Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 20

ITM 360 Spring 2013

Exam 2 with answers


1. What is a set of agreed-upon instructions designed to allow computers to communicate to each other
across a network connection?
a) protocol
b) checksum
c) technology
d) port
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Protocol Suites
Explanation: In computer networking, a protocol is a set of agreed-upon instructions designed to allow
computers to communicate to each other across a network connection. Many protocols are used in
networking because many different tasks need to be done to allow computers to communicate with each
other.
4. Which core protocol used on the Internet moves data packets from one location on a packet-switched
network to another location based on a logical address?
a) IP
b) TCP
c) UDP
d) ICMP
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Internet Layer Protocols
Explanation: The TCP/IP models Internet layer is the first layer to have TCP/IP protocol suitespecific
protocols. The Internet Protocol (IP) is the most important protocol on this layer and is one of the two
protocols used to name the TCP/IP protocol suite.
5. What mathematical function is performed on data to ensure that it has not been changed or corrupted?
a) corrupt alias
b) Arp-ing
c) checksum
d) MAC
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: IP
Explanation: Before data is sent, a mathematical calculation is done on the data and is sent with the
data. When the data is received, the same mathematical calculation is done and the two checksum
calculations are compared. If they are the same, the data packet has not been changed or corrupted.
6. Which protocol translates an IP address into a MAC address?
a) ARP
b) ICMP
c) DNS
d) WINS
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: ARP
Explanation: In network addressingwhen a packet is passed along a network via routersthe MAC
address is actually changed at each hop so that the data frame can move on to the next hop in its

journey. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)is responsible for changing the MAC address. Part of
ARPs job is to determine what the MAC address is for the next hop and then adjust the frame accordingly
so that the frame can be moved to the next hop.
7. Which protocol is used to send messages about the network when a route goes bad?
a) ARP
b) ICMP
c) DNS
d) WINS
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: ICMP
Explanation: The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used mainly by a computers operating
system to send messages about the network. When an error occurs in the IP packet, a service is
unreachable or down, a host is not found, or a router is down, among other situations, an ICMP message
is sent.
8. What command is used to test IP connectivity between two hosts?
a) ping
b) arp
c) nslookup
d) netsh
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Ping
Explanation: Ping is a network administration utility that is used to test connectivity to specific nodes on a
network and to measure the round-trip time it takes for a packet to get to a specific destination and back.
10. What command tests connectivity between two hosts while showing each hop between the two hosts?
a) ping
b) tracert
c) arp
d) loopback
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Trace Route
Explanation: The traceroute/tracert utility is used to report back each hop along a route to a specific IP
destination.
12. What mechanism is used to send one set of packets to multiple hosts at the same time?
a) ICMP
b) IGMP
c) multicasting
d) looping
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: IGMP
Explanation: IP multicasting is basically an IP hosts capability to send a datagram or data packet to all IP
hosts within a host group. A host group consists of all the IP computers currently connected to a particular
IP multicast host that are set to receive the same transmission from that host. These host groups can be
set to contain 0 or more hosts.

13. What is used to determine which upper-layer protocols, services, and processors each data segment
is intended for?
a) checksum
b) port
c) MAC address
d) IP address
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Ports
Explanation: Protocols on the Transport layer have port addresses, also known as ports. These ports are
used to determine which upper-layer protocols, services, and processes each data segment is intended
for. Port addresses ensure that the correct protocol, service, or process can get the data intended for it.
The two main protocols on the Transport layer, UDP and TCP, both use ports.
14. What type of port ranges from 0 to 1023?
a) well-known ports
b) registered ports
c) dynamic ports
d) private ports
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Ports
Explanation: The first group is called the well-known ports. Port numbers in this group range from 01023.
Well-known ports can be assigned only by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). The ports in
this range, according to IANA, can be used only by the system or root processes and by programs
executed by privileged users.
17. What port does HTTP use by default?
a) 21
b) 80
c) 67
d) 443
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Ports
Explanation: Hyper-Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses TCP port 80 to display web pages via a browser.
18. What protocol uses TCP port 25?
a) FTP
b) SNMP
c) SMTP
d) HTTP
21. Which connection-oriented protocol ensures that data gets its final destination?
a) TCP
b) SNMP
c) UDP
d) ICMP
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: TCP

