) y 3 2 0
dx
dx

dy d 3 y
(d) y 3 0
dx dx

d3y

dy d 2 y
(c) y 2 0
dx dx

64. Which one of the following definite integrals represents

the area included between the parabola 4y = 3x2 and the
straight line 2y = 3x + 12 ?
(d) 2

(a) 1/x
(b) zero
(c) 1/2x
(d) 1/2
57. A function f : R R satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) for all
x, y R and f ( x ) 0 for all x R. If f(x) is differentiable
at x = 0 and f (0) 2 then f (x) is equal to which one
of the following ?
(a) f(x)
(b) f(x)
(c) 2f(x)
(d) f(x)/2
58. Let f(x) be a differentiable even function. Consider the
following statements :
I. f (x) is an even function.

3x 2
dx
4

(b)

3x 12 3 2
x dx
2
4

(d)

(a)

(c)

56. What is the derivative of log x 2 x ?

65. What is the value of

66. What is the value of

III. f (x) may be even or odd.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) II and III

100

59. What is the derivative of | x 1 | | x 4 | at x = 3 ?

(a) 3
(b) 3
(c) 0
(d) 2
60. Let g(x) be the inverse of an invertible function f(x) which
is differentiable at x = c. Which one of the following is
equal to g[ f (c )] ?

61. If f ( x)

(b) 1 / f (c)

(c) f(c)

(d) 1/f(c)

3x 2
3
x , then which one of the following
5x 3
5

is correct ?
(a) f 1 ( x) f ( x)
(c) ( fof ) ( x) x

(c)

1
1
1 2
8 x

| sin x | dx ?

( x x 3 )1 / 3
x4

4/ 3

3 1

(b) 2 1
8 x

(d)

4/ 3

68. What is the integration of e

(a) e

(d) /2

(b) 100
(d) 200

67. What is the integration of

3 1

8 x2

3 2
x dx
4

dx ?

(c) /4

3x 12 3 2
x dx
2
4

x ( x) 4

(a) 100
(c) 200

(a)

(b)

(a) zero

4 3x 12

cos x

II. f (x) is an odd function.

(a) f (c)

dy
(a) y 2 0
dx
dx

( x 1) c

( x x 3 )1 / 3
x4

4/3

(b) 2e

( x 1) c

(c) 2e x ( x 1) c
(d) e x c
69. Which one of the following equations represents the
differential equation of circles, with centres on the x-axis
and all passing through the origin ?
(a)

dy x 2 y 2

dx
2 xy

(b)

dy x 2 y 2

dx
2 xy

(c)

dy y 2 x 2

dx
2 xy

(d)

dy
x

dx
y

(b) f 1 ( x) f ( x)
(d) f

1
( x)
f ( x)
19

70. What is the degree of the differential equation

d3y

dx 3

2/3

d2y
dx 2

dy
40 ?
dx

(a) 3
(c) 2
71. If

79. Which one of the following vectors represents the unit

vector parallel to the YZ plane and perpendicular to the
vector 3i 4 j 2k ?

(b) 2/3
(d) 6
x

I m (ln x) m dx
1

satisfies

(a)
the

relation
(c)
80.

72. What is the integration of e x ln a e x ?

(b)

(ae) x
ln (ae)

(c)

ex
ex
(d)
(1 ln a)
(ln a)

73. If a, b , c are three mutually perpendicular vectors each
of magnitude unity, then what is the magnitude of

a b c ?
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 1/3
74. For what value of k, the points with position vectors

75.

76.

77.

78.

60i 3 j, 40i 8 j and ki 52 j are collinear ?

(a) k = 40
(b) k = 40
(c) k = 30 (d) k = 20

If a, b and c are three vectors of which every pair is

non-collinear. If the vectors a b and b c are collinear

with the vectors c and a respectively, then which one of

the following is correct ?

(a) a b c is a null vector

(b) a b c is a unit vector

(c) a b c is a vector of magnitude 2 units

(d) a b c is a vector of magnitude 3 units

If | a || b || a b | 1, then what is the angle between the

vectors a and b ?
(a) /6
(b) /3
(c) /2
(d) /4
What is the area of the parallelogram having diagonals

a 3i j 2k and b i 3 j 4k ?
(a) 52 square units
(b) 43 square units
(c) 53 square units
(d) 103 square units

If a i j , b 2 j k and r a b a , r b a b

r
then what is the value of ?
|r |
(a)

(c)

(i 3 j k)
11
(i 3 j k)
11

(b)

(d)

(b)

I m x(ln x ) m l I m 1 , then which one of the following is

correct ?
(a) l = m 1
(b) l = m
(c) l = m + 1
(d) l = m2 + 1

(a) (ae) x

(2i j k)

(i 3 j k)
11
(i 3 j k)
11

81.

82.

83.

84.

I.
II.
III.
IV.

( j k)

( j 2k)
5

(d)

(2i 3 j 9k)

2
94
In an experiment two variables X and Y are observed on
some units. It was recorded that x = 2y. Which one of the
following statements is correct ?
(a) The regression coefficient of Y on X is four times the
regression coefficient of X on Y
(b) The regression coefficient of Y on X is equal to the
regression coefficient of X on Y
(c) The regression coefficient of X on Y is four times the
regression coefficient of Y on X
(d) The value of correlation coefficient exceeds unity
An electric device consists of two bulbs A and B. From
previous testing procedure, the following results are
known:
P[A is fused] = 0.20;
P[B is fused alone] = 0.15;
P[A and B are fused] = 0.15.
What is the probability that bulb A is fused alone ?
(a) 0.15
(b) 0.20
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.25
Which one of the following statistical measures cannot be
determined graphically ?
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Harmonic Mean
(d) Arithmetic Mean
The following relative frequency distribution shows the
distribution of 50 members of a country social programme
according to their age :
Age (in years)
Relative frequency
30 - 39
0.02
40 - 49
0.06
50 - 59
0.16
60 - 69
0.32
70 - 79
0.20
80 - 89
0.16
90 - 99
0.08
What is the number of members who are older than 50 ?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 46
(d) 16
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists :
List I
List II
Average shoe size
(a) Geometric Mean
Average speed for equal
(b) Harmonic Mean
distances covered
Average speed for equal
(c) Arithmetic Mean
times spent
Average rate of population
(d) Mode
growth
(a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(b) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
(c) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
(d) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

85. If the variates are independent, then which one of the

following is correct ?
(a) The covariance is negative
(b) The covariance is positive
(c) The covariance is zero
(d) The covariance cannot be calculated
86. What is the value of
1
1
1
log 10 1 log 10 1 log 10 1 ......upto 198 terms
2
3
4
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 0

