Australian Biology Olympiad 2008

BIOLOGY
2008 National Qualifying Examination
Time Allowed:
Reading Time: 15 minutes
Examination Time: 120 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS
! Attempt all questions
! Permitted materials: Non-programmable, NON-GRAPHICAL calculator, pens,
pencils, erasers and a ruler.
! Answer SECTIONS A and B on the ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED.
! Answer SECTION C in the answer booklet provided. Write in pen and use
pencil only for graphs.
! Do not write on this question paper. It will not be marked.
! Particular attention should be paid to giving clear diagrams and explanations.
! All numerical answers must have correct units.
! Marks will not be deducted for incorrect answers.
MARKS
SECTION A
SECTION B
SECTION C
47 multiple choice questions

17 written answer questions
5 written answer questions
47 marks
17 marks
36 marks
Total marks for the paper
100 marks
Australian Science Olympiads
2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE

USE THE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED
1. Which of the following is the BEST reason for including protein in the diet?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Energy for the body.

Fibre for digestion.
Raw materials for cell growth and repair.
Vitamins for fighting disease.
2. Which of the following organisms are used to convert milk into yoghurt?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Bacteria.
Protozoa.
Viruses.
Algae.
Fungi.
3. The growth of some plants can be improved by spreading bone meal (ground-up bones)
around their roots. What does bone meal supply to plants that improves growth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Energy.
Minerals.
Vitamins.
Carbon dioxide.
4. Tissues are found in living things. What is the definition of a tissue?

a.
b.
c.
d.
A group of cells with similar structure and function.

A group of cells with different structure and function working together.
A group of organelles contained inside a cell.
The substances that constitute the walls of a cell.
5. Which one of the following characteristics is most likely to be found in mammals that are
subject to predation by other mammals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Eyes on the sides of head.

Teeth that are long and pointed.
Claws on the feet.
Ears that cannot move.
6. Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Digestion of food.
Protection against disease.
Transport of waste materials away from the tissues.
Transport of oxygen to different parts of the body.
7. Malaria is a disease in humans caused by the protozoan parasite Plasmodium, which is

transmitted by mosquitoes. The drug chloroquine has been widely used to treat malaria for
several decades. Recently, the number of malaria cases not responding to chloroquine has
increased.
What of the following is the most likely explanation?
a. Malaria sufferers are now excreting chloroquine before it can kill the parasite.
b. Mutations conferring chloroquine resistance now arise more frequently in
Plasmodium.
c. Chloroquine favours the survival and reproduction of resistant parasites.
d. A new species of Plasmodium has emerged.
8. Which of the following features of the platypus is characteristic of mammals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Predation of other animals.

Production of milk.
Nesting and laying of eggs.
Webbed feet.
9. Eukaryotic genes tend to consist of coding regions (exons) and non-coding regions
(introns). The figure shows how such a gene leads to the production of a protein.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which of the following statements is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Thymine content of (1) and (2) is approximately equal.

The process occurring between (2) and (3) takes place in the cytosol.
(4) can hybridise with (2).
The number of amino acid residues in (5) must equal the number of nucleotide
residues in (2).
e. All processes occurring between (3) and (5) take place in the nuclei.
10. Seeds develop from which part of the plant?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Flower.
Leaf.
Root.
Stem.
11. When an active muscle cell experiences a shortage of oxygen the pH changes due to the
build up of certain by-products of energy metabolism. Which of the following correctly lists
the nature of the pH change and the major substance responsible?
pH change
substance
a.
decrease
carbon dioxide
b.
decrease
lactic acid
c.
increase
carbon dioxide
d.
increase
lactic acid
e.
decrease
pyruvate
12. The graphs below show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity.
Q
rate of
reaction
S
temperature
pH
Which statement explains the enzyme activity at the point shown?

a.
b.
c.
d.
At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate.

At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest.
At R, peptide bonds in the enzyme begin to break.
At S, the substrate is completely denatured.
13. The following graph shows the effect of pH on the structure of a protein that consists
entirely of repeating residues of a single amino acid.
increasing
symmetry
Which of the following statements is

a.
b.
c.
d.
pH
true?
At pH2 the protein has lost its secondary structure.

At pH2 the protein has lost its tertiary structure.
At pH10 the protein has lost its primary structure.
At pH10 the protein has lost its secondary structure.
14. The primary reason scientists repeat the measurements they take during experiments is
so that they can:
a.
b.
c.
d.
check that the equipment is working.

list all the results in a table.
estimate experimental error.
change the experimental conditions.
15. The body can reduce local blood flow by constricting blood vessels. This is particularly
important in
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
thermal regulation.
preventing capillary rupture.
absorbing the correct amount of waste carbon dioxide.
lengthening the lifespan of red blood cells.
keeping the walls of thicker blood vessels elastic, in case of damage.
16. Which of the following characteristics of water makes life on Earth possible?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
It has a low specific heat capacity.