Explanation: TCP focuses on the two end devices, whereas IP focuses on getting the network packet
from one device to the next toward its ultimate destination.
22. Which connectionless transport protocol does not guarantee reliable delivery?
a) TCP
b) HTTP
c) UDP
d) FTP
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: UDP
Explanation: User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is the connectionless counterpart of TCP. It does not
guarantee reliable delivery and is used primarily to give other protocols, such as IP, access to datagram
services like port numbers. Due to the limited functionality provided by UDP, the header is
correspondingly much smaller and less complex.
23. What protocol is used to assign IP addresses automatically to a host?
a) DHCP
b) DNS
c) WINS
d) ICMP
Answer: a
Difficulty: easy
Section Reference: DHCP and BOOTP
Explanation: DHCP was first introduced in RFC 1541 in 1993 and was intended as a replacement for the
older and less wieldy BOOTP. DHCP assigns IP addresses and IP configurations automatically for the
host.
25. Which protocol is used to resolve host names to IP addresses?
a) DNS
b) WINS
c) DHCP
d) SMB
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: DNS
Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) makes it possible for us to use the Internet the way we do.
DNS is the protocol that converts all those URLs we can easily remember to IP addresses that the
Internet can use.
27. When a DNS client needs to resolve a host name to an IP address, where will it first check?
a) LMHOST file
b) nearest DNS server
c) its own DNS cache
d) designated DNS server
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: DNS
Explanation: When you open your web browser and put in a URL, the browser checks the local web
cache to see if the IP address of the entered URL can be found. If it cannot be found, your computer
sends a query to your ISPs DNS server asking it for the URLs IP address.

28. What protocol is used to transport and display web pages using a browser?
a) DNS
b) SMB
c) HTTP
d) WINS
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: HTTP
Explanation: Hyper-Text Transport Protocol (HTTP) is used to transport Hyper-Text Markup Language
(HTML) documents, otherwise known as web pages, over the Internet. HTTP can also be used to retrieve
graphics, images, and other types of media and it can be used with email.
31. What protocol is used to send and manipulate files over a TCP/IP network?
a) FTP
b) HTTPS
c) WINS
d) ICQ
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: FTP
Explanation: The most commonly used current version of File Transfer Protocol (FTP) was first introduced
in 1985 in RFC 959. However, FTP in its original form was introduced in 1971 using RFC 114.
34. What protocol is used to provide bi-directional interactive command-line access to either a remote or
local host?
a) RTP
b) TELNET
c) SIP
d) HTTP
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: TELNET
Explanation: TELNET, short for TErminaL NETwork, is used to provide bi-directional interactive commandline access to either a remote or local host. TELNET was first introduced in 1969 in RFC 15. In 1983,
TELNET was extended in RFC 854. TELNET client software can be found for pretty much every computer
platform out there.
36. Which protocol is used to retrieve emails?
a) POP3
b) DNS
c) SIP
d) VoIP
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: POP3
Explanation: Post Office Protocol (POP) is used to connect to an email server and retrieve any emails on
that server before closing the connection. When POP3 retrieves emails, it can either leave copies on the
server, or delete the emails from the server after it downloads them to the client system.
37. What routing type is manually defined?
a) static routing
b) dynamic routing

c) metric routing
d) exterior routing
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Static vs. Dynamic Routing
Explanation: The most basic way of building routing tables is to manually create one in a router. As new
routes are needed on a network or old routes change, the routing tables must be manually changed or
updated on the affected routers. This process is called static routing, which is time-consuming and prone
to errors.
38. What measurement is used to choose the best route to a specific location?
a) dynamics
b) SIPs
c) metrics
d) checksum
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Routing Metrics
Explanation: The purpose of any routing protocol is to compile a table listing all routes known to it so that
IP can use the table to find the best route to a specific location. The measurements used by a routing
protocol to determine the best routes available to it are called metrics.
39. What represents the number of routers it takes to get from one destination to another?
a) hops
b) TTLs
c) lengths
d) latency
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Routing Tables and How They Apply to Path Selection
Explanation: Within a routing table database are several information fields. The three most common of
these fields are the network ID of the destination network, the cost of path the packet will need to take to
get to the destination network, and the next hop. The cost refers to the network cost (not money cost) of
getting to the destination network, which is based on available bandwidth, speed and other factors..
40. Which type of routing protocol are RIP and IGRP?
a) distance vector routing protocol
b) link state routing protocols
c) hybrid routing protocols
d) placement routing protocols
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Distance Vector Routing Protocols
Explanation: The simplest type of routing protocol is a distance vector routing protocol. Some examples of
distance vector routing protocols are RIP, RIPv2, and IGRP. In a distance vector routing protocol, each
router periodically sends an update of its routing table to all routers directly connected to it. In this way,
periodically the entire network of routers gets updated. The time it takes for this update to take place is
called convergence.
3. On which OSI layer does the network interface card work?
a) Physical
b) Network

