0460 Geography Example Candidate Responses Booklet 2011

Example Candidate Responses
(Standards Booklet)
Cambridge IGCSE
Geography
0460
Cambridge Secondary 2
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University of Cambridge International Examinations 2012
Contents
Introduction ........................................................................................................................... 2
Assessment at a glance ........................................................................................................ 3
Paper 1 ................................................................................................................................. 4
Paper 2 ............................................................................................................................... 97
Paper 4 ............................................................................................................................. 146
Introduction
Introduction
The main aim of this booklet is to exemplify standards for those teaching Cambridge IGCSE Geography
(0460), and to show how different levels of candidates performance relate to the subjects curriculum and
assessment objectives.
In this booklet a range of candidate responses has been chosen as far as possible to exemplify grades A, C
and E. Each response is accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the strengths and weaknesses of
the answers.
For ease of reference the following format for Papers 1 and 2 has been adopted:
Question
Mark scheme
Example candidate
response
Examiner comment
The mark scheme used by examiners is followed by examples of marked candidate responses, each with an
examiner comment on performance. Comments are given to indicate why marks were awarded, and how
additional marks could have been obtained. In this way, it is possible to understand what candidates have
done to gain their marks and what they still have to do to improve their grades.
For Paper 4 a whole candidate script has been selected for grade A, grade C and grade E. Extracts from
each script are illustrated and commented on. Single mark answers are not illustrated unless there is a
particular point to make.
Past papers, Principal Examiner Reports for Teachers and other teacher support materials are available on
our Teacher Support website at http://teachers.cie.org.uk
Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460
Assessment at a glance
Assessment at a glance
Cambridge IGCSE syllabuses are designed as two-year courses for examination at age 16-plus. This
syllabus is available for examination in both the June and November sessions.
All candidates take
Paper 1
1 hour 45 minutes
Paper 2
1 hour 30 minutes
Candidates answer any three questions out

of six. There are two questions set on each
of three themes. Questions are structured
with gradients of difficulty and are
resource-based, involving problem solving
and free response writing. (75 marks,
weighted to 100 marks)
Candidates answer all the questions. The paper

is based on testing the interpretation and analysis
of geographical information and on the application
of graphical and other techniques as appropriate.
The questions will not require specific information
of place. One question is based on a 1:25 000
or 1:50 000 topographical map of a tropical area
such as Zimbabwe, the Caribbean or Mauritius.
(60 marks)
45% of total marks
27.5% of total marks
and either
or
Paper 3
Paper 4
Coursework
(Centre-based assessment*)
Alternative to Coursework
Teachers set one school-based assignment

of up to 2000 words. (60 marks)
1 hour 30 minutes
Candidates answer all the questions, completing a

