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FEB - 51213/II

Management
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes]

[Maximum Marks : 100

Note : This paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
1.

2.

During the 3rd stage of Law of

4.

The root cause of the current

Variable Proportions :

European Crisis is :

(A) MP is negative

(A) Currency crisis

(B) AP is negative

(B) Unsustainable Sovereign Debt

(C) AP is rising

(C) Stagflation

(D) TP is constant

(D) Overheatedness
5.

A firm is a price takes under :

The Law of Demand does not


assume constancy of :

(A) Monopoly

(A) Price

(B) Duopoly

of

the

concerned

commodity
(C) Monopolistic competition
(B) Prices of other commodities
(D) Perfect competition
(C) Consumers income level
3.

Which of the following is not one of


(D) Tastes and preferences

the six sectors considered by CSO


6.

while computing National Income ?

Hyrogliphs essentially is :

(A) Primary Sector

(A) Picture language

(B) Social Sector

(B) Script

(C) Foreign Sector

(C) Notations

(D) Secondary Sector

(D) Gestures
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7.

8.

What can drive conflict ?

10. Need for achievement theory was

(A) Environment

putforth by :

(B) Goals

(A) A.H. Maslow

(C) Unreasonable rules

(B) F. Herzberg

(D) Angry people

(C) D. McClelland

Downward communication means :

(D) Clayton Alderfer

(A) Transmission of ideas or

11. Voluntary Retirement is operated as

information from executives to

a part of :

the subordinates.

(A) Transfer and promotion policy

(B) Transmission of information

(B) Exit policy

from manager to manager.


(C) Deployment

(C) Transmission of ideas or

(D) Lockout

information from worker to


worker.

12. Referal system in HRM relates to :

(D) Transmission of ideas or

(A) Refering a supplier by another

information from worker to

supplier

superior.
(B) Refering a consultant for
9.

Morale largely depends on :

organisational development

(A) Physical well-being

(C) Refering a candidate for job by

(B) Monetary well-being

existing employee

(C) Mental well-being

(D) Refering a leader to lead

(D) Sociological well-being

employees
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13. Principle of Natural Justice in

16. Market Model was proposed by :

Domestic Enquiry ensures :


(A) Harry Markowitz
(A) Justice in time
(B) P. Samuelson
(B) Justice through Advocate
(C) Philip Kotler

(C) Opportunity given to the


delique employee being heard
(D) Payment

of

(D) William Sharpe

subsistance

17. If coupon rate = required rate, the

allowance

value of the bond would be equal to

14. Collective Bargaining is handled

its :

between :
(A) par value
(A) Employees and employees
(B) redumption value

(B) Employees and trade union


(C) Trade union and Advocate

(C) issued value

(D) Employer and employees

(D) YTM

15. Which of the following describes the

18. If r < k, the payout of dividend

process by which individuals come

should be 100% according to :

to agreement ?
(A) Modigliani-Miller
(A) Negotiation
(B) Walter

(B) Avoidance
(C) Accommodation

(C) Du-Pont

(D) Fighting actively

(D) Ezra Solomen


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19. Altman proposed a model of

22. AIDA Model is used mainly for :

predicting :

(A) Promotion Decision

(A) financial distress

(B) Product Decision

(B) market failure


(C) Pricing Decision
(C) high performance of firm
(D) Redressal of Grievances
(D) insolvency of the firm
23. The process of turning marketing
20. Present value of annuity is

strategies into specific day-to-day,

calculated by discounting it by :
month-to-month actions is called :
(A) Cost of capital
(A) Analysis
(B) IRR
(B) Implementation
(C) Zero coupon rate
(C) Planning
(D) YTM
(D) Control
21. According to Kotler, ........................ is
24. The first concept of marketing is :

the easiest marketing mix element


to adjust.

(A) Selling Concept

(A) Price

(B) Relationship

Marketing

Concept

(B) Channel
(C) Product features

(C) Production Concept

(D) Promotion

(D) Societal Marketing Concept


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28. Product mix is done on a single

25. Which of the following is an example


of impulse buying ?

assembly line for the purpose of :

(A) Buying mutual funds

(A) reducing WIP inventory

(B) Buying ice-creams

(B) meeting varied choice of


customers

(C) Buying a car

(C) levelling workload and reducing


(D) Buying a house
idle time
26. Negative inventory means :

(D) reduce cost per unit

(A) excess stock of materials

29. Basis for production, planning and

(B) material in transit


(C) no.

of

units

we

control is :
owe

to

(A) Accurate demand estimate

customers

(B) Capacity installed

(D) no. of defectives

(C) Need to beat competition

27. Statistical methods of quality

(D) Finance available

control can :