87. If i 1, what is the value of

(a)

(c)

1 i

(b)

2
2i

(d)

i ?
1 i
2
2i
2

88. If the two quadratic equations x 2 bx c 0 and

x 2 bx c 0 have a common root, what is the value of
the common root ?
(a)

b b
c c

(b)

c c
b b

c c
b b
(d)
b b
c c
89. What is the sum of numbers lying between 107 and 253,
which are divisible by 5 ?
(a) 5220
(b) 5210
(c) 5200
(d) 5000
90. A man on the top of a rock rising on a sea-shore observes
a boat coming towards it. If it takes 10 minutes for the angle
of depression to change from 300 to 600, how soon will the
boat reach the shore ?
(a) 20 minutes
(b) 15 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 5 minutes

(c)

91. If x cos 2 sec 2 , then which one of the following is

correct ?
(a) x = 2
(b) x < 2
(c) x > 2
(d) x 2
92. If sin

24
and 0 0 90 0 , then what is the value of
25

sin( / 2) ?
(a) 12/25
(c) 3/5

(b) 7/25
(d) 4/5

93. If tan sec 4, then what is the value of sin ?

(a) 15/28
(b) 8/15
(c) 15/17
(d) 3/5
2
2
2
94. In a triangle ABC, b = c + a , then what is the value of

tan A tan C ?
(a) tan B
(c) b/ac

(b) tan A . tan C

(d) b2/ac

m1

95. M and G are two matrices such that M n1

p
1
q1

and M G r1
p
1

q2
r2
p2

m2
n2
p2

m3

n3
p3

q3

r3
s3

What type of matrix G is ?

(a) Null matrix
(b) Scalar matrix
(c) Lower triangle matrix
(d) Upper triangle matrix
96. There are three matrices E = [lij], F = [fij] and G = [gij] such
that EF = G. The element guv of the matrix G is zero. Which
one of the following conclusions is correct ?
(a) All elements of uth column of the matrix E are zero
(b) All elements of uth column of the matrix F are zero
(c) All elements of uth row of the matrix F are zero
(d) All elements of uth row of the matrix E are zero
97. If /2, /2, /2 are the angles with which a line makes with
positive x, y, z axes respectively, what is the value of
cos cos cos ?
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
98. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a parabola y2 = x
whose one vertex is the vertex of the parabola. What is the
length of side of the triangle ?
(a) 3 units
(b) 23 units
(c) 33 units
(d) 1 unit
99. The lines 5x 12y 5 = 0 and 10x 24y + 3 = 0 are tangents
to the same circle. What is the diameter of the circle ?
(a) 1 unit
(b) 5 units
(c) 8 units
(d) 1/2 unit
100. What is the difference of the focal distances of any point
on the hyperbola ?
(a) Eccentricity
(b) Distance between foci
(c) Length of transverse axis
(d) Length of semi-transverse axis.
101. What is the radius of the sphere if the sphere

ax 2 2 y 2 2 z 2 2bxy 4 x c 0

passes through

origin, where a, b, c are constants ?

(a) 1 unit
(b) 2 units
(c) 3 units
(d) cannot be determined as the values of a, b, c are not
given
102. Which one of the following points is on the line of
intersection of the planes x = 3z 4, y = 2z 3 ?
(a) (4, 3, 0)
(b) (3, 4, 0)
(c) (3, 2, 1)
(d) (4, 3, 0)
103. ABC is a triangle and AD is the median. If the coordinates
of A are (4, 7, 8) and the coordinates of centroid of the
triangle ABC are (1, 1, 1), what are the coordinates of D ?
(a) (1/2, 2, 11)
(b) (1/2, 2, 11/2)
(c) (1, 2, 11)
(d) (5, 11, 19)

104. If the points (5, 1, 1), (1, 3, 4) and (1, 6, 10) are the three
vertices of a rhombus taken in order, then which one of the
following is the fourth vertex ?
(a) (7, 4, 11)
(b) (3, 7/2, 11/2)
(c) (7, 4, 7)
(d) (7, 4, 1)
105. What is the area of the triangle whose vertices are (0, 0, 0),
(3, 4, 0) and (3, 4, 6) ?
(a) 12 square units
(b) 15 square units
(c) 30 square units
(d) 36 square units
106. What is the shortest distance from the point (2, 7) to the
circle x 2 y 2 14 x 10 y 151 0 ?
(a) 2 units
(b) 3 units
(c) 5 units
(d) 7 units
107. P, Q, R, S are the middle points of the respective sides of a
quadrilateral EFGH and vectors proportional to and along
the sides SR, SP, QP, QR are acting. Which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Resultant vector is a unit vector
(b) Resultant vector is a null vector
(c) Resultant vector is a vector whose magnitude is greater
than unity
(d) Resultant vector is neither a unit vector nor a null
vector
108. A vector v of magnitude 4 units is equally inclined to the
vectors i j , j k, k i. Which one of the following is
correct ?

4
(i j k )
(a) v
3

4
(b) v
(i j k )
3

(c) v
(i j k )
(d) v 4(i j k)
3

109. If a (1, 2, 3) and b (3, 1, 2) then which one of the

following vectors is perpendicular to a b ?


(a) 2a b
(b) 2a b

(c) a 2b
(d) a b
110. How many unit vectors are there perpendicular to both the

vectors 2i 3 j 4k and i 2 j 3k ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) zero
(d)
111. Three dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting
different faces ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 5/9
(d) 4/9
112. If the correlation coefficient between X and Y is 0.7, what is
the correlation coefficient between U = 4X + 3 and
3Y 4
?
2
(a) 0.6
(c) 0.8
V

(b) 0.7
(d) 1

113. If in 6 trials, X is a binomial variable which follows the

relation 9P(X = 4) and P(X = 2), then what is the probability
of success ?
(a) 3/4
(b) 1/4
(c) 3/8
(d) 1/8
114. Ten numbered balls are placed in an urn. Balls numbered 1
to 4 are red and rest of the 6 balls are blue. The probability
of drawing the ball numbered 3, of course, is 0.1. A ball is
drawn and it is red. Which one of the following statements
is correct ?
(a) P(ball drawn is numbered 3 | ball drawn is red) > 0.1
(b) P(ball drawn is numbered 3 | ball drawn is red) = 0.1
(c) P(ball drawn is numbered 3 | ball drawn is red) < 0.1
(d) P(ball drawn is red | ball drawn is numbered 3) = 0.25
Directions (115 - 120) : The following questions consist
of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A), and
the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the correct answers to these
items using the codes given below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A) : Lim nx n Lim n . Lim x n , where |x| < 1
n