It has a low heat of vaporisation.
It has a low relative surface tension.
It is found in all three states in the natural environment.
The liquid form is denser than the solid.
17. Identical animal cells were placed in solutions of differing water potentials. The diagram
shows the volume of the cells at the start and the end of the experiment. Which cell was
placed in the solution with the lowest (most negative) water potential?
volume at start
end result
A
18. Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex. It is regulated by ACTH, a hormone

secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Normally, negative feedback occurs where
aldosterone inhibits the secretion of ACTH.
Addisons disease occurs when the aldosterone secreting cells of the adrenal cortex are
impaired, resulting in lowered aldosterone secretion. Which of the following test results best
confirms the presence of Addisons disease?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The injection of ACTH fails to increase the secretion of aldosterone.

The ACTH level in the blood is low.
The level of aldosterone in the blood is low.
The administration of aldosterone alleviates symptoms.
The removal of the adrenal cortex worsens symptoms.
19. Insulin is an important protein hormone in the regulation of blood glucose levels.
Insulin-dependent diabetics are unable to synthesise their own insulin and must rely on the
biotechnology industry to produce the insulin they cannot. Mature insulin consists of 2
polypeptide chains linked by several disulfide bonds. To synthesise correctly assembled
insulin, the two amino acid chains are generated in separate strains of E. coli and purified.
The purified chains are then combined under conditions favouring disulfide formation.
Which of the following aspects of insulin structure remain unchanged throughout this
process?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Primary structure.
Tertiary structure.
Quaternary structure.
All aspects of structure are altered during this process.
All aspects of structure remain unchanged during this process but differ from the
structure of insulin produced in healthy individuals.
20. The primary production of an ecosystem is the amount of biomass added through
photosynthesis, measured in g/m2/year.
Average Primary
Production (g/m2/yr)
Percentage of Total Primary

Production of Earth
125
2200
2500
24
22
2
Open ocean
Tropical rainforest
Algal beds and reefs
What is the most likely reason for the disparity between the average primary production and
the percentage of the total primary production of the earth of the different ecosystems?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cyanobacteria in the ocean can fix carbon into biomass at very high rates.
Algae fix carbon very slowly.
Algae fix carbon at the highest rates.
Algal beds make up a much lower proportion of the total surface area of the earth
than the open ocean.
e. Phytoplankton in the ocean have a very high turnover rate.
21. The proportion of adenine bases in a sample of DNA was found to be 12%. Which of the
following statements is true? The proportion of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
uracil bases in the sample is 12%.

uracil bases in the sample is 88%.
thyroxine bases in the sample is 12%.
cytosine bases in the sample is 38%.
cytosine bases in the sample is 12%.
22. Consider the following diagrams:
Which of the specimens shown above is most closely related to specimen E?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Specimen A.
Specimen B.
Specimen C.
Specimen D.
23. An investigator measured the amount of oxygen used by brine shrimps living in 3% and
15% salt solutions. The results are presented in the graph below.
The investigator also made the following observations:
Brine-shrimp living in 15% salt solution were less active than those in 3%
salt solution.
The animals grew less rapidly in the 15% salt solution.
Females living in 3% salt solution produced more eggs.
What hypothesis was being investigated?

a. Brine-shrimp have the ability to maintain a uniform internal concentration of salt.
b. The cells of the brine-shrimp performing the work of active transport require extra
oxygen.
c. Brine-shrimp living in a 15% salt solution pump water instead of pumping salt.
d. A 15% salt solution contains less dissolved oxygen than 3% salt solution.
24. In the 1960s the drug cholesterlower, after the usual period of carefully monitored
clinical trials, was declared by its manufacturers to be safe and very effective at lowering
cholesterol levels in the blood. The World Health Organisation carried out exactly the same
kind of trial on the drug but for a much longer period than the usual five years. The results in
1980 showed that the mortality rate from all causes was 25% higher for those on
cholesterlower than for those who, though similar in other respects, had not taken the drug.
Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?
a. The five-year trial period may not be sufficient to identify all drug side effects.
b. Taking cholesterlower reduces life expectancy by 25%.
c. Cholesterlower is less effective at reducing cholesterol levels than was at first
thought.
d. After the original trials, the manufacturers concealed the side effects of
cholesterlower.
e. The monitoring programme instigated by the World Health Organisation was carried
out efficiently.
25. A study investigating the factors contributing to evolutionary changes in animal size was
conducted. The mean size of all mammals in a region of North America was calculated (using
data from the fossil record) for a period of 10 million years. The temperature in the region
was also calculated and graphs representing the findings are shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the trend evident in the graphs?
a. Larger animals can more easily avoid predation, thus having a selective advantage
during cold periods when food is scarce.
b. Larger animals produce less CO2 through respiration, which contributes to low
atmospheric CO2 levels and decreases global temperature.
c. The cold climate stimulates animals to grow larger, a characteristic they then pass on
to their offspring.
d. Larger animals use energy to heat themselves more efficiently and have a selective
advantage during cold periods.
e. The increased surface area to volume ratio of larger mammals gives them a selective
advantage during cold periods.
26. What is the primary function of large leaves found on seedlings growing on the forest
floor?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Provision of shade for their root systems.