30. Operations Management will never

(A) help to decide number of

be successful if they ignore :

defectives

(A) Govt. Rules

(B) prevent defects in products

(B) Latest Technology

(C) improve customer satisfaction

(C) Demand Pattern

(D) determine process capability

(D) Quality of Goods


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FEB - 51213/II
33. While editing the completed

31. Which of the following is known as

questionnaires the researcher does

Information Superhighway ?

not check for :


(A) Intra-net

(A) Consistency

(B) Extra-net

(B) Accuracy

(C) i-pad II

(C) Homogeneity
(D) Brevity

(D) Internet
34. Alternate Hypothesis for H0 : 50
32. Power

of

hypothesis

test

is :

indicates :

(A) H1 : 50

(A) How fast the hypothesis gives

(B) H1 : = 50
(C) H1 : > 50

answer

(D) H1 : 50

(B) How well the hypothesis is

35. Which of the following is not a

stated

qualitative research technique ?


(C) Probability of rejecting null

(A) Focus group

hypothesis when it is false

(B) Survey technique

(D) Probability of accepting null

(C) Depth interview

hypothesis when it is true

(D) Word association


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36. Who

of

the

following

was

38. Which of the following data is not

instrumental in developing a

required for competition analysis ?

framework for classifying countries


(A) Recorded data
based on the work-related values
(Dimensions of Culture) that

(B) Observable data

predominate in respective countries,

(C) Opportunistic data

globally ?
(D) In-House data
(A) W. Chan Kim
39. Which of the following is the
(B) Renee Monborgue
correct sequence for strategy
(C) G. Hofstede

formulation ?

(D) C.K. Prahlad


(A) Mission
37. Relying on the typology suggested
by

Michael

Porter,

Objective

Strategy Policy

business
(B) Strategy Vision Mission

strategies could be classified into

Budget

3 types. Which of the following does


not fit into their classification ?

(C) Vision

Mission

(A) Cost leadership

Environmental Analysis

(B) Focus

Budget
(D) Vision Mission Strategy

(C) Industry Attractiveness

Budget

(D) Differentiation
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40. A survey of nearly 50 corporations

42. Who is the author of the book

in a variety of countries and

Innovation and Entrepreneurship ?

industries found 3 most highly rated

(A) Philip Kotler

benefits of strategic management.

(B) Michael Porter

Which of the following is not of those


(C) Peter Drucker

3 benefits ?

(D) C.K. Prahlad

(A) Clearer sense of strategic vision

43. Which of the following is not one of

for the firm

the four elements in innovation

(B) Internationalisation of strategy,

process ?

vision and mission

(A) New Knowledge Creation


(C) Sharper focus on what is
(B) Commercial Application

strategically important

(C) Organising Resources

(D) Improved understanding of a

(D) Analytical Planning

rapidly changing environment

44. Which of the following is not a phase

41. ............................ is the non-traditional


source of finance for entrepreneurs.

in business plan preparation ?

(A) Bank Loan

(A) Setting business goals

(B) Venture Capital

(B) Locating Resources

(C) Friends and Relatives

(C) Analysing Competitions

(D) SIDBI

(D) Developing the labour market


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48. Which of the following key force

45. The entrepreneurial activity is most


prevalent in :

influences a persons ethics ?

(A) United States

(A) Nationality

(B) Japan

(B) Education
(C) Family influences

(C) Germany

(D) Relationship of the firm to the

(D) Great Britain

employee
46. The elements of good corporate
49. A personality measure of the

governance in India have been laid

strength of a persons convictions

down by :

is :
(A) ICSI
(A) locus of control
(B) IOD
(B) locus of value
(C) ICWAI

(C) ego strength

(D) ICAI

(D) bench strength

47. Which of the following is not a

50. Greed is the cornerstone of human

stakeholder in the CSR ?

values under :

(A) Creditors

(A) Socialism

(B) Environment

(B) Capitalism

(C) Government

(C) Mixed economy

(D) SEBI

(D) Racialism
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FEB - 51213/II
ROUGH

10

WORK

Test Booklet No.

iz'uif=dk -

Paper-II
MANAGEMENT

2. (Signature) .........................................

(In figures as in Admit Card)


Seat No. ..............................................................
(In words)
OMR Sheet No.

(Name) ................................................

FEB - 51213

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Time Allowed : 1 Hours]


Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
1.
2.
3.

4.

6.
7.
8.

9.

10.
11.
12.

[Maximum Marks : 100


Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

Instructions for the Candidates


Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided
on the top of this page.
This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i)
To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii)
Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
order or any other discrepancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii)
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.
A

5.

FEB - 51213/II

Seat No.

Signature and Name of Invigilator


1. (Signature) .........................................
(Name) ................................................

1.
2.

3.

4.

Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR


Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
Read instructions given inside carefully.
Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

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[P.T.O.

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