series of written tasks based on the three themes
(see page 8). The questions involve an appreciation
of a range of techniques used in fieldwork studies.
Questions test the methodology of questionnaires,
observation, counts, measurement techniques and
may involve developing hypotheses appropriate to
specific topics. The processing, presentation and
analysis of data will be tested. (60 marks)
*Centre-based assessments require the written approval of the University of Cambridge International
Examinations. This will only be given to teachers who satisfy the requirements concerning moderation and
who have undertaken training in assessment before entering candidates.
Candidates are not allowed to use atlases for the written papers;
All measurements on the written papers will be metric;
The twenty-four hour clock only will be quoted on the written papers.
Teachers are reminded that a full syllabus is available on www.cie.org.uk
Paper 1
Paper 1
Question 1
Mark scheme
Paper 1
Paper 1
Example candidate response grade A
Paper 1
Paper 1
Paper 1
Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has given an accurate definition of migrant. (1/1)
ii) The candidate has correctly identified one of the two correct examples of forced migration, a
refugee. (1/2)
iii) Again the focus is forced migration. Credit was awarded for the candidates first push factor,
war, however no further credit was given, Whilst natural disasters will force people to migrate an
example was required. The lack of jobs was not accepted as this would be a push factor linked with
an economic migrant rather than forced migration. (1/3)
iv) This was a full answer which scored full marks. At least four different ideas were briefly but clearly
explained. (4/4)
b) i)
The candidate identified three correct examples from Fig. 2. (3/3)
ii) The candidate has chosen migration from a town to a foreign city which is an acceptable migration
shown on Fig. 2 (the reference to the named places was not required and therefore ignored, even
though it is not from an LEDC as Fig. 2 illustrates). The candidate makes four clear but brief points
explaining why people migrate between these types of places. Any of these points could have been
elaborated for a further mark as development marks are credited on those questions worth 5 marks.
For example the candidate could have elaborated about the improved houses and quality of life by
referring to running water, electricity and sanitation. Alternatively the other mark could have been
scored for another simple explanation such as the availability of improved health care facilities. (4/5)
c) The candidate has selected Bangladesh, which is an acceptable example of a country which is
overpopulated. He is able to achieve full Level 2 marks by developing three ideas (lack of food, lack of
housing and lack of jobs). Note that each of these ideas are developed (e.g. lack of homes so slums are
created, lack of food which leads to starvation, lack of jobs so people send their children out to work).
The candidate could have achieved Level 3 by including at least one item of place specific detail (e.g.
reference to Dhaka or the delta of the Ganges). (6/7)
Mark awarded = 20 out of 25
Paper 1
Example candidate response grade C
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has given an acceptable definition of migrant. (1/1)
ii) The candidate has correctly identified both of the examples of forced migration. (2/2)
iii) As the focus is forced migration the push factors identified by the candidate are not relevant as
they are all examples which would be more applicable to voluntary migration. (0/3)
iv) The candidate included two relevant ideas, problems with language and the issue of different
culture/traditions. Neither point is well expressed or developed but both are worthy of credit.
However the final point made by the candidate people are not happy to see migrants in their
country needs further qualification for credit. How does this become a problem for migrants?
(2/4)
b) i)
ii) The candidate has chosen rural to urban migration which is an acceptable migration as such
migrations in LEDCs are clearly shown on Fig. 2. The candidate makes three simple points explaining
why people migrate between these types of places. Had any of these points been elaborated or had
more simple ideas been included further marks would have been awarded. In answers such as this
where a candidate uses the word better there is an opportunity for more marks to be scored by
explaining in what way it would be better. (3/5)
c) The candidate has selected Nigeria, which is an acceptable example of a country which is
overpopulated. He is able to achieve full Level 1 marks by including at least three simple ideas. Indeed
there are five simple ideas expressed (lack of education, medical care, water pollution, lack of jobs and
high crime rates). The answer does not reach Level 2 as none of these ideas are developed. (3/7)
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Example candidate response grade E
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has used the word migrates in his answer which is too similar to the word migrant
to show clear enough knowledge for credit to be awarded. (0/1)
ii) The candidate has correctly identified one of the examples of forced migration, a refugee. (1/2)
iii) As these factors are all examples which would be more applicable to an economic migrant they are
not relevant as they would be push factors which relate to voluntary rather than forced migration.
(0/3)
iv) The candidate included two relevant ideas, difficulties of integrating into society as a result of culture
and problems finding a job. It is not clear what the candidate means by margination or how this
would be a problem. (2/4)
b) i)
ii) The candidate has chosen migration from a village to a capital city as shown on Fig. 2. The candidate
makes four simple points explaining why people migrate between these types of places. More
services was not credited as examples needed to be quoted (e.g. schools, hospitals). (4/5)
c) The candidate has selected Brazil, which would have been acceptable, even though only parts of it are
overpopulated, such as the major urban areas on the south east coast. The candidate however does not
score any marks as he has not really identified any problems which overpopulation causes. Reference is
made to emigration but the candidate does not explain what problems are causing people to emigrate.
There is reference to jobs, however this reference is confused and the idea of pressure on jobs as a
result of overpopulation is not made. (0/7)
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Question 2
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has given an excellent definition, referring to the agricultural nature of rural
settlements and using the word countryside. The reference to few people and basic services
also shows a very good understanding. (1/1)
ii) An acceptable advantage and disadvantage of the site of settlement Y have been given, protection
from the prevailing winds and the difficulty of access to water. Both ideas show appropriate
interpretation of the block diagram, Fig. 3. (2/2)
iii) The candidate has made four relevant points and therefore scored the full three marks. The
references to trade and fishing are acceptable despite the reference to streams rather than rivers
which would probably be of little value to either activity (however a river is shown on Fig. 3).
References to flat land and water for agriculture are also acceptable. (3/3)
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b) i)
Despite the use of the word rural rather than urban full credit was awarded here the question is
about the growth of the urban population and looking at the figures quoted by the candidate this is
clearly what the candidate was referring to so the benefit of the doubt was given. Otherwise this is
a good response, with correct interpretation of Fig. 4 and accurate statistics quoted to back up the
statement. (3/3)
ii) At least four points were clearly made here and the candidate shows a full understanding of the
problems for people which may result from urban growth. (4/4)
iii) Here the focus was on the effects of the rapid urban growth on the natural environment, again
the question was well understood by the candidate. Credit was awarded for reference to air
pollution from the increased number of cars, though this could have been developed for a further
mark in terms of its impact on the local natural environment. Whilst reference to soil erosion and
infertility was not really relevant to rapid urban growth the reference to deforestation certainly was.
Furthermore the point was well elaborated by reference to destruction of habitats and extinction
of species so development marks were awarded in this 5 mark question. The leaking sewage
contaminating water was also credited, as a reference to river pollution. (5/5)
c) Rio de Janeiro was a well chosen example, a very popular case study. The candidate was awarded
mid level 2 as he had developed two points, the references to public transport developments and
improvements in water quality. Other ideas were basic (e.g. electricity, roads), had one of these been
developed the candidate would have been able to reach the top of Level 2. Reference to favelas
would have enabled Level 3 access too had there been enough developed ideas, as this term is clearly
associated with South American cities like Rio so it would have been accepted as place specific. (5/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has given an acceptable definition by referring to a settlement in the countryside. The
use of the word settlement was allowed as the candidate showed a clear understanding of rural.
(1/1)
ii) Both the advantage and the disadvantage were accepted, for the references to the fact that flooding
is unlikely at that height (advantage) and the steepness of the slope (disadvantage). (2/2)
iii) The candidate has clearly made three relevant points - flat land, good water supply and protection
from the prevailing winds and therefore scored the full three marks. (3/3)
b) i)
The candidate has recognised the more rapid urban growth rate in Lesotho, however for further
credit accurate figures for at least two years were needed to back up the statement. Statistics for
2010 were quoted but those for 1970 (or any earlier year) were needed to show that growth rates
were higher in Lesotho than Niger. (1/3)
ii) This is a good answer, four points were clearly made, overcrowding, traffic congestion, noise
pollution and the employment issue. The point about more resources would not have gained credit
as it was too vague (what resources?), however the candidate did make enough relevant points for
full marks. (4/4)
iii) This answer on the impacts of the rapid urban growth on the natural environment was weak and
only gained one mark for the reference to trees being cut down. The vague references to pollution
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and resources both needed to be elaborated for any credit to be awarded and soil erosion was not
considered to be an impact of rapid urban growth. Any reference to pollution needs to be qualified
(e.g. air pollution, water pollution) and candidates should aim to qualify the point they make by
referring to its source and/or effect, in this case on the natural environment . (1/5)
c) Rio de Janeiro was a good example but the candidate only achieved Level 1 as all the references to
improvements were brief and simple statements (e.g. built houses, clinics and schools out of decent
materials). The first half of the answer, where the candidate has developed ideas, is not relevant as it
describes problems faced by residents rather than solutions to them. (3/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has referred to a settlement out of the city where land is used for farming so this
is acceptable. (1/1)
ii) Neither the advantage nor the disadvantage was accepted. Permeable rock may well be good for
farming but the candidate does not show any understanding of the meaning of permeable. The
settlement is on a hill however the candidate needed to refer to the steepness for credit. The fact
that it is further away from the river needed to be qualified for credit why is this a disadvantage of
the settlement site? (0/2)
iii) The candidate has made two relevant points - flat land, and the availability of water for farming. The
candidate has developed these ideas, however development marks are only available on the 5 mark
questions requiring extended writing. The candidate should have included other simple ideas (e.g.
fertile soil, shelter from prevailing winds, availability of fish from the river) to gain the missed mark.
(2/3)
b) i)
This is a weak answer, figures quoted are not accurate and the candidate does not make any
statements about the relative growth of the urban population in the two countries, despite
comments comparing the populations of the countries in different years. (0/3)
ii) The candidate refers to insufficient housing and schools, however these are the only two relevant
points made. (2/4)
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iii) This answer is very vague and the only specific idea about the impacts of the rapid urban growth on
the natural environment which could be credited was that of clearing the forests. Vague references
to pollution , bad for the environment and harms the nature all need to be more precise for
credit, in terms particularly of how they may impact the natural environment. (1/5)
c) Again Rio de Janeiro has been chosen, which is a good case study to use. It is good to see that the
candidate is trying to include place specific details by reference to Rocinha and Barra de Tijuca (which
is a relatively wealthy part of Rio), but he only just develops ideas towards the end when referring to
the self help nature of the improvements. It is a pity that much of the answer does not focus on the
improvements which took place, and is largely simplistic in terms of improvements being made, as
the candidate needed to make more relevant developed points to score a higher mark within this level.
(4/7)
Question 3
Mark scheme
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(iv) Features on diagram to be shown and labelled:

Figure 2. The maximum-minimum thermometer
U- Shape (no labelling needed);

maximum/minimum scales;
magnet;
metal markers;
alcohol/spirit;
mercury;
air space.
4 @ 1 mark
[4]
(b) (i) Differences such as:

