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Block 1

Defending the New Nation:


Who was the last active Continental Navy officer and the first U.S. Navy commissioned officer?
John Barry
Why were the border lakes between the U.S. and Canada of strategic importance during the War of 1812?
The Americans planned to win the war by conquering Canada and needed control of the lakes to do so.
Which of the following was NOT an innovation in naval warfare introduced by the U.S. between 1775 and 1815?
Who fought at anchor in Plattsburg Bay to nullify Royal Navy long guns and maximize American carronades, and won the most
strategic naval victory of the War of 1812?
Thomas Macdonough
During the War for independence, which countries came to the assistance of America with their navies?
France, Spain, and the Netherlands
How did the frigate Philadelphia complicate the Navys task in the War with Tripoli?
The crew was captured after the frigate ran aground in Tripoli Harbor and the Pasha of Tripoli demanded
for its three hundred sailors taken as prisoners of war.

ransom

In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in response to ____________________.
the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast

Sailing in Distant Waters:


Which of following changes in the naval service did NOT pertain to enlisted Sailors in the era before the Civil War?
Establishment of a retirement system
In what years did the Second Seminole War take place?
1835-1842
Between the War of 1812 and the Civil War, the Navy had a variety of missions. These included ____________________.
All of these answers are correct
In the years before the Civil War, U.S. Squadrons established a regular presence in ____________________.
the Mediterranean, off Africa and South America, in the Pacific, and in Asia
Which of the following tasks did the Navy NOT undertake in the Mexican War?
Blockade the coast of Cuba
What tactical advantage did steam power have over sail power in naval warfare?
Steam power enabled a warship to operate independent of the wind when engaged in battle.
____________________ designed a steam engine that was 40% more efficient, half the size, and significantly cheaper than
standard steam engines.
Benjamin Franklin Isherwood
Which war left the U.S. with two seacoasts to defend, and propelled the U.S. into Pacific affairs?
The Mexican War
Select True or False: To encourage temperance onboard vessels, in 1831 the Navy allowed Sailors to receive money in lieu of
the spirit, or grog ration.
True
____________________ commanded the South Sea Exploring Expedition from 1838 to 1842. This six-vessel expedition
surveyed South Pacific islands, charted continental coastlines, proved Antarctica is a continent, and collected natural history
and ethnological specimens that formed the basis of the Smithsonian Institution's collections.
Charles Wilkes
Which Antebellum Navy leader earned the title Pathfinder of the Seas for his contributions to ocean science?
Matthew F. Maury
What was the main advantage of the bottle-shape of the Dahlgren gun?
It kept the gun lighter by removing metal where it was not needed.

Which of the following accomplishments was NOT Matthew Fontaine Maurys?


Proved Antarctica is a continent.
What was the significance of Matthew C. Perrys expedition to Japan?
The Japanese opened their ports to American ships.

The Civil War and its Aftermath:


What did the Union naval blockade of the Confederacy accomplish?.
It captured transport vessels, creating acute supply shortages.
Which of the following best characterizes the Navy between 1866 and 1880?
Decreasing in size and deteriorating, with old and outmoded ships.
The Naval War College was established in 1884:
To provide officers the opportunity to study naval tactics, strategy, and policy.
What international developments stimulated resurgence of American naval power in the 1880s?
European nations competing and building large navies to defend their empires.
______________was in charge of Upper Mississippi River forces that participated in the captures of Fort Henry, Tennessee,
Fort Donelson, Tennessee, and Island Number Ten, in the Mississippi River.
Andrew Hull Foote
____________ made his first of several expeditions in 1886 that placed him in the vanguard of Arctic explorers.
Robert Edwin Peary
What did the Confederate raiders accomplish?
They drove the carrying of trade to foreign ships, hurting the U.S. Merchant Marine fleet.
Select True or False: Union forces controlled the western rivers, dividing the Confederacy and stopping Texas supplies from
reaching Confederate troops, a strategic advantage that resulted in greater mobility for Union troops.
True
Select True or False: After the Civil War the U.S. Navy fell into neglect, while navies of other countries modernized. In the
1880's, the U.S. Navy was modernized and joined the ranks of major world powers
True
In January 1865, the last Confederate port open to blockade-runners fell. Where was this port located?.
Wilmington, North Carolina
For what is David W. Taylor known?
Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading Squadron and led naval forces in the 1864 and
1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North Carolina?
David D. Porter
What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish?
It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops.

The Navy on a Global Stage:


Select True or False: In 1889, eleven nations had warship fleets larger than that of the United States, but less than two
decades later only the British Royal Navy was larger than the U.S. Navy.
True
What organization did the Navy establish to institutionalize the contribution of female medical personnel?
Navy Nurse Corps
Who was the strategic thinker and Naval War College professor who developed the Theory of Sea Power?
Alfred T. Mahan
What two new weapons systems of the early 20th century enabled the Navy to fight over and under the surface of the ocean?

The airplane and the submarine


The dawn of undersea warfare dates from 1900 with the launch of the ____________________.
USS Holland
As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, the United States and the other victorious Allied powers ____________.
drastically reduced their battle fleets, hoping to stop the arms race and prevent another global conflict.

WWII in the Atlantic and European Waters:


Select True or False: To man its tens of thousands of naval vessels, aircraft, and shore bases, the Navy enlisted over 3 million
Sailors.
True
The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women was due to wartime necessity and
____________________.
the growing American support for social equality
How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink during the war?
3000
The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called the ____________________.
Enigma
So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global operations and speak with one voice
about the need for convoy escort vessels, amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations established
an organization named the ______________.
Combined Chiefs of Staff
Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligencethe interception, decryption, and
reading of enemy radio signals?
Great Britain
Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on which of the following American minority
groups?
Women and African Americans
What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics?
Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll
For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully operated throughout the
____________________.
Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?
Jeep carrier
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?
True

WWII in the Pacific:


On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise Old Glory in February 1945?
Iwo Jima
Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the most decisive naval battle of WW II?
Midway
Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their Japanese
adversaries with very few casualties.
False
What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7, 1941?
Submarines and aircraft carriers

Select True or False: Improvements in the Navys logistical capabilities played a significant role in victories of the Pacific
campaign.
True
What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface and air naval forces?
Radar
August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?
Guadalcanal
What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor attack?
Submarines and aircraft carriers

The Cold War:


What was the first major armed conflict of the Cold War?
Korean War
Greater than 95% of supplies and logistical support for troops in Vietnam came from this organization:
Military Sealift Command (MSC)
Which fleet improvements were introduced in the Navy in the later Cold War years?
Ticonderoga-class cruisers and Los Angeles-class submarines
In what way did the U.S. Navy contribute to the successful resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962?
Navy ships blocked the delivery of Soviet missiles to Communist Cuba.
What was the U.S. strategy in the early period of the Cold War for dealing with the Soviet Union and its allies?
Containment Strategy
The Navy's Cold War mission was to enforce containment of the USSR and its allies through:
Maintenance of sea control in the world's oceans
Forward deployment of naval forces to the periphery of Communist bloc nations
Deployment at sea of nuclear-armed submarines to deter Soviet nuclear attack
Navy-wide directives, or Z-grams, that were issued to improve the life of enlisted Sailors were the inspiration of what Admiral?
Admiral Elmo R. Zumwalt, Jr.
At the climax of the Cold War 1989, the SECNAV had generated enough support to build the size of the Navy to almost
____________________ ships.
600
Why is the North Vietnamese naval attack on the USS Maddox in August 1964 important?
It prompted Congress to pass the Tonkin Gulf resolution, which authorized U.S. military operations in the Vietnam
Conflict.
What naval vessel types did the Navy deploy during the Cold War to discourage Soviet nuclear attacks on the United States?
Submarines armed with nuclear ballistic missiles
Which attack submarine was lost at sea with her entire crew while returning from operations in the Mediterranean Sea during
the Cold War?
USS Skorpion
Who were the first African American and female officers promoted to flag rank?
Samuel L. Gravely and Alene B. Duerk
The climax of the Cold War was marked by U.S. Naval involvement in conflicts such as ____________________.
Naval forces deployed to Grenada and Panama

Littoral Operations:
One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from a blue water navy to a navy that would
___________________.

project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world


The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in ___________________.
Somalia
What two U.S. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991
USS Princeton and USS Tripoli
What was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U.S. naval units escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through the
Persian Gulf?
Operation Earnest Will
What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U.S. naval forces protected Kuwaiti oil
tankers?
Tanker War
Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching Operation Praying Mantis?
USS Samuel B. Roberts
From which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored intervention failed?
Somalia
The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in the following areas:
Combat air squadrons
All major warships
Shore commands

Global War on Terrorism:


Select True or False: The destruction of terrorist cells following 9/11 was primarily confined to the Middle-East
False
Al Qaeda had established a training complex in ____________________, from which it supported terrorist activities worldwide.
Afghanistan
Select True or False: The United States, United Nations (UN), world governments, and international financial institutions
joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their sources of funding immediately following 9/11.
True
What was the Navys primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks?
Homeland security
Which U.S. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban forces in Afghanistan?
Operation Enduring Freedom
Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks, vehicles, and supplies needed for Operation Iraqi Freedom to staging
areas in Kuwait?
Military Sealift Command
Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to:
Liberate the Iraqi people
Promote democracy in Iraq
Block 2
Military Formations:
As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?
Attention
Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
From most senior award to most junior
Sailors are in a _________________, when placed in formation one behind the other?
File

Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution?


Baron von Steuben
Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
Precision and automatic response
As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors?
Prior to the seasonal uniform change

Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies:


What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is played?
Salute
What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
Staff Sergeant
What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
At six paces or closest point of approach
The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of _____________.
Chief Master Sergeant
What is meant by under arms?
When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
What is the U.S. Armys highest enlisted pay grade?
Sergeant Major
What is the definition of prescribable items?
Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with
uniform at the individuals discretion unless otherwise directed

basic

Fleet Response Plan:


When is a CSG considered surge ready?
When they have completed integrated phase training
When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable?
After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway
phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations

sustainment

At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is _________________.


a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP?
2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Presence with a purpose provides what?
Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter pulse employment
periods
The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories: ________________________.
emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed
Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet?
Sea Basing
What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days
The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days?
6

Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
Commander, Fleet Forces Command
The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of
specific national priorities such as _______________.
homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or
prosecution of
the Global War on Terrorism

Chief Petty Officer History:


In the early 1900s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Strengthen chief petty officer standards
According to the 1918 BlueJackets Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ________.
Technical expert and example setter
The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the _____.
hat device
On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a
defined role?
The top technical authority and expert within a rating
On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.
GMCM Delbert Black
The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to __________.
Strengthen chief petty officer standards
The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were _
______.
broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation
The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?
It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1.
On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first _____________.
Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy
The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year?
1946
The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to ______.
Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues
What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
Report directly to the Chief of Naval Personnel on enlisted retention rates
Manpower Management:
TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________.
resource sponsors
Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)
In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements

Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and
______________________.
personal inventory
TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to ____________________.
initiate AMD change requests
Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.
commands, Sailors
OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of
station (PCS) moves necessary for ________________________.
national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.
quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions?
Enlisted
Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Naval Customs:
In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?
All the answers are correct
The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen
All the answers are correct
The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the
United States
Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)?
All answers are correct
Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?
It is played today at many athletic events and parades
Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage. These days are
____________________.
Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Navy Hymn?
All the answers are correct
Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written?
To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906.
__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.
Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson
Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II
battle?
All the answers are correct
What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.

Customs and Traditions:


Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.
Pollywogs
Formal dinners promote ____________________.

all the answers are correct


Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.
a violation of SECNAV Instructions
Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude?
Golden
Which statement is true concerning morning colors?
Honors to foreign ensigns may be rendered by the playing of appropriate foreign national anthems
Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?
Avoid walking on varnished areas
The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ____________________.
OPNAV Instruction 1710.7
The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle ____________________.
Blue Nose
What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore?
Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.
Morning and evening colors have been governed by Navy regulations since __________.
since the mid 19th century
The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.
the burial at sea
SecNav Instruction 1610.2A concerns ____________.
Hazing
The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is ____________________.
Mossback
A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor ____________________.
should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency

Ships Customs and Traditions:


Before commissioning, a ship must ____________________.
complete and pass a series of Sea Trials
Todays Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
all the answers are correct
What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?
All the answers are correct
All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT ____________________.
walking on the port side
You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out Boat ahoy!
and the boats coxswain replies, John Paul Jones! He is ____________________.
announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat
Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.
are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ships sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance
While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) ____________________.
All of these answers are correct
All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT ____________________.
the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive
Boat hailing protocols became necessary ____________________.
in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required

The Navys battle streamers ____________________.


span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovospan the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo
On modern ships, the quarterdeck ___________________.
is designated by the Commanding Officer
While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, ____________________.
the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck
The Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port
The sloop Concord is notable because ____________________.
it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman

Stars on Navy streamers


Honors and Ceremonies:
Passing honors are ____________________.
All the answers are correct
There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance
by the U.S. Navy. These three are ____________________.
Washingtons Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day
At the end of their careers, all Sailors may ____________________.
all the answers are correct
Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in ____________________.
MILPERSMAN 1800-010
Half-masting the national ensign ____________________.
is a symbol of mourning and respect
Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.
in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable
Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies?
All officers and crew face the ensign and salute.
The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is ____________________.
passing honors
The Change of Command Ceremony always includes ____________________.
all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: I relieve you, Sir, and I stand relieved
Military Ethics Overview:
Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the greatest happiness
for the greatest number.
False
Select True or False: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral
standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations.
True
Freedom-based ethics focus on __________________.
decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses
Thoughts such as: life has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and what I do doesn't matter best typify which
one of the following?
Nihilism
An ethical person is __________________.