Elimination of excess water that is entering via the roots.
To allow for leaf damage by insects.
Acquisition of as much light as possible for photosynthesis.
Use the following information to answer questions 27-29.

A microbiologist was testing the effect of antibiotics on one strain of pathogenic bacteria. She
plated out the bacteria on a suitable agar medium and placed small discs soaked in antibiotic
solutions of equal concentration on the agar. She then incubated the plates under matched
conditions and measured the region of no growth surrounding the discs. The following
results were obtained.
Antibiotic
1
2
3
4
5
Diameter of zone with no bacterial growth (mm)

Experiment
8
19
15
9
10
Positive control
22
23
21
24
23
Negative control
2
0
1
3
2
27. Which antibiotic appears to be the most effective?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1
2
3
4
5
28. What would be a suitable negative control for this experiment?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Antibiotic discs but no bacteria.

Antibiotic discs and a different, antibiotic-resistant strain of bacteria.
Discs soaked in a harmless solution and the same strain of bacteria.
Discs soaked in a known toxic solution and the same strain of bacteria.
Antibiotic discs and yeast.
29. There is at least one variable that the microbiologist has not controlled in this experiment.
What is it?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The amount of antibiotic applied to the agar.

The strain of bacteria used.
The temperature at which the plates were incubated.
The rate at which the antibiotic solutions diffuse through the agar.
The amount of moisture available to the bacteria.
10
30. Consider the following diagram and key:
The following key has been devised for a group of toadstool fungi.
1a
1b
2a
2b
3a
3b
4a
4b
5a
5b
Gills present under cap

Gills not present under cap
Basal cup absent
Basal cup present
Gills pink, turning brown
Gills not as above
Cap red with white flecks
Cap white
Annulus present
Annulus absent
2
5
3
4
Psalliota campestris
Lepiota gracilenta
Amanita muscaria
Rozites australiensis
Boletus elegans
Hydnum repandum
Using the above key the following specimen may be identified as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Lepiota gracilenta.
Amanita muscaria.
Rozites australiensis.
Boletus elegans.
Hydnum repandum.
11

!3
31. The diagram shows a red blood cell and the concentrations of ions, in mmol dm , in the
plasma and the cell.
Which ions are actively transported into and out of the cell?
into cell
ClK+
Na+
Na+
a.
b.
c.
d.
out of cell
K+
Na+
ClK+
32. Use the pedigree below showing the inheritance of a recessive characteristic in a family.
Which one of the lists given in the answer key below contains individuals in this pedigree who
are definitely heterozygous for the recessive characteristic?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1, 2 and 7.
3, 6 and 7.
1, 3 and 6.
1, 5 and 6.
12
Use the following information to answer the questions 33-34.

The diagram below shows a food web. Arrows represent the direction of energy flow and a
different letter represents each species.
D
A
B
C
Z
Answer
key
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Type of organism
Primary consumer
Primary producer
Tertiary consumer
Herbivore
Decomposer
33. Which answer most correctly describes the role of organisms D ? Select your response
from the above key.
34. Which answer most correctly describes the role of organisms Z? Select your response
from the above key.
35. When pure breeding black Andalusian chickens are crossed with pure breeding white
Andalusian chickens the first generation offspring are all grey in colour (known as blue
Andalusians). What is the expected phenotypic ratio when two of these blue Andalusians
are mated and produce offspring?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25% grey, 50% black, 25% white.

50% black, 50% white.
25% black, 50% grey, 25% white.
50% black, 50% grey.
13
36. A few shoots from the water plant, Elodea, were placed upside down in water and
illuminated. Bubbles of constant size that were emitted from the leaves and stem were
counted and the rate of bubble formation calculated at various light intensities. The results are
summarised in the following figure.
The above experiment was repeated but a strong bicarbonate solution was added to provide
an excess of CO2. The results are shown in the following figure.
What does experiment 2 tell us about experiment 1?

a.
b.
c.
d.
CO2 is the limiting factor at X in experiment 1.

Light can be made to be limiting by decreasing other factors.
Temperature is limiting at Y in experiment 2.
CO2 is limiting at X in experiment 2.
37. A scientific study seeks to establish the optimum water temperature for growing trout
under farming conditions. Which of the following factors is likely to be an unavoidable
source of experimental error?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Length of study being curtailed by trout lifespan.

Death of trout at extremely high or low temperatures.
Cost of keeping trout tanks at different temperatures.
Variation of optimum temperature between individuals.
Obtaining accurate measurements of trout growth.
14
Use the following information to answer the questions 38-39

The gag reflex is a reflex contraction of the muscles of the throat, which stops material from
entering the throat (except in swallowing) and helps to prevent choking. The sensory nerve in
this reflex is the glossopharyngeal nerve, and the motor nerve to the throat muscles is the
vagus nerve. For questions 38-39, match the correct label to the components of the gag reflex.
Each may be used once, more than once or not at all.
a.
Afferent limb
b.
Efferent limb
c.
Integrator
d.
Signal
e.
Receptor
38. Glossopharyngeal nerve.