Reason (R) : Lim f ( x ) g ( x ) Lim f ( x ) . Lim g ( x)

n

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
116. Assertion (A) : Mean deviation can never be nagative.
Reason (R) : Mean deviation is the AM of absolute
deviation of the different values from a central tendency.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
117. Assertion (A) : There is no practical difference between
frequency polygon and frequency curve.
Reason (R) : Under frequency polygon the points are joined
by straight lines whereas under frequency curve the points
are joined by a smooth curve.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
118. Assertion (A) : If f ( x) x and

F ( x)

x2
, then
x

F ( x ) f ( x ) always.
Reason (R) : At x = 0, F(x) is not defined.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
119. Assertion (A) : Perimeter of a regular pentagon inscribed
in a circle with centre O and radius x cm equals 12x sin 360
cm.
Reason (R) : Perimeter of a regular polygon inscribed in a
circle with centre O and radius x cm equals 2nx sin (3600/2n)
cm, then it is n-sided, where n 3.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
120. Assertion (A) : Four consecutive numbers which are not
primes are uniquely given by 122, 123, 124, 125.
Reason (R) : Every composite number is divisible by a prime
less than its square root.
(a) a
(b)
(c)
(d)

PAPER - II (General Ability)

Time Allowed : 2 hour

Maximum Marks : 600

PART - A

Directions (15 - 20) : Each of the following six questions

has a blank space and four words or groups of words are
given after the sentence. Out of these four choices, select
the word or group of words which you consider the most
appropriate for the blank space and mark your choice on
the answer Sheet.
To the dismay of all the students, the class monitor was
.............. berated by the Principal at a school assembly.
(a) critical
(b) ignominiously
(c) prudently
(d) fortuitously
All attempts to revive the fishing industry were .....failure.
(a) foredoomed to
(b) heading at
(c) predicted for
(d) estimated to
There are ......... packed outside than yesterday.
(a) fewer cars
(b) few cars
(c) less cars
(d) a small number of cars
The minister had to ........ some awakard questions from
reporters.
(a) fend
(b) fend at
(c) fend out (d) fend off
The ........of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff
since all but one of the witness testified that his story was
correct.
(a) propensity
(b) force
(c) preponderance
(d) brunt
Attention to detail is ........... of a fine craftsman.
(a) hallmark
(b) stamp
(c) seal of authority
(d) authenticity
Directions (21 - 25) : (i) In this section a number of
sentences is given. The sentences are divided in three
separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read
each sentence to find out whether there is an error in that
part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find
an error in any one of the three parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate
your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the
approriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a
sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a No error
response. (ii) You are to indicate only one response for
each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than
one response, your answer will be considered wrong).
Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There
may be a word missing or there may be a word which should
be removed. (iii) You are not required to correct the error.
You are required only to indicate your response on the
Answer Sheet.
If it werent /for you/I wouldnt be alive today/No error.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
He looked like a lion/baulked from/its prey/No error.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Widespread flooding/is effecting/large areas of the villages./
(a)
(b)
(c)
No errors.
(d)
She regards / negotiating prices with customers / as her
(a)
(b)
special preserve./ No error.
(c)
(d)

(English)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

Directions (1 - 7) : Each of the following seven items

consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words
or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that
is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
PROCRASTINATE
(a) Intimidate
(b) Humiliate
(c) Predict
(d) Postpone
ABDOMINABLE
(a) Original
(b) Detestable
(c) Preferable
(d) Complimentary
RESCIND
(a) Cancel
(b) Enjoy
(c) Praise
(d) Receive
COLLATERAL
(a) Pathetic
(b) Tiresome
(c) Guarantee
(d) Magnanimous
KNAVE
(a) Novice
(b) Dishonest
(c) Futuristic
(d) Traditional
FINESSE
(a) Skill
(b) Softness
(c) Charm
(d) Gist
ARDOUR
(a) Enthusiasm
(b) Candidness
(c) Discipline
(d) Fairness
Directions (8 - 14) : Each of the following seven items
consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words
or groups or words. Select the word or group of words that
is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
SAGE
(a) Miser
(b) Fool
(c) Traitor
(d) Tyrant
FLEDGLING
(a) Adversary
(b) Callow
(c) Social outcast
(d) Experienced person
PREDILECTION
(a) Predicament
(b) Afterthought
(c) Aversion
(d) Postponement
HIDEBOUND
(a) Strong-willed
(b) Open-minded
(c) Well-informed
(d) Well-to-do
ADULATION
(a) Criticism
(b) Purity
(c) Ambiguous
(d) accollades
ANIMATED
(a) Penetrating
(b) Modern
(c) Dull
(d) Similarly
ILLUSIVE
(a) Not brilliant
(b) Not coherent
(c) Not deceptive
(d) Not obvious

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.
22.
23.

24.

25. Often in political compaigns, a point is reached at which/

(a)
the candidates take out their gloves/and start slugging
(b)
(c)
with bare fists./ No error.
(d)
Directions (26 - 30) : In the following items each passage
consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the
sixth sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle
four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled
up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to
find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and
mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
26. S1 : A city tour organised by the airport got our next vote.
S6 : We can ony grow in height as most of our land is
reclaimed from the mud brought from neighbouring
countries. said Bernadette.
P : A bumboat ride through the Singapore River gave us a
vantage view of the countrys prized possession of
skyscrapers in the central business district.
Q : The tour is very popular with transit passengers and
there are many such buses doing the route.
R : We were greeted into an air-conditioned volvo bus with
a bottle of chilled water.
S : On the drive through the colonial heart of the city, our
guide, Bernadette, pointed out the Parliament House.
Supreme Court and City Hall to us.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) RSQP
(b) PQSR
(c) RQSP
(d) PSQR
27. S1 : But Bhutan is a curious mix of modern and the
medieval.
S6 : His licence plate reads simply BHUTAN.
P : It was next to a speed limit sign : 8 km an hour.
Q : Even the king zips through in a navy blue Toyota Land
Cruiser.
R : I noticed a rusty sign for the Kit Kat chocolate bar and
realised it was the only advertisement I had been.
S : Yet in the cities, most middle class people drive brand
new Japanese cars.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) SQRP
(b) RPSQ
(c) SPRQ
(d) RQSP
28. S1 : His usually fretful features composed, Javagal Srinath
announced his retirement from international cricket.
S6 : He finished with 236 wickets in 67 Tests and 315 in 229
One-day Internationals.
P : He had spent the early years of his 13-year career sitting
out nine Tests when he was at his quickest, being reminded
of everything he was not.
Q : In a classic case of appreciating a good thing when it is
gone, the tributes poured in for Indias most successful
pace bowler after Kapil Dev.
R : Not aggressive enough, not a non-vegetarian, not an
all -rounder.
S : Srinath soldiered on, whether wickets were flat or causes
lost, as they often were when India toured.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) QPRS
(b) RSQP
(c) QSRP
(d) RPQS

