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SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


Max Marks: 200

Total Questions: 200

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 1-15) : What will come in place of
the question mark in the following equations?

19. If a minimum of 101 marks in Science subject


is required for opting science stream in the
next academic year, how many students will
not able to opt science stream due to insufficient marks in Science subject?
1) None
2) Two
3) Four
4) Five
5) Three
20. What is the total marks obtained by D in Hindi,
E in Social Studies and C in Mathematics put
together?
1) 258
2) 244
3) 235
4) 210
5) None of these
21. The sum of five consecutive even numbers is
400. What is the half of the sum of the smallest
number and the largest number of the set?
1) 80
2) 81
3) 79
4) 82
5) None of these
22. The ratio of Prashanth's and Chalapathi's present ages is 5:6. Three years hence the ratio of
their ages will be 6:7 respectively. What was
Chalapathi's age eight years ago?
1) 7 Years
2) 10 Years
3) 26 Years
4) 18 Years
5) None of these
23. In how many different ways can the letters of
the word QUOTED be arranged?
1) 720
2) 360
3) 1440
4) 320
5) None of these
24. Anusha scored 33 marks in English, 37 marks
in Science, 28 marks in Maths, 26 marks in
Hindi and 32 marks in Social Studies. The
maximum marks a student can score in each
subject is 60. How much % did Anusha get in
the exam?
1) 52
2) 54
3) 48
4) 53
5) None of these
25. 37% of a number is 114.7. What is 130% of
that number?
1) 406
2) 405
3) 403
4) 407
5) None of these
26. What will be the average of the following set of
scores?
69, 89, 34, 76, 54, 68, 28, 46
1) 53
2) 55
3) 57
4) 56
5) None of these
27. What will be the resultant if the square of 109
is subtracted from the square of 210?
1) 32220 2) 32209
3) 32291
4) 32217 5) None of these
28. What will be the compound interest accrued on
a principal amount of Rs. 32,500 at the rate of
5 p.c.p.a. after a period of 2 years?
1) Rs.3332.78
2) Rs.3335.35
3) Rs.3333.27
4) Rs.3331.25
5) None of these
29. The average of five numbers is 50.8. The average of the first and the second number is 29.
The average of the fourth and the fifth number
is 66.5. What is the third
Social Sanskrit
number?
(Out of (Out of
1) 65 2) 73
3) 61
120)
35)
4) 77 5) None of these
39
84
30. A train covers 430 km in 5
hours. The speed of a bike
57
79
is half the speed of the train.
44
86
How much time will the bike
68
44
take to cover a distance of
301 km?
55
50

1.

8
2
1

+=?
12
5
3
1)

2)

3)

4)

5) None of these
2. 4500 18 122 = ? 4
1) 32
2) 26
3) 28
5) None of these
3
3.
32768 = ?
1) 38
2) 34
3) 36
5) None of these
4. 192 + 282 162 = ?
1) 889
2) 888
3) 883
5) None of these
5. 63 14 + 334 = ? + (12)2
1) 1078
2) 1072
3) 1077
5) None of these
6. [(452 4) + 62] / 5 = ?
1) 48
2) 37
3) 45
5) None of these
7. (14 24) + (27 12) = ?
1) 650
2) 665
3) 660
5) None of these
8. (4.7 12 8) + (6.8 16 10) + ?
1) 1533.9
2) 1539.2
4) 1536.9
5) None of these
9.

4) 34

4) 32

4) 885

4) 7074

4) 35

4) 655

3) 1532.9

2
1
3

of of of 48685 = ?
5
3
5

1) 3287.5
2) 3415.6
3) 3894.8
4) 2967.4
5) None of these
10. 421 38 3543 = ?
1) 15112
2) 10624
3) 12455
4) 13185
5) None of these
11. ? 48 12 = 171
1) 684
2) 566
3) 698
4) 596
5) None of these
12. 1311.2 133.6 = ?
1) 1312.3 2) 137.6
3) 1314.8 4) 1310.3
5) None of these
13. 11.11 + 111.1 + 1111.11 = ?
1) 1323.23
2) 1233.32
3) 1322.33
4) 1232.22
5) None of these
14. 5 ? = 9884 16
1) 123.55 2) 91.25 3) 103.18 4) 115.65
5) None of these
15. 26.5% of 488 = ?
1) 205.65 2) 211.72 3) 145.67 4) 129.32
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following graph
carefully which shows percentage of marks
obtained by students in 6 subjects and answer the
questions given below:
Subject