39. Pressure sensors in the throat.
40. Periodically, the sun develops relatively cool dark areas known as sunspots. Scientists
have found that periods of high sunspot activity coincide with stormy periods on Earth. Hence
sunspots cause storms on Earth. Which of the following is the best statement of the flaw in
the argument above?
a. It disputes the fact that storms are the result of low-pressure systems in the Earth's
atmosphere.
b. It ignores the influence of periods of low sunspot activity on Earth's weather systems.
c. It assumes that because sunspots and storms occur at the same time, sunspots cause
storms.
d. It overlooks the fact that there is always a storm somewhere on Earth.
e. It ignores the fact that there are stormy periods in some areas but not in others while
there is sunspot activity.
41. A DNA segment has this nucleotide sequence:
AAGCTCTTACGAATATTC
Which mRNA sequence is complementary to this sequence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
AAGCTCTTACGAATATTC
TTCGAGAATGCTTATAAG
AAGCUCUUACGAAUAUUC
UUCGAGAAUGCUUAUAAG
15
42. The diagram below represents the relationships between organisms in a remote pond
ecosystem.
Consumer 4
Consumer 3
Consumer 1
Producer 1
Detritivore 1
Consumer 2
Producer 2
Producer 3
From this information which of the following is the most likely to be correct?
a. DDT introduced to the ecosystem would be in highest concentration in the tissues of
Detritivore 1.
b. The introduction of consumer 4 individuals from an external population would lead to
a temporary increase in numbers of producer 2.
c. Disease in the producer 1 population would lead to an increase in the producer 3
population.
d. Extermination of consumer 3 would cause a sustained increase in the population of
consumer 2.
e. Consumer 1 is more adaptable with regards to its food source than consumer 3.
43. In humans, the hormone insulin is secreted by the pancreas in response to increased blood
glucose levels. Insulin helps cells take up glucose from the bloodstream. Type II diabetes is a
condition where body cells lose their sensitivity to insulin.
How will a person with type II diabetes respond to a rise in blood glucose?
Blood insulin levels
a.
b.
c.
No change
Increase
Decrease
16
44. Different types of cells from the same organism can be distinguished by the different
proteins they produce. Scientists often use these differences to identify subtly different cell
types that look morphologically identical. The figure below shows two graphs representing
the presence of particular proteins on the surface of a heterogenous cell population isolated
from the blood. For example the graph on the left depicts three distinct cell subsets within the
population; cells lacking both protein A and protein B (AnegBneg), cells with protein A but not
protein B (AposBneg) and cells with both protein A and protein B (AposBpos). The plot on the
right depicts the same cell population but is looking at the protein markers A and C.
Bpos
Cpos
Bneg
Cneg
Aneg
Apos
Aneg
Apos
From the information provided which of the following is true of this cell population?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
There is a cell subset which is AnegBnegCneg.

All Bneg cells are Cpos.
There is a cell subset positive for all three proteins.
All Bpos cells are Cneg.
There are more Bneg cells than Bpos cells.
45. Consider the following key:

1a
1b
2a
2b
3a
3b
4a
4b
5a
5b
6a
6b
7a
7b
8a
8b
9a
9b
Wings present
Wings absent
With one pair of wings
With two pairs of wings
Front wings of coarser texture than hind wings
All wings membranous. May be hair or scale covered
Basal two-thirds of front wing thickened, remainder membranous
Whole of front wing of same texture
Front wings hard and horny
Front wings slightly thickened with distinct veins
Mouthparts of piercing type
Mouthparts of biting type
Hind legs much longer than other legs
All legs more or less equal in length
Wings and body completely covered by fine scales or hairs
Wings without scales or hairs
Hind and front wings linked by a row of hooks. Front of abdomen
narrowed to form a 'waist'
Wings not joined. No 'waist'
17
2
Order Apterygota
Order Diptera
3
4
8
Order Hemiptera
5
Order Coleoptera
6
Order Hemiptera
7
Order Orthoptera
Order Blattodea
Order Lepidoptera
9
Order Hymenoptera
Order Odonata
Lepidoptera would have the following characteristics:

a.
b.
c.
d.
two pairs of membranous wings covered in fine scales.