c) Transport
d) Application
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Medium and Media
Explanation: A NIC is required to work on both the Data-Link and Physical layers of the OSI model. The
NIC acts as translator between the software in the upper layers of the OSI model and the physical
components of the media.
4. What is the physical address assigned to a NIC?
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) DNS address
d) WINS address
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Addressing
Explanation: The physical address, also known as the MAC address, assigned to a NIC by its
manufacturer is 48 bits long. Because of the way this address is divided up into two 24 bit parts, each
manufacturer has only 16 million or so unique addresses they can use before the manufacturer has
begun reusing physical addresses.
5. You are given the following address: 00-90-4B-AD-2A-AC
What type of address is this?
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) DNS address
d) WINS address
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Addressing
Explanation: The physical address, also known as MAC address, assigned to a NIC by its manufacturer is
48 bits long. Because of the way this address is divided up into two 24-bit parts, each manufacturer has
only 16 million or so unique addresses to use before the manufacturer has to start reusing physical
addresses.
6. What networking device is used to modulate an analog signal in such a way that it can encode digital
information?
a) modem
b) NIC
c) Codec
d) radar
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Modems
Explanation: The word modem is short for modulator/demodulator. A modem is a networking device that is
used to modulate an analog signal in such a way that it can encode digital information or to demodulate
the encoded signal so that it can be decoded back into something a computer can read. Any device used
to encode digital information onto analog communication links, regardless of throughput, can rightfully be
called a modem.
7. What device converts one type of media to another type?

a) protocol analyzer
b) media converter
c) host converter
d) transceiver
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Media Converters
Explanation: Media converters are used to convert one type of media to another type. Such devices are
used to convert coaxial to twisted pair or fiber to copper. These types of devices are important for allowing
two different types of technologies on the same network.
8. What is used to repeat a signal it receives and rebroadcast it?
a) transceiver
b) repeater
c) modem
d) converter
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Repeaters and Hubs
Explanation: A repeater is a device that repeats a signal it receives in order to rebroadcast it, thus
extending the range of a particular cable run. A repeater is always active and requires a power source of
some sort. It has one cable coming in and one going out.
9. What is a multiport repeater?
a) hub
b) router
c) bridge
d) modem
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Repeaters and Hubs
Explanation: Hubs work as though they are the bus of a larger network. When a computer connected to
one port of a hub want to connect to a computer connected to a different port on a hub, it has to
broadcast the signal to all devices connected to that hub. In this way, a hub acts as a bus. As a signal
comes into a hub, it is regenerated or repeated and sent to its destination.
10. What type of hub does not amplify or resend a signal?
a) intelligent hub
b) active hub
c) passive hub
d) collision hub
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Repeaters and Hubs
Explanation: A passive hub is really nothing more than a cable splitter. If you have seen old cable TV
connections where a coaxial cable is connected to a cable splitter and two or more cables come out, you
have seen what is essentially a passive hub. These types of devices are not used very commonly in data
networks.
13. In what type of network segment do computers have the possibility of having their signals collide with
each other?
a) intelligent domain

b) clashing domain
c) interference domain
d) collision domain
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference:
Explanation: A network segment where computers have the possibility of having their signals collide with
each other is called a collision domain. If too many computers are on a single collision domain, a network
can reach a point where it has so many collisions, no computers can actually communicate with each
other. Therefore, the goal of a hub-based network is to have as few computers as possible on a single
collision domain.
14. What connects two network segments together, yet only forwards packets based on MAC addresses
from one segment to another segment only when needed?
a) bridge
b) hub
c) router
d) gateway
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Bridges
Explanation: Bridges are intended to break up networks into smaller sections; as a result, they are more
intelligent than your average hub. Because bridges work on the Data-Link layer of the OSI model, they
can read and make sense of MAC addresses. Based on these MAC or Physical addresses, a bridge can
determine whether a frame is allowed to pass through to the other side of the bridge.
15. On what OSI layer does a switch operate?
a) Physical
b) Data-Link
c) Network
d) Transport
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Switches
Explanation: Switches, like bridges, work primarily on the Data-Link layer of the OSI model.
17. What device has each port as its own collision domain?
a) repeater
b) active hub
c) passive hub
d) switch
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Basic Switch
Explanation: A basic switch can be referred to as a multiport bridge because like a bridge, it can separate
a network out into multiple collision domains.
19. What is referred to as a group of hosts in the Data-Link layer that share a common set of
communications requirements and can be isolated from other groups?
a) LAN
b) MAN
c) VLAN