B shows a greater amount of cloud cover than A/more oktas in B;
B clouds are grey but A are white/darker clouds in B;
B nimbus/stratus but A cumulus;
B clouds are lower than A;
clouds in B are more likely to produce rain etc.
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has correctly identified Wednesday as the day with the highest temperature range.
(1/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded here as the correct relationships have been identified. Whilst the second
part of the answer is not well expressed it is assumed that the candidate is referring to the direction
the wind is blowing from and the use of words like closer and higher provide the required
comparison. (2/2)
iii) All three weather instruments are correctly identified for full marks. (3/3)
iv) The candidate has scored three of the four marks. The U shape drawn is clearly that of a
maximum-minimum thermometer and the candidate labels the maximum/minimum scale and
recognizes that there is alcohol with the tube. The final mark could have been gained for labelling
another feature, such as the mercury or the metal indicators from which to take the readings. (3/4)
b) i)
The candidate clearly makes an attempt to compare the clouds shown in the photograph and the
first point is clearly made. In order to credit a second mark for comparisons the 2nd and 3rd points
need to be considered together. Credit was awarded for the attempt to name each type of cloud,
and the benefit of the doubt was given to the candidate even though the names were not 100%
accurate. (2/3)
ii) The candidate showed a good understanding here by referring to the low humidity and the few
sources of water which lead to a lack of evaporation. Further marks could have been scored had the
candidate explained this, for example by reference to wind direction, distance from the sea or high
pressure. (3/5)
c) The Amazon is an appropriate choice of rainforest area. Good understanding is shown as the candidate
both descriptive points and explanation. Full Level 3 marks were awarded as the answer contained
sufficient developed points and an appropriate balance of description and explanation. In this question
place specific details were not required. (7/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate correctly identified Wednesday as the day with the highest temperature range. (1/1)
ii) One mark was awarded for the link between air pressure and precipitation. The reference to
temperature and wind direction is not sufficiently clear for credit. What is further towards the
south? (1/2)
iii) All three weather instruments are correctly identified for full marks. (3/3)
iv) The candidate has scored three marks. The U shape is evident along with the alcohol and
maximum/minimum scale, however there is nothing else worthy of credit as many of the labels are
repetitive. (3/4)
b) i)
The candidate clearly makes an attempt to compare the clouds though it is necessary to combine
together points one and two to achieve the comparison about the amount of cloud cover. When
answering questions where they have to identify differences it is far better if candidates use
comparative words like more or larger. Although the cloud types are named in point three they
have been reversed. (1/3)
ii) The candidate referred to low water levels and lack of evaporation however there were no other
relevant ideas in the answer. (2/5)
c) The Amazon rainforest was an appropriate choice area, however all points made by the candidate were
simple, brief descriptive points with no attempt to explain, hence no higher mark than top Level 1 could
be awarded. (3/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The answer was incorrect. Sunday has the lowest temperatures but not the lowest temperature
range. (0/1)
ii) One mark was awarded for the link between air pressure and precipitation. (1/2)
iii) Two of the three weather instruments were correctly identified. (2/3)
iv) The candidate has scored full marks. The drawing shows the U shape and the maximum/minimum
scales are marked and labelled. The alcohol and the metal index are drawn and labelled. (4/4)
b) i)
The candidate makes two comparative points here. The first point is weakly expressed, nevertheless
a valid comparison of the two photographs. (2/3)
ii) The candidate only referred to there being very little water for evaporation. (2/5)
c) The Amazon rainforest was an appropriate choice area, however the description was far too weak for
any credit at this level, indeed the statements are incorrect. (0/7)
Question 4
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate has correctly defined the term plate boundary. (1/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded here for the recognition that A and B are destructive and constructive
boundaries respectively. (2/2)
iii) A very clear answer which includes all points required in the mark scheme and shows excellent
understanding. The fact that location X is not on a plate boundary is well developed by reference to
there being no gaps from which lava can emerge. (3/3)
iv) The candidate has scored full marks. The sequence which results in an earthquake along a
conservative boundary was clearly explained, with the assistance of a useful labelled diagram. The
first three marks were gained for plates moving side by side, friction and pressure build up from
the written text. The final mark for reference to a plate jerking forwards was from the label on
the diagram. Candidates can score marks for any combination of written text and labelling on the
diagram(s) in questions such as this, though double credit is not given. Candidates often simply
repeat information on the diagram which they have included in their text, indeed this candidate could
have scored all four marks for the labelling on the diagram which express the four mark scheme
ideas outlined above. (4/4)
b) i)
The candidate has described three features shown in Photograph C. Credit was just awarded for
reference to vegetation on the edge of the volcano though the candidate could have been more
precise in this description. The steep slopes and steaming water in the centre are clear mark
scheme points. (3/3)
ii) The candidate made five points here, including some development so scored the maximum five
marks. The reference to cheap house prices would not have been credited as it is not always
true that houses close to a volcano are cheap. The references to tourism and fertile soils are good
reasons, if necessary the former could have been developed by reference to high yields and the
latter by reference to the types of tourist related ways of making a living in volcanic areas. The final
points about people having lived there all their lives, not wanting to leave family and friends and not
believing the volcano will erupt are all valid ideas. (5/5)
c) Japan has been chosen as the case study, which in itself is not precise enough for a location (a location
is required which is smaller than a whole country unless the country is a small one like Haiti). However
later in the answer the candidate refers to Fukushima which adds the required precision to the case
study. Indeed it also includes some place specific detail such as the date (which was not quite accurate
as it was the 11th March 2011) and the intensity of the earthquake. Along with the developed points
which the candidate makes there is sufficient here for full Level 3 credit. (7/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
This answer is incorrect. The use of the term plate tectonics here shows no understanding. (0/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded here. Collision boundary was an acceptable alternative for A and B was
correctly identified by the candidate as a constructive boundary. (2/2)
iii) The candidate observes that X is in the middle of a continental plate for one mark but does not go
any further to explain why there would be no active volcanoes in that area. (1/3)
iv) The candidate clearly refers to the sliding of the plates/in opposite directions which is also shown on
the diagram. There is no reference to friction or pressure build up however the reference to earth
displacement in the diagram and seismic activity in the written text was just awarded credit. (2/4)
b) i)
The first feature identified was a caldera which was acceptable. Even though this is not a description
the use of the technical term was sufficient for credit. The candidate then referred to the vegetation
in the next two points. Credit would not have been awarded for the negative statement in 2 however
the reference to the trees and plants behind, though poorly expressed, was just enough for a second
mark. (2/3)
ii) There were three good points made here. Further marks could have been scored by developing any
of these or including other ideas such as the fact that tourists may be attracted by the volcano, the
fertility of the soil or the possibility of generating geothermal power. (3/5)
c) Kobe was an acceptable case study. The Kobe case study is a very good one to use as candidates
often quote numbers of deaths, houses damaged and homeless people, along with reference to named
locations, such as the Hanshin Expressway, to score high marks. Here however the points made were
largely simple ones which could apply to almost any earthquake. The reference to people being scared
to return to their houses was developed by reference to aftershocks and this enabled the answer to be
credited at Level 2, however none of the other points were developed. (4/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
This answer is correct. It is not written in a sentence but this is not a problem as it shows sufficient
understanding of the term plate boundary for the mark. (1/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded here for recognition of the destructive and constructive plate boundaries.
The candidate was not penalised for referring to constructive plate rather than boundary. (2/2)
iii) Again this was weakly expressed however template boundary was accepted as plate boundary and
one mark was awarded. The reference to plates not being able to collide or move away from each
other was not considered sufficient to explain why volcanoes do not erupt. The candidate needed
to refer to there being no lines of weakness and/or the fact that as a consequence magma cannot
escape. (1/3)
iv) The candidate clearly refers to plates sliding past each other in the same direction, commenting
on their different speeds of movement. The diagram adds little and there is no reference to the
sequence of events which triggers earthquakes as a result of the lateral movement of plates. (1/4)
b) i)
No credit was awarded here. The first point was very weakly expressed. The final two points do
not answer the question as the candidate is not describing features which can be seen in the
photograph. (0/3)
ii) There were two acceptable points made here, both very simply expressed. (2/5)
c) Haiti was an acceptable case study although the answer was brief. Nevertheless it was credited at top
Level 1 as at least three simple ideas were expressed. The candidate needed to develop these ideas to
achieve a mark within Level 2. (3/7)
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Question 5
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate makes a clear and accurate comparison of subsistence and commercial farming. (1/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded. The definition of labour intensive is very clear however there is a little
confusion in the candidates mind between drainage and irrigation. Nevertheless the reference to
water being supplied to a farm so it is never in shortage was sufficient for credit to be awarded.
(2/2)
iii) Three correct examples were given by the candidate for full marks. Whilst fodder crops are
produced on the farm they would still be classified as an input and on a systems diagram this would
be shown in a feedback loop. (3/3)
iv) This was a well thought out answer which scored full marks. The candidate correctly focused on the
influence of the climate on land use and covered the impact of the amount of rainfall, the length of
the growing season and temperature. In addition appropriate examples of different land uses were
used to show an excellent understanding. (4/4)
b) i)
The candidate has attempted to compare the farming systems in 1970 and 2010, clearly outlining
changes. Two marks were awarded as the first and third changes expressed by the candidate
expressed the same idea using different words. (2/3)
ii) The candidate refers to increasing yield which means the farmer earns more money, which is why
his quality of life will may have improved. He then develops this by referring to the increased amount
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of disposable income he will have available and to the fact that he will be able to afford more
luxuries. Further marks could have been scored by reference to other ideas, such as the fact that he
would be able to afford to send his children to school or pay for healthcare. Alternatively he could
have referred to the fact that he could afford to buy new technology for his farm, or high yielding
varieties of seeds, to ensure that the high yields are sustained. (3/5)
c) The candidate has selected Sudan, which is a good example of a country which is suffering from
famine. It is an excellent and well thought out answer which contains several different ideas, all of which
are developed in an appropriate and clear way. The use of a statistic and the reference to an actual crop
grown, cotton, ensured that the answer could be credited as Level 3 for the full seven marks. (7/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The comparison was accepted, the word leaving was interpreted as living. (1/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded despite the poor wording. Growings was accepted as crops though it is
not clear what the candidate means by the last part of the definition of irrigated. The reference to a
lot of is the reason why the definition of labour intensive was accepted. (2/2)
iii) Either land or seeds would have been acceptable as an input, however in this type of question the
first answer is the one which is accepted. Ploughing was credited as a process although crops for
feeding his animals was not accepted as an output as they would be used on the actual farm rather
than sold. (2/3)
iv) This answer is vague and shows little real understanding, however it does convey the idea that
the crops grown depend on temperature and availability of moisture so one mark was awarded.
These ideas could have been made much clearer and the references to oranges in Siberia, or other