one pair of membranous wings lacking scales or hairs.
two pairs of wings, the front pair being of coarse texture.
two pairs of membranous wings which are not hooked together and lack hairs or
scales.
Relative Activity
Variant A
Variant D
Variant C
Variant B
Relative Activity
46. The enzyme subtilisin is a protease, originally found in the bacteria Bacillus subtilis, that
is produced in vast quantities annually for use in laundry powders (Have you ever wondered
about the mysterious enzymes mentioned in all those laundry powder ads?). In order to
generate washing powders that work over a range of different conditions, subtilisin has been
the focus of many protein engineers attempting (and succeeding) to create subtilisin variants
that have optimal activity in conditions other than those naturally occurring in B.subtilis. The
graphs below show the activities of engineered subtilisin variants over a range of
temperatures and pH.
Variant B
Variant A
Variant C
Variant D
pH
Temperature (C)
Which variant would be most appropriate for use in a cold water laundry detergent at 20oC?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A.
B.
C.
D.
18
47. When an elephant jumps off a very tall platform, it initially gains speed rapidly. Its
acceleration decreases due to air resistance until it reaches terminal velocity. The elephant
then falls at this velocity until it opens its parachute. The parachute slows down the elephant
until it reaches a new steady speed, which it maintains until it reaches the ground.
Which of these graphs shows this?
speed
speed
a.
b.
time
time
speed
speed
c.
d.
time
speed
e.
time
END OF SECTION A
19
time
SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

USE THE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED TO WRITE YOUR ANSWER
DO NOT USE THE ANSWER BOOKLET
48. (1 mark) What percentage of offspring from an AaBB x aaBb cross will be either AaBb
OR aaBB? Write your answer as a percentage on the section B answer sheet.
49. (1 mark) Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals of a given genotype who
display the associated phenotype. For example in a particular plant seed coat colour can be
either brown or red. The brown phenotype is seen in all individuals with genotypes RR or Rr
and 40% of individuals with genotype rr. The remaining 60% of individuals with genotype rr
have the red phenotype. Red seed coat is therefore said to be 60% penetrant.
What proportion of the seeds resulting from the crossing of genotype Rr with Rr would have
brown seed coats? Write your answer as a percentage on the section B answer sheet.
50. (1 mark) Tinkerbell has 2 pigs. She estimates the weight of one as being 85 kg and the
other as about 72 kg. She has ready access to a cheap source of potatoes but wishes to feed
her pigs a 50/50 nutritional mix of potatoes and meal. Two tables from her feed book are
reproduced below.
State of pig
80 kg bacon
weight
Nutritional equivalents to 1 kg of
meal
Amount of
meal to feed
each day(for
feeding meal
alone)
2.5 kg
60 kg -80 kg
2.0 kg
50 kg -60 kg
1.8 kg
40 kg -50 kg
1.6 kg
30 kg -40 kg
1.4 kg
20 kg -30 kg
1.0 kg
Weaners 8 10
weeks
Weaners 6
weeks to
weaning
Up to 1.0 kg
Carrots
8 kg
Comfrey
5 kg
Grass
5 kg
Kale
7 kg
Potatoes
5 kg
Skim milk
Swedes
6 litres
8 kg
Whey
9 -10 kg
250 g -350 g
ccccc
How much meal should Tinkerbell feed her pigs each day? Calculate an amount in kg that
would be sufficient to feed both pigs. Write your answer on the section B answer sheet.
20
51. (1 mark) An organism that reproduces sexually has the genotype AaBbCcDd. How
many unique haploid gametes can this organism generate? Write your answer as a whole
number on the section B answer sheet.
52. (1 mark) Farmer Pan is planning to use a 10 acre field to supply winter silage for his
cattle and hay for his sheep. He reckons to get 100 bales of hay from each acre. Before cutting
the hay he will first cut an acre round the edge of the field as silage. This allows him to
manoeuvre his hay making machinery. After making his hay in June he will cut the whole
field as second cut silage in August and again as third cut silage in September. His farm
manual provides the following information.
How many bales of silage will Farmer Pan have at the end of his harvest? Write your answer
as a whole number on the section B answer sheet.
As silage
As hay
First cut
7 bales per acre
100 small bales per acre
Second cut
5 bales per acre
Not applicable
Third cut
4 bales per acre
Not applicable
53. (1 mark) To measure the amount of air in soil, four steps were followed as
illustrated in the diagram below, using identical beakers throughout.
Calculate the % (by volume) of air in the soil sample. Write your answer as a
percentage on the section B answer sheet.
21

An experiment is set up to test if chemical X is mutagenic.
Alanine is an amino acid that is essential for bacterial growth. Many bacteria can synthesise
alanine from pyruvate as shown by the reaction below:
A particular strain of Escherichia coli has a point mutation in the gene that codes for enzyme
Y, which makes the enzyme non-functional. This strain of E. coli was inoculated onto agar
plates and incubated for 24 hours. Additional chemicals were added as shown below.
Plate A Alanine and pyruvate
Plate B Pyruvate only
Plate C Pyruvate and a known mutagen
Plate D Pyruvate and chemical X
After incubation the plates were removed and inspected. The results are represented in the
diagram below:
54. (1 mark) Which of the plates serve(s) as a positive control? Write your answer
on the section B answer sheet.
Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Mark the answer sheet
either T or F.
55. (1 mark) The growth on plate A indicates that alanine is a potent mutagen.
56. (1 mark) On plates C and D, colonies grow only when a mutation has occurred in the
faulty gene for enzyme Y.
57. (1 mark) The difference in number of colonies on plates C and D must be due to
differing concentrations of the mutagens.
58. (1 mark) Plate B is unnecessary for the purposes of this experiment.
59. (1 mark) Repetition would improve the accuracy of the results.
22