29. S1 : However, the flower industry also has its share of thorns.
S 6 : Also, there are no tax concessions from the
Government.
P : Most companies have to individually invest in the
transport, which is very costly.
Q : Then there are infrastructural bottlenecks - no
refrigerated transport or retail chains and warehouses to
store the highly perishable commodity.
R : For one, it is extremely fragmented and dominated by
small players who dont have the financial muscle to
expand the business.
S : Ferns & Petals claims to be the only flower retailer with
multi-city presence in India.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) QSRP
(b) RPQS
(c) QPRS
(d) RSQP
30. S1 : One could well be forgiven for momentarily confusing
Spencer Plaza, Chennai, with a Dubai Shopping Mall.
S6 : Sensing that healthcare plus tourism adds to big
opportunities, corporate hospitals, in cooperation with tour
operators, are promoting India as a healthcare destination
from the Middle East to far East.
P : Having satiated their shopping instincts, many head
back, not to a hotel, but to a hospital, and to ailing
relatives.
Q : Arabs pour in and out of trendy showrooms, laden with
bags full of branded clothes, footwear and cosmetics.
R : It is a scenario being replicated across India.
S : For these re tourists with a difference, attracted to India
for its cutting edge medical expertise more than its charms.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) QPSR
(b) SRQP
(c) QRSP
(d) SPQR
Directions (31 - 35) : In the following items some parts of
the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to
re-arrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to
produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence
and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
31. Brazils Guaranis
P : from being Internet savvy
Q : are an ancient tribe who live in the countrys remote
jungles,
R : excluded them
S : but that has not.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) PSRQ
(b) QRSP
(c) PRSQ
(d) QSRP
32. A game host
P : that could be used at the airport duty-free shops
Q : and the winner walked away with
R : shot out ten witty questions
S : vouchers worth 200 Singapore dollars.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) PSQR (b) RQSP
(c) PQSR
(d) RSQP
33. And while
P : without adequate international support
Q : the US military has been forced into remaining in Iraq
R : the overthrow of Saddam Hussein may have been quick
S : longer than anticipated.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) RSQP
(b) PQSR
(c) RQSP
(d) PSQR

34. The socialist philosophy

P : as it is the market philosophy
Q : has been given a decent burial
R : which is the rage now
S : in political practice.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) QSPR
(b) RPSQ
(c) QPSR (d) RSPQ
35. It began as an officially sanctioned project,
P : could achieve as a nation
Q : but turned into a mass movement and an extraordinary
act of faith
R : it it got its act together
S : which changed not just the lives of millions but the
notions of what India.
The proper sequence should be :
(a) PSRQ
(b) QSRP
(c) PRSQ (d) QRSP
Directions (36 - 45) : In this section you have three short
passages. After each passage you will find several
questions based on the passage. First, read Passage I, and
answer the questions based on it. Then go on to the other
passage. You are required to select your answers based on
the contents of the passage and opinion of the author
only.

Passage I
I was late bloomer and always envied those people who
stood out in high school, because I didnt. I learned early
on, though, that its essential to set yourself apart from the
group. Life is one struggle after another to succeed,
particularly when youre starting out. If your bio-data is
sitting at the bottom of a pile of junk mail, sometimes a
distinctive approach will get you noticed, especially if the
competition is fierce.
Once, my partner Jerry and I asked the other freelance
writers of a TV serial what characters they hated to write
for the most. Everybody said the same thing - they disliked
writing for the minor characters because they felt that
writing for them wouldnt help them get others jobs. Jerry
and I decided that we would write scripts for the minor
characters because thats what was needed and we needed
to set ourselves apart.
In the first script Jerry and I wrote, a schoolgirl falls in love
with a boy in her class. The producers love the story. And
with that one script, Jerry and I were no longer just another
comedy writing team.
36. The author is of the opinion that
(a) one should be part of the group
(b) one should be different from others
(c) it is important to do well in high school
(d) one should heed to the advice of the seniors
37. The author had been
(a) into advertising business (b) a comedy writer
(c) a music director
(d) a newsreader
38. According to the author
(a) one should be very meticulous in preparing his
bio-data
(b) competition in the job-market is very fierce
(c) one should follow a conserative approach in preparing
his bio-data
(d) one should try to get noticed by being innovative

39. Jerry and the author wrote scripts for the minor characters
(a) to realise their creative potential
(b) to earn more money
(c) to establish a different image
(d) because they did not have enough work

Passage II
Wind power has obvious advantages - it is non-polluting,
causes no ecological imbalance, requires no throughout
fuel and has extremely low gestation period.
After almost a decade of sporadic growth, wind energy
finally seems to be stepping out from shadows of
alternative technology into the commercial mainstream,
worldwide. Even though, India now has an installed base
of just over 1,600 MW. This is nothing compared to
countries such as Germany, which meets around 20 per
cent of its energy requirements from wind energy.
Wind power offers long-term price stability too. Not only
are generation costs of such projects low, the capital
expenditure is comparable to fossil fuel-based stations.
Wind power plants have low operating and maintenance
costs. Long-term economics work out to be quite favourable
for the wind energy. In fact, it is being seen as a solution to
sustainable development. By the end of 2001, the installed
wind power was almost 25,000 MW.
40. Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Wind-power plants take a long time to get com
(b) Maintenance cost of wind-power plants is high
(c) Wind-power plants lead to violent vibrations
(d) Wind-power plants require no fuel
41. Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Installation of wind-power plants is resisted by
environmentalists
(b) Generation cost of wind-power plants is high
(c) Installation cost of wind-power plants is much higher
than that of fossil fuel-based plants
(d) Wind power is now being commercially harnessed
42. Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) In Germany 25,000 MW of electricity is generated by
using wind power
(b) Wind-power plants offer no price stability
(c) Wind power is economically viable on long-term basis
(d) In America, 20 per cent of the power requirements are
met through wind power

Passage III
A group of prospective jurors was asked by the judge
whether any of them felt they had ever been treated
unfairly by an officer of the law. I once got a ticket for
running a stop sign, Caroline replied, even though I
definitely came to a complete stop.
Did you pay the fine ? the judge quesioned.
Yes
If you thought you were innocent, the judge went on,
why didnt you contest it?
Your Honour, She replied, there have been so many
times I didnt get a ticket for running a stop sign that I
figured this evened things out a little.