examples, could have been qualified for further credit. (1/4)
b) i)
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The first point made was credited. The question asks for a description of changes. The fact that
nowadays farmers export their crops was just credited as the implication was that they were
previously used domestically. The second point made offers no comparison and, whilst the last point
is comparative, it is incorrect as yields were higher in 2010 not 1980. (1/3)
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ii) The answer is succinct, however there are three clear mark scheme points made, the farmer has
more money so he can send his children to school and afford medical care. The candidate could
have developed any of these points or make other statements about how quality of life would have
improved for further credit. For example he could have referred to increased food security and the
fact that the farmer would no longer have to depend on his harvest but be able to buy varieties of
food from the local market. (3/5)
c) It is hard to decipher the example which the candidate has selected (Dimar?), however it is clearly
not a country as he suggests in the first sentence. In cases such as this, where an acceptable
example is not given candidates can score up to a maximum of 5 marks. However this would require
at least two relevant developed statements. The reference to war was the only point which was
developed so the candidate was awarded Level 2, four marks. (4/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
A good comparison was made between subsistence and commercial farming. (1/1)
ii) No marks were awarded here as neither definition was sufficiently clear. The use of the word
irrigate in the definition of irrigated did not allow the candidate to show his knowledge of the
meaning of the term, even though he mentioned water. The definition of labour intensive is incorrect
as the focus needs to be on the large number of people working on the farm. (0/2)
iii) Either tractors or fertilizers would have been acceptable as an input, and tractors was accepted.
Ploughing was credited as a process although fodder crops did not gain the mark for the output (see
comment on previous candidates answer). (2/3)
iv) The candidate outlines the significance of temperature and rainfall in determining which type of crop
will be grown so one mark was awarded. The answer needs further ideas or exemplication for more
credit to be awarded. (1/4)
b) i)
The first point made was well made as yields did increase between 1980 and 2010. The second
point as not offering any description of change and the final point does not relate to the farming
system. (1/3)
ii) Much of the answer fails to address the issue of how the quality of life of the farmer and his family
may have been improved by the changes. Money is mentioned, although the idea of more money
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is not stated. Nevertheless the candidate refers to buying fertilizers so the implication is there and
one mark was awarded. (1/5)
c) Kenya is a suitable example of a country where there is a shortage of food. Whilst most of the points
made were basic, the reference to shortage of rainfall is just developed by linking this with crop failure
so the candidate was just awarded Level 2, four marks. For further credit within Level 2 the candidate
could have developed the point about poor soil or the lack of government help. (4/7)
Question 6
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
a) i)
The candidate identifies El Arenal, a correct example of a tourist resort in Majorca. (1/1)
ii) Both marks were awarded for the two named attractions selected by the candidate. (2/2)
iii) This is a good answer as the candidate has given figures for temperatures, sunshine hours and
rainfall and interpreted them very clearly in order to explain the climatic attractions of Majorca
between June and August. Had the statistics just been lifted from the table no credit would have
been awarded. (3/3)
b) i)
This was a well thought out answer which scored full marks. Firstly the candidate refers to the
exotic, colourful nature of the coral reef and the different sea animals which live there. The final
mark is obtained by reference to the opportunities for diving on the reef. (3/3)
ii) The candidate has picked out two appropriate human activities which threaten the Great Barrier
reef, divers treading on the coral and intensive fishing. A mark has been awarded for the explanation
of why diving is a threat to the reef (i.e. it breaks the coral) however the explanation of the threat
caused by intensive fishing is not so convincing. The candidate would have been better advised to
refer to the threat to species and the impacts of this on ecosystems and/or food chains. (3/4)
iii) The candidate refers to a fishing ban and develops this point for a further mark. The reference to
divers was also credit worthy as it stated that diving could only take place in certain locations, a
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sufficiently different point from that about fishing where the candidate referred to a total ban in and
around the area. The remainder of the answer, whilst referring to other activities shown on Fig.10,
still focused on the idea of banning so no further credit could be awarded. Had the candidate
explored other possibilities, such as putting restrictions on numbers of tourists (or specific activities)
or educating and informing people about the threats to coral reefs for example, further marks would
have been gained. (3/5)
c) The candidate has selected Mont Blanc, which is a good example of an area where tourism is important.
It is a thorough answer which explores both the benefits and problems of the tourist industry for local
people. There are at least three developed points and the statement that Mont Blanc is Europes highest
mountain, along with the locational information, adds the place specific element to make the answer
worth the full seven marks at Level 3. (7/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
Alcudia is a correct example of a tourist resort in Majorca. (1/1)
ii) Palma Nova is a resort not a natural attraction, however Santueri Castle was an acceptable human
attraction so one mark was awarded. (1/2)
iii) This answer scores the full three marks as the candidate has referred to high temperatures and
sunshine hours and temperatures and low rainfall. Figures for temperatures, sunshine hours and
rainfall were not included, however these were not required as it was the interpretation of these
which gained credit. (3/3)
b) i)
The candidate has identified two activities, diving and boating, which were credited as explanations
of why a coral reef was a tourist attraction. The final mark could have been obtained by reference
to the characteristics of the reef which are attractive, such as the large biodiversity or its natural
beauty. (2/3)
ii) The candidate has picked out two appropriate ways in which the reef is damaged by human
activities, boat anchors and pollution from farming, sewage and industry. The reference to this
pollution causing the fish to die was credited as explanation of why that human activity (diving) is
a threat to the reef, however there is no explanation of the threat caused by boat anchors as the
copy of damage coral taken from Fig. 10 needs to be qualified. The reference to tourists going
elsewhere and income being lost is irrelevant to this answer. (3/4)
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iii) The candidate refers to laws to stop industry polluting which was credited. This could have been
developed for a further mark how, for example, could these laws be implemented and policed?
The rest of the answer is too simplistic for any credit. The candidate should have stated how people
could be restricted from fishing and how boats could be stopped from damaging the coral. Would
the signs for the divers be part of a zoning policy where activities were banned in some area and
allowed in others or part of an attempt to inform and educate? (1/5)
c) The candidate has selected Mount Helen Bay, and is probably confusing the case study with the one
of Mount St Helens for a volcanic eruption. Nevertheless, even without an acceptable example up to
5 marks can be awarded, providing there are two developed ideas. The use of bullet points tends to
encourage brief statements rather than developed ones, however the reference to improvement of
facilities such as schools and hospitals was considered sufficiently developed for the answer to be
awarded low Level 2, four marks. (4/7)
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Examiner comment
a) i)
Bon Amy is not an example of a tourist resort in Majorca, the key classifies it as a historic site. (0/1)
ii) The question asks for names of the chosen natural and human attractions. Beaches and historical
sites would have been acceptable had the candidate named them. (0/2)
iii) This is a good answer as the candidate has referred to features of the temperatures, sunshine hours
and rainfall which are attractive to tourists, therefore the full three marks were awarded. (3/3)
b) i)
A mark was awarded for reference to boat trips, however there is little else in the answer to suggest
that the candidate is aware of the attractions of a coral reef. (1/3)
ii) Pollution from farming/sewage and sediment from deforestation were credited as ways in which the
reef could be damaged by human activities, however the explanations given were very confused and
it appears that the candidate has little idea of what a coral reef actually is. (3/4)
iii) Again there is no understanding shown here and this answer confirms that the candidate is not
familiar with a coral reef. The only pertinent comments is do not throw sewage in the river but
there is no reference to how this can be achieved so no marks could be awarded. (0/5)
c) The candidate has selected the West Indies which covers too large an area to be acceptable as a case
study so a maximum of five marks could be awarded, had there been two developed ideas in the
answer. Had the candidate named an actual island in the West Indies, such as St Lucia, this would have
been acceptable. Level 2 was awarded as the reference to the farmers losing their land was sufficiently
developed. The advantages were not well expressed and even though the term multiplier effect was
used this part of the answer was not sufficiently convincing to take the response higher within Level 2
so four marks were awarded. (4/7)
Mark awarded= 10 out of 25
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Question 1
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
In parts (a) and (b), the candidate demonstrates a high level of proficiency in identifying features on the map
and using the key to identify them. The only incorrect answer is in part (b)(i) where the candidate refers to a
ridge rather than gentle slopes. In part (c), the grid reference, compass direction and bearing are all correct.
In part (d), the candidate scores one mark out of three, not recognising that the gentle slopes are cultivated
and that the seasonal marsh is next to rivers. In part (e), the candidate scores two marks out of the four
available for describing the drainage. These are for identifying tributaries and the flow towards the north.
There is a slight possibility that the candidate may think that the tributaries leave the rivers rather than join
them but the candidate has been given the benefit of the doubt and the mark has been awarded.
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Examiner comment
Like the grade A candidate, this candidate is good at finding features and identifying them and scores full
marks on parts (a) and (b). However, fewer marks are scored on the more demanding later sections. In
part (c), the bearing is correct but the grid reference and compass direction are not. In part (d), the seasonal
marsh is correctly identified as being next to rivers. The answer to part (e) is irrelevant as the candidate
refers to cultivation and vegetation but not to drainage.
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Examiner comment
The candidate does not always use the map key correctly and makes simple errors as in parts (a)(i) and
(ii). In part (c), the correct compass bearing is given but not the compass direction and grid reference. The
description of drainage in part (e) is almost completely irrelevant. The reference to pipelines is confused as
there are none within the area shown on Fig. 2.
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Question 2
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
The candidate is aware of the difference between primary, secondary and tertiary industries but loses a
mark because manufacturing alone was not considered sufficient for an example of secondary industry.
In part (b), the graph is plotted accurately. In part (c), the candidate understands how to answer the question
based on the unfamiliar diagram. The plotting of Australia is accurate but that of Malaysia is outside the
tolerance used by examiners.
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Examiner comment
In part (a), the examples of primary and tertiary industry are correct but not the example of secondary
industry. The candidate has plotted one line on the divided bar graph correctly and used the correct key but
the second line (on the right) is incorrect. In part (c) the plotting of Australia is correct but the plotting of
Malaysia is outside the tolerance.
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Examiner comment
The candidate has been awarded a mark for part (a)(i), with the assumption that the answer is intended
to mean the extraction of limestone. The answer to part (a)(ii) is ambiguous; it could mean production, or
processing, or selling of coffee. Part (a)(iii) is answered correctly. Neither of the two lines plotted on the
divided bar graph are correct but one mark has been awarded for use of the correct key. In part (c), the
candidate has not been able to plot points accurately on the unfamiliar diagram.
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Question 3
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
In part (a), the candidate has noted the rapid increase in world population but has failed to score the second
mark for recognising the initial slower increase. In part (b)(i), the candidate correctly notes that Japan
had the largest percentage of over-60s in 2005 but it is Indonesia that will have the greatest increase.
The candidate correctly notes that this will increase government expenditure on health care. Part (c) is