Below is a pedigree showing members of a particular family affected by a disease that can
lead to kidney failure.
By examining the pedigree, determine whether the following statements are true or false.
For questions 60-62, mark the answer sheet either T or F.
60. (1 mark) The lack of affected individuals in generations I and III indicates the disorder
arises from a spontaneous mutation.
61. (1 mark) There is sufficient information to conclude that the trait is X-linked.
62. (1 mark) Individual III3 is heterozygous for the trait
63. (1 mark) Assuming that the trait is X-linked, determine the probability that individual
IV1 (sex unknown) is affected by the disorder. Write your answer as a decimal fraction on
section B answer sheet.
64. (1 mark) Assuming that the trait is X-linked, determine the probability that individual
IV1 (sex unknown) is a carrier of the disorder. Write your answer as a decimal fraction on
the section B answer sheet.
23
SECTION C: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

USE THE ANSWER BOOKLET PROVIDED TO WRITE YOUR ANSWER
65. (19 marks total) During photosynthesis, plants use light energy to incorporate carbon,
sourced from CO2, into glucose molecules. Photosynthesis can be studied by providing
radioactive CO2 (labelled with carbon-14) to plants and determining the amount of
radioactive carbon present in plant tissue.
A healthy plant was kept for 24 hours in an enclosed environment at constant temperature and
humidity, with a constant supply of oxygen and radioactive CO2. The apparatus was set up
near a window so the plant would be exposed to natural light.
Leaf samples were taken at 3 hour intervals and the amount of radioactivity present
determined. The results are shown below.
Time point (hours)
Radioactivity in leaf tissue

(counts per minute)
67
88
124
153
161
159
157
155
181
0
3
6
9
12
15
18
21
24
a. (5 marks) Plot the data in the table above on the axes provided.
b. (1 mark) Approximately what range of time points corresponds to night time?
c. (3 marks) Describe and explain the shape of your graph during the time period in part b.
d. (2 marks) The experiment is repeated using a similar plant, the leaves of which have been
smeared with oil before the experiment starts. On your graph, draw and label a line to show
the level of radioactivity in leaf tissue under these conditions for the same time period.
e. (4 marks) In another experiment, radioactive water (where the oxygen atoms were
radioactively labelled) was added to plants. No radioactivity was detected in leaves. How
might you account for this?
In another experiment, Farmer Loo investigated the effects of two different strains (707 and
313) of Rhizobium on the growth of a leguminous plant. The results are given in the table
below.
Fertiliser added
(kg/ha)
0
20
40
No Rhizobium
7.0
8.4
9.4
Fresh mass per plant (g)

Strain 707
Strain 313
12.4
9.7
7.7
7.7
6.6
8.0
f. (2 marks) Draw a bar chart to represent the data given.

g. (2 marks) Summarise the trend shown by the data.
24
66. (6 marks total) The graph shows two methods by which immunity can be brought about.
120
passive
active
100
(arbitrary units)
immunity
level of
Level of immunity
(arbitrary units)
80
Safe level of immunity
60
Unsafe level of immunity
40
20
0
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90
100
days since injection given
A safe level of immunity is given at 60 arbitrary units.

a.
(2 marks) How long does it take for each method to give a safe level of immunity?
I. Active
II. Passive
b.
(2 marks) Which method becomes ineffective first and after how long?
c.
(2 marks) With reference to the data in the graph compare the active and passive
immune responses.
25
67. (5 marks total) Flowering in flowering plants is regulated by photoperiodism, which is

the relative lengths of daylight to darkness. Plants may be long day plants, short day plants or
neutral to the effects of the daylength.
Consider the following information.
There is a plant pigment that exists in two forms, P660 and P730.
P660 has a maximum light absorption around 660 nm (red light) and P730 has a maximum light
absorption around 730nm (far red light).
Red light is absorbed by P660 which converts it to P730.
Far red light is absorbed by P730 which converts it to P660.
P730 in the dark slowly converts to P660 and it is this slow conversion that is the clock
by which the plant measures night length.
Flowering in long day plants is stimulated only if the level of P730 stays above a critical value.
Flowering in short day plants is stimulated only if the level of P730 drops below a critical
value.
a.
(2 marks) Draw a simple flow chart to illustrate the interconversion between P660
and P730.
A number of Poinsettia plants were subjected to three different patterns of illumination (blank
spaces) and darkness (black spaces). The following results were obtained.
No flowering
Flowering
No flowering
0
12
24
Time (hrs)
b.
(3 marks) Using the information above, deduce whether Poinsettias are long day
plants, short day plants or day neutral plants. Explain your answer.
68. (4 marks) Draw up a table comparing the causes and effects of global warming and the
depletion of the ozone layer.
69. (2 marks) Sam the scholar was doing a thought experiment one day, idly weighing out
20mL of water for an osmosis experiment on a balance. He put his thumb into the beaker of
water, thereby displacing the water. Never mind, he reasoned, its not the volume thats
important; its the mass Im after. Would the mass of the water increase, decrease or stay the
same? Explain.
26
You have finished. Yay!
Integrity of the Competition