10

43. Which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Caroline was caught travelling without ticket in a local
train
(b) Caroline was caught while driving at a speed above the
speed limit
(c) Caroline was driving without a driving license
(d) Caroline was fined for jumping the stop signal
44. Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Caroline made a complaint against the traffic inspector
for his high-handedness
(b) Caroline had to pay a bride
(c) Caroline was sent to the jail for her crime
(d) Caroline decided to pay the fine
45. Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Caroline had been penalised many times before for
driving offences
(b) Caroline was an officer of the law
(c) Caroline wa a prospective juror
(d) Caroline was undergoing police training
Directions (46 - 50) : In the following passage at certain
points, you are given a choice of three words/phrases
underlined and marked (a), (b), (c). Choose the best word/
phrase out of the three and indicate your choice in the
relevant column of your answer sheet.
It hasnt worked......46...... that way. Indeed, the gaps
between theory and reality are so numerous that they....47....
questions about how much, if at all, the theory will work in
the future. Americans projected their own experience onto
the rest of the world. If prosperity and material progress
had created political cohesion at home - binding together a
large and .......48..... nation - it could do the same abroad.
But this marriage between economics and politics may be
losing its power. What seemed to be the ascendancy of
American ideas camouflaged new problems and conflicts.
The theory may have been .....49..... suited to the cold war
than its aftermath. The most ......50..... problem, of course,
involves the outbreak of terrorism.
46. (a) by
(b) out
(c) off
47. (a) raise
(b) arise
(c) rise
48. (a) ethically diverse
(b) ethnically diverse
(c) ethnically wide
49. (a) better
(b) aptly
(c) much
50. (a) conspicuous
(b) conscientious
(c) conscious

PART - B
(General Knowledge)
51. In the map given alongside, four areas/regions are marked
as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of these is/are semiarid area(s) ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
52. Quartzite is a metamorphic form of
(a) granite
(b) basalt
(c) limestone
(d) sandstone
53. Which one of the following countries does not broder
Mediterranean Sea ?
(a) Malta
(b) Libya
(c) Italy
(d) Bulgaria

54. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Chemical weathering includes
(a) oxidation, reduction and exfoliation.
(b) carbonation, oxidation and exfoliation
(c) exfoliation, solution and reduction
(d) solution, oxidation and reduction
55. Match List I (Agents) with List II (Landforms) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
List II
(Agents)
(Landforms)
I. River
(A) Cirque
II. Glacier
(B) Stalagmite
III. Underground water
(C) Crater
IV. Wind
(D) Meander
(E) Barachan
(a) I-E, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(b) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-E
(c) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-E
(d) I-E, I-A, III-B, IV-D
56. The deepest oceanic trench Mariana is located in
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Arctic Ocean
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) Indian Ocean
57. A type of rainfall which occurs when wind rises up along a
hill or mountain barrier is called
(a) Anti-cyclonic
(b) Convectional
(c) Cyclonic
(d) Orographic
58. The Tropic of Cancer passes through
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Orissa
59. The Tibetan river Tsangpo enters India through the State
of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Manipur
(d) Nagaland
60. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Mountains
Continents
(a) Rocky
:
North America
(b) The Andes
:
South America
(c) The Alps
:
Europe
(d) Ural
:
Africa
61. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Abuja
:
Nigeria
(b) Ashkhabad
:
Turkmenistan
(c) Pretoria
:
South Africa
(d) Rabat
:
Yemenm
62. Match List I (Cities) with List II (Climate Type) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
List II
(Cities)
(Climate Type)
I. Auckland
(A) Mediterranen
II. Lagos
(B) Humid Subtropical
III. San Francisco
(C) Marine West European
IV. Shanghai
(D) Equatorial
Codes :
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(b) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(c) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(d) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
63. Which one of the following is not an Igneous Rock ?
(a) Basalt
(b) Dolerite
(c) Granite
(d) Limestone
64. Which one of the following soils is represented by the
shaded portion in the given map ?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Red and yellow soil
(d) Laterite soil

11

65. Which one among the following States has the lowest sex
ratio as per Census 2001 of India ?
(a) Haryana
(b) Punjab
(c) Sikkim
(d) Uttar Pradesh
66. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Alwaye
:
Fertilisers
(b) Ankleswar
:
Crude Oil
(c) Neyveli
:
Aluminium
(d) Nepanagar
:
Newsprint
67. Match List I (Tourist Place) with List II (State) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I
List II
(Tourist Place)
(State)
I. Amber Fort
(A) Uttar Pradesh
II. Auroville
(B) Pondicherry
III. Buland Darwaza
(C) Karnataka
IV. Gol Gumbaz
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Madhya Pradesh
(F) Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(a) I-D, II-F, III-A, IV-B
(b) I-A, II-B, III-E, IV-C
(c) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
(d) I-A, II-F, III-E, IV-B
68. West Bengal shares boundaries with how many foreign
countries ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
69. Consider the following with reference to the disintegration
and decline of the Mauryan Empire :
I. Brahmanical revolt
II. King Asokas pacifist policies
III. Invasions from outside
IV. Weakness of Asokas successors
Which of the above reasons led to the disintegration and
decline of the Mauryan Empire ?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
70. Who among the following gave the town of Masulipatam
to the French ?
(a) Asaf Jah
(b) Nasir Jang
(c) Muzaffar Jang
(d) Salabat Jang
71. Consider the following statements :
I. The Sikh leader Banda Bahadur was captured and killed
during the reign of Emperor Farrukh Siyar.
II. The Marathas fought with Ahmad Shah Abdali at
Panipat during the reign of Emperor Shah Alam II.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
72. During Indias freedom struggle, the Sepoy Mutiny
started from which one of the following places ?
(a) Agra
(b) Gwalior
(c) Jhansi (d) Meerut
73. Vasco da Gama discovered the sea-route to India in which
one of the following years ?
(a) 1498 AD
(b) 1492 AD
(c) 1494 AD
(d) 1453 AD
74. Which one of the following Indian States is the largest
producer of natural rubber ?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Andhra Pradesh