d) WAN
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: VLANs
Explanation: In its most basic form, a VLAN (short for Virtual LAN) enables you to break up a much larger
network into smaller networks within the Data-Link layer of the OSI model. In other words, a VLAN refers
to a group of hosts that share a common set of communications requirements whether or not they are
attached to the same device.
21. What is used to identify VLANs?
a) IP address
b) network numbers
c) IP prefix
d) VLAN numbers
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: VLANs
Explanation: If you want to create multiple VLANs, you define which ports are assigned to each VLAN,
and then each VLAN is assigned a VLAN number.
25. When you use port authentication, what is used to limit access to the network?
a) VLAN number
b) IP address
c) Passwords
d) MAC addresses
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Port Authentication
Explanation: Port authentication provides security to the entire network because it limits access via a
particular port to pre-authorized MAC addresses.
26. What protocol do multiple switches on the same network use to ensure that an infinite loop is not
created?
a) trunking
b) SIP
c) VLAN
d) STP
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Port Mirroring
Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used when multiple switches are implemented on the same
network. As a Data-Link layer protocol, STP is used primarily to prevent endless loops from developing on
switch-based LANs. The protocol gets its name from a mathematical algorithm called spanning tree,
which takes a group of points and connects them all together without allowing any loops to form.
27. What is used to convert digital signals from one frame format to another, specifically to convert Frame
Relay into Ethernet signals?
a) switch
b) hub
c) CSU/DSU
d) bridge

Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: CSU/DSU
Explanation: A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) converts a digital signal from one
frame format to another. Most commonly, it is used to convert Frame Relay or T-1 signals into Ethernet
signals.
29. At what OSI layer do routers operate?
a) Physical
b) Data-link
c) Network
d) Transport
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Routers and Firewalls
Explanation: Routers are networking devices used to move packets around a larger network. To do this,
they have to be very intelligent and able to read data packets to know where they are intended to go and
where they have come from. Because routers are meant to relay based on IP addresses, they work on
the Network layer.
30. What is used to protect a network from unauthorized access?
a) router
b) firewall
c) switch
d) CSU/DSU
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Routers and Firewalls
Explanation: The firewall that is mentioned here, is not the firewall that you load onto your computer to
protect it from internet attacks. A firewall is a networking device whose purpose is to prevent unauthorized
packets from getting into your network. It is also used as the first line of defense between a private
network and the Internet.
33. Where would you place a web server that will be accessed from the Internet?
a) DMZ
b) Internet
c) intranet
d) VLAN
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Routers and Firewalls
Explanation: Because a web server that needs to be accessed needs to have some security but should
be isolated from the internal network, you should place the web server on the DMZ.
35. What type of server acts as an intermediary between a client and other servers?
a) SMB server
b) port server
c) proxy server
d) DNS server
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Proxy Servers

Explanation: Proxy servers act as intermediaries between a client and other servers. They can fulfill many
roles and can be used for many different jobs.
37. What is used to monitor the activity of a network and notify network administrators when it identifies
something as suspicious?
a) IDS
b) PoE
c) STP
d) VLAN
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Protection Systems (IPS)
Explanation: Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) are related
technologies. An IDS usually sits inside a network and monitors the networks activities. When something
suspicious is noted, the IDS then notifies network administrators so that they can take steps to stop the
suspect activity. Because an IDS only monitors activity, it is considered passive.
3. Which Ethernet frame type supports TCP/IP?
a) Ethernet II
b) Ethernet 802.3
c) Novell Ethernet
d) Ethernet SNAP
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Ethernet Frames
Explanation: The most widely used Ethernet frame type is Ethernet II or Ethernet DIX. It is so widely used
because the Internet Protocol (IP) can use it directly.
4. What type of access method does Ethernet use?
a) CSMA/CA
b) CSMA/CD
c) token passing
d) polling
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Ethernet Communications Methods
Explanation: Carrier Sensing Media Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) is the primary method that
Ethernet uses to access wired LANs. Ethernet uses a different method to access wireless LANs.
5. What type of access method is used in wireless networks?
a) CSMA/CA
b) CSMA/CD
c) token passing
d) polling
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Ethernet Communications Methods
Explanation: Like CSMA/CD, Carrier Sensing Media Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is a method
used by Ethernet to access a local area network. Where CSMA/CD is most commonly used for wired
networks, CSMA/CA is most commonly used for wireless networks.