Student

Hindi

English

Science

Maths

(Out of
175)

(Out of
80)

(Out of
125)

(Out of
100)

87

84

91

66

58

68

87

74

63

71

81

94

48

57

70

79

83

83

49

77

74

68

42

63

16. What is the average marks obtained by


Student F in Hindi, English and Science subjects together?
1) 78
2) 82.4
3) 78.8
4) 84
5) None of these
17. What are the average marks obtained by all
the students in Science?
1) 87
2) 86.5
3) 90 4) 87.5 5) None
18. What is the ratio of the marks scored by E in
Science and that in Hindi?
1) 35:83
2) 61:75 3) 83:85 4) 75:61
5) None of these

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61

Time: 135 Minutes

1) 6 hours
3) 8 hours
5) None of these

58

2) 7 hours
4) 9 hours

31. If the following fractions are arranged in


ascending order (from left to right), which of
them will be second from the right end?
2
9

4
7

12
17

7
13

5
11

, , , ,
1)

4
7

2)

12

17

3)

2
9

4)

5
11

5) None of these
32. Last year the total number of students in a
school was 4500. 48% of the total students

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were females. This


year 60 males left
the school. What is
the present ratio of
the number of
males to the number of females in the school?
1) 19:17
2) 18:17 3) 23:18 4) 23:17
5) None of these
33. What is the least number that can be added to
2020 to make it a perfect square?
1) 4
2) 6
3) 5
4) 3
5) None
Directions (Q. 34-35): What approximate value
should come in place of question mark in the
following questions?
34.

2
62627 = ?

1) 280
2) 220
3) 250 4) 330 5) 190
35. 44.979 20.011 9.968 = ?
1) 30
2) 60
3) 150
4) 180
5) 90
Directions (Q. 36-40): What should come in place
of the question mark in the following number
series?
36. 600
564
539
523
514
?
1) 500
2) 520 3) 510 4) 540 5) 515
37. 550000
110000
2200
440
88 ?
1) 16.4
2) 18.3
3) 17.6
4) 14.5
5) None of these
38. 2
12
60
240
720
?
1) 1445
2) 1440
3) 1420
4) 1444
5) None of these
39. 80
48
64
56
60
?
1) 57
2) 68
3) 54 4) 62 5) 58
40. 32
38
50
68
92
?
1) 118 2) 128 3) 124
4) 122
5) 116

REASONING
41. 'Players' are related to 'Team' in the same way
'Books' is related to ?
1) Exams 2) Library
3) Reading
4) Writer 5) Chapter
42. Jwala Gutta, winner of Arujuna award, for badminton, started from Point P and walked 2 m
towards west. She then took a right turn and
walked 3 m before taking a left turn and walking 5 m. She finally took a left turn, walked 3 m
and stopped a Point Q. How far is Point Q from
Point P?
1) 2 m
2) 6 m
3) 7 m 4) 8 m 5) 12 m
43. In a certain code 'where have you been' is written as 'been 4 have 3 where 2 you 1' and 'visiting London this summer' is written as 'London
4 summer 3 this 2 visiting 1'. How will 'repair
may computer yesterday' be written ?
1) Computer 4 repair 3 may 2 yesterday 1
2) Yesterday 4 repair 3 may 2 computer 1
3) Computer 1 may 2 repair 3 yesterday 4
4) Yesterday 4 may 3 repair 2 computer 1
5) Computer 4 may 3 repair 2 yesterday 1
44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the English alphabetical series
and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
1) MLJ
2) WVT 3) OMK 4) JIG 5) TSQ
45. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
1) Diameter
2) Circumference
3) Centre
4) Circle
5) Radius
Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in
the same order.
G sits third to the right of F. G sits second to the
left of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of E and
C. F and A are immediate neighbours of each
other. Only one person sits between F and B. E
and G sit opposite to each other.
46. Four of the following five are similar in a certain
way based on their position in the seating
arrangement. Which of the following does not
belong to that group?
1) EH
2) CF 3) AG 4) BD 5) HG

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--- x----:

47. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of D?