completely correct: the graph is plotted accurately, the inverse relationship is identified and one other factor
affecting population growth rate is correctly given as the birth rate.
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Examiner comment
The candidate attempts to give reasons for the changes shown by the graph but does not describe them,
as required by the question. Japan and Indonesia are correctly identified in part (b) but the candidate fails
to give a sufficiently precise problem that the changes will cause for governments. In part (c), the graph is
plotted correctly, the inverse relationship is identified but infancy is not a sufficiently clear answer for part
(c)(iii).
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Examiner comment
In part (a), the candidate scores one mark for noting the population growth but the exponential nature of the
growth is not mentioned. In part (b)(i), the candidate scores one mark for noting that Japan had the largest
percentage of over-60s in 2005 but it is Indonesia that will have the greatest increase not China. In part (b)
(ii), the answer too many people could refer to the population as a whole and not just the over-60s. In
part (c), the scatter graph has not been plotted correctly and the candidate does not appear to understand
the meaning of the term relationship as used in the question. A third mark has been scored for noting that
the death rate is another factor affecting population growth.
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Question 4
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
The candidate has correctly located erosion and deposition on Fig. 8 but the flood plain is incorrectly shown
within the river channel. The likely future position of the channel is incorrect as it should show the migration
of the meander towards the right of the photograph. The answer to part (b) is completely correct.
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Examiner comment
Only the position of the flood plain is correct in part (a)(i). In part (a)(ii), the future position of the channel has
been given the benefit of the doubt and awarded a mark because it is to the right of the existing channel.
Part (b) has been awarded three of the four marks available; the first response should have been boulders
and not muddy.
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Examiner comment
Only deposition has been labelled correctly on Fig. 8. The candidate has not attempted to label the future
position of the channel. In part (b) the candidate has been awarded two marks for clear and faster.
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Question 5
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
Candidates found this a demanding question and the marks were lower than for other questions. In part
(a), the candidate correctly selects Z for Fig. 9A and X for Fig. 9B, identifying two desert locations, and in
the correct hemispheres. In part (b)(i), two marks have been awarded, one for noting the rainfall in May,
and one for noting the drought in June and July. June on the third line is probably a slip and the candidate
really means January. No marks have been awarded for the references to increasing and decreasing
temperatures and rainfall. In part (b)(ii), one mark has been awarded for distance from the sea as a cause of
aridity.
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Examiner comment
Grade C candidates found this a demanding question. The answer to part (a) is incorrect. In part (b)(i), three
marks have been awarded for hot in January and December, rainfall in January and December, and no rain in
June, July and August. No valid reasons are given for low rainfall in part (b)(ii).
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Examiner comment
One mark has been awarded in part (a) because the candidate has selected the two desert locations but
placed them in the wrong hemispheres. In part (b)(i), a mark has been awarded on the first two lines for
high temperatures in January. A mark has been awarded on lines five and six for rainfall in September to
December. No valid reasons are given for low rainfall in part (b)(ii).
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Question 6
Mark scheme
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Examiner comment
Part (a) is completely correct. In part (b), the candidate gives valid reasons for the opinions of all the various
people except the factory manager. (The new road will not make the costs greater.)
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Examiner comment
The candidate has measured the distance (10km) correctly but has been unable to convert this into the
correct journey time. In part (b), correct reasons are given for the first four peoples views: the lorry driver
will travel faster, the village will suffer from noise, the town will have less congestion and the shopkeeper
will lose customers. In part (b)(v), the candidate has crossed out the answer but it does not contain any valid
points. In part (b)(vi), pollution was not accepted as a valid reason and, if it were, the type of pollution should
have been specified.
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Examiner comment
The candidate has measured the distance (10km) correctly but has been unable to convert this into the
correct journey time. The candidate notes that the lorry driver will take less time (part (b)(i)) and that the
town resident will face less congestion (part (b)(iii)) but is unable to give valid reasons for the views of the
other people.
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Paper 4
For Paper 4 example candidate responses, one whole script has been chosen to exemplify standards at
each of grade A, grade C and grade E. Answers have been taken from these scripts where they illustrate
a particular point. The most appropriate and helpful answers are exemplified with extracts. These are often
written responses where differentiation is shown at its best and there is a reasonable range of marks
to separate the best and worst answers. Single mark answers of a numerical or graphical kind are not
illustrated unless there is a particular point to make.
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Question 1
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Mark scheme
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Almost all grade A candidates did match up the Heads and Tails successfully in part (a) however even grade
A candidates do not get full marks (above the threshold there are still 19 marks not gained). Recording at
five sites in part (b)(i) was done to obtain more data or identify differences from a wider range of data; this
was a mark lost at all levels. The common throwaway answer that the data is more accurate is not true
but is often stated by candidates of all abilities. Just carrying out more measurements does not make the
data more accurate. In part (b)(ii) however grade A candidates usually could identify that using a transect line
would help ensure that the distance between sites was equal gained credit.
Part (c)(i) was answered well by grade A candidates; many obtained all three marks. The example below
illustrates this well in a logical sequence and refers to how they made their measurements with the
equipment provided
The candidate states that the hole was dug in the ground down to 10cm and the cylinder was put in it (one
mark), then the measured amount of water (1 litre) was poured into it (one mark) then the stopwatch was
used to measure the time taken for the water to be absorbed (one mark). Putting the cylinder in the ground,
pouring in a measured amount of water and using the stopwatch were essential requirements to gain credit.
Grade A candidates had no problems with parts (c)(ii) or (c)(iii) and in part (c)(iv) clearly showed the working
of the calculation as required and put the final figure of 36.2 in the space provided.
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The graph work on part (d) was well done by grade A candidates although almost all candidates gained
high credit for parts of it. What distinguished grade A candidates was the accuracy of their plotting and the
neatness displayed in completing and shading the graphs as illustrated below.
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Grade A candidates were able to judge that the Hypothesis stated was incorrect and supported this
judgement by using appropriate data for the three Areas. In the example below this candidate underlined
the words fewer , infiltrates and quickly in the question clearly taking care to understand what the
relationship was stating before disagreeing with it. The candidate also does not use individual sites to
support the judgement but provides an overall view of Area A and Area C vegetation types and infiltration
rates. This is a very good answer.
Many candidates struggled with part (d)(iii). This candidate chose to focus on individual sites for Area B
to support the Hypothesis rather than the overall picture best gained by looking at the vegetation cover in
Areas A and C and relating that to infiltration times.
In part (d)(iv) grade A candidates could usually explain the importance of roots being able to absorb the
water quickly for use in plants as shown below however, even at this level, very few candidates mentioned
the other points e.g. the roots physically creating gaps for water to infiltrate down.
Question 1(e) did not get the response required at many levels on this paper. Few candidates referred
back to the data in Fig.1 despite the question asking them to do this. Some described the human impacts
taking place without linking them to any aspect of vegetation cover, compacted ground or infiltration rates.
A generic mark was available for candidates who did suggest that the infiltration times varied due to
differences in vegetation cover and linked this to Sites A, B and C. This candidate did achieve that.
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It was unusual for many candidates to get fewer than three marks for part (a); those that did usually
mismatched the Shallow roots... and Large leaves... with the correct Tails. The example below though
illustrates the kind of careless error that some candidates carry out. Despite being a grade C candidate,
they have put the arrow from Shallow roots... to the Tails heading box instead of to the ..to extract soil
nutrients. It is unfortunate to see an able candidate throw away marks in this way.
This candidate erroneously thought that five sites were measured to increase accuracy but did in part (b)
(ii) recognise the use of a transect line for measuring equal distances for one mark.
In part (c)(i) the candidate gained two marks. The answer was not well written but shows understanding
that the measuring cylinder is put into the ground to 10cm depth and the stopwatch is used to measure the
time to soak water away. The candidate states pour 1 litre of water but does not say where so cannot
get the third mark.
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Full marks were scored on the calculation/graph parts (c)(ii) to (d). However in part (d)(ii) some confusion
begins. Initially the candidate does state the hypothesis and says it is wrong however they then have
returned and changed quickly to slowly which is the correct hypothesis which is subsequently right. One
mark is gained however for using Area C as an example of where the infiltration is fastest with there are
more types of vegetation.
In part (d)(iii) the candidate clearly recognises that in Area C, where there is more than 50% cover, infiltration
is faster and in Area A, where it is less than 50% cover, infiltration is slower. A better answer would also
have included the average infiltration rates for a third mark. There was no need to waste time stating that
the hypothesis is true; that is stated in the question.
In part (d)(iv) the water being absorbed by roots is a correct reason for faster infiltration rates where
vegetation cover is great; a second reason such as large gaps created by roots is not given.
In part (e) the candidate just states three fairly random sentences about the soil variation or vegetation type
varying. There is no evidence that they have looked at Fig.1 as referred to in the question so end up with a
brief answer and no marks.
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In part (a) the matching exercise was completed correctly for three marks. The candidate suggested that
students collected data from five sites for comparison but that is not the initial reason for which is to collect
more data. Comparing it is a future stage. They also suggested using the transect line to measure distances
but this needed to be more precise and state equal distances.
In part (c)(i) the candidate lists three pieces of equipment but, as with many candidates at this level, does
not give enough detail for credit. What is the stopwatch measuring? How much water was to be poured and
where?
Despite only scoring 21/60 this grade E candidate had no problems answering the simpler practical
questions from parts (c)(ii) to (c)(iv). However in part (d), although the top two graphs were completed
accurately for three marks, the bottom graph was incorrectly done. The first bar graph is plotted five squares
up instead of four and the shaded areas for vegetation cover have not been added above the bar graphs.
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In part (d)(ii) the candidate correctly disagrees with the Hypothesis and also gained a second mark for
stating the new Hypothesis at the end of the answer. No credit was given for the data provided as evidence
as it was only from one site within an Area; an overall view was needed to support the judgement on the
Hypothesis one site is not enough.
The candidate clearly had no idea how to support Hypothesis 2 in part (d)(iii). As seen below a full answer is
given but is irrelevant referring to shades of grass colour as opposed to vegetation cover. Weak candidates
will often fill the space with irrelevant material; rather than be seen to leave it blank.
In part (iv) the use of the water by vegetation is just worth a mark though it does not really explain why
infiltration rates are quicker in these areas. In part (e) this candidate has looked at Fig.1 and given a basic
description of the three sites but nowhere do they go on to link the impacts to issues that create different
infiltration times.
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Question 2
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Mark scheme
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Example candidate responses grade A