10

someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live


Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.
Consequentialism
Thoughts such as: I do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way
best typify which one of the following?
Criminality
Select True or False: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.
True
Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdales leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of
__________________.
character-based ethics
A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies
__________________.
a reason-based approach to truth and justice

Ethics in the Profession of Arms:


What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?
The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.
Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally ____________________.
All the answers are correct
Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral
development leads?
It is the path to becoming a person of character
Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively?
Yes
The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession.
Responsibility
Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals?
All of the answers are correct.
An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor best defines ____________________.
A professional
____________________ is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with
self-regulation.
Corporateness
Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral____________________.
Effectiveness
Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of ones knowledge, skills, and values in order
to accomplish the intended action.
Effectiveness
Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good.
False
Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and
articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong.
Reasoning

Ethics and the Warfighter:

11

Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.
False
Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?
I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?
Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths.
The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________.
Prisoners of war
Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and viceversa.
False
The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it ____________________.
clearly states a Sailors duty from the moment of enlistment

Just War Tradition:


The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.
that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good
the operation

accomplished by

Select True or False: In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.
False
The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included ____________________.
self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.
theology, philosophy, and law
The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.
Political leaders
Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.
True
Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key
role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.
True
The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.
reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the
most senior military commanders.
False
The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.
help to set the military professional apart
Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.
True
The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.
discrimination and proportionality
Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.
False
The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
Chaplains and medical personnel.

12

Block 3
Military Justice System:
Which of the following is true?
A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at least five

members.

Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________.


provides a service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or her commanding

officer

The Constitution ______________________.


all of the answers are correct
The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to _______________.
one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not
than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduct discharge

more

Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as _____________.
Captains Mast
A member of a general court-martial _________________.
is the military equivalent of a civilian juror
Which of the following is NOT true?
Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is
legislative branch of the federal government

part of the

A convening authority is responsible for ___________.


All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true?
Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authority of the federal
government.
A service member _____________.
does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captains Mast

Conduct and Government Ethics:


Which of the following would be prohibited?
The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the ships communications
officer) as a
Christmas present. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the
ship worth $7.50 by
the Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the commanding
officer a stuffed animal for
his daughter as an Easter present worth $8.00.
Which statement is NOT true?
Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique ethical code.
Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?
The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concerning
maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron.

the

Which of the following statements is NOT true?


The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are
governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.
The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would most likely
NOT be prohibited?
One of the carriers divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture
of the
ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the
Commanding
Officer with a brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chiefs Mess presents the
Commanding Officer with a
sword valued at approximately $200.00.

13

Privacy Act:
Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the government
and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those records.
True
Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by the Privacy Act,
has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to him or her.
False
What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?
All of the answers are correct
A record is ___________________________________________.
any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency
The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of personal information, as well as to
_____________________________________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to as _________________.
Exempt.
The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the individual of concern, include situations where
____________________________________.
the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research
Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to access his or her information.
False.

Lawful and Unlawful Orders:


A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true?
The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders
military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer.

from a

A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except __________.
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the
LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey
the given order. Which of the following is true?
The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him
the
order was a Marine major.
A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the
supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding
officer (who is also the LTs commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the units radios in preparation for an
inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The
sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his
commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer
ordered them to accomplish.
Which of the following statements is true?
An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order
be a lawful order.

may

Which of the following is true?

14

A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

under

What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal?
Refuse the order and report to higher authority.
An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The LT
protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR.
The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do?
Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT.
_______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039

Roles, Missions, and Functions of DON:


Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
__________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the President of the United
States or the Secretary of Defense.
Missions
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime
Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is to:
Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime
Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
The list of service-specific functions continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in Executive Order 9877, the term
functions in this context refers to:
Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are responsible.
Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena?
The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration.
Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?
The U.S. Marine Corps
Maritime power projection includes:
All of these answers are correct.
The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense directive 5100.1 authorizes the Department
of the Navy to develop force structure to accomplish which one(s) of the following?
Primary functions.
Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?
Pacific Command
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and (3) the Armys
Deployment and Distribution Command

Surface

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?

15

The European Command


The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.
the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

National Military Organization:


____________ is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy.
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President
Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?
The European Command
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and (3) the Armys Surface
Deployment and Distribution Command
The Chief of Naval Operations ___________.
must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary of the
military service chief

Navy as a

The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of
______________.
the Central Command
The Joint Staff ____________.
is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The European Command ___________.
has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander
The Unified Command Plan ________________.
establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders
The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.
is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of the Joint
Chiefs of Staff
An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of ______________.
the Central Command and the Pacific Command
The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.
is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

16

The Presidents cabinet includes ________________.


the Secretary of Defense as a military representative
The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?
Pacific Command
The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War on Terrorism is/are _________________.
the Special Operations Command

National Security Strategy:


The National Security Strategy states that ___________ is America's most immediate challenge.
Terrorism
To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will ________.
help build stable, prosperous, and peaceful societies
make foreign assistance more effective
The National Security Strategys essential task of global economic growth includes ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The National Security Strategy states that ___________.
globalization has exposed us to many new challenges
globalization presents many opportunities
As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ________ must take the lead in order for the
world to successfully confront problems like human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
The United States
The National Security Strategys essential task of transforming the nations National Security Institutions will require
_______________.
reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes effective democracy
responsible sovereignty

and

The National Security Strategy states that _____________.


peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of freedom.
The National Security Strategy takes the position that ____________.
left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states
The current National Security Strategy _____________.
builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to take into account the time that
passed and the events that have occurred

has

The National Security Strategy points out that _____________.


because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD, the United States will not rule out the
preemptive force

use of

National Defense Strategy:


The National Defense Strategy deals with ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The National Defense Strategy _______________.
recognizes that a secure international system requires collective action
The National Defense Strategys view of deterrence is ____________.
that there needs to be increased emphasis on protecting against attacks
In order to establish favorable security conditions, the United States _______________.
All of the answers are correct
Stability operations, as discussed in the National Defense Strategy, __________.
include operations ranging from peacekeeping to substantial combat action

17

When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force, the National Defense Strategy contemplates the
use of all of the following except _____________.
combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations

National Military Strategy:


The complex battle space used by adversaries to threaten the United States include _______________.
All of the answers are correct
As discussed in the National Military Strategy ________________.
an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe consequences in response to
hostile or potentially hostile actions for deterrence to be successful
Which of the following statements is not true?
Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a decisive victory, post-conflict stability
is the role of civilian government agencies and departments.
The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include __________________.
terrorist networks, international criminal organizations, illegal armed groups and individuals
The National Military Strategy is _________________.
the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer
The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is __________________.
the protection of the United States against attack
Which of the following will make the statement not true?
The National Military Strategy _______________.
states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a priority
The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National Military Strategy are: ______________.
winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a
joint force;
and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopting new
operational
concepts
Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ___________.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true?
The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in developing the National
Strategy.

Military

To support the Joint Forces Functions of deploying and sustaining military capabilities?
The national military strategy requires the armed forces to increase its expeditionary logistics capabilities
In its guidance on the development of the Joint Force, the National Military Strategy ______Deterring aggression and coercion ______________.
Must be anticipatory in nature
Joint Guidance and Resources:
The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest
position in the hierarchy of concepts.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
Which of the following is not true?
None of the answers are correct
Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.
Experimentation
________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.
The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
A joint concept is __________________.

18

a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve
desired effects and objectives
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle
space of tomorrow
In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires
________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes across the joint community
Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.
Joint Functional Concepts
____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the hierarchy of joint publications.
Capstone
A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.
a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the
development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan
Joint Functional Concepts ________________.
receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the
development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle
space of tomorrow
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________.
10-20 years in the future
A Joint Operating Concept __________________.
identifies broad principles and essential capabilities
Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?
Joint Integrating Concept
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________
The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan ____________.

Sea Power 21:


_____________ is central to the Sea Shield concept.
Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters
Which of the following is NOT true?
ForceNet is the follow-on program to Task Force EXCEL a fully integrated force wide network of linked
computers.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.
Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________.
the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new platforms
The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditionary deployments and employment
timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater is ____________________.
Sea Basing
Which of the following statements is NOT true?

19

ForceNet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our forward presence globally.
Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter the increased risk to the United States in the
future?
None of the answers are correct.
Sea Strike ______________.
is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea
Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.
The Chief of Naval Operations
The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________.
Sea Basing
The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.
Sea Enterprise
Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.
the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology development
Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on ____________.
control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence
Which of the following is true?
The Maritime Strategy was
Which of the following is NOT true?
Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.
Block 4
The American Way of War:
Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led
to the American View that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.
False
Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies
using conventional tactics.
False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.
Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standing army
was maintained by the United States after the Civil War.
False
During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.
was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation
Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.
quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a
victory by militia (volunteer) forces and proof that the United States didnt need to maintain a large standing army.
True
One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was
____________________.
the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation
The Second Seminole War _______________.

20

became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory
Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19 th
century because ____________________.
it did not see any threat to the existence of the nation
Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order
to _______________.
Select True or False: Todays Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendents of the militias established by
the early European colonists.
TRUE
Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on _______________.
The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States ____________________.
During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through ____________________.
General Winfield Scotts capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was ____________________.
During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in ________________.
a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and
discourage
European intervention in the Western Hemisphere
The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of _______________.
the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact
Cooperative maritime strategy
______________ will be required to partner to counter the maritime domains emerging threats.
All the answers are correct
One of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________.
disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S.
One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is ______________.
increased competition for scarce resources
Maritime forces provide decision makers with ______________.
All the answers are correct.
______________ is one of the six key tasks of naval forces.
Select True or False: Speed is a characteristic of maritime forces.
TRUE
Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our citizens
FALSE
The maritime domain supports what percentage of the worlds trade?
90%
The Naval Way of War:
By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ____________________.
have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication
Select True or False: Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available.
True
All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is
water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is ____________________.
Fire
During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating
environment?
The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job

21

Navigation is ____________________.
an art of approximation
Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea.
False
In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree?
GPS
The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, its
important to know ___________________.
The U.S. Navys organizational culture
Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to
limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver
U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they
____________________.
have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations
Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the
U.S. ________________________.
Navy
What is the best example of Independence of Action?
All of the answers are correct
Why does the Navy still fear technological advances?
It could irrevocably alter, in a harmful way, the values that traditionally have been held near and dear to the

Navy.

According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ____________________.
Theory of War:
An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?
It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action
The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.
in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on
battlefield to achieve those objectives

the

The enemys center of gravity ____________________.


can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
An enemys critical vulnerability ____________________.
is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemys ability to resist us
The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.
may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability
Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on ____________________.
the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions
Which of the following is correct?
The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.
Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war?
Tactical
The three components of military art are ____________________.
strategy, tactics, and operational art
The enemys center of gravity ____________________.

22

can change particularly at the operational and tactical level


Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.
concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness
The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.
by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps
commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives

each

The principles of war ____________________.


Operational art ____________________.
deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and sustaining major
campaigns designed to accomplish operational
Operational art was born during the ____________________.
period following World War I

operations and

or strategic objectives

The principles of war include ____________________.


Doctrine:
Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force.
True
Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.
current capabilities
Select True or False: Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.
False
The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.
all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site
The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through ____________________.
NWDC SIPRNET site
The UNTL is ____________________.
A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war
Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine?
Detailed threat profiles
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs?
They are not related to NWPs.
Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which ____________________.
link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations
Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________.
CNO and Commandant, USMC
Select True or False: Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception.
False
The joint doctrine development process has four steps: ____________________.
initiation, development, approval, maintenance
Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
All doctrinal publications are reviewed ____________________.
continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revision

23

Select True or False: Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine.
true

Command and Control:


Command and control is ___________________ .
a system and a process
Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ .
It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances.
Control is the ___________________ .
commanders means of guiding a military operation
Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ .
all of the answers are correct
OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .
JTF commanders
Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous system?
All of the answers are correct
C enables the Commander to ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following are considered command and control support?
The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders.
OPCON and TACON:
All of the answers are correct
The C organization is defined to include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON?
Organization, logistics and training
The process of command control includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
U.S. forces, including U.S. Naval forces are ___________________ .
May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution
Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following functions?
All of the answers are correct.
The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as ___________________
its doctrine for tactical command and control
Joint Force Maritime component commander:
The JFMCC concept is _______________________ .
still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalized
According to the concept, the JFMCC _______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?
Sea control
Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC?
All of the answers are correct

24

The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.


Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service
commander

component

The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to:


Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commanders campaign plan.
The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to:
All of the answers are correct
Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ .
both OPCON and TACON
Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions?
The JFMCC
The JFMCCs subordinate commanders include:
Both CSG and ESG commanders.
The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ___________________.
the JFLCC and JFACC
The Joint Force Commander has ___________________.
wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force
The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces
Land Component Commander) serves which of the following purposes?
Better integrate military assets during operations.
The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ___________________
request specific support to execute assigned missions
The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ___________________ .
The MARSUPREQ is designed to ___________________
enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional component
to request JFMCC assets
The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of:
A service or component staff, augmented by service staff.
Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific training would:
Remain the responsibility of the service component commander.
CWC Concept:
Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:
In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.
What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept?
Command by negation
The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The CWC concept addresses defense against:
All of the answers are correct
After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:
Shifted in orientation to the littorals.
The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________ .
that is where the needed C2 assets will be
Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Officer in Tactical Commands (OTCs) primary focus should be on:
Conducting Carrier Strike Group (CSG) offensive operations against an adversary.