75. Who found the Brahmo Samaj ?

(a) Debendranath Tagore
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
76. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of
India was provision for the President to proclaim
emergency ?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 355
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 360
77. Which one of the following offices is held during the
pleasure of the President of India ?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Governor of a state
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
78. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Purna Swaraj Resolution : 1929
(b) Martyrdom of Sardar Bhagar Singh : 1931
(c) Formation of the Congress Socialist Party : 1938
(d) Simla Conference : 1945
79. Who among the following was regarded by Mahatma
Gandhi as his political Guru ?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
80. Which one of the following chronological orders of the
given events is correct ?
(a) The Cripps Mission - The Civil Disobedience
Movement - The Cabinet Missions Plan
(b) The Civil Disobedience Movement - The Cripps
Mission - The Cabinet Missions Plan
(c) The Cripps Mission - The Cabinet Missions Plan - The
Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) The Civil Disobedience Movement - The Cabinet
Missions Plan - The Cripps Mission
81. Select the correct chronological sequence of the formation
of the given organisations
(a) Brahma Sabha - Madras Mahajana Sabha - Arya Samaj
(b) Madras Mahajana Sabha - Brahma Sabha - Arya Samaj
(c) Brahma Sabha - Arya Samaj - Madras Mahajana Sabha
(d) Madras Mahajana Sabha - Arya Samaj - Brahma Sabha
82. The Lingaraja Temple built during the medieval period is at
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Khajuraho
(c) Madurai
(d) Mount Abu
83. In which one of the following countries Fabian Socialism
was advocated ?
(a) United States of America (b) Soviet Union
(c) Poland
(d) United Kingdom
84. Consider the following statements with reference to
Industrial Revolution :
I. Industrial Revolution first took place in France
II. Capitalists and entrepreneurs in England supported
industrialisation
III. The Tsarist rule delayed Russias industrialisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III
85. Which one of the following is considered an encyclopaedia
of Indian medicine ?
(a) Charakasamhita
(b) Lokayata
(c) Brihatsamhita
(d) Suryasiddhanta

12

86. Which one of the following is not included in the

eight -fold path of Buddhism ?
(a) Right speech
(b) Right contemplation
(c) Right desire
(d) Right conduct
87. Central Board of Film Certification comes under which of
the following Ministries of the Government of India ?
(a) Ministry of Tourism and Culture
(b) Ministry of Human Resources Development
(c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(d) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
88. In the year 2003, A.B. Vajpayee had the honour of
addressing the National Assembly of
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
89. Jaouad Gharib who won the gold medal in the Marathon at
the World Athletic Championships held in Aug. 2003 is
from which one of the following countries ?
(a) Morocco
(b) Spain
(c) Ethiopia
(d) Kenya
90. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Venue of Cricket
Country
Test Matches
(a) Port of Spain
:
West Indies
(b) Headingley
:
England
(c) Hamilton
:
New Zealand
(d) Kandy
:
Australia
91. Who is Indias first Woman Grand Master in Chess ?
(a) Aarthie Ramaswamy
(b) Koneru Humpy
(c) S. Meenakshi
(d) S. Vijayalakshmi
92. Which one of the following countries has not hosted
Ministerial Conference of the WTO so far ?
(a) Mexico
(b) USA
(c) England
(d) Singapore
93. Which one of the following groups of players received
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the year 2003 ?
(a) Anju B. George and Anjali Bhagwat
(b) Anju B. George, K. Sasikiran and K.M. Beenamol
(c) Anjali Bhagwat, K. Sasikiran and K.M. Beenamol
(d) Anjali Bhagwat and K.M. Beenamol
94. Who won the Royal Challenge Indian Open
Championship in Golf in the year 2003 ?
(a) Arjun Atwal
(b) Jyoti Randhawa
(c) Mike Cunning
(d) Rick Gibson
95. Who among the following footballers ws declared FIFAs
World Player of the Year in 2003 ?
(a) David Beckhem
(b) Zinedine Zidane
(c) Derlei Silva
(d) Rivaldo
96. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Vaclav Havel, former President of the Czech Republic, was
recently in the news in India because he
(a) offered to negotiate between China and India to resolve
the border dispute in North-East
(b) was awarded the Gandhi Peace Prize for his
outstanding contribution towards promoting peace and
defending human rights
(c) made a good compaign to select India for a permanent
seat in the United Naions Security Council
(d) made a huge donation to help various voluntary
organisations to campaign against the spread of HIV/AIDS

Directions (97 - 100) : The following items consist of two

statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as the Reason (R). You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the answers to these items
using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
97. Assertion (A) : In 1773, there arose an armed conflict
between Americans and the British.
Reason (R) : In 1773, when the teaships arrived at New
York, the Americans threw the tea into the harbour.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
98. Assertion (A) : The State of Hyderabad was founded by
Nizam-ul Mulk, a Wazir of Mughal Emperor.
Reason (R) : The Mughal Emperor frustrated all the
attempts of Nizam-ul Mulk at reforming the adminnstration
of the empire.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
99. Assertion (A) : Isotherms have a general East-West trend
around the globe.
Reason (R) : All centres of high and low temperature occur
over landmasses.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
100. Assertion (A) : The Narmada is the largest among the
West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India.
Reason (R) : It flows through the rift valley.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
101. A large magnet is broken into two pieces. If the lengths of
two pieces are in ratio of 3 : 4, what is the ratio of their pole
srengths ?
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 3 : 2
102. The current I and voltage V variations for a given metallic
wire at two different tempe-ratures T1 and T2 are shown in
the Fig. Then, which one of the following is correct ?
T1
T2
I
v

(a) T1 > T2
(b) T1 < T2
(c) T1 = T2
(d) T1 = 2T2
103. Consider the following statements :
I. According to be Broglie hypothesis, particles have
wave-like characteristics,
II. When an electron and proton have the same de Broglie
wavelength, they will have equal momentum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

13

104. Which one of the following figures correctly represents

the variation of the potential energy of a body moving up
vertically under the influence of gravity ? (PE is the
potential energy and h is the height above ground level)
PE

PE

(a)

(b)
h

PE

PE

(c)

(d)
h

105. The moon is revolving in a circular orbit around earth with

a uniform speed V. If the gravitational force suddenly
disappears, the moon will
(a) continue to move with speed V along the original orbit
(b) fall downward to Earth with increasing velocity
(c) finally come to rest somewhere on the original path
(d) move with the velocity V tangentially to the original
orbit
106. A beaker full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from
800C to 750C in t1 minutes and from 750C to 700C in t2
minutes and from 700C to 650C in t3 minutes. Then, which
one of the following is correct ?
(a) t1 > t2 > t3
(b) t1 = t2 = t3
(c) t1 = 1.2 t2, t2 = 1.2 t3
(d) t1 < t2 < t3
107. Alternating current instead of direct current is used in
long-distance electric transmission because
(a) it is easy to generate
(b) rectification is possible
(c) energy losses are minimum
(d) it causes fewer accidents
108. In the human eye, the focussing is done by
(a) to the fro movement of the eye lens
(b) to and fro movement of the retina
(c) change in the convexity of the eye lens
(d) change in the refractive index of the eye fluids
109. Consider the following statements with reference to X-rays:
I. They produce heat when absorbed by matter.
II. They are generated when fast moving electrons strike a
metal target.
III. They can penetrate through a thin sheet of aluminium.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
110. Consider the following statements :
I. Horsepower is a bigger unit of power than kilowatt.
II. One thousand crore is equal to 1010.
III. One acre is slightly greater than 5000 square metres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) II and III