Grade A candidates could give two different reasons for not asking the question Where do you live? In the
example below the issue of privacy gains a mark and also the candidate has realised that accumulating more
information on where they live would create difficulties in mapping and representing the data in graphs.
Asking for a definition of systematic sampling has been a common question in recent sessions yet many
candidates do not appear to know it. This was not true of grade A candidates who could describe it well as
shown below. However, even at this level, candidates have not fully absorbed the advantages required in
part (a)(iii)
In part (a)(iv) the examiner was looking to see if candidates could justify their view on 30 being an
appropriate sample size. Grade A candidates usually gave answers that either agreed on the basis that
it was enough to be fair, or to get a wide variety of answers, or disagreed on the basis that the shopping
centres are different sizes so the number in the survey should be pro rata. This candidate does judge that
enough variety should be found with 30. If the candidate had referred to the variety including details on age/
gender balance or 30 not being too time-consuming, a second mark would have been given.
In questions involving calculations the importance of units cannot be stressed enough. In some cases as in
Q1(c)(iv) a gap was left for the figure to be added before the word seconds the candidate did not have to
identify the units. In Q2 (b)(i) however candidates had to show their working and calculate an answer of 1.53
but then state the units. This grade A candidate does everything well but cannot get the second mark as
they have not stated the units in km.
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Grade A candidates usually obtained full marks for part (b)(iii) and (c) although on occasions the points on
part (c) were not plotted on the correct vertical lines.
In part (c)(ii) grade A candidates usually scored three or four marks because they read the question and used
supporting data sensibly. This candidate correctly agrees with the hypothesis for one mark; then uses data
to compare the distance travelled to the CBD with the lesser distances to the suburban centre (max two
marks for comparative data). The reason this response did not get the fourth mark was that the candidate
did not state that the CBD was the bigger shopping centre as stated in Hypothesis 1.
The best answers for part (c)(iii) used geographical terms such as high-order goods, comparison goods,
range and thresholds often giving examples of products or services that people would travel for.
In part (d)(i) the pie chart was completed in the right order and with the right shadings used. The slice was
exactly drawn at 60 degrees though there was a five degree tolerance used by examiners on this. Grade A
candidates were very precise about getting the angle correct with neat completion.
The most able candidates often only partially agree with hypotheses because they can find evidence of
anomalies as well. This candidate states that the hypotheses is only correct for the CBD but chooses an
incorrect figure (12 instead of 18/30) to back this up. The statement that most walk in the other two centres
is technically incorrect. Candidates need to distinguish between most and the most common way
they are not the same.
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Grade A candidates could identify three factors that would affect the method of travel such as the distance,
the size of the objects they wanted to buy and the effects of rain on choice of method of travel.
In part (e) it was clear that very few candidates understood the meaning of the sphere of influence and how
to find it out by fieldwork. Even grade A candidates struggled with this. In this question candidates had to
ask shoppers where they lived and plot that on a map and join up the outside points. Too many suggested
asking the distance travelled (already done) or what they were buying.
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Example candidate responses grade C