1) EH
2) CG 3) FB 4) HG 5) CB
48. What is the position of A with respect to G in
the above arrangement?
1) Third to the right
2) Second to the left
3) Fifth to the right
4) Immediate right
5) Third to the left
49. What will come in place of question mark
according
to
the
above
seating
arrangement?
EF
CG
HB
FA
?
1) GD
2) CG 3) GH 4) BH 5) CD
50. Who sits to the immediate right of A?
1) E
2) C
3) B
4) F
5) D
Directions (Q. 51-55): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below :
642528526413918125863514
947327259
51. How many 4's are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded
by a digit which has a numerical value of more
than four?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
52. Which of the following is seventh to the left of
the twentieth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
1) 3
2) 9
3) 2
4) 7 5) 1
53. If all the even digits are deleted from the above
arrangement, which of the following will be
tenth from the right end of the arrangement?
1) 9
2) 5
3) 1
4) 3 5) 7
54. How many such 5's are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd digit and immediately
followed by an even digit?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
55. How many such 1's are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a perfect square?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code 'ring a bell' is written as '582',
'did not ring' is written as '359' and 'not a reason' is
written as '729'.
56. Which of the following represents 'did not'?
1) 23
2) 29
3) 35 4) 52 5) 93
57. What is the code for 'bell'?
1) 5
2) 8
3) 2
4) 7
5) None
58. What does '2' stand for?
1) ring
2) a 3) bell 4) reason
5) not
59. What does '7' stand for?
1) not
2) a
3) ring
4) reason
5) Either 'a' or 'not'
60. What is the code for 'ring'?
1) 8
2) 2
3) 5
4) 3 5) 9
Directions (Q. 61-65): Following questions are
based on the five three-digit numbers given below
219
742
936
587
853
61. If all the numbers are arranged in descending
order from left to right, which of the following
will be the product of the first and the second
digits of the number which is exactly in the middle of the new arrangement?
1) 18
2) 28
3) 54 4) 21
5) 45
62. One is subtracted from the first digit and two is
subtracted from the third digit of each of the
numbers. What will be the difference between
the first digit of the highest number and the
third digit of the lowest number?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 2
5)

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


63. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the
highest number is divided by the first digit of
the lowest number?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 2 5) 1
64. If the positions of the first and the third digits of
each of the numbers are interchanged, what
will be sum of all the digits of the second highest number thus formed?
1) 20
2) 16 3) 18
4) 13 5) 12
65. If all the digits in each of the numbers are
arranged in descending order within the number, which of the following will form the lowest
number in the new arrangement of numbers?
1) 219
2) 742
3) 936
4) 587
5) 853
Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight
line facing North not necessarily in the same order.
Q sits third to the right of T. W sits second to the
right of Q. V and R are immediate neighbours of
each other. V is not an immediate neighbour of T.
Only one person sits between S and P. S is not an
immediate neighbour of Q.
66. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on their seating positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
1) QW
2) TV 3) RQ 4) VW
5) PS
67. How many persons sit between R and P?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
68. Which of the following pairs sits at the extreme
corners of the line?
1) RW
2) ST
3) WQ
4) TR
5) SW
69. What is the position of T with respect to V?
1) Second to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Immediate right
4) Fourth to the left
5) Immediate left
70. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how
many will remain unchanged as compared to
the original seating positions?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
Directions (Q. 71-75): In each question below are
two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) If only Conclusion I follows
2) If only Conclusion II follows
3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows
4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II
follows
5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follows
71. Statements: No house is an apartment.
Some apartments are bungalows.
Conclusions: I. No house is bungalow
II. All bungalows being houses
is a possibility
72. Statements: All plants are animals.
All insects are plants.
Conclusions : I. All insects being animals is a
possibility
II. There is a possibility that
some animals are neither
insects nor plants
73. Statements: All pens are ink.
No ink is an eraser.
Conclusions: I. No pen is an eraser.
II. Some Erasers are pens
74. Statements: Some trains are buses.
All trains are ships.
Conclusions: I. All ships are buses
II. All those trains if these are
buses are also ships
75. Statements: Some numbers are digits.
All digits are words.
Conclusions: I. All numbers being words is a
possibility