25

The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept ______________________.
must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN)
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate:
All of the answers are correct.
Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation:
assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical.
The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to:
Manage information overload
Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept warfare commanders are given call signs that _______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Decentralization and command by negation are:
Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) because they reduce complexity and information overload.
Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?
To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is:
Tactical Control (TACON):

CWC Roles and Responsibilities:


If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Decentralized command is an effective approach because?
It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload.
It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives.
What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?
The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their
it.

roles in

The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure?
JTF commanders
Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:
Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.
Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the CWC
What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
The CWC will have _____________________ .
TACON
Which of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?
Interagency Working Group Coordinator
TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ .
held by only one commander and any given time
Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders?
Secure Telecommunications Group Commander
Which of the following is not a Principal Warfare Commander (PWC)?

26

Which of the following functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?
Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by:
Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC
The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________ .
Tatical Control over any single asset can be ___________________
held by only one commander and any given time
JFMCC/CWC Challenges:
What are the challenges to the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________.
developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite
communications
Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution.
False
The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.
all of the answers are correct
According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that
the ___________________.
CWC creates broad war fighting specialists
Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of
___________________.
20NM
What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive?
What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation?
Origins and Development:
Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a
joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the
Joint Air Component Commander.
False
Strike operations are a component of which navy mission?
Projecting power ashore
Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi
infrastructure.
False
Select True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of
close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.
False
Select True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the
introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile.
False
Select True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a
result nearly no dumb bombs were utilized.

27

False
Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission
because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.
False
Select True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such
operations for an extended period.
False
How do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?
Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly
influences those events.
Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft
such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.
False
During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________.
caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious attack which contributed to its
forces being enveloped by coalition forces
Select True or False: Submarines have no role in strike warfare.
False
The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the 1990s Gulf War were tested
_______________.
in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990s
Operation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore.
ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles
Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare?
Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a
joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component
Commander
FALSE
CSG:
Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has
greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class.
False
The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.
sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three
of an emergency order

months

Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier
when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.
False
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?
all of the answers are correct
Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier
Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False
The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________.
always a CV/CVN

28

Select True or False: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their
inability to conduct in-flight refueling
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?
All of the answers are correct.
Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by _______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused
by an anti-ship guided missile.
False
Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and
supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them
FALSE
Select True or False: The Navys Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrierbased aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades.
FALSE
Carrier Strike Groups _______________.
Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided
by ____________.

The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.


sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three
of an emergency order

months

Select True or False: Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the
primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group.
FALSE
Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused
by an anti-ship guided missile.
FALSE
CV/CVN:
What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?
Reduce the number of aircraft required
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct
___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power.
Human organization
Successful strike warfare depends upon ?
All of the answers are correct
Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air operations in:
Sandstorms
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?
Aircraft carrier
The Carrier Air Department is responsible for:
Flight deck control

29

Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets?
In-flight refueling
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk
in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime.
True
Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers:
Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their units
Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support
Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by:
Aircraft Carrier Wing
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, radar antennas,
etc.?
Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following?
The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for:
Due to the complexity and dangers of flight operations, what is the lowest position authorized to suspend flight deck
operations?
DECK CREW MEMBER
CVW:
Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this refers to?
Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.
The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following advantages
except:
ASW capability
What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?
Recent mission changes
Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:
National Command Authority
Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:
All of the answers are correct
Match the aircraft with their primary mission.

A
D
C
B

1. air defense and strike


2. ASW, air refueling
3. electronic attack
4. early warning

A. F-14 Tomcat
B. E-2C Hawkeye
C. EA-6B Prowler
D. S-3B Viking

Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of
destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets?
Combat air patrol
What is the principal limitation of PGMs?
Cost
Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?

30

Operates in adverse weather


Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weapon
Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:
battle damage assessment
Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.
Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.
The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system.
Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing.
What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?
The embarked air wing
Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following:
reduced costs and maintenance expenses
Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of a
warning to friendly units is the mission of:
Airborne early warning
What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?
All of the answers are correct.
Circular Error Probability refers to:
Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit.
Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War?
Laser guided bombs
What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy?
TLAM:
Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?
survivability in a high threat environment
Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air
Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path?
Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC),
TLAM firing
unit
The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________.
is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent and is responsible for all
strike planning, coordination, and reporting strikes
The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________.
either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the missile during
and serves as the missile's launch tube

TLAM

transport

Which of the following is not true?


Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern
Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ___________.
while submerged to avoid damage to the system
Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________.
when operating at periscope depth
Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.
Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped
The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch.
Launch Sequence Plan (LSP)
The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________.
reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets
redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver

31

The __________ is the central liaison point of contract for all aspects of TLAM employment at the Joint Force Air Coordination
Center and works for the Naval Component Commander.
Tomahawk Liaison Officer (TLO)
Terrain masking ___________________.
involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target
Which of the following is true?
The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander to act as the
Executive Agent.

Tomahawk

Which of the following is true?


Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical to those fired by surface combatants.
In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations, Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are placed with all
the following except _________________.
Surface Warfare:
Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Direct submarine operations
The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets:
All of the answers are correct
Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of combat boats has which of the following effects:
Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces.
Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?
Maverick and Hellfire
Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include:
Chemical weapons
Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are:
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Surface warfare includes coordination of surface, subsurface, land, and sea assets.
True
The Recognized Maritime Position is difficult to maintain with complete accuracy for the following reasons:
Adverse weather conditions
A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of hostile
contact; he is also required to ____________________.
gain and maintain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit
to
operating areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations
Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?
Maverick and Hellfire
Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to:
All the answers are correct.
What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position
Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is accomplished by:
Embarked helicopters and surface vessels
Match the following missiles with their primary delivery craft:
F/18 Hornet
A. Harpoon, HARM, SLAM-ER, Maverick
SH-60 Seahawk Hellfire, Penguin
EA-6B Prowler HARM
S-3B VIKINGHarpoon, SLAM-ER, Maverick
Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following?

32

Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat?
The Surface Warfare Commander is
Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to support the
surface
warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or Tomahawk Land Attack
Missile command
Air Defense:
To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ________ enemy airborne platforms
and weapons.
All of the answers are correct
____________________ is the primary mission of air defense.
Defense in Depth
Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
Non-organic air defense support refers to:
All of the answers are correct
Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and
departing and landing aircraft.

security for

Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include:


Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds and ranges of weapons
platforms, and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons.

and launch

Select True or False: Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval
operations.
False
The Air Defense Commander must be:
None of the answers are correct.
Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats:
Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for amphibious landings
Select True or False: Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases
True
The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from:
An AEGIS cruiser
Select the platforms with long range capabilities
Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers
Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group?
E-2C Hawkeye
Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility
The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.
Naval Special Warfare:
Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
All of the answers are correct
Select the statement that is NOT true.
Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to
influence their actions.
Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________.
are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander
Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions

33

The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________.
Counterterrorism
A clandestine operation ____________________.
is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself
The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.
is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew
The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.
delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines
The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.
is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders
A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.
a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons
MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________.
Special Boat Teams
The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________.
low to medium threat environments
A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.
is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements
The MK-V Special Operations Craft ____________________.
Select the statement that is NOT true
Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment of weapons of
mass destruction are part of the ____________________ mission
Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare:
The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces?
All of the answers are correct
The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The amphibious planning process ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navys concept of Forward from the Sea. It
accomplishes this by ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
An amphibious force might include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must be maintained by the landing force. The
concept that supports this aspect is known as ______________.
Ship-to-Objective Maneuver (STOM)

34

Expeditionary operations include which of the following?


All of the answers are correct.
A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is
known as a ______________.
Demonstration
An Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) and a Carrier Strike Group CSG) can be combined to form what organization?
An Expeditionary Strike Force (ESF).
The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is
known as a ______________. Not raid
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________. Not All of the answers are correct.
The ESG provides substantial resources to supplement the assault force that include which of the following?
The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________.
A military operation launched from the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a landing force ashore is the definition for
what term?
An amphibious operation
Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects?
The Commander, Landing Force (CLF), a senior Marine Corps officer, is responsible for which of the following?
The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________.
battalion
Naval Logistics:
MSCs Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________.
Have no armament
The sustainment element of the logistics process is ____________________.
the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations
The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____________________.
organizational-level maintenance
Which of the following is NOT true?
Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company.
The Navys two hospital ships ___________________.
contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each
The Military Sealift Commands eight fast sealift ships ____________________.
can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized division
The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is ____________________.
the Military Sealift Command (MSC)
The Military Sealift Commands Combat Prepositioning Force ____________________.
supports Army prepositioning requirements
The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies?
Class V
The bulk of the Navys combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by ____________________.
the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force
The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the
Navys logistics process?
Distribution

35

Prepositioned equipmentboth afloat and ashoreis considered logistics support at the ___________________.
strategic level
The Dry Cargo Office ____________________.
handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled
liner service

ocean

Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics functional area?
Health Services
Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups?
NOT SIRIUS CLASS
Ready Reserve Force ships _______________.
are under Military Sealift Command control when activated
Undersea Warfare:
Which of the following is NOT true?
While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air Independent Propulsion systems
typically snorkel at least once a day to recharge their batteries.
Which of the following is true?
Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic

still must

mine.

Which of the following is NOT true?


Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.
Which of the following is true?
Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise generated
ship.

by the

The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare Commander concept is
___________________.
AX
Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.
detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earths magnetic field caused by the submarine
Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine

operations.

When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle
___________________.
is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube
The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management
Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel.
The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.
Acoustic and non-acoustic
Which of the following is NOT true?
U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Advances in sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable
Which of the following is NOT true?
At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be
analysis.

downloaded for

The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________.


features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle
Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with ___________________.
Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines

36

Which of the following has mine counter measures as its primary mission?
MH-53E helicopter
Coordinated ASW operations ___________________.
are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units
The AN/SLQ-37 ___________________.
is used to counter magnetic and passive acoustic mines
The current submarine threat ___________________.
is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine
Area ASW operations ___________________. NOT :are characterized by a designated ocean area being searched by several
coordinated
Which of the following is NOT true?
In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a noise that can be

detected

Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of mines?


ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile and neutral ships
During the search phase of an ASW operation, ___________________.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineffective in the search for

submarines

Which of the following is true?


The Navys SSGNs are planned to carry 150 Tomahawk cruise missiles
Which of the following is NOT true?
NOT Mine hunting is based on locating individual mines
Fundamentals of Joint Warfare:
Select True or False: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint and
single-service operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during
multinational operations, and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies.
True
Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation among the combatant commanders and their
supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial?
Unity of Effort
On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.)
Geographic or functional
Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?
Administrative Control (ADCON)
The Combatant Commanders campaign is based on which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Which command is NOT a functional combatant command?
U.S. Southern Command
The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?
A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or
military departments.

more

Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a
means to measure, report, and correct performance?

37

Control
Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
U.S. Forces Korea
Select True or False: The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands and forces
necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command.
True
Which of the following document(s) provide(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders?
National Security Strategy and National Military Strategy
Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander?
Budget and procure service-specific equipment.

Fundamentals of Information Operations:


Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and
audiences.

foreign

The Combatant Commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________.
the Office of the Secretary of Defense
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Information Operations is only concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated
networked computer systems operated by an adversary.
Which of the following statements is true?
The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and
warfare support.

through

electronic

The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and
the interpretation of information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are
properties associated with which dimension of the information environment?
Cognitive
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security

actions.

Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except ______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
Department of Defense policy describes information superiority as:
the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow
information while exploiting or denying an adversarys ability to do the same.

of

Which of the following statements is true?

38

Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated
systems or networks.

information

Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or
networks are a part of ___________________.
computer network exploitation
Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
the J-3 (Operations)
The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________.
the physical, the informational, and the cognitive
Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations ability to
affect and defend decision making?
Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by
things
such as language, culture and religion.
Which of the following statements is true?
Not: Psychological Operations are those actions intended to generate insurrection among an adversarys
Psychological Operations include the dissemination of false information in order to deceive an adversarys
population.

civilian population
civilian

The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are:


NOT:computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network support.
Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the combatant
commanders
Commander, U.S. Strategic Command
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups.
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT: All of the answers are correct
The United States Army:
Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?
The Mechanized Infantry Division
The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is:
Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does not.
The U.S. Armys ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to shape
the security environment.
strategic responsiveness
The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army.
Mechanized Infantry Division
What are the hidden transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division?
Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.
Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command and
control, and special operations support to combat, stability, and support operations?
UH-60L Blackhawk
Select True or False: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.
False
Select True or False: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the
spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps.

39

True
Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary
mission area.

U.S. Army

The Air Assault Division is considered:


All of the answers are correct.
Heavy divisions offer exceptional:
Tactical mobility.
A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire.
Platoon
Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all
land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander.
True
___________________ are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and are commanded by lieutenant colonels.
Battalions
What event caused the U.S. Army to restructure and embed critical combat support capabilities almost exclusively in the
Reserve Component?
Viet Nam
What is the primary mission of a brigade?
NOT: To be the basic unit of maneuver at the tactical level
Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all
land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander.
TRUE
List the U.S. Army combat organizations from the largest to the smallest:
E, F, A, G, D, C, B
Challenges facing the U.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include :
More demand for peacekeeping
A less stable global environment
US Air Force:
Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special Operations personnel.
False
The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following aircraft:
B-2
Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of troops and cargo, as well as tactical
airlift and air drop?
C-17 Globemaster III
Which aircraft is considered the USAFs front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close air support to friendly forces on
the ground?
A-10
Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic, operational,
and tactical operations:
Select all
___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and collateral damage.
Precision engagement
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack

40

Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat operations.
Agile combat support
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Commands __________.
Strategic airlift concept
The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of the
most constant and important trends found throughout military history.
Concentration
Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S.
Air Force function:
Counterspace
Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used.
True
The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respectively, designate which command and control entities?
Service Component Commander, Functional Component Commander
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack
Which of the following are the largest warfighting organizations of the U.S. Air Force?
The Numbered Air Forces
Interdiction and close air support are components of what U.S. Air Force function?
Counterland
___________________ are actions taken to influence, affect, or defend systems and decision-making.
Information operations
The ___________________s primary mission is to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground surveillance to
support attack operations and targeting that contributes to the delay, disruption, and destruction of enemy
forces.
NOT 135
What characteristic of U.S. Air Force operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over the territory of
potential adversaries?
Altitude
___________________ allows air and space forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously, while
___________________ is the ability to employ air and space power effectively at all levels of warfare.
NOT Coordination, Agility
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
Introduction to the United States Marine Corp:
Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law?
False
Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTF:
FSSG
Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?
MEU

41

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF?


Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions
Select True or False: The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcible entry capability and therefore
can offload equipment and supplies in a hostile environment.
False
Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?
All of the answers are correct
An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n):
MAGTF
Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or surface
means to objectives in the littorals and beyond?
Ship-to-object maneuver
The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore
movement of an amphibious assault, and during subsequent operations ashore:
CH-53 E Super Stallion
Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam?
The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang.
Select True or False: U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of Maneuver
Warfare.
True
The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________.
expeditionary force; overseas deployment
List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National Military Strategy.
Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS):
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S. Marine Corps available to the combatant
commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)?
All of the answers are correct
The primary mission of the MAGTF aviation combat element is the support of:
NOT Non-combatant operations (NEO)
MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for which one of the following?
CENTCOM
A MAGTF is always composed of a command element, a ground combat element, an aviation combat element, and:
NOT A naval security support element
US Coast Guard:
Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting the National Military Strategy?
No
Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant commander?
Forcible entry from the sea
Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military service at all times.
True
Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guards primary short-range helicopter for SAR and surveillance?
HH-65A Dolphin

42

The present day U.S. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to:
Select all
Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?
MH-68 Shark
Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U.S. Coast Guard operations?
The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility than the other military

services.

Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area Commander reports directly to the
respective Navy Fleet Commander.
True
In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws on and under the high seas
and waters subject to the U.S. jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times
US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETs) perform the following mission(s):
All of the answers are correct.
This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS).
Hamilton class
Which of the following is not true regarding employment of the USCG by DoD and the State Department for peacetime
engagement?
The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabilities.
All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors:
None of the answers are correct; USCG cutter hull color is dependent upon each ships mission
Which agency is the lead federal agency for marine pollution and incident response?
USCG
Which of the variants of the HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pollution detection?
B
Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident which may impact the ability of U.S. and
allied forces to conduct military operations?
Pollution strike teams
Which of the following deploys to provide force protection at OUTCONUS seaports of debarkation?
PSUs
Which small boats in the U.S. Coast Guard inventory are the only ones specifically listed in the Joint Strategic Capability Plan?
NOT Marine Protector class patrol boats
Today, the USCG falls under what department during peacetime operations?
Department of Homeland Security
Which patrol boat class has the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull inflatable allowing for more rapid and safe deployment
of boarding crews?
NOT SWIFT

Special Operations Forces:


The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of ____________________.

43

the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)


A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is most likely under the command
of ____________________.
a geographic combatant commander
Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ____________________.
AC-130 aircraft
Direct Action missions ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct
A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or
operational significance is a part of which Special Operations core task?
Special Reconnaissance
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer and enlisted
are attached to Special Operations Forces units.

personnel that

The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation in organizing and training its
military and paramilitary forces to combat internal subversion is ____________________.
the 6th Special Operations Squadron
U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT
____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal insurgency
A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.
that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic combatant
waging the global war on terrorism.

commanders in

Which of the following statements is/are true?


Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by the U.S. Army Special
Operations Command.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct
Generally, a geographic combatant commander exercises control over Special Operations Forces assigned to the combatant
command ____________________.
NOT through the Joint Special Operations Task Force Commander
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT
One of the missions of the Marine Special Operations Command (MARSOC) would be to conduct Civil

Affairs missions

The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include ____________________.
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and Special Boat Teams
Homeland Security/Homeland Defense:
Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to
secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks.
True
Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
All of the answers are correct
Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?

44

All of the answers are correct


The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive
national effort involving appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________?
the National Strategy for Maritime Security
What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States?
Posse Comitatus Act of 1878
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by ___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures
Which of these is NOT a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct.
In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond?
Local police and fire departments.
What is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Prevent and disrupt terrorist attacks.
Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by
combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and
training.
True
Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
Force Protection
What command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil authorities mission?
Northern Command (NORTHCOM)
The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities.
NOT National Security Strategy
Select True or False: Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as NEO.
FALSE
What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States?
NOTJoint Publication 3-26OR HOMELAND SECURITY
Select True or False: A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector
TRUE
Irregular Warfare:
Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that ___________________.
promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism
Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the following?
The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area.
By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy
Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s):
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) chemical weapon(s)?
Sarin

45

History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to ___________________.


isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actions to destroy the terrorist group
The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by ___________________.
destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terrorism on naval operations?
Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or increasing personnel stresses.
The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects?
All of the answers are correct.
Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations?
They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes
Small units may need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The 4D Strategy to combat terrorism is framed by which of the following sets of terms?
NOT Defeat, Deny, Damage and Destroy.
Military guerillas tend to prefer which of the following?
NOT Attacks on unarmed civilians to limit their own possible casualties

Block 5
Political Structure:
Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because
experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.
True
Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the
peacefulness of a democracys foreign policy toward other democracies.
False
The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to
maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn
into office.
False
Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar
international system.
True
In a multi-polar international system _____________.
the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system
there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bi-polar international

system

Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline of its major security threat is that its
member states believe there is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.
True
Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a
change in domestic structure.
True
During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system.
bi-polar
Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system.

46

multi-polar
During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior was to a large part defined by
______________.
aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with
Select True or False: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will
solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points
out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict.
TRUE
According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be defined ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior:
Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture
focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward
democracy or authoritarianism.
False
Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader.
True
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
is shaped by the totality of all lifes influences on multiple generations
Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types.
True
Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved
personality over one with a gregarious personality.
True
Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can
illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful.
True
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeons position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a political
action should be undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors.
True
Select True or False: By understanding a collectivitys political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a person
belonging to that collectivity.
False
Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and individuals interact the
way they do in international affairs.
True
Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.
None of the answers are correct
According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may contribute to the creation of a political
culture that could have a significant impact on political action.
whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state
Political culture __________________.
NOT ALL
If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that
___________.
NOTthe focus should first be on the possibility that structural variables between the two can explain the different
behaviors
NOTthe second test focuses on whether any institutional variables can explain an observed difference between
collectivities

47

Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used to explain political behavior _______________.
NOT ALL
Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because:
ALL
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward
democracy or authoritarianism.
FALSE
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
NOT is shaped only by influences dating back to when that states current type of government came into

existence

Democracy and Nationalism:


Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.
TRUE
Select True or False: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions.
False
Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because ______________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below, except
________________________.
Ethno nationalism
After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to
_________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture, history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of
_________________.
Nationalism
Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires.
True
Select True or False: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence.
False
In the beginning of the democratization process, in order to secure political and economic interests, nationalism is the right tool
in the hands of the ______________.
NOTMiddle class ORPoorest strata of the society
The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to ______________.
Ensure National Unity between all social strata of the society
What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national conflicts?
NOTAssimilation
At this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in ______________.
NOTMontenegroOR KOSOVO
After the fall of Communism the most significant nationalist conflict on European soil, since the end of WW II, took place in the
former ______________.
NOTSoviet Union
In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries because
______________.
NOTIt was the desire of the majority of population OR ALL
In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states ______________.
NOTShould be granted if demanded by national elites
The main reason for nationalistic violence is ______________.
NOT ALL OR Social injustice
During the early stages of democratization, ______________ are most likely to inflame nationalism in the society.

48

National elites
As in ______________, during the early stages of democratization some ethnic conflicts could promote international conflict
Argentina
According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______________.
Civic Nationalism

The Future of Democracy and Democratization:


________________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy.
Samuel Huntington
The Optimistic Scenario of democracys future _______________.
believes that democratization in the East will lead to the integration of the Eastern economies with those of
West

the

Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future, the twenty first century may be the century
of collectivism.
False
Francis Fukuyama believes that _____________________________.
The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure

future

Which of the following is not true?


Because liberal democracies operate under the theory of majority rule, the rights of minorities are often
unprotected.
Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except
____________________.
Low debt.
Since fran, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?
Over eighty.
The Pessimistic Scenario of democracys future ________________.
sees transnational corporations becoming a greater source of order within the international community
George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing __________________________.
A Balanced Perspective
The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is __________________.
Islam
To ensure the process of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the national level, all efforts in the future should be
focused on?
Greater social, economic and political empowerment of the poor
The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following, except that ______________.
Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the international community
Select True or False: As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength and
importance.
FALSE
According to ______________ The liberal democracy will triumph in the future.
None of the answers are correct.

49

Benito Mussolinis prediction about the future Fascist Century ______________.


May come to pass in this century
WESTERN HEMISPERE OVERVIEW
The U.S. undid much of the good relations built up as a result of the Good Neighbor Policy in Latin America during
______________.
the Cold War
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
European settlers began arriving in North America after the discovery by Columbus in 1612
The ______________ instituted by President Franklin Roosevelt is credited with most of the nations in Latin America giving
unified support to the allies during World War II.
Good Neighbor Policy
______________ did not establish colonial territories in North America.
Australia
Latin America is ______________.
one and one half times the size of the U.S
The U.S. did NOT gain territories from Mexico as a result of the ______________.
NOTGadsden Purchase of 1853
When did the U.S. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?
NOT LATE 1800S
The population in Canada is now approximately ______________.
32 million
Colombia alone produces ______________ of the worlds cocaine supply.
75%
______________ was not a catalyst, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing Latin America during the 15th and 16th
centuries
The Monroe Doctrine
Which of the following Latin American cities is smaller than New York City?
None of the answers are correct
Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved?
NOT ALL ARE CORRECT
For national security purposes, the area known as Latin America encompasses the ______________.
NOT WESTERN HEM
The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16 th, 17th, and 18th centuries and is
the predominant religion of the mainland countries of Latin America.
ROMAN CATHOLIC
While the Panama Canal is no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major route for warships, it is ______________ to
world commerce.
vital
The ______________, found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world.
AMAZON
The U.S. is a major trade partner of Latin American countries
TRUE
Latin America and the United States:
In the new millennium, the United States has committed several billion dollars to assist which country on its war on drugs?
Columbia
In the aftermath of September 11, 2001, the United States has focused on countering __________________ throughout the
world, including Latin America.
Terrorism

50

During the Cold War, the U.S. foreign policy goal was to___________________________________.
contain Communism across the globe, and Soviet expansionism in particular
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the most important goal for the United States in Latin America was support for
democracy.
False
In 1994,The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of the
_________________________________.
United States, Canada and Mexico
The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U.S. president?
Franklin Roosevelt
Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy.
Welcomed
Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and moral duty to exercise international
police power in the Americas?
Roosevelt corollary
How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine?
Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine
The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America from 1845 to 1853?
Mexico
After the Cold War, U.S. policy toward Latin America was focused on _____________________________.
supporting democracy
During the Cold War, the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the Caribbean primarily to
____________________.
contain Communism

Politics in Latin America:


Which of the following countries in Latin America did not become democratic after 1978?
Cuba
During the first half of the 20th Century a period of growing authoritarianism in Latin America was the result of
_______________________.
the Great Depression
Select True or False: Latin America was more prosperous in the 1990s than in the 1980s.
False
Which institution in Latin America played a primary role in the 19th Century in filling the vacuum of power created by
independence?
The military
Most of the military regimes in Latin America were ______________.
friendly toward the United States
What historical event led to greater political polarization in Latin America?
The Cuban Revolution led by Fidel Castro
The "Washington Consensus" called for all of the below, except for __________________.
free transportation for the poor
Political polarization in Latin America took place in _________.
1959

The Balance of Power in the Southern Cone of Latin America:

51

Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.
False
In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ____________.
Chile
Geopolitics is __________________________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics
The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are _________________.
Chile and Bolivia
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and _____________________.
Chile
In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ___________________.
The EU
Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.
True
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.
False
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin
American countries, except _____________________.
Venezuela and Peru
The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between _____________________.
Argentina and Brazil
The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________.
NOT Democracies wage wars only against oppressive regimes
Since its independence, Argentina has been a major rival of ______________.
NOT COLUMBIA
In 1984, what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation?
Beagle Channel islands
What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war against other democracies?
Democratic Peace
Latin American Militaries:
Which of the following statements is true?
The military is widely respected in Chile.
According to most observers, South America has been ________________________________ since at least the mid-1990s.
a Zone of Peace
What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?
South America
Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year?
Brazil
The United States: _______________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the only
country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ________________________.
Columbia

52

Some view ____________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.