In part (a) this grade C candidate makes the perceptive point that the question Where do you live? is not
actually needed to make a judgement on the hypothesis. It would have been better to explain why but it is
enough to recognise that many did not. The routine mark for privacy/personal issues is also gained.
The candidate did not know what systematic sampling was nor its advantages for parts (a)(ii) and (a)(iii).
Initially in part (a)(iv) the candidate said Yes to the number 30 as being appropriate then changed their mind
and said No but did not quite make the point that the shopping centres would have different numbers of
shoppers. The statement below applied to any sample and is too vague for credit.
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In part (b)(i) it is difficult to see where the number 15.5 on the top line came from; 30 is correct for the
denominator. Both marks, one for working and one for the correct answer were lost. Part (b)(ii) was correctly
completed but the candidate made no attempt at the dispersion graph in part (c)(i). This was surprising as,
even if it was new, the three graphs provided gave an indication of how to plot the points.
The answer to part (c)(ii) was very pleasing as this candidate also noted that the CBD was the biggest centre
as well as agreeing with the Hypothesis and giving two figures for comparative data.
In part (c)(iii) the candidate could suggest two reasons why people travel further to some centres i.e. for
restaurants (one mark) and for rare items/small shops only contain everyday stuff (one mark). It was not
accepted that better quality items are always a reason for travelling further as the quality may be fairly
consistent with the same product wherever it is bought.
The pie chart was completed neatly and accurately for two marks and this candidate recognised the
Hypothesis was partly right and gave two pieces of evidence, using percentages, why it was correct for the
CBD but not in the neighbourhood centre.
168
Paper 4
In part (d)(iii) the basic answer distance was accepted but here, as with many grade C candidates, the
answer weather condition needed a qualification as to how it would affect travel. The third reason is
vague.
Few candidates of any ability could suggest how to carry out fieldwork to find the sphere of influence. Weak
ideas suggesting using a video camera were irrelevant. The candidate suggests a questionnaire but does
not say for whom and what would be asked.
169
Paper 4
Example candidate responses grade E