II. All digits being numbers is a possibility


76. Which of the following will come in place of the
question mark according to the English alphabetical series?
CDB
HIG
MNL
RSQ
?
1) UVT
2) WXY
3) VWU
4) TVU
5) WXV
77. The positions of how many alphabets will
remain the same if each of the alphabets in the
word WHILST is rearranged in the alphabetical
order from left to right?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
78. How many meaningful English words can be
formed with the letters MDU, using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 79-80): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow:
Saul Perlmutter starts from Point A, walks 6 m
towards South to reach point B. He then takes a
right turn and walks 4 m to reach Point F before
taking a right turn again and walking 6 m to reach
Point C. From Point C he takes a right turn again,
walks 8 m and stops at Point E.
79. If Saul Perlmutter, winner of Noble Prize, takes
a right turn from Point E and walks 6 m to
reach Point D, how far and towards which
direction will Point D be from Point B?
1) 6 m West
2) 8 m East
3) 4 m East
4) 6 m East
5) Cannot be determined
80. Which of the following three points fall in a
straight line?
1) CAB
2) FBA
3) FAC
4) EAB
5) CAE

GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 81 - 88): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Once upon a time, there was a shrewd shopkeeper called Makarand. He had a friend called
Mihir, who had saved a lot of money. Mihir was
keen on going on a pilgrimage, but he did not
know where to leave his precious savings. So he
came to Makarand's shop and said, ''My friend, I
trust you more than anyone. Could you please look
after my life's savings till I return from my pilgrimage?'' Makarand pretended to be deep in thought,
and then said, ''I would rather not. Money spoils
relationships. What if something happens to your
money while you are away? You will no longer be
my friend.''
As Mihir stood there by his shop thinking about
what his friend had just said, an old woman
entered the shop and bought some things. One of
the boys helping Makarand gave her less change
than he should have. Makarand saw this and pretended to scold the boy. He then ordered him to
return the remaining money to the woman. Mihir,
not knowing that this was an act put up by
Makrand to make him believe that he was honest,
was convinced about his decision and said to
Makarand, ''I have decided I will leave the money
only with you.'' Makarand smiled. ''Then, let us do
something. Let us take the bag of coins and bury it
in a place that only you and I will know of. That
way, even if something happens to me while you
are away, you will know where your money is.''
Mihir, simple that he was, thought this was a
good idea and the two went and hid the bag in a
secret place. Mihir left the next day on his pilgrimage, happy that his savings were in safe hands.
Six months later, Mihir returned. He dumped his
luggage at home and went to dig out his bag of
savings. But, even though he searched and
searched for his valuables, there was no sign of
the bag anywhere. In panic, he ran to Makrand,
who was busy in his shop. When Mihir asked him
about the bag, Makrand pretended to be surprised,
''But I did not go that way all these months. Why