111. Two plane mirrors A and B are placed at a distance 12 cm

apart facing towards each other. An object is placed in
between them at a distance 8 cm from the mirror A. What
will be the distance between the first two images formed in
the mirror B ?
(a) 4 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 16 cm
(d) 20 cm
112. A wire is bent in the form of uniform circular ring. A and B
are two points on the ring such that AOB 60 0 , where
O is the centre of ring. If the equivalent resistance across A
and B is 5, what is the resistance of the whole wire ?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 30
(d) 36
113. Three similar bulbs A, B, C are connected to a voltage
source as shown in the figure. If C is removed how will the
illumination of A and B be affected ?
A
B

(a) Both A and B will become dimmer

(b) Both A and B will become brighter
(c) A will become dimmer and B will become brighter
(d) A will become brighter and B will become dimmer
114. A body lying at rest suddenly breaks into two parts of
equal masses which start moving. The two parts will move
in
(a) opposite direction with equal speed
(b) same direction with equal speed
(c) any direction with unequal speed
(d) opposite direction with unequal speed
115. A massless rubber balloon has been inflated by filling it
with 200 grams of water. How much will this balloon weigh,
when it is completely immersed in water contained in a
bucket ? (Take g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 3.92 N (b) 1.96 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) zero
116. Which one of the following pairs of physical quantities
has the same dimensions ?
(a) Surface tension and tension
(b) Latent heat and Specific heat
(c) Momentum and Impulse
(d) Acceleration due to gravity and Gravitational constant
117. In a garden, a boy is swinging in the standing position.
How will the time period of the swing be affected if the boy
sits down on the swing ?
(a) Time period will not change
(b) Time period will increase
(c) Time period will decrease
(d) Time period will depend on the weight of the boy
118. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A slab of ice kept in a room
(a) does not radiate heat
(b) does not radiate heat but absorbs heat from the
surrounding
(c) radiates heat but absorbs more heat from the
surrounding
(d) radiates heat more than that absorbed by it from the
surrounding

14

119. Consider the following statements :

The fog during winter season is more on the day when
I. sky is clear
II. sky is cloudy
III. wind is blowing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II and III
(c) II and III
(d) II only
120. Consider the following statements regarding electric fuse
wire :
I. It has low melting point.
II. It has very high specific resistance.
III. It is connected in parallel with the electric circuit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
121. Consider the following statements :
I. 1 gram of water at 1000C and 1 gram of steam at 1000C
contain same amount of heat
II. 1 m3 of dry air is heavier than 1 m3 of humid air.
III. Density of a substance in CGS system is numerically
equal to its specific gravity.
Which of the statements given above is/are corrct ?
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
122. Match List I and List II and choose the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists :
List I
List II
I. Movement of water and minerals
(A) Bernoullis
from earth to leaves of plants
through roots
II. Lift of an aeroplane during its flight
(B) Capillary
action
III. Formation of a star in the universe
(C) Surface
tension
IV. Cleaning action of soap
(D) Gravitational
force
Codes :
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(b) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(c) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(d) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
123. Consider the following statements :
I. Atom bomb is based upon the principle of uncontrolled
nuclear fusion.
II. Hydrogen bomb is based upon the principle of
uncontrolled nuclear fission.
III. Nuclear reactor is based upon the principle of controlled
nuclear fission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) III only
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
124. An astronaut of mass 60 kg is revolving around the earth
in satellite. What will be his weight inside the satellite
assuming g = 10 m/s2 ?
(a) 1200 N (b) 600 N
(c) Infinite
(d) zero
125. A strong bar magnet is allowed to fall through a ring
made up of copper wire such that its magnetic axis is
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. What will be the
acceleration of the magnet during its fall ?
(a) Equal to g
(b) Greater than g
(c) Less than g
(d) zero

126. The pH of water at 250C is 7. When it is heated to 1000C, the

pH of water
(a) increase
(b) remains same
(c) decreases
(d) decreases up to 500C and then it increases
127. What is the main constituent of natural gas ?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Butane
(d) Hydrogen
128. Which one of the following is not a sulphate ore ?
(a) Barytes
(b) Calamine
(c) Gypsum
(d) Epsom salt
129. With reference to the chemical element with atomic
number 17, consider the following statements :
I. It belongs to second period in the periodic table of
chemical elements.
II. It forms anion with unit negative charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
130. Consider the following statements :
I. Phosphorus exhibits oxidation states of 3 and 5.
II. Iron exhibits oxidation states of 2 and 3.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
131. Which one among the following is the most unreactive
gas?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrogen
132. The conversion of Fe++ to Fe+++ is :
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Ionisation
(d) Nuclear reaction
133. Which one of the following is obtained in its pure form
when sugar is treated with sulphuric acid ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
134. Consider the following statements :
Equivalent weight of a compound is the weight of it that
combines with or displaces directly
I. 1.008 parts by weight of hydrogen
II. 16 parts by weight of nitrogen
III. 35.45 parts by weight of chlorine
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
135. Consider the following elements :
I. Copper
II. Gold
III. Platinum
IV. Silver
Which of the above elements exist free in nature ?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) III and IV
136. What is the name of the process involved in the burning
of hydrogen ?
(a) Hydration
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation
(d) Hydrogenation

15

137. Consider the following statements regarding Bohr atomic

model :
I. It introduces the idea of stationary orbits.
II. It assumes that angular momentum of electron is equal
to (1/2) h/2.
III. It uses planetary model of the atom involving circular
orbits.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Directions (138 - 140) : The following question consists
of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A), and
the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the correct answers to these
items using the codes given below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
138. Assertion (A) : Glass is a very hard substance.
Reason (R) : Silicon is a constituent of glass.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
139. Assertion (A) : Carbon forms the largest number of
compounds.
Reason (R) : Carbon shows variable valency.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
140. Assertion (A) : When zinc is added to acidified potassium
permanganate solution the pink colour of the solution
gradually disappears with the evolution of gas.
Reason (R) : Manganese has different oxidation states and
addition of zinc changes the oxidation state from the high
to the low.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
141. The phenomenon by which water molecules move from
the a weaker solution to a stronger solution through a
semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) Diffusion
(b) Osomosis
(c) Transpiration
(d) Translocation