In part (a) the candidate does well by giving the usual privacy/personal/may not tell truth mark but also
does realise that the Hypothesis is not about where they live so the question would be irrelevant. This is a
good answer that is fairly atypical of a grade E candidate.
The candidate gained no marks in the rest of part (a) though they did attempt each question. In part (a)(ii)
they stated that systematic sampling was done in a certain order which is close to the answer but then so
are other sampling techniques. The word regular or equal would have gained the mark. They knew no
advantages in (iii) and, although they disagreed with the number 30, a sufficient reason was not given as to
why. Vague answers like that below are common at this level of candidate.
In part (b)(i) the figure on top of the equation was given as 374 instead of 46 consequently the final answer
was also wrong so two marks were lost. The correct figure 2 was given in part (b)(ii) but in part (c) the
candidate made the error that many others did. They could plot the more straightforward 27 and 29 plots on
the correct vertical line but then plotted one of the 30 plots at 29.5 and did not plot the first 30 point. One
mistake was carelessness and the second mistake was to think that it was not necessary to put two plots
on the 30 line; just the second one would do. It would suggest the candidate had not seen a dispersion
graph before.
170
Paper 4
In part (c)(ii) the candidate gained three marks by agreeing with the Hypothesis and providing two sets of
comparative data relating to the CBD and numbers travelling over/under 30 km. The candidate did not refer
to any size of shopping centre for the fourth mark.
171
Paper 4
There was not enough detail given in part (iii) to gain credit though the candidate did state three reasons
why people travelled further. For cheaper goods was not accurate without qualification as that would be
cancelled out by the extra travel costs. Better quality is not always true; most goods are the same quality
wherever bought. A little more detail about the cleanliness of shopping centres might have gained a mark
but this answer is too vague though on the right track.
172
Paper 4
While the shading of the pie chart was completed correctly for one mark, the walk slice should have been
closer to 60 degrees of the semi-circle; this one was not within tolerance.
173
Paper 4
In part (ii) the candidate disagreed with the Hypothesis; this is clearly wrong as the data indicates overall
agreement (34/90 is for the car and the most common/highest way if not the most). Walking is significant
in the neighbourhood which is why candidates could Agree or Partly Agree. No credit was given for any of
the answer if, as in this case, the candidate made such an erroneous overall judgement. The last sentence
almost indicates some partial agreement but the candidate has clearly stated they disagreed at the start.
As with many other answers, this candidate does have a go. In part (d)(iii) none of the responses really
meet the requirements of the question relating to factors that affect methods of travel to shopping centres
but they impinge tangentially on the reasons close but not close enough for credit as in all cases they just
missed the point a common feature at this level of candidate.
Although none of these three candidates scored on part (e) the answers given by this candidate suggest the
most unrealistic idea to find the sphere of influence e.g. using a measuring tape to measure the distance
from houses to shopping centres. There is clearly no credit here but again the candidate has given a full
answer as many grade E candidates do.
174
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0460 Geography Example Candidate Responses Booklet 2011

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Example Candidate Responses

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Candidates answer any three questions out

Candidates answer all the questions. The paper

45% of total marks

27.5% of total marks

Teachers set one school-based assignment

27.5% of total marks

Candidates answer all the questions, completing a

All measurements on the written papers will be metric;

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade A

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

The candidate has given an accurate definition of migrant. (1/1)

The candidate identified three correct examples from Fig. 2. (3/3)

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade C

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

The candidate has given an acceptable definition of migrant. (1/1)

The candidate identified three correct examples from Fig. 2. (3/3)

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade E

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

The candidate identified three correct examples from Fig. 2. (3/3)

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade A

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade C

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade E

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

(iv) Features on diagram to be shown and labelled:

U- Shape (no labelling needed);

(b) (i) Differences such as:

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade A

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Cambridge IGCSE Geography 0460

Example candidate response grade C