Costa Rica
The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ______________________.
Defense
Which of the following, if any, Latin American countries are capable of projecting and sustaining power for an extended period
of time?
NOT ARGENTINA
The two South American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are ______________.
Argentina and Uruguay
Which of the following statements is true?
Argentina is able to participate in many United Nations peacekeeping missions due to its large military
Which of the following statements is true?
Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions, in part, as a way to justify its seeking a
seat on the UN Security Council.

budget.
permanent

In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from the United States and
Europe.
high technology jet fighters
The United States is especially involved in ______________, assisting that government in its campaign against the insurgents.
COLUMBIA
GREATER MIDDLE EAST
Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism, the belief in one god?
NOT CHRISTIANS
Which of the following statements is true?
The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the Shah, an ally of the United States.
The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________.
NOT MACENDONIA
The Iran-Iraq war ended ______________.
NOT after U.S. military intervention
Which of the following statements is true?
Turkey is considered the most Westernized state in its region
Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?
Mostly Christian
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT France played no part in the Middle East in the years after World War I.
Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the political party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest representation in
parliament (legislature) chooses the nations leader.

the

Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia ?
NOT Strait of Hormuz
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT The United States has had a long standing policy of only supporting nations with democratic governments
Southwest Asia.

in

When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist movement?
The 1880s
Indias collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United States.
FALSE
Which of the following statements is true?

53

A campaign of civil disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence from the

British

Historical Framework:
What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide the Middle East and take territory away
from the Ottoman Empire?
The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I
The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the battle at Vienna in 1683
_______________________.
all of the answers are correct
Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons?
All of the answers are correct
The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In the Balfour Declaration, Britain declared _______________________.
its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine
The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map?
The Ottoman Empire
How did modern Turkey emerge from the Ottoman Empire?
The Turkish forces seized control over most of what is today Turkey by defeating the occupying allied

armies

The kingdom of Iraq was created in ___________.


1920
What part of the Ottoman Empire became autonomous following the Russo-Turkish war in 1829?
Serbia
Following the ________________________ , the Ottoman Empire was abolished and British mandated territories were
formalized.
Treaty of Sevres
Which goal did Britain not have for the partition of the Middle East following World War I?
To promote settlements of the British citizens in the Middle East on its mandated territories

Arab-Israeli Conflict:
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.
False
Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights
and Suez Canal.
False
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ___________________________
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ___________________.
Oslo, in 1992
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________.
rejected the partition plan
The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the __________________________.
Six Day War in 1967
Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime
Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ________________.
the United States

54

Following the Camp David Accords _________________________.


Israeli withdrew from the Sinai
The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the
________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem
______________________.
to become an International Zone
On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________________________.
Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict
What is the Bush administration's attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank?
It acquiesced to construction of the wall
Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War, it was controlled by
the ______________.
NOT Palestinians
In 2003, Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ______________.
NOT there will be no negotiations with the PLO until acts of terrorism against civilians stop
United States Security Strategy and Policy:
The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was __________________.
Great Britain
In August of 1945, the Saudis gave the United States permission to start building ____________________________.
An Air base
During the 1990s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was to
_____________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from the
oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein.
False
In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ____________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as
_______________________________________.
A defense alliance against the Soviet Union
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis _______________________________.
All of the answers are correct
What does Operation Earnest Will stand for?
The U.S. escorting Kuwait's oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988
The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________________________.
The importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the emerging contest
the Soviet Union

with

In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States, _________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________.
the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel
In 1933, Standard Oil of California received a concession for oil exploration in Saudi Arabia, as ______________.
NOT ALL OR the United States actively supported the Saudi King in the struggle against his main rival, the Sherif
of Mecca

Hussein

The main objective for U.S. led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________.
NOT ALL

55

During the 1990s ______________, became the United States Navys busiest port of call in the world outside the continental
United States.
Dubai
In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, ______________.
NOT U.S. President Eisenhower refused to support that decision and proposed economic sanctions against

Egypt

What happened on board the USS Quincy in the Great Bitter Lake in February, 1945?
President Roosevelt met with the Saudi King to politically affirm the emerging U.S.-Saudi partnership
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
ISLAM AND THE GREATER MIDDLE EAST
The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a
lifetime.
ONCE
Members of the Islamic faith ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
If they are able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially at noon on Friday.
FIVE
Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message to humanity through the Prophet
Muhammad in the year ______________.
NOT 510 A.D.
Select True or False: All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian.
FALSE
Islam is the predominant religion in ______________.
NOT GREATER MIDDLE EAST
Islam is a ______________ faith.
monotheistic (one god)
Select True or False: In Islam, women are the spiritual equals of men.
TRUE
A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the ______________
branches of Islam.
NOT Sunni and Sharia
Select True or False: The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely.
FALSE
The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days.
354
Select True or False: Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses.
TRUE
Islamic law is called ______________ law.
Sharia
EURASIA
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied

Powers

During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi
occupation of Kuwait.
FALSE
One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region from
______________.
NORTH AFRICA

56

Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO?


SWITZERLAND
Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of western civilization
NOT the Roman Empire of the 1st century BC OR THE CARTHANIAN
When did the creation of a single German state occur?
NOT After the First World War
Which of the following statement is true?
NOT Russian victories over German and Austro-Hungarian forces during World War I forced those two countries
peace and strengthened the Russian Tsars position as ruler of his country.

to sue for

Yugoslavia ______________.
NOT became a member of the European Union in 2003
The European Union ______________.
is the largest economy in the world
The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the ______________.
Byzantine Empire
During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations?
Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT The majority of the population of each of the countries formed from the breakup of Yugoslavia belong to the

same

Yugoslavian ethnic group


The Peace of Westphalia is significant because it ______________.
has been credited with the establishment of the modern nation-state system
Which of the following statements is true?
Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of the 17 th

century.

Russias natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer relationships with
the West.
TRUE
Which of the following statements is true?
The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT The Soviet Union joined an alliance with Great Britain and France against Germany within weeks of the
invasion of Poland in 1939.

German

EUROPEAN UNION
______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability.
NOT INTERPOL
Todays European Union (EU) is a supranational organization consisting of ______________ countries
27
The capitals of the European Union (EU) are located in ______________.
Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg (France)
High on the agenda of the European Union (EU) goals are ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ______________.
an economic agreement among six nations
The Reform Treaty (undertaken in June 2007) provides the framework to ______________.
NOT expand the European Union (EU) judiciary OR ALL ANSWERS
The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT

57

The harmonization of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty of ______________ in 1997.
Amsterdam
In the near future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely center on ______________.
economic strength and geopolitical ambitions
The Treaty of ______________ laid the foundation for further forms of cooperation in foreign and defense policy among
European nations, including a common currency.
NOT Vienna
The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nations, including:
ALL ARE CORRECT
______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability.
EUROCORPS
AFRICA
The U.S. national interest in West Africa is focused on:
NIGERIAN OIL
Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These fault lines include the following, EXCEPT:
Desert vs. tropical economies
Which is NOT a true statement regarding Zimbabwe (in the South African Region)?
NOT The elected government of Robert Mugabe has devolved into dictatorship which oppresses political

opponents.

Which is a true statement regarding languages spoken in Africa?


1000 LANGUAGES
An estimated ______________ of Africans suffer from malnutrition
NOT THREE QUARTER
The Central African Region is important to U.S. national interests, because:
It has rich natural resources, including oil, copper and potential for hydroelectric power.
Which is the best description regarding the East Africa Region?
Rwanda has just emerged from a time of widespread ethnic violence
Most of todays African nations became independent ______________.
during the 1950s and 1960s
Which is NOT true regarding Northern Africa?
Islamic fundamentalism is concentrated in this region of Africa, making it the primary source of worldwide jihad.
RELIGIONS IN AFRICA
______________ has its roots in Africa, as demonstrated by Moses flight from Egypt
JUDAISM
Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to explain the natural world.
FALSE
In Africa, ______________ was perceived as a protector of the much-persecuted Christians.
NOT SPIRITUALITY OR Animism
______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more than one god.
Animism
Select True or False: Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa
FALSE
______________ is a form of individual or collective struggle to refocus or empower Muslim communities.
Jihad
Select True or False: Shia Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the African Union (AU).
FALSE

58

______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not testable with empirical methods.
RELIGION
Select True or False: A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the quality of governance within an African
country.
FALSE
Which continent has links to some of the worlds earliest religions?
AFRICA
Select True or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods, but one god rules over
them all.
TRUE
Islam arrived in Africa during the ______________ centuries
7TH AND 8TH
Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict.
FALSE
The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam
Sunni
During the Second Congo War (1998-2003), it is estimated that over _____ million people were killed.
FIVE
In modern times, ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument of social mobilization.
religion
______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago.
ALL ARE CORRECT
______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute greatly to instability on the continent.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Africas economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its economy will stagnate and decline
POPULATION GROWTH
AFRICAN SECURITY
______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability operations.
ALL ARE CORRECT
______________ waste disposal is a challenge facing Africas environment.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Risks to Africas internal security could be reduced through ______________.
the availability of regular and adequate employment
______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa.
Multiparty democracy
Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________.
1960S
ASIA PACIFIC OVERVIEW
Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the worlds population.
60
In many Asian countries, the majority of the population ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones
16
Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation?
BERMA

59

The largest Muslim population in the world can be found in ______________.


NOT MALAYSIA
The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earths surface.
ONE HALF
The population of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall population.
TWICE
Which of the following modern nations was not a part of French Indochina?
NOT VIETNAM NOT LOAS
The combined population of India and China account for ______________ percent of the worlds people.
40 PERCENT
Which of the following nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons?
JAPAN
______________ (or one of its variants) is the most common language of Asia Pacific.
CHINESE
The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the ______________.
Strait of Malacca
______________ is the official language of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
English
The Early Years of the Peoples Republic of China:
Since 1981, PRC was in possession of ____________________.
intercontinental ballistic missiles
Why is China increasingly important today?
China's economic, political, and military power is rising
During the Korean War (1950-1953) the U.S. and UN forces had to retreat from the northern part of the Korean peninsula as a
result of ____________________________.
the sudden intervention of thousands of Chinese forces
In 1949 and in early 1950s, the PRC established a close relationship with __________________.
Stalinist USSR
How was the PRC created?
Armies led by Mao Zedong defeated the Republican Chinese government under Chiang Kai-Shek
After being defeated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) in 1949, the ROC armies retreated to
____________________.
the island of Taiwan
Select True or False: Following the Sino-Soviet Treaty of 1950, the PRC became part of the Soviet Bloc.
True
By placing the U.S. Seventh Fleet in the Taiwan Strait, President Truman helped to stop __________________________.
All of the answers are correct
How did Chinese Communist forces gain strength during World War II?
The Japanese invasion of China gave them a chance to rebuild
Select True or False: According to the Sino-Soviet Security Treaty the USSR had an obligation to Beijing to provide military
aid if PRC was attacked by Japan.
False
In what year did the PRC explode its first hydrogen bomb?
1967
What was the major goal of the CCP in organizing people into work units?

60

All of the answers are correct

China: Alone and Joining the World:


President Nixon went to China because ____________________
he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam
In the 1950 and 60s, the U.S. policy of containing China included ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Deng Xiaoping's reforms ____________________.
legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade
Deng Xiaoping's reforms stressed ____________________.
the expending the role of international trade and investment in China's development
The Tiananmen demonstrations ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
At the end of the 1950's and in the beginning of 1960s, the hallmark of Chinese policies was ____________________.
to promote self-reliance
In the 1960's, China pursued policies of self-reliance because ____________________.
in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other choice
The Great Leap Forward ____________________.
resulted in three years of famine and the deaths of millions of people
China's break from the USSR meant that ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: By the end of the1960's, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.
False
The "three bitter years" were recalled by the Chinese government after the failure of ______________ policy.
the Great Leap Forward
In the 1960s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______________.
turned into outright hostility
In the 1960s the military strategy of the PLA of China mainly relied on below mentioned factors, except ______________.
Chinas technological superiority
Select True or False: After Washington broke diplomatic relations with Taiwan, Beijing continued to strongly object to the fact
the U.S. still maintained a non-official relationship with the ROC.
FALSE
The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________.
reassert Maos power and his supreme authority in the country
Chinas rise provokes controversy today because ______________.
its not yet clear as Chinas national wealth and power grows, how it will act on the world stage
South Asia Before Independence:
The Indian national Congress Party and the Muslim League ____________________.
Demanded the British leave India
The dominant religions in the South Asian Region include all of the below except:
Christianity
What was the name of the explorer who led the first Europeans to India in the late 15th century?
Vasco Da Gama

61

Before 1947, the British colonial empire in South Asia consisted of the present states: Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Afghanistan
and all of the below, except ________________________.
Burma
The first Europeans to arrive in India were the ____________________.
Portuguese
Why was 1857 a landmark year in South Asian history?
Indian Sepoys participated in the first armed mutiny against the British authority.
Select True or False: In Pakistani society the moderates as well as the religious hardliners have traditionally supported
organizations such as the Taliban and an Al-Qaeda.
False
Since Muslims made up only twenty five percent of the population of South Asia, their leaders ____________________.
Called for partition after British leave

Independence and the Partition of the Indian Subcontinent:


The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
________________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one
country populated mostly by non-Muslims.
The Muslim League
Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to ____________________.
Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups
The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ____________________ issues.
All of the answers are correct
The Mohajirs were ____________________.
The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders
Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between Muslims,
Hindus and Sikhs.
False
The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were provoked by ____________________.
Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations
The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of
____________________.
The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities
Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent state of their own?
Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims minorities would be denied full

rights.

Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets.
False
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to
____________________.
Observe
In order to stop the violence among Muslims, Hindus, and Sikhs in British India ______________.
NOT The UK government dispatched troops into the region
Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.
Shia and Sunni Muslims

62

South Asia and the Outside World:


The cultural behavior associated with ____________________ is a major cause of current religious intolerance and terrorism
in South Asia.
Jihad
What events contributed to India's decision to turn to Russia for aid in 1971?
All of the answers are correct
What prompted Washington to remove or waive all proliferation and democracy related restrictions on U.S. aid to Pakistan in
2001?
Following the 9/11 terrorist attack, the Musharraf government severed all ties with the Taliban and joined
the U.S.led anti-terrorism campaign as a front-line state
Select True or False: In January 2004, Pakistan became a member of NATO.
False
Select True or False: After the Cold War and the fall of Communism in the Soviet Union, military and economic cooperation
between Russia and India continued to develop.
True
During the Cold War the United States and India ____________________.
Had convergent interests on many issues
Select True or False: During the presidency of Bill Clinton in the 1990s, the relationship between the U.S. and Pakistan
improved greatly.
False
Select True or False: During the Cold War, the United States was trying to prevent India from achieving self-sufficiency and
attempted to make it dependant on U.S. markets.
False
During the Cold War India had a policy of ____________________.
Non-alignment

India-Pakistan Military Competition:


Select True or False: Since 1947, the Kashmir region has been the cause of four India-Pakistan wars.
False
After the withdrawal of British colonial rule, the partition of the Indian subcontinent in 1947 was justified on the grounds of
____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ____________________.
Shias and Sunnis
Kashmir ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In May 2001, after Islamabad conducted five nuclear tests of its own ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The part of Kashmir region controlled by India is known as ______________________.
Jammu Kashmir
The Third Option stands for ____________________.
Kashmiri independence
In 2002, an all-out India-Pakistan war was averted because ____________________.
The intervention by the United States and the restrained attitude of the leaders of both countries helped to
this conflict

resolve

Under the British partition plan, Kashmir _________________.


would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan

63

Select True or False: The United Nations has maintained an observatory presence in the disputed area since December
1971.
False
Which of the following statements is true?
Pakistan claims that Kashmir should have become part of Pakistan in 1947 due to the regions

demographics.

The dominant religion of the disputed area of Kashmir is ____________________.


Islam
The so-called Smiling Buddha represents ____________________.
The first nuclear explosive test detonated by India in 1974

European Civilization:
Select True or False: In 8th Century A.D. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the territories of the former Roman Empire
was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization.
False
Due to collapse of the ____________________,the face of Europe radically changed, as a result of the First World War.
German, Russian, Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Roman traditions, cultural and linguistic influences continue to thrive in
Italy, Southern France and Spain but almost completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the former empire.
North-Western
The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain, France and Russia against Germany and ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: In 2002, a new single European currency, the EURO, was introduced to all of EU member countries.
False
Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an alliance between the Communist
dictatorship and the Western democracies.
True
In the 1920s and 1930s, the rise of ____________________ threatened most European nations.
All of the answers are correct
By 1871, the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for several European nations except for
the_______________.
Serbs
The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction with the ____________________.
Catholic Church
In the history of Western Europe, The Hundred Year War (1337-1453) was a long struggle between ____________________.
England and France
During the Early Middle Ages, in the 8th and 9th centuries, Western Europe was going through a time commonly known as
______________.
Dark Ages
The imperial authority as absolute and divine, over the centuries, was deeply implanted and remains even today part of the
cultures of the______________________ peoples.
Balkan and Russian
Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the Americas major competitors.
Europe
The purpose of the U.S. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from ____________________.
Byzantine

64

Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages, the Muslim world served as a protective barrier between Western Europe
and Byzantine Empire.
False
The most populated, largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is ____________________.
Europe

Introduction to Planning:
When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action related to a crisis, the Chairman of the
Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n) ____________________ to implement the approved military course of action
Execute Order
Contingency planning focuses on ___________________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase. In
order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air
strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to
be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is most likely the supported commander for this operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.
An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________.
a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an

operation

Which of the following is correct?


A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a supported commander for
A concept plan (CONPLAN) ____________________.
is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable expansion or alteration to
an OPLAN

another.

convert it into

Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning?


None of the answers are correct
A(n) ___________________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after the
President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.
Alert Order
Which of the following is correct?
In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the President or Secretary of
approves a military course of action.

Defense

Joint strategic planning ____________________.


All the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will require U.S. military combat
as a response.

operations

Who is responsible for the development and production of joint operation plans?
The Combatant Commanders
At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with ______________.
creating and maintaining military capabilities
Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________.
NOT assisting foreign counties in providing for their own national security
The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________.
NOT joint operations planning, joint support planning and joint intelligence planning
The Role of Intelligence:
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct

65

What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military
Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?
The focus
The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area and the
dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area

nonphysical

Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain battlespace
knowledge?
Determine adversary potential COAs.
Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the internet
is a part of which intelligence discipline?
Open-source Intelligence
Select True or False: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same
across the spectrum of conflict, they may be compacted or expanded as time permits.
True
Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus?
Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue
Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.S. doctrine.
False
The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________.
support the commanders planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the

adversary

Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation to
support the commanders planning effort.
TRUE
Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war?
Strategic level
In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process are overlays depicting the geography of the area
of responsibility produced?
NOT Define the Battlespace Environment.OR Determine Adversary Courses of Action.
What process is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and information environments as well as
other dimensions of the battlespace, and to determine an adversarys capabilities to operate in each?
NOT INTELLIGENCE CYCLE
Who, on the Commanders staff, has the primary responsibility for planning, coordinating and conducting the overall
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort?
The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence)
Select True or False: The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace are both contained within the
Commanders designated operating area.
FALSE

Navy Planning Process:


Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation?
All the answers are correct
The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?
All the answers are correct
The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________ and
____________________.
the battlespace environment; the adversary

66

Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?


A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff
Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an existing Course of Action.
True
Select True or False: The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a
decision.
False
The wargaming process relies heavily on ____________________.
a solid joint doctrinal foundation, tactical judgment, and operational experience
During wargaming, the staff ____________________.
compares the most dangerous adversary COA with the riskiest friendly COA
What is prepared in anticipation of operations and normally serves as the basis of a future order?
NOT NONE
Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks?
Specified tasks
Select True or False: Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task.
FALSE
Law of the Sea and Airspace:
Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, which _______________.
All the answers are correct
References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following?
All the answers are correct
Why does the law of the sea and airspace matter?
All the answers are correct
National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the following?
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be
temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes.
True
Historic bays are __________.
Exempt from normal rules.
Innocent passage is a right of all ships to transit through territorial seas and _______________________.
Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are demonstrating nonbehavior

innocent

A party transiting an international strait must do which of the following?


ALL ARE CORRECT
Regarding the collision of a U.S. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which of the following is/are true?
All are correct
Scope:
Select True or False: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued directives that state
that the armed forces of the United States will, unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles
and spirit of the Law Of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not involve armed conflict.
False
Given that it has been determined that the al-Qaida and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as
unlawful combatants, which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva
Conventions,
but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy.
Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are similar to the
Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations.

67

false
Select True or False: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum concerning the
conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict.
TRUE
If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation
____________________.
the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory
nation
The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.
a generally accepted body of international law
U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.
a minimum standard
Select True or False: The United States policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that it
may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.
False
Select True or False: If a nation that is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed conflict with non-signatory
nations, and those nations engage in activities that are contrary to the terms of the Geneva Convention, the signatory nation is
no longer bound by the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
FALSE
Select True or False: Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent
with at least the minimum standards of international law.
TRUE
Which statement is true?
The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) to all of its military
operations
Select True or False: When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a
United Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations.
FALSE
Principles:
In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.
incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and direct
advantage to be gained from the attack
Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical
POWs

military

services to

Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.
Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemys forces during an armed engagement,
____________________.
while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status must be continually verified
to
ensure it does not return to civilian object status
Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict ____________________.
may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured
Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes a review to
ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False
Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a
combatant.
False
Select True or False: Only members of a nations regular military can be classified as combatants under LOAC.
FALSE

68

Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under the Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
NOT FALSE
Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Select True or False: A nation has a duty under LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the vicinity of military
objectives.
TRUE
Which statement is NOT true?
Department of Defense policy requires the reporting of actions against U.S. forces that violate LOAC
General Principles:
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to
planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)

assist

U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nations political goals.
False
Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces
will continue combat engagement as only the nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
False
Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than
approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.
False
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect
U.S. nationals and their property.
True
Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough
leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions.
True
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to
planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)

assist

The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________.


political, military and legal
Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered when
developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).
True
Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces
will continue combat engagement as only the nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
FALSE
Well developed and succinct Rules of Engagement (ROE) should clarify what degree of force may be used based on
____________________.
NOT the mission and threat level
The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _________.
ALL

69

U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________.


directives, competent military authority
SROE:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces supporting law enforcement agencies
conducting special event security within the U.S. if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country.
False
Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination
tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE.
True
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force in
self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force under
actions permitted in self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable during peacetime.
True
U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they ____________________.
provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without repetitively requesting
take certain actions

permission to

Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense provided by the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating in areas outside of U.S. territorial jurisdiction.
False
Select True or False: The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international environment
consistent with U.S. national interests.
True
When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the
Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack

U.S.

In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against the
United States.
True
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military operations ____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate
quick reference during crisis or deliberate planning.
by authorization level
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
NOT are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in self-defense; 2) a
classified
portion discussing the use of force for mission accomplishment; and 3) a classified portion
discussing the use of force within
the territorial jurisdiction of the United States
Self Defense:
Select True or False: A commanders inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all
appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commanders own unit.
False
A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the use of force in self-defense.
If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.

70

is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile
can be prevented or terminated

intent

When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ____________________.
should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening
actions if
time and circumstances permit
Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always authorized.
False
Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.
True
Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense.
True
Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces can be considered ____________________.
hostile act
Self-defense includes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________.
NOT UNDER ALL CONDITIONS
The practice of extending U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces and foreign nations is known as ______________.
NOT ALLIED SELF DEFENCE
Force used in self-defense must be ____________________.
NOT JUSTIFIED AND REASONABLE
Select True or False: Impeding U.S. forces from the recovery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government property can be
considered a hostile act.
TRUE
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile
can be prevented or terminated

intent

Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in ones vicinity from a hostile act or
demonstrated hostile intent.
True, but an individuals right to defend oneself may be constrained by direction from the appropriate
commander.
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an
approaching aircraft, ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent.
guidance on various indicators that might be considered
Mission Accomplishment:
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered
In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for operations
in developing and integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
____________________.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE).
Political, military and legal objectives
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of
Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
False
Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.
augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be
reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission

constantly

71

The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of the
following except ___________.
requests for supplemental measures
Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to
____________________.
constantly review them and modify as necessary
Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define
certain permissible targets.
True
Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.
but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics
Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.
is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination
Select True or False: The supplemental measures found in the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement
(SROE) are available for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless specifically withheld.
FALSE
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of
Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
FALSE
As part of the military command and control structure, the United States has divided its global responsibilities into geographic
regions each commanded by a ________________.
NOT Theater Commander
Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should be included in
the developed mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE) for a particular mission ____________________.
is the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
RUF:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the
United States.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas when they are protecting vital
government assets.
True
Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster relief
response.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency
(for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agencys Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).
True
Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S. military forces always operate under
Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically for that operation.
False
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in foreign ports.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under Rules for
the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the mission they are assigned.
True
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international waters
True
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict.

72

FALSE
Military Space Mission Areas:
Select True or False: A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority is effective use of
space assets.
True
Space capabilities__________________________:
All the answers are correct
Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and other support structures
that
Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial communications systems used to
transmit
DOD data
Serve DOD information needs
Select True or False: Currently, space force application assets are operating in space
False
Select True or False: Space support operations consist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain, sustain,
replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control network configuration for space operations.
True
Select True or False: Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by
military weapons systems operating in or through space.
True
Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces while, when directed,
denying it to an adversary, and include the broad aspect of protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and negation of
enemy adversary space systems.
True
The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear
detonation is: _________________________.
NOT Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment
The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and orbital control is __________________.
Space support
The four military space mission areas are _______________________.
Space Control, Space Support, Force Application, and Force Enhancement
The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological, oceanographic, and space
environmental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________.
Environmental monitoring
The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area:
__________________________.
Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental Monitoring
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.
True
Select True or False: Support operations consist of spacelift, satellite operations, and deorbiting and recovering space vehicles, if required
TRUE
Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are categorized within the military space mission area of
______________.
Space Control
The importance of space operations is ______________.
increasing due to enabling capabilities they provide to deployed military forces
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance:
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.