142. Consider the following worms :

I. Filaria worm
II. Guinea worm
III. Hookworm
IV. Pinworm
Which of the above worms are nematodes ?
(a) I and II
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
143. The improper function of which of the following results in
condition Myxoedema in human beings ?
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pancreas
(c) Liver
(d) Thyroid gland
144. The Hepatitis-B, which affects liver, is actually a
(a) Virus
(b) Bacterium
(c) Protozoan
(d) Helminth
145. Consider the following statements :
I. Euglena is a procaryotic organism.
II. Blue-green algae are eucaryotic organisms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Neither (I) nor (II)
146. The corners of the cells of collenchyma tissue in plants are
thickened due to the deposition of
(a) Lignin and Suberin
(b) Suberin and Cutin
(c) Cellulose and Pectin
(d) Chitin and Lignin
147. Consider the following statements :
I. Frogs can breath by means of lungs only when they are
adults.
II. Reptiles breath by means of lungs right from the birth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Neither (I) nor (II)
148. In human body, the pancres secretes its enzymes into which
one of the following ?
(a) Duodenum
(b) Ileum
(c) Jejunum
(d) Stomach
149. Among the following food items, which one has the
highest amount of carbohydrates ?
(a) Apple
(b) Banana
(c) Cabbage
(d) Pea
150. Which among the following is the richest source is
ascorbic acid ?
(a) Apple
(b) Bean
(c) Carrot
(d) Guava

16

ANSWERS
PAPER - I
1. d

2. c

3. c

4. c

5. d

6. b

7. c

8. c

9. c

10. d

11. c

12. a

13. a

14. a

15. a

16. b

17. a

18. b

19. a

20. c

21. c

22. a

23. d

24. c

25. c

26. c

27. b

28. b

29. c

30. d

31. b

32. c

33. d

34. b

35. a

36. a

37. c

38. d

39. c

40. c

41. a

42. b

43. b

44. b

45. b

46. a

47. a

48. d

49. d

50. c

51. a

52. a

53. b

54. c

55. a

56. b

57. c

58. b

59. c

60. b

61. a

62. a

63. a

64. c

65. a

66. c

67. b

68. b

69. c

70. c

71. b

72. b

73. c

74. b

75. a

76. b

77. c

78. a

79. c

80. b

81. c

82. c

83. c

84. c

85. c

86. c

87. b

88. b

89. a

90. d

91. d

92. c

93. c

94. d

95. d

96. d

97. b

98. b

99. d

100. c

101. d

102. d

103. b

104. c

105. b

106. a

107. b

108. b

109. d

110. d

111. c

112. b

113. b

114. a

115. c

116. a

117. a

118. d

119. a

120. c

PAPER - II
1. d

2. b

3. a

4. d

5. b

6. a

7. a

8. b

9. d

10. c

11. b

12. a

13. c

14. c

15. b

16. a

17. a

18. d

19. d

20. a

21. c

22. c

23. c

24. a

25. a

26. a

27. a

28. a

29. d

30. c

31. d

32. b

33. c

34. a

35. d

36. b

37. b

38. d

39. c

40. d

41. d

42. c

43. d

44. d

45. c

46. b

47. a

48. a

49. b

50. a

51. d

52. d

53. d

54. d

55. b

56. c

57. d

58. b

59. a

60. d

61. d

62. b

63. d

64. c

65. a

66. c

67. c

68. c

69. d

70. c

71. c

72. d

73. a

74. b

75. c

76. a

77. c

78. c

79. d

80. b

81. c

82. a

83. d

84. b

85. a

86. c

87. c

88. c

89. a

90. d

91. d

92. c

93. d

94. c

95. b

96. b

97. a

98. a

99. c

100. b

101. c

102. b

103. c

104. a

105. d

106. d

107. c

108. c

109. b

110. b

111. c

112. c

113. c

114. a

115. d

116. c

117. b

118. b

119. a

120. b

121. c

122. a

123. a

124. d

125. c

126. c

127. a

128. b

129. b

130. c

131. a

132. a

133. b

134. d

135. b

136. c

137. c

138. a

139. b

140. a

141. b

142. d

143. d

144. a

145. d

146. c

147. c

148. a

149. c

150. d

PAPER - I
1. d

2. c

3. c

4. c

5. d

6. b

7. c

8. c

9. c

10. d

11. c

12. a

13. a

14. a

15. a

16. b

17. a

18. b

19. a

20. c

21. c

22. a

23. d

24. c

25. c

26. c

27. b

28. b

29. c

30. d

31. b

32. c

33. d

34. b

35. a

36. a

37. c

38. d

39. c

40. c

41. a

42. b

43. b

44. b

45. b

46. a

47. a

48. d

49. d

50. c

51. a

52. a

53. b

54. c

55. a

56. b

57. c

58. b

59. c

60. b

61. a

62. a

63. a

64. c

65. a

66. c

67. b

68. b

69. c

70. c

71. b

72. b

73. c

74. b

75. a

76. b

77. c

78. a

79. c

80. b

81. c

82. c

83. c

84. c

85. c

86. c

87. b

88. b

89. a

90. d

91. d

92. c

93. c

94. d

95. d

96. d

97. b

98. b

99. d

100. c

101. d

102. d

103. b

104. c

105. b

106. a

107. b

108. b

109. d

110. d

111. c

112. b

113. b

114. a

115. c

116. a

117. a

118. d

119. a

120. c

PAPER - II
1. d

2. b

3. a

4. d

5. b

6. a

7. a

8. b

9. d

10. c

11. b

12. a

13. c

14. c

15. b

16. a

17. a

18. d

19. d

20. a

21. c

22. c

23. c

24. a

25. a

26. a

27. a

28. a

29. d

30. c

31. d

32. b

33. c

34. a

35. d

36. b

37. b

38. d

39. c

40. d

41. d

42. c

43. d

44. d

45. c

46. b

47. a

48. a

49. b

50. a

51. d

52. d

53. d

54. d

55. b

56. c

57. d

58. b

59. a

60. d

61. d

62. b

63. d

64. c

65. a

66. c

67. c

68. c

69. d

70. c

71. c

72. d

73. a

74. b

75. c

76. a

77. c

78. c

79. d

80. b

81. c

82. a

83. d

84. b

85. a

86. c

87. c

88. c

89. a

90. d

91. d

92. c

93. d

94. c

95. b

96. b

97. a

98. a

99. c

100. b

101. c

102. b

103. c

104. a

105. d

106. d

107. c

108. c

109. b

110. b

111. c

112. c

113. c

114. a

115. d

116. c

117. b

118. b

119. a

120. b

121. c

122. a

123. a

124. d

125. c

126. c

127. a

128. b

129. b

130. c

131. a

132. a

133. b

134. d

135. b

136. c

137. c

138. a

139. b

140. a

141. b

142. d

143. d

144. a

145. d

146. c

147. c

148. a

149. c

150. d

17