don't you search for it


again?'' he said, putting
on his most innocent
look. Mihir had no
choice but to believe
him. Sadly, he went
home.
On his way, as luck would have it, he met the old
woman he had seen in Makarand's shop. Seeing
him sad, she asked him what the matter was. Mihir
told her the whole story. Then, she smiled and
whispered a plan to him. Not long after, the woman
came to Makarand's shop, carrying a big box.
''Brother, I heard you are a good and honest man.
My son went on a pilgrimage many months ago
and has still not returned. I am worried and have
decided to go and look for him. Will you look after
my box of two hundred gold coins while I am
away?''
Makarand could not believe his luck. He was
about to launch into his idea about hiding the box
when an angry Mihir entered the shop, ''Where
is..." but before he could complete his sentence,
Makarand, afraid of being accused in front of the
old woman, said quickly, ''I forgot. I had seen
some pigs digging around there and had removed
the bag just to keep it safe. Here it is.'' And he
handed Mihir the bag he had stolen many months
ago.
Now the old woman pretended she was seeing
Mihir for the first time, ''Son, did you also go on a
pilgrimage? Could you tell me if you met my son
anywhere? His name is Jahangir.'' Mihir, clutching onto his precious bag, said, ''Yes auntie, I met
him on the road a few villages away. He was on his
way home. He should be here in a week.''
The old woman leaned over and took her box
away from Makarand. ''Thank you brother. You
have saved me an unnecessary trip. Now, I will
need some money to prepare for my son's welcome,'' she added and the two left the shop.
Makarand could only stare at them open-mouthed.
81. What incident in the passage convinced Mihir
that Makarand was indeed an honest man?
a) The incident where he scolded his helper
boy for returning less change to the old
woman who was a customer in his shop.
b) The fact that Makarand refused to keep
Mihir's money in the event that it might
destroy their friendship
c) The incident where Makarand told Mihir that
he had kept his bag with him as he saw pigs
digging at the very spot where the treasure
was buried.
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (b) & (c)
5) Only (a) & (c)
82. What was Makarand's real intention for wanting to bury Mihir's bag of valuables?
1) He wanted Mihir to know where the money
would be in case something happened to
him while Mihir was away.
2) He did not feel safe keeping Mihir's bag of
valuables with him.
3) He wanted to steal the money while Mihir
was away.
4) He wanted the pigs to dig out the bag so he
could steal it.
5) He wanted to be a part of a far more adventurous plan.
83. Where did Makarand and Mihir bury the bag of
coins?
1) In a secret place in Mihir's garden
2) In the ground under Makarand's shopkeeper
3) In the old woman's backyard
4) In his shopkeeper
5) Not indicated in the passage
84. Which of the following is true with regard to
Mihir?
1) He accused Makarand of stealing his valuables.
2) He helped the old woman find her son.
3) He left his life's savings with the old woman.
4) He trusted Makarand with his valuables.
5) He strongly believed that keeping others'

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money spoilt relationships.


85. Why did Mihir want to keep his life's savings
with Makarand?
a) Makarand had a locker in his shop.
b) He trusted his friend Makarand more than
anyone else.
c) He was scared that if he buried his savings,
the pigs would dig it out
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Either (b) or (c)
5) None of these
86. Which of the following statement is false
according to the passage?
1) The old woman's son went on the same
pilgrimage as Mihir.
2) The old woman helped Mihir recover his
savings from Makarand.
3) Makarand was a very shrewd shopkeeper.
4) Mihir had gone away on a pilgrimage.
5) Makarand had stolen Mihir's money.
87. Why was Mihir sad after returning from the pilgrimage?
a) He lost all his valuables while returning from
the pilgrimage.
b) The valuables that he had buried safely had
all disappeared.
c) He had spent far too much of his savings on
the pilgrimage.
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (a) & (c)
5) None of these
88. In the end, why did Makarand return Mihir's
money?
a) He realised that he had done the wrong
thing by pretending to be unaware of Mihir's
misfortune.
b) The old woman offered to give him two hundred gold coins if he returned Mihir's money
back.
c) He did not want to be accused of having
stolen Mihir's money in front of the old
woman.
1) Only (a)
2) Only (b)
3) Only (c)
4) Only (a) & (c)
5) All Of these
Directions (Q. 89-92): Choose the word which is
most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
89. Clutching
1) Releasing
2) Fixing
3) Holding
4) Sticking
5) Obtaining
90. Keen
1) Eager
2) Hurried
3) Planning
4) Fortunate
5) Deserving
91. Choice
1) Understanding
2) Regard
3) Value
4) Pick
5) Option
92. Whole
1) Partial
2) Some 3) Entire
4) Total
5) Part
Directions (Q. 93-95): Choose the word which is
most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
93. Complete
1) Partial 2) Start
3) Incomplete
4) End
5) Finish
94. Sadly
1) Quietly
2) Dejectedly
3) Happily
4) Disturbingly
5) Lonely
95. Forgot
1) Found
2) Memorised
3) Lost
4) Claimed
5) Remembered

(-N- -v-o-, ' - -@--x)


www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 -d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (Q. 1-15): What should come in


place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions?
1. 1136.38 + 47.69 +1363.37 = ?
A) 2639.37 B) 2618.59 C) 2647.29
D) 2547.44 E) None of these
2. 36% of 630 = 42% of ?
A) 460
B) 680
C) 540
D) 620
E) None of these
3. 5655 39 + 35 = ?
A) 180
B) 326
C) 164
D) 185
E) 165
3
4
2
4. 3 4 + 2 = ?
4
5
7
1
2
1
A) 20
B) 20
C) 18
14
7
14
2
E) None of these
D) 19
7
5. ? 34 27 = 3618
A) 4136
B) 4794
C) 4542
D) 4556
E) None of these
6. 3456 36 8 = ?