6. What happens when two computers broadcast at the same time on the network, causing both sets of
data to be garbled?
a) crash
b) EMI
c) EFI
d) collision
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Ethernet Communications Methods
Explanation: When two different computers need to send data at the same time, they will listen to the
network. If neither computer hears any activity on the network, they both will conclude that they are clear
to send data at that time. As a result, both computers end up sending data packets simultaneously;
however, because only one data packet can be on the network cable at one time, a collision occurs. The
collision results in a slight power spike on the network as well as destruction of the data in the two
packets.
7. When a collision occurs, what do the two sending nodes do?
a) They both wait a random amount of time and try again.
b) The computer on the right goes first.
c) The nearest computer goes first.
d) They immediately try again.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Ethernet Communications Methods
Explanation: When computers on the network segment hear a collision on the network, they all
immediately activate something called a hold-down timer. This timer is effectively a clock that activates in
each NIC on the network and starts counting down from a randomly set point of time. While the clock on a
particular NIC is counting down, it cannot send any packets. As each computer on the network segment
finishes its random countdown, it can begin listening to the network again to find an open point where it
can begin to send its data packet.
9. What media type can carry multiple data signals at the same time?
a) baseband
b) broadband
c) singleband
d) multiband
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Baseband Ethernet Technologies
Explanation: Baseband means is that a cable can carry only one signal one way at one time. In the case
of most modern Ethernet cables, this means that there is one line for sending signals and another line for
receiving signals inside an Ethernet cable.
11. Ethernet is considered ___________.
a) baseband
b) broadband
c) singleband
d) multiband
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Baseband Ethernet Technologies

Explanation: Ethernet is what is called a baseband technology. Most modern Ethernet cables have one
line for sending signals and another line for receiving signals.
12. Today, what type of cable is the most common for Ethernet?
a) coaxial
b) STP
c) UTP
d) fiber
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Baseband Ethernet Technologies
Explanation: Today, virtually all Ethernet cabling is done with either UTP or fiber. Because UTP is easier
to configure, is less expensive, and has been widely available longer, UTP is much more common then
fiber.
14. 10Base-5 uses what type of cable?
a) UTP
b) STP
c) coaxial
d) fiber
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: 10Base-5
Explanation: Because 10Base-5 used thick coaxial cables to carry data, it was called Thick Ethernet.
16. What was the first Ethernet standard used on UTP?
a) 10Base-2
b) 10Base-5
c) 10Base-T
d) 100Base-TX
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: 10Base-T
Explanation: While 10Base-T was not the first XBase-Y standard developed, it was the first twisted-pair
XBase-Y standard developed. In 1990 IEEE 802.3i formalized the 10Base-T standard. 10Base-T used
CAT 3 UTP and could carry 10 mbps throughput for a distance of 100 meters. 10Base-T was a baseband
technology. This standard became known as Twisted-Pair Ethernet.
18. Which Ethernet standard was developed to work over fiber?
a) 10Base-2
b) 10Base-5
c) 100Base-TX
d) 100Base-FX
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: 100Base-FX
Explanation: 100Base-FX is the version of Fast Ethernet that is intended to be used over fiber-optic cable.
Introduced at the same time as 100Base-TX, 100Base-FX was part of the same IEEE 802.3y standard.
24. What is the copper version of Gigabit Ethernet?
a) 1000Base-T
b) 1000Base-X