To ensure the integrity of the competition and to identify outstanding students the
competition organisers reserve the right to re-examine or disqualify any student or
group of students before determining a mark or award where there is evidence of
collusion or other academic dishonesty.
Acknowledgements:
The examiners gratefully acknowledge contributions from a variety of sources including the
following:
Chris Maslanka, writer of the Pyrgic Puzzles column, the Guardian newspaper for the germ
of an idea in question 69.
27
2008 National Qualifying Exam Biology

Solutions
Section A & B (Multiple Choice)
Question
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Q16
Q17
Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

C
A
B
A
A
A
C
B
C
A
B
A
D
C
A
E
A
Q18
Q19
Q20
Q21
Q22
Q23
Q24
Q25
Q26
Q27
Q28
Q29
Q30
Q31
Q32
Q33
Q34
A
A
D
D
A
B
A
D
D
B
C
D
D
B
D
C
E
Q35
Q36
Q37
Q38
Q39
Q40
Q41
Q42
Q43
Q44
Q45
Q46
Q47
Q48
Q49
Q50
Q51
C
A
D
A
E
C
D
B
B
D
A
D
A
50
85
2.25kg
16
Q52
Q53
Q54
Q55
Q56
Q57
Q58
Q59
Q60
Q61
Q62
Q63
Q64
97
25
A and C
F
T
F
F
T
F
F
T
0.25
0.25
Section C
We will always set a graphing question and expect students to determine the most
appropriate format, size and choice (bar, line etc) of graph. Too few students write an
appropriate title: radioactivity vs time is not a meaningful title. The title should reflect the
content of the graph properly, describing the relationship between the variables.
65. a). Marks are awarded for title, correct orientation of axes, labelling of axes with units,
scale, plotting and drawing a line graph. Mean score for the whole question: 7.9
b). Approx 12-21. Allow 10-22

c). Describe (1) level of radioactivity increases at first, levels off for about 12 hours, then
rises again.
Explain (2) relate the increased levels of radioactivity to periods of carbon fixation and
photosynthesis: the levelling off, slight decrease to periods of no photosynthesis, even some
loss as a result of respiration.

Solutions
d). Drawn (1) and labelled (1) on the graph: we expect to see no rise in radioactivity in this
sample from the same starting point.
e). This was most creatively answered and suggests that students are not well informed
about the nature of radioactivity: some of the following were common responses: it will
dissipate on its way to the leaf; radioactivity is left behind in the soil; the Caspian strip will
stop it coming into the plant; insufficient carbon dioxide / sunlight / temperature humidity;
oxygen is not required by the plant in any form; radioactivity is taken up by roots and not by
the leaves; oxygen was already in the plant so it didnt take up any radioactive oxygen;
Examiners were looking for a response to the information (data) given. We are not expecting
students to be well versed in the complexities of biochemistry: we want to test understanding
and reasoning. This question does that well: it was weighted for marks for suggesting that
water is split (2) during photosynthesis and the oxygen is released (2) as a waste product.
We prefer to test reasoning and understanding rather than knowledge directly and this is a
trend reflected in the International Biology Olympiad.
f. Marks were awarded for layout and labelling of the graph, which asks students to process
data: this is not beyond students in year 10. Graphing seems to be an issue for many
students and we would encourage some direct teaching about the principles of graphing. For
a user-friendly guide to graphing, look at:
http://www.lmpc.edu.au/resources/Science/research_projects/graphs/graphs.htm.nsw.edu.a
u
g). We would expect to see some of the following: the mass produced to increase in the
absence of Rhizobium when fertiliser is added and that when there is no Rhizobium present
that adding fertiliser will result in increased mass of plant produced. In future we will
increase the mark allocation for these types of questions in part f and g and expect to tease
more out of the data.
It was surprising how many students wrote about radioactivity in the Rhizobium infected
plants.
66. The answer booklet and the question paper were not set out to help or mislead students
and we regret any confusion because of the structuring of the answer booklet. Examiners
awarded marks for answers in any order in part a. to minimise effects of any confusion. Mean
score: 4.3
a. active: 24 days, passive 6 days. We allowed 1 day either side for 0.5 mark each.
b. Passive after 45 days: this is a graph reading skill
c. Compare means you need to refer to both active and passive in your answer: you can
get full marks from looking carefully at the data in the graph. Students should be
encouraged to develop this thinking skill.
Passive is fast acting compared to active; passive lasts a short time, whereas active
lasts longer and is safer for longer or words to that effect.
No prior knowledge of immune response was required. There were some elaborate
responses to include antibiotics, antibodies (seems to be a commonly held misconception
that the 2 are almost the same thing) secondary immune response, helper T cells, etc.
This is knowledge that we would not expect year 11 students to have.