12. 54% of ? = 2084.4


A) 3460
B) 3250
C) 3860
D) 3720
E) None of these
2
3
13. 8 6 + ? = 62
3
4
1
1

B) 3
A) 3 12
2

2
C) 3
3

1
E) None of these
D) 3
3
5
3
14. of 322 + of 608 = ?3
14
8
A) 343
B) 312
C) 49
D) 7
E) None of these
15. (1649 % of 26) 104 = ?
A) 4.36
B) 4.12
C) 4.27
D) 4.83
E) None of these
16. A train running at speed of 72 km/hour
crosses a platform equal its length in 23
seconds. What is the length of the platform
in metres?
A) 460
B) 240
C) 230
D) Can't be determined

mark (?) in the following


number
series?
5 7.5 15 37.5
112.5 393.75 ?
A) 765
B) 1575
C) 1295 D) 1495
E) None of these
21. 36 percent of first
number is 42 percent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first
number to the second number?
A) 5 : 4
B) 7 : 6
C) 2 : 3
D) Can not be determined
E) None of these
22. The present age of a man is 4 times of his
son. He will be three times of his son after
4 years. What is the present age of the
man?
A) 36
B) 32 C) 48 D) 38
E) None
23. In how many different number of ways can
a committee of 3 persons be selected from
8 men and 4 women?

At What Time They Will Again Meet Together?


A) 12
D) 16

B) 768
E) 712

72 8 6
7. = ?
24 4
3
2
A)
B)
14
15
5
D)
24

C) 15552

5
C)
12

E) None of these

8. 15% of 340 + 120% of 65 = ?


A) 78
B) 129
C) 273
D) 51
E) None of these

9. 1764 7 + 43 = ?2
A) 2401
D) 14

B) 49
C) 7
E) None of these

3
7
10. of of of 1395 = ?
9
5
4
A) 617

B) 653

C) 634

D) 651
E) None of these

11. 225 + 441 = ?


A) 36
B) 6
C) 1296
D) 72
E) None of these
EXPLANATIONS
?
3618 34
5. 27 = 3618 ? = = 4556
34
27
1
1
6. 3456 = 12
36
8
72 8 6
72 8
7. = 1
24 4
6 24 4
5
16. Train + platform = 72 23 = 460 m
18
Platform = 230 m
17. 35 26 = 14 ?
35 26
? = = 65 days
14
1704 100
19. Rate of interest = = 6
5680 5
20. 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5, 4
22. Let the present age of his son be 'x' years
Then present age of man is 4x years
3 (x + 4) = 4x + 4 x = 8
Son's present age is 8 years and man's
present age is 32 years.

For four periods, there are three free times


i.e., 3 5 = 15 minutes
Total time for 4 periods = 207 15
= 192 minutes
192
Each period = = 48 minutes
4
27. Let the number of cones that can be made
be 'x'
4
1
2
r3 = r h x
3
3
4 (6)3 =
1 (3)2 4 x x = 24

3
3
28. Total marks required to pass = 124 + 36
= 160
40% = 160
100
100% (Total aggregate marks) = 160
40
= 400
100
29. Cost Price = 1100.80 = 1280
86
7!
30. = 1260
2! 2!
31. loser gets 42% means winner gets 58%
Difference = 58 42 = 16%
16% = 480
100
100% (total votes) = 480 = 3000
16
32. LCM of 24, 30 and 45 is 1080 minutes
= 18 hours.

Key: 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B; 5-D; 6-A; 7-E;


8-B; 9-C; 10-D; 11-A; 12-C; 13-B; 14-D;
15-B; 16-C; 17-B; 18-C; 19-A; 20-B; 21-B;
22-B; 23-D; 24-C; 25-B; 26-D; 27-C; 28-E;
29-C; 30-A; 31-B; 32-E.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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10th
CLASS

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
Answers ...

EM English (E/M)
& Physical Sciences
TM
Social Studies
and other papers uploaded...
To download Click on...