c) 1000Base-FX
d) 1000Base-TX
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: 1000Base-T
Explanation: 1000Base-T is the copper version of Gigabit Ethernet and was standardized in 1999. The
standard used for copper-based Gigabit Ethernet was IEEE 802.3ab, which was designed to use CAT 5,
5e, or 6.
34. To connect to a wireless network, you would start with what?
a) SSID of the wireless router
b) MAC address of the wireless router
c) password of the wireless router
d) IP address of the wireless router
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Install Access Point
Explanation: SSID (short for Set Service Identifier) acts as the network name for a particular WAP. If you
are using multiple WAPs in the same network, they will all need to have the same SSID. In Linksys
WAPs, the SSID can be up to 32 characters long.
35. What helps protect data that is sent using a wireless network?
a) strong authentication
b) encryption
c) RADIUS
d) multiple frequencies
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Configure Appropriate Encryption
Explanation: Encryption is where a device such as a computer or a WAP takes the data that it is sending
out and first runs an algorithm on it so that it cannot be read without first having the key to read it. This
capability increases the security of a network by making it more difficult for an outsider to read what is
passing across a network.
37. Which wireless mode does not use a central WAP?
a) ESSID
b) ad hoc
c) infrastructure mode
d) WAP wheel
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: SSID
Explanation: An ad hoc wireless network is formed when a wireless network is composed of only
independent wireless computers in which each device participates in forwarding wireless packets. An ad
hoc wireless network has no central WAP to monitor and control it. In effect, an ad hoc wireless network is
the wireless network version of a peer-to-peer network.
39. Which wireless encryption is considered the weakest?
a) WEP
b) WPA Personal
c) WPA2 Personal
d) WPA2 Enterprise

Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Configure Appropriate Encryption
Explanation: Available encryption schemes are WPA Enterprise and Personal, WPA2 Enterprise and
Personal, RADIUS, and WEP. Of these options, WEP is the weakest.
1. What communications term describes the establishment of a dedicated communications channel for
the duration of a given transmission?
a) circuit switching
b) packet switching
c) message switching
d) cellular switching
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Circuit Switching
Explanation: In its most basic definition, circuit switching is a type of communications that establishes a
dedicated communications channel for the duration of a given transmission. Initially, circuit switching was
done manually, where operators would perform physical connections to establish a circuit or connection.
Later, this type of switching was done electronically.
3. What technology takes a voice communication, breaks the data into small packets, and sends the
packets from one network segment to another?
a) circuit switching
b) packet switching
c) message switching
d) cellular switching
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Packet Switching
Explanation: Packet switching opens up connections only long enough for a small data packet to move
from one network segment to another. Dataregardless of type, content, or structureis broken into
small blocks called packets and sent to its destination.
5. In what type of technology is the whole message routed to its destination one hop at a time?
a) circuit switching
b) packet switching
c) message switching
d) cellular switching
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Message Switching
Explanation: In message switching, whole messages are routed to their destination one hop at a time.
Over time, the message switching idea evolved into what we call packet switching today. With message
switching, the entire message is sent out at once.
8. What type of technology does a VPN use?
a) physical circuit switching
b) virtual circuit switching
c) black-box switching
d) VoIP switching
Answer: b

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Virtual Circuit Switching
Explanation: Virtual Private Network (VPN) is an example of a technology that makes extensive use of
virtual circuit switching through the Internet.
10. Which type of cabling is the preferred media for WANs?
a) fiber
b) water
c) copper
d) wireless
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Copper Cables
Explanation: Phone lines still use copper in the last part of the network connections. However, today fiber
optic cabling is usually used up to distribution boxes on the street and often comes directly into
businesses. Fiber optic cables are now the preferred media for WAN networks.
12. What type of wireless communications is seen in WAN environments?
a) fiber
b) microwave
c) Bluetooth
d) infrared
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Microware
Explanation: Microwaves are a form or wireless communications seen in WAN environments. Microwaves
use the electromagnetic spectrum between the frequencies of 300 MHz and 300 GHz.
14. What is the ideal position for satellites that allow depending network connectivity?
a) locked position in space
b) geosynchronous orbit
c) lunar locked
d) celestial navigated
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Satellite Communications
Explanation: The higher a satellites orbit, the fewer satellites are needed to be able to see every point on
the earth. The ideal position to do this is something called geosynchronous orbit (GEO), also known as
geostationary orbit (GSO). Satellites in this orbit will maintain their position over a set geographic position
at all times.
16. What is the most common form of radio frequency WAN media?
a) Bluetooth
b) microwave
c) satellite
d) cellular
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Radio Frequency
Explanation: The term cellular comes from the way a cellular network functions. Each tower in a cellular
network can broadcast up to a set range based on the technology used. In the case of WANs, cellular
networks are the most common form of radio frequency WAN media.