Solutions
67. a). Students should be able to draw a simple flow chart given the information presented
such as:
red light / day
P660
dark(slow)
P 730
far red light

b). short day (1) night must be long enough or no flowering when short nights (1) P730 has
to drop below a critical level (1)
This question tests reasoning and logic and demands no prior knowledge. Mean score: 2.25
68. Environmental issues such as the ozone hole and global warming are covered in lower
school science lessons across Australia. Tabulating information / data should be within
students abilities.
An ideal student response would be tabulated such as:
Causes
Ozone depletion results from
chemical reactions high in the
upper atmosphere such as CFCs
used in the manufacture of coolants
whereas global warming (or the
enhanced greenhouse effect)
results from excess carbon
compounds such as methane,
carbon dioxide being released in
the atmosphere. Largely due to
industrialisation, combustion of
fossil fuel, cattle farming, waste
products cause heat to be reradiated back to the earth.
Effects
Increase in uv rays which
allow increases in mutation /
DNA damage / eg. skin
cancer whereas global
warming results in
widespread environmental
changes such as polar ice
caps melting / sea
temperatures / floods /
droughts etc
Examiners gave credit where due. The concepts were not well understood, with a mean score
of 1.7.
We expected a comparison to be made and factually correct responses to be described. We
were challenged by some students to verify the claims made (and did so) and we will continue
in the future to examine closely all student responses.
It was very disappointing that so many students are not well schooled in these issues,
particularly given the topical debate on the environment and the urgency to promote scientific
literacy in science lessons.

Solutions
69. We expect the level of the scale to rise, though the mass of the water would stay the
same. Look to Archimedes for an explanation.
In summary:
We expect students to be able to demonstrate the facility to list, identify, perform simple
numerical calculations, etc. through to more cognitively demanding tasks such as explain,
compare and evaluate. Some guided preparation for students might be appropriate so they
become accustomed to thinking about and responding to a variety of questions.
We will test directly knowledge that is specified by the curriculum bodies. This will include
simple Mendelian genetics (which should be covered by all students in year 10), scientific
processes and skills, environmental issues, nomenclature of biological organisms, simple
calculations and comprehension of lower school science topics, many at considerable depth.
The genetics questions in the multiple choice part of the paper (32 [mean of 0.47] and 35
[mean of 0.86] suggests reasonable grasp of genetics and the performance in questions 6064 was highly variable.
There will inevitably be questions on topics that teachers and students may not have covered
in school lessons but the range of marks on this paper (less than 10% to 92%) suggests that
many students are very well equipped with strong biological knowledge and the confidence to
tackle difficult questions. At the other end of the scale, many other students experience a
challenging paper for which they seem unprepared.
We strongly discourage students in year 9 from entering and would discourage entering whole
classes. The NQEs are aimed at the most able science students in Australia, and should not be
regarded as an opportunity to grade a whole class of students. We recommend that only the
most able students in the school attempt the NQE for marking: once the paper has been
marked, schools are free to use this and our suggested answers in school for class teaching
purposes.
The evidence of collusion (identical scripts) in some papers from some schools suggests that
some care needs to be taken when supervising students to maintain the integrity of the paper
and competition.
We welcome suggestions, your input and feedback from teachers. We are always keen to
have new question writers and teacher input to devise fair, challenging and testing NQE
papers. We owe teachers a huge debt of thanks in managing the process at school level: in
identifying students who can benefit from the challenge of the NQE and in supervising and
supporting those most able in our schools.

Australian Biology Olympiad 2008

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BIOLOGY

2008 National Qualifying Examination

47 multiple choice questions

Total marks for the paper

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE

Energy for the body.

4. Tissues are found in living things. What is the definition of a tissue?

A group of cells with similar structure and function.

Eyes on the sides of head.

6. Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood?

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

7. Malaria is a disease in humans caused by the protozoan parasite Plasmodium, which is

Predation of other animals.

Thymine content of (1) and (2) is approximately equal.

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

10. Seeds develop from which part of the plant?

Which statement explains the enzyme activity at the point shown?

At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate.

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

Which of the following statements is

At pH2 the protein has lost its secondary structure.

check that the equipment is working.

It has a low specific heat capacity.

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

18. Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex. It is regulated by ACTH, a hormone

The injection of ACTH fails to increase the secretion of aldosterone.

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

Percentage of Total Primary

uracil bases in the sample is 12%.

22. Consider the following diagrams:

Which of the specimens shown above is most closely related to specimen E?

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

The investigator also made the following observations:

What hypothesis was being investigated?

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

Provision of shade for their root systems.

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

Use the following information to answer questions 27-29.

Diameter of zone with no bacterial growth (mm)

27. Which antibiotic appears to be the most effective?

28. What would be a suitable negative control for this experiment?

Antibiotic discs but no bacteria.

The amount of antibiotic applied to the agar.

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

30. Consider the following diagram and key:

Gills present under cap

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

Australian Science Olympiads

2008 Biology National Qualifying Examination

Use the following information to answer the questions 33-34.

25% grey, 50% black, 25% white.

Australian Science Olympiads