73

All the answers are correct


Select True or False: Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or system must be continuously collecting.
False
The most significant advantage of a space-based
__________________________.
the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage

Intelligence,

Surveillance,

and

Reconnaissance

sensor

is

Select True or False: Satellite systems may be affected by a variety of atmospheric disturbances which affect the ability of
imaging systems to detect adversary activity, missile launches, and battle damage.
True
Select True or False: Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low or
medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission.
True
ISR support:
All the answers are correct
In Operation Iraqi Freedom, space-based ISR:
Was a central factor in assuring rapid military success.
Select True or False: Geosynchronous or geostationary satellites are not capable of performing reconnaissance from space.
FALSE
ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection that is
event driven or occurs on a one-time basis is called ______________.
NOT Interdicting
Force enhancement - ISR mission
ALL ARE CORRECT
The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specific regions of the world
geosynchronous
Types of data and information collected from space include ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Select True or False: ISR systems enhance planning capabilities by providing updated information regarding terrain and
adversary force dispositions.
TRUE
Integrated tactical warning and Attack Assessment:
Select True or False: Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning with staring sensors to provide
continuous tracks of tactical missiles.
True
Select True or False: DSP detected Iraqi Scud missile launches during Desert Storm.
True
Select True or False: Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning information is
immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat.
True
The SBIRS ground architecture______________________.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the post-communist era.
False
Select True or False: The Defense Support Program (DSP) constellation of geosynchronous early-warning satellites is a
quintessential Cold War system which was originally conceived to provide warning of strategic-missile launches against the
United States and its allies.
True
Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning _____________________.
All the answers are correct

74

Select True or False: The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully replacing the old DSP
ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in Iraqi Freedom than
they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War.
True
Theater missile warning data is:
Gathered by ground stations, then processed and disseminated over communications networks, including
assets.

space

Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Attack Assessment" is defined
as _______________________.
the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as
_______________________.
a specific threat event that is occurring
Select True or False: U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partners.
True
Satellite- and ground-based systems provide detection and communicate warning of an adversarys use of ballistic missiles or nuclear
detonations (NUDET) to ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Sharing information on missile launches on a near real time basis with allies and coalition partners is the objective of ______________.
Shared Early Warning
In addition to sensor satellites, other space assets provide communication links carrying ______________ to warn the affected air, land, sea,
space, and special operations forces
NOT RAW
A deployable ground communication station that rapidly disseminates missile warning within theater is the ______________ system
Joint Tactical Ground Station
A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the deployment of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS)
ground control element was ______________.
detecting the launch plumes of long-range ballistic missiles
Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning ______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Missile launch information is provided on a near real time basis. This information can take the form of
Both data and voice warning

Environmental Monitoring:
Weather affects ________________________.
All the answers are correct
____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational planning.
Meteorological and Oceanographic
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by the commander to
_________________.
avoid submarine or maritime mine threats
concentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating
Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, typically gathering data in _____ spectral bands.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications.
True

75

Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as _______ are critical for undersea warfare
operations.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Observation of the space environment is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space. This
enables U.S. military joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on both adversary and friendly space and
weapons systems.
True
Select True or False: Some meteorological parameters needed by forecasters for operational support cannot currently be
accurately determined from satellites, including heights of cloud bases and visibility restrictions.
True
Select True or False: Space systems are the military commanders primary and sometimes sole source of environmental data.
True
Select True or False: Weather data never affects the choice of weapons for a target or the platform that delivers them.
False
Observation of the space environment ______________.
is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to battle space awareness
Thermal and visible images together provide the coverage and extent of ______________.
clouds at various levels, other physical phenomena such as ice fields and snow
A disadvantage of space-based environmental sensing is the ______________.
reduction in image quality due to distance
Select True or False: Space systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions from space.
TRUE
______________ are used to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed), ground moisture, rainfall rates, ice
characteristics, atmospheric temperatures, and water vapor profiles
NOT INFRARED
Select True or False: Imagery capabilities can provide joint force planners with current information on surface conditions, such
as vegetation and land use
TRUE
A unique form of weather,______________ weather, commonly disrupts or degrades communications
SPACE
Communications:
Heavy solar activity ___________________________.
can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communications outages in extreme

cases

Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly affected by rain (the higher
the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.
True
Wideband satellite communications support ________________.
All the answers are correct
Significant advantages of satellite
_________________________.
global coverage, security, flexibility

communication

systems

over

terrestrial

communication

systems

are

Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with:


All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed the capacity of current MILSATCOM
systems.
True
Select True or False: Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that increase its mobility,
enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other mobile terminals.
True

76

Select True or False: It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military strategic and tactical
relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network.
False
Satellite Communications:
Collectively provide an essential element of national and Department of Defense (DOD) communications
worldwide.
Permit information transfer from the highest levels of government to the theater tactical level for all matters
to include operations, logistics, intelligence, personnel, and diplomacy.
The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ______________.
UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial
Select True or False: Satellite are often the only means of providing critical beyond line of sight communications.
True
Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and
convey their intent to the operational commander.
Near-global / strategic situational awareness
Select True or False: All radio receivers, including satellite systems, are susceptible to jamming and interference.
True
Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and
convey their intent to the operational commander
global / tactical knowledge
Since most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of the world which receives least coverage is the
______________ region.
POLAR
Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming.
FALSE
Generally, the ______________ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EHF), the ______________ the available bandwidth and the higher
the data rate capacity
lower / wider
MILSTAR stands for:
military strategic and tactical relay system satellite network

Position, Timing, Velocity and Navigation:


Select True or False: The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of GPS receivers on various platforms all
improve jamming resistance.
True
NAVSTAR GPS provides the primary space-based source for U.S. and allied:
All the answers are correct
Although the presence of the highly accurate navigational information from the Global Positioning System constellation is
exploitable by adversary forces, it is unlikely the Global Positioning System signal will be interdicted to interrupt the signal
availability to adversary forces because ________________.
signal interruption will affect the tremendous civil dependence upon Global Positioning System
GPS navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation is a local effect that has daily and seasonal
variations. The effects are worse at ________ and will usually taper off by _______.
local sunset / local midnight
Benefits to Naval forces from GPS include:
All the answers are correct
Global Positioning System is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a _______________, where all
forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
Common grid

77

Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held GPS receivers in areas of ______may have
diminished GPS capabilities.
dense vegetation or steep terrain
Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation occurs more often
______________.
in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees latitude (North or South))
Global positioning system (GPS) is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a ______________, where
all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
Common grid
Significant advantages offered by global positioning system (GPS) to operational forces are ______________.
accuracy, accessibility, and coverage
Global positioning system (GPS) ______________.
plays a key role in almost all military missions
Because of ______________ of satellites in the global positioning system (GPS) constellation, a single satellite failure
______________ cause significant degradation of the system.
the number and orbit location / will not
Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with a global positioning system (GPS) receiver.
All answers
Space-based position, velocity, time, and navigation systems support strategic, operational, and tactical missions by providing
highly accurate:
All of the answers are correct.
Benefits to naval forces from global positioning system GPS include:
All answers
The Air Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS) satellites during combat operations
during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able to improve the navigation accuracy to approximately ______________ meters
on a planned basis.
2.2
Select True or False: The default navigation grid used by global positioning system (GPS) is the World Geodetic System 1984
(WGS-84).
True
The global positioning system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites in view from any position
on Earth. Based upon this requirement, many satellites have been placed in orbit. Currently, there are approximately
______________ GPS satellites in orbit.
28
Satellite Communications:
Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are ______________.
global coverage, security, flexibility
Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with
ALL
Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming
FALSE
______________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess features not found on other systems
NOT CLASSIFIED
Space-based position, velocity, time, and navigation systems support strategic, operational, and tactical missions by providing
highly accurate
ALL
Global positioning system (GPS) is extremely useful in air operations. Accurate position, velocity, and time enhances
______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Data and Information:

78

Select True or False: The concept of operations and commander's intent should convey only a general idea or mental image
of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always come later.
False
Information systems consist of _____________________.
entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect, process, store, transmit, display,
disseminate, and act on information
The higher you are in the chain of command, the more you rely on _________________.
Information systems
The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following reason.
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________.
information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer
Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for making a decision. This image-building
information will contain _____________ .
status and disposition of our own forces
_____________ is the lifeblood of any C system.
Information
New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________.
validate the image or revise it
Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural intuitive evaluation of reliability.
False
Decisions should be based on ___________.
Information
Select True or False: Naval, joint, and national information sources should "push" relevant, time-sensitive information to naval
forces, based on planned information requirements and dissemination criteria.
True
The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following reason
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
Information is also used as a means for coordinating actions in the execution of the plan after the decision has been made.
Select all types of execution information that apply
Navy IT
______________ is operationally focused while ______________ drives the strategic direction of Navy information networks.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) - Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)
DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________.
Secretary of Defense (SecDef)
The classified (high) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called ______________.
SIPRnet
The global battlespace consists of ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
______________ provides information system planning, engineering, acquisition, fielding, and support for Department of
Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
______________ provides information system planning, engineering, acquisition, fielding, and support for Department of
Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Information Grid.
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)

79

The central operating authority for all Navy information networks is ______________.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
Select True or False: The naval networking environment presently contains numerous legacy networks.
True
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Commands (SPAWARs) origins date back to the Navys support of the ______________
program during the 1960s.
Space
______________ is the U.S. Fleet Forces Commands N6 and Strategic Commands component commander for network
operations, information operations, and space systems.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
______________ is the functional program manager that is responsible for all Navy networks, information assurance
programs, and enterprise services.
PMW-160
______________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding of information technology.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
______________ provides the program and policy support that underpin the Navys information networks
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was called
______________.
NOT Advanced Weapons Architecture Development OR The Battle Force Systems Concept
______________ is the Navy component of the Global Information Grid (GIG
FORCEnet
The White House Communications Agency is operated by the ______________.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
______________ currently provides total information systems management for the Department of Defense (DOD).
Defense Communications Agency (DCA)
Navy/Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI) is the Navys
NOT NONE
DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________.
Secretary of Defense (SecDef
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Commands (SPAWARs) origins date back to the Navys support of the ______________
program during the 1960s.

Arctic research
The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was called
______________.
COMMAND AND CONTROL:
_________________ drive(s) the command and control process.
Information
In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the authority and responsibility for:
health & welfare
discipline
morale
Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:
Monitor events
Adapt to changing circumstances
Adjust the allocation of resources
The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through ____________________.
a command and control system
Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over
subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.

80

True
Select True or False: C refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must be done
and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out.
True
Select True or False: Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper
action in combat. This is control before the action but nonetheless is still control.
True
While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the subconscious brain
(______________________) that monitors and regulates most actions.
subordinate commanders and forces
The focus of naval C, as well as the driver of C is ______________.
The commander
C is the exercise of ______________ by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the
accomplishment of a mission.
authority and direction
Using a central nervous system analogy, the commander is the conscious brain of the military body and C is
______________.
the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the information-gathering units and sensors)
In the accomplishment of the mission (process) through C, a commander will employ the resource groups in:
Directing, Coordinating, Planning
C provides which of the following?
ALL ARE CORRECT
Time, in the C environment, is a precious commodity for three reasons

Decision Making:
Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander, all phases of the
cycle are active at each echelon of command.
True
Select True or False: During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations and gauges the
results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action
phase observations.
False
Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we _______, _________ , and _________ .
observe / decide / act
Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________.
situational awareness
_______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions and exercises authority over
subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned mission.
C2
After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step is to ___________ on a course of
action and develop a plan.
Decide
A key tenet of naval warfare is that commanders at every level must understand their seniors intent, so they can
______________ in harmony with the broader, more general efforts at higher levels.
exploit rapid decision and execution cycles

81

Select True or False: In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lower we can push the decision-making threshold, the
swifter our decision and execution cycle will become.
True
______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle.
Orientation
Our ______________, ______________, ______________, and the unfolding circumstances of war all influence our ability to
orient ourselves
experience / expectations / culture
Processing raw signals so they may be understood by the people who must use the resulting information, may require
______________.
ALL ARE CORRECT
The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire process of C
decision-maker
Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns data gathered from the environment into knowledge and
understanding.
cognitive

Forcenet:
Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can have global ramifications, naval
professionals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizations.
True
By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of
operations by:
Enhancing deterrence
Controlling crises
Sustaining warfighting superiority
The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility made
possible by:
Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits
Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems
Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground
____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, locate and destroy anti-access
challenges and intercept missiles.
Sea shield
____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat.
Sea Basing
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic
communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.
True

82

FORCEnet is not an acquisition program; rather it is a/an ______________ and integration initiative to serve as a change
agent and an engine for innovation, potentially touching every naval program.
enterprise alignment
Naval forces will complement ______________ collection programs with widely dispersed sensing systems that contribute vital
data to the planning and execution of trans-global operations.
national
FORCEnet is a necessity because todays engagements are measured in ______________ and cover ______________.
seconds, hundreds of miles
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic
communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.
True
FORCEnets goal is to arm our forces with superior ______________.
Knowledge
______________ relies on rich situational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise attacks
Sea Strike
FORCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars of ______________.
sea, air and land operations

Communications for the warfighter


The link margin is the ______________.
ratio of power received to receiver sensitivity
Select True or False: Noise introduced by a receiver is called internal noise.
True
Select True or False: Atmospheric noise is most significant at frequencies above 30 MHz.
False
Which type of cable enables the longest transmission distances?
Fiber optic
An antenna that radiates its power equally in all directions is called a/an ______________ radiator.
Isotropic
Select True or False: The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of both interfering
waves.
False
There is a peak in atmospheric absorption at 180 GHz due to ______________.
Water vapor
Select True or False: Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal.
False
Ground waves achieve ranges longer than line-of-sight by ______________.

83

hugging the surface of the earth, especially over water


UTP cable has ______________ pairs of wires.
4
What are the two types of channels for transmitting electromagnetic waves?
Free space and guided medium
The term dBm refers to a power level ______________.
unit referenced to 1 milliwatt
______________ is NOT one of the types of digital baseband modulation.
Pulse angle
DAMA schemes grant user access based upon ______________.
Reservations
______________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit.
High earth
What type of device converts audio/visual information into an electrical signal?
Modulator OR TRANSDUCER
In link budget analysis, the important parameter is ______________.
NOT PATH LOSS
A sinusoidal function has which three parameters?
Amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
Which is NOT one of the types of digital passband modulation?
Amplitude shift keying
What type of device converts an electrical signal into electromagnetic waves for transmission through a channel?
NOT TRANSDUCER

Seapower 21:
Sea Power 21 divides the Navys roles and missions into three fundamental concepts:
Sea Basing Projecting joint operational independence
Sea Strike Projecting precise and persistent offensive power
Sea Shield Projecting global defensive assurance
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval precision, reach, and connectivity. Joint
operations, though important, will come secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure.
Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea, land, air, space, and cyberspace will be incorporated if, and when, the
need arises.
False
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navys part in future joint warfighting in an unpredictable
strategic environment typified by regional and transnational threats.
True
Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the evolution of U.S. naval power from the
blue-water, war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of From the Sea and Forward from the Sea, strategy.
True
Identify the elements of FORCEnet.
Sea Trial, Sea Warrior, Sea Enterprise
The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that, in turn, is enabled by ___________ .
FORCEnet, information technology

Force Multiplication: Sensors Throughout Military History:

84

Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?