18. Why do todays cell towers use three directional antennas?


a) To increase range
b) To prevent jamming
c) To prevent eavesdropping
d) To broadcast on different frequencies
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Radio Frequency
Explanation: Whereas early cell networks used antennae that broadcasted in an omni-directional manner,
modern cell networks do not. Directional antennae can get a longer range for the same amount of power.
Nowadays, when a cell tower is being set up, it is usually equipped with three directional antennas
pointed 120 degrees away from each other, allowing full coverage in a circle around the tower while
pushing the towers range out further.
22. What refers to the entire worldwide telephone network?
a) POTS
b) demarc
c) ATM
d) PSTN
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Dial-up
Explanation: The term Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) refers to the entire worldwide
telephone network. PSTN uses circuit switching to establish connections between different phones. Any
copper cables, fiber optic cables, microwave signals, satellite communications, or cellular networks that
are used to allow any phone anywhere in the world to connect to any other phone in the world are part of
the PSTN.
23. What is the point at which the network providers responsibility ends when connecting a site to its
network?
a) POTS
b) demarc
c) local loop
d) last mile
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Dial-up
Explanation: The location at which the PSTN service provider comes into a local home or business is
called the demarc (short for demarcation ) point. The responsibility of the PSTN or other network
providers responsibility ends here. What goes on inside the customers home or business is the
customers responsibility. What happens from the demarc point outward is the service providers
responsibility.
25. What is the first popular standard meant to replace POTS that can carry voice, video, and other
services in a digital format over the PSTN?
a) V.44
b) ISDN
c) ATM
d) DSL
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy

Section Reference: ISDN


Explanation: The Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) is a set of standards designed to carry voice,
video, data, and other services in a digital format over the PSTN. Because ISDN is intended to be used
over the PSTN, it uses circuit-switching technology to establish, maintain, and release connections.
26. What is the throughput of a B channel on a BRI-ISDN?
a) 8 kbps
b) 16 kbps
c) 64 kbps
d) 128 kbps
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: ISDN
Explanation: The green wire represents the D channel, which is also known as the signaling channel or
control channel. The B channel has a throughput of 64 kbps.
30. What technology allows you to connect over the Internet using PSTN while talking on the phone?
a) cable
b) DSL
c) ATM
d) VoIP
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: DSL Technologies
Explanation: Digital subscriber lines (DSLs) come in several variations, but all of them have some
common attributes. The main common attribute is that they can use the PSTN because they use a higher
frequency than voice communications to carry data. This means that line filters can be used to filter out
the DSL signal for voice communications so they are not interfered with by the DSL data signal.
34. What early packet-switched network technology was originally designed for analog technology?
a) X.25
b) Frame Relay
c) cable modem
d) ATM
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: X.25
Explanation: The X.25 technology was developed in the 1970s as a means to use packet-switched
communications in a WAN environment. This technology is not as widely used today because it has been
replaced by newer alternatives. X.25 was originally designed as an analog technology. It also does error
checking on the packets it passes through.
36. What is the speed of a T-3 line?
a) 1.544 mbps
b) 4.5 mbps
c) 10.0 mbps
d) 44.7 mbps
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: T-Lines

Explanation: T-Lines, also called T-Carriers and sometimes T-CXR, refer to a group of technologies that
used various means of digital multiplexing used in telecommunications. T-3 line can carry 672 channels
and 44.736 mbps data.
37. What WAN technology is based on cells that are 53 bytes in size?
a) T-1
b) Frame Relay
c) ATM
d) DSL
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: ATM
Explanation: The name Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) derives from ATM using asynchronous time
division multiplexing to break up communications into small frame-like segments called cells. ATM cells
are a fixed size; unlike frames, which they resemble, they cannot have variable sizes. The set size of ATM
cells is 5 bytes for header and an additional 48 bytes for data. Therefore, the total size of an ATM cell is
53 bytes.
40. Which of the following is used create a secure connection to a corporate network from home using the
Internet as the network medium?
a) VPN
b) ATM
c) Frame Relay
d) ISDN-BRI
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: VPN
Explanation: The Virtual Private Network (VPN) technology is commonly used by corporations to allow
their users to gain remote access to their corporate servers. VPN is so commonly used for this purpose
because it can use the Internet to establish these connections.

Вам также может понравиться