Sonar
Infrared systems are best used to detect ____________________.
a warm object against a relatively cool background
Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ____________________.
ambient light
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?
AIM-9 Sidewinder missile
Select True or False: The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success has not justified
its high cost.
False
Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ____________________.
defend against attack
seize the initiative
The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Although first patented in 1904, radar wasnt very militarily useful until ____________________.
World War II
Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World War I?
Sonar
During World War II, the British developed ______________, the first ______________, which played a pivotal role in the
British victory at the Battle of Britain.
silicon impregnated quartz, infrared sensitive material
Sonar-type sensors were first developed ______________.
during World War I
Advanced sensor systems allow their users to ______________.
gauge enemy forces before being detected themselves
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and used up until
______________.
the Cold War, the present time
GPS made possible the rescue of Captain Scott OGrady after he was shot down over Serbia because ______________.
the GPS receiver he carried allowed him to precisely pinpoint his location and relay the information to
rescuers
Night vision goggles work best and give the greatest tactical advantage when used ______________.
under extremely low levels of ambient light
A GPS receiver determines its position by _______
triangulating lines of bearings to three or more different GPS satellites
During the 1990s, increases in technology related to which type of sensor system allowed its users to own the night?
NOT RADAR

SENSOR FUNDAMENTALS
Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signals power per unit area caused by ______________.
focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions

85

A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ___________.


has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range
If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which statement is not true?
System Bs signals power per unit area is one fourth that of system As signal.
A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having __________.
a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another
Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?
Warhead
Which statement is true?
Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being
Refraction refers to ______________.
the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling

measured.

through

Interference may be ___________.


constructive and destructive
Spectroscopy is used to determine __________.
what wavelengths are coming off a target
Which statement is NOT true?
The rate at which a signal disperses depends, in part, on the characteristics of the source antenna
A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________.
that has multiple receivers and/or transmitters
A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having ______________.
transmitter in one location and the receiver in another
The ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual value is used to determine a sensors
______________.
accuracy
Which statement is NOT true?
The frequency of microwaves is between the frequencies of radio waves and visible light
Understanding the Frequency Spectrum:
The speed of sound through water changes with ____________________.
water temperature
A hull-mounted sonar transmits a 3 KHz acoustic signal into fresh water at 20 degrees C. What is the wavelength of the signal?
.5m
Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would be the
same for underwater and above water platforms.
False
Select True or False: The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.
False
Select True or False: For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one
False
Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.
True
What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20 Hz?
Surface ship
What is an alternative way of writing 7.4 x 108 Hz?
740 MHz
Gamma rays are a good example of ____________________.

86

high frequency and low wavelength


Select True or False: The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military are synonymous when
referring to frequency band designations.
False
Select True or False: While we can only see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum, we can employ
sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum
TRUE
What is the standard military band for a sensor operating at 3.5 x 108 Hz
NOT F-BAND
Select True or False: Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or less
FALSE
How does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through air?
Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems:
Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ________.
None of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations behind the civilian state of the
art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets.
True
The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ____________________.
multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target
Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more efficient, more cost effective
and safer by ________________.
All the answers are correct
Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future include ________________.
unmanned aerial vehicles
Electronic Warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threats to its platform because
____________.
many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to misidentification
Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence, one can never have too
much sensor provided information. The more information that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process
is in a tense, stressful environment.
False
Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ____________.
None of the answers are correct
Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is __________.
that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar
The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target's radar at unexpected times is used in __________.
cover pulse jamming
___________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being detected by an infrared sensor.
How to increase a platforms ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases
An enemy uses barrage jamming in order to attempt to ______________.
overload our receivers and prevent our systems from providing range to the target
diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by ___
OPERATING ON BATTERY
Which of the following includes three methods employed by the AN/SPY-1 series of radars that enable them to be less
susceptible to jamming

87

phased array beam-forming, information-dense wave packets, low power


Maintaining Technical Superiority:
Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for defense
contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest.
False
Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically ___________________.
All the answers are correct
___________________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command.
Program Executive Offices
Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to ___________________.
increase personnel safety
Select True or False: Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every indication that such increases will
continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as information
overload.
False
Select True or False: The Navy's development of new technologies is managed completely by Department of the Navy civilian
personnel.
False
______________ generate(s) a lit of Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap to direct research and
development funding
ONR
Select True or False: Unmanned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for equipment manpower
FALSE
______________ is the command responsible for the development of aircraft and air systems
NAVAIR
Because nearly every type of sensor system can be improved, it is important to ______________.
NOT ALL
MAGNETIC SENSORS
Self-generated magnetic noise falls into the two broad categories of ______________ noise
avionics and mechanical or AC and DC
The Greek letter ______________ is used to symbolize magnetic field intensity
GAMMA
Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects
FERROUS
Some magnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________.
increase the chances of detection
Magnetic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects
MATALLIC
Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ meters or less
500
Objects that cant be detected using sound, radio frequency, or light energy may be sensed using ______________ sensors
MAGNETIC
Increasing the sensitivity of a magnetic sensor by a factor of eight would result in ______________ the range of the sensor.
DOUBLING
sonars ______________ enables operators to make control inputs to the system
NOT control programmer

88

SONAR
Acoustic energy is a form of ______________ energy
mechanical
The two major types of sonar are ______________.
ACTIVE AND PASSIVE
The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density
SURFACE
Underwater sounds are classified as ______________.
natural or manmade
hydrophone is a(n) ______________.
UNDERWATER MICROPHONE
bathythermograph measures ______________.
seawater temperature
The ______________ contains 80 percent of the oceans vertical
DEEP ZONE
Computer for the Warfighter:
Select True or False: Embedded microprocessors are tailored to limited applications.
True
The compiler converts ____________________.
high level code into assembly language code
Select True or False: One of the keys to effective personal computer use is to isolate the user from high level programming
language and hardware.
False
Select True or False: The microprocessors in personal computers are called limited purpose microprocessors.
False
Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for volatile memory.
True
The assembler converts ____________________.
assembly language code into binary data
Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up process.
False
The types of memory/storage in a computer, listed in order from fastest to slowest access are ____________________.
register, cache, RAM, mass storage
What are the four subsystems that make up a computer systems hardware?
Microprocessor, memory, mass storage, input/output devices
The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the microprocessors registers is called the
____________________.
arithmetic logic unit
What controls the switching of states in the control unit?
Clock
____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in mass storage.
Virtual memory
____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management functions.
Processor management
Stealth Technology:

89

To determine the RCS of a cylinder, the key consideration is ____________________.


polarization of the cylinder
A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of ____________________.
large RCS and IR signature
Select True or False: Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its RCS should be much larger.
False
Select True or False: Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide information
regarding movement.
False
Methods used to reduce RCS include ____________________.
avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material
Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____________________.
complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems
Select True or False: Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of
particle beams of radiation into a range of directions.
True
Select True or False: At changing higher frequencies, the RCS of a sphere changes dramatically.
False
A critical capability of sensor systems is to ____________________.
distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data
Select True or False: Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a stealth platform can easily be tracked
and targeted.
False
Select True or False: Interference is the result when electromagnetic waves at differing frequencies interact with each other.
False
Radar cross section is the relation of ______________.
a radar wave scattered from a target to the wave directed at the target
Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ______________.
complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems
The success of stealth technology is leading to an increased emphasis on the development of capabilities to detect stealth
platforms, such as ______________.
passive array and low frequency radars
The primary means of aircraft detection is ______________.
Radar
RCS is measured in ______________.
Square meters
Which type of electronic sensor system is the least complex and expensive?
NOT Synthetic Aperture radar
RCS is measured in
square meters

90

Electro-Optic:
Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
IR
The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________.
proportional to the frequency
Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which the
attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.
False
Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance so that the reflected spot on the target is
centered on the detector.
True
Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
False
____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.
Thermal imaging
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________.
5m
An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ____________________.
AM radio waves
The optical spectrum consists of ____________________.
IR, visible and UV
Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.
True
The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an active emission is the _________
NOT TRANSMITTER or emitter
Laser light has unique applications due to ______________.
low beam divergence
The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is ______________.
narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV portions
Select True or False: Laser designators can work with many kinds of munitions
TRUE
Laser light is available in both ______________.
continuous and pulsed form
A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from several in its field of view based upon a
predetermined pulsing code, is ______________.
PIM coding

91

Radar:
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have down Doppler.
False
Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________.
pulse Doppler
How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar?
0.6 milliseconds
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.
False
Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal reflected.
True
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular or
circular arrays.
True
Pulse radar is effective at ____________________.
determining a targets relative velocity
Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.
True
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitted
energy.
False
What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz?
30 km
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target.
synthetic aperture
Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of continuous wave radar to determine
______________.
NOT VELOCITY or target size
The amplitude of a radar pulse relates to ______________.
power and range
Evolution of the submarine
What was the benefit of the separate main ballast and trim tanks that were first introduced aboard the USSHolland?
Improved control of the submarine
The ______________ and ______________ were the first two Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines.
USS Skipjack, USS Sturgeon
Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U.S. naval bases in the far east?
Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty
Identify the key technological advancements of the 19 th century that were instrumental to the further development of
submarines in the United States.
Advances in the internal combustion engine, battery and electric motors and the invention of the torpedo
What were some of the limitations of the first submarines? Select all that apply.
Speed, size, range
What class of submarine has been selected to be converted to guided missile submarines (SSGNs)?
Ohio

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The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), launched in 1958, was the first ______________ for the United States.
nuclear powered submarine
Which United States submarine successfully completed the first fully-submerged circumnavigation of the earth in 60 days and
21 hours?
USS Triton
What was the name of the first submarine used by the military?
Turtle
During World War II, how many aircraft carriers did the United States submarine fleet sink in the Pacific?
8
Regulus, the first strategic long-range nuclear-armed guided missile deployed by the Navy, had several major disadvantages
that led to it being replaced. What were those disadvantages? Select all that apply.
All answers
The ______________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United States submarine force.
Tang
What missions were the Virginia-class submarines designed for?
NOT Surveillance and reconnaissance
The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet capable of ______________.
attacking submerged submarines
Which submarine successfully sank the USS Housatonic?
Hunley
Prior to World War I, what did the Navy envision as the two roles for submarines?
Coast defense and fleet operations

Evolution of US Navy Surface Combatants


Aegis ______________.
is able to track over 100 targets and direct over 20 missiles simultaneously
Which of the following is not a part of todays Navys surface combatant inventory?
Raymond Spruance-class destroyers
Surface to air missiles using beam-riding guidance ______________.
require that the launching platforms fire control radar keep its beam pointed at the target
A rifled gun generally ______________ than a smooth-bore gun of similar size.
is more accurate and has a longer range
The destroyer was initially designed to combat ______________.
torpedo boats
The so-called ABCD ships were significant in that they ______________.
were considered the beginning of the modern Navy

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A proximity fuse ______________.


contains a radio transmitter-receiver to detect its distance from a target
Steam turbines were first used in Navy battleships constructed ______________.
during the early 20th century before World War I
The widespread employment of torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century ______________.
represented a relatively inexpensive but potent threat to battleships
Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to full back
______________.
through use of controllable pitch propellers
Compared to European battleships, the Navys battleships of the late 1890s were ______________.
relatively light armed, but faster and more heavily armored OR superior in all respects
Radar was first installed on a Navy ship ______________.
in the years immediately prior to World War II
A closed loop fire control system, such as the one used by the Phalanx Close-In-Weapons System, ______________.
has been replaced by the phased array radar in Aegis ships
The Navys Vertical Launch System ______________.
is not part of a ships anti-submarine warfare capability
Turboelectric drive propulsion plants ______________.
use an electric motor to turn the propeller shaft
When constructed, USS Constitution was armed with ______________.
muzzle loaded rifled guns

Evolution of carrier aviation


Which of the following statements is true?
The Washington Naval Treaty led to the conversion of two under-construction battle cruisers to aircraft carriers.
The Navys current fighter aircraft is an ______________.
F/A-18 Hornet
Select True or False: Samuel Langleys successful 1896 flight of an unmanned heavier than air vehicle prompted the Navy to
appropriate funds to allow Langley to develop a manned version.
False
The introduction of the angled flight deck in the 1950s ______________.
led to many World War II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks
Which of the following statements is true?
The first takeoff and landing on a Navy warship were conducted by a civilian.
The Navys first nuclear-powered aircraft carrier was ______________.
USS Enterprise

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The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was ______________.
financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The angled flight deck was an American development adopted later by the British Royal Navy.
The first operational jet-powered military aircraft was fielded by ______________.
the German Luftwaffe
Which of the following statements is true?
Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II.
Which of the following statements is true?
The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing aircraft.
The first Navy aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent operations were ______________.
the Saratoga- and Lexington-classes
The Navys first experience with operating in the air domain occurred ______________.
during World War I
Todays aircraft carriers are equipped with ______________.
STEAM
The first catapults used by the Navy ______________.
used compressed air for power

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