12 11 10
23. 12C3 = = 220
321
24. Officer's age = (7 32 6 31) = 38
25. Total time of the class
= 13.27 (12 + 1.27) 10
= 3.27 hours = 207 minutes

A) 110
B) 440 C) 1320
D) 220 E) None of these
24. The average age of six employees in an office is 31 years. If the
age of their officer is added, the
average increased by 1 year.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
What is the age of officer?
A) 32 years
B) 41 years
G.S. Giridhar
E) None of these
C) 38 years
D) 42 years
17. If 35 men can complete a piece
E) None of these
of work in 26 days, in how many days can
25. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till
14 men complete that work?
1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this
A) 16 days B) 65 days
C) 38 days
interval. After every period, 5 minutes are
D) 48 days E) None of these
given free to the students. The exact dura18. One-seventh of a number is 384. What will
tion of each period (in minutes) is:
be 42% of that number?
A) 42
B) 48
C) 51
A) 1163.62
B) 1142.61
D) 53
E) None of these
C) 1128.96
D) 1132.24
26. What approximate value should come in
E) None of these
place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
19. The simple interest accrued on an amount
of Rs.5680 at the end of 5 years is
49.996 + 12.002 7.021 = ?
Rs.1704. What is the rate of interest?
A) 140
B) 136
C) 131
A) 6
B) 7
C) 5
D) 134
E) 137
D) 4
E) None of these
20. What should come in place of the question

27. A solid metallic spherical ball of radius 6 cm


is melted and recast into small metallic
cones of 3 cm radius and 4 cm height. Find
the number of cones that can be made.
A) 12
B) 21 C) 24 D) 18 E) None
28. In an examination it is required to get 40% of
the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets
124 marks and is declared failed by 36
marks. What are the maximum aggregate
marks a student can get?
A) 440
B) 600
C) 800
D) Can't be determined
E) None
29. A man sells an article for Rs. 1100.80 at a
loss of 14%. Find for how much did he buy
the article?
A) Rs.1320 B) Rs.1420
C) Rs.1280
D) Rs.1360 E) None of these
30. In how many different number of ways can
the letters of the word 'SWALLOW' be
arranged?
A) 1260
B) 5040
C) 2520
D) 1440
E) None of these
31. At an election contested by two, a candidate who gets 42% of the total votes is
defeated by a majority of 480 votes. Find
the total number of votes recorded.
A) 2000
B) 3000
C) 5000
D) 4000
E) None of these
32. Three persons A, B and C start running
around a circular track and they complete
full round in 24, 30 and 45 minutes respectively. If they start from the same point and
in the same direction, after what time they
will again meet together?
A) 3 hours B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 12 hours E) None of these

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

- 11 -d- 2012

-- j---

1. Which of the following is known as Plastic


Money?
A) Demand Draft
B) Credit Card
C) Debit Card
1) Only A 2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Both B and C
5) All A, B and C
2. KYC guidelines followed by banks have
been framed on the recommendations of
the ...........
1) Ministry of Home Affairs
2) Ministry of Information Technology and
Human Resource Development
3) Indian Banks Association
4) Ministry of Finance
5) Reserve Bank of India
3. Business Correspondents in banking are for:
1) Providing services for the Platinum
Customers
2) Providing services for children
3) Serving the educational institutions
4) Serving the weaker sections of society
5) None of these

3) Cheque which does not need a signature in it.


4) Cheque signed digitally
5) None of these
14. What is the minimum amount for NEFT
transaction?
1) Rs.100000
2) Rs. 200000
3) Rs. 50000
4) There is No minimum limit
5) None of these
15. Expand SHG.
1) Self Help Grameen
2) Self Help Group
3) Self Help Grill
4) Solve Help Groups
5) None of these
16. Which of the following committees has
given its recommendations on 'Financial
Inclusion'
1) Vaghul Committee
2) Rangarajan Committee
3) Rakesh Mohan Committee
4) Kelkar Committee
5) None of these

of rural credit
institutions
5) Review
of
monetary and
credit
policy
23. Banks in India are
required to maintain a portion of
their demand and
time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of
India. This portion is called:
1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2) Cash Reserve Ratio
3) Bank Deposit
4) Reverse Repo
5) Government Securities
24. Which of the following organisations /
agencies has specifically been set up to
boost overall rural development in India?
1) RBI
2) SIDBI
3) NABARD
4) SEBI
5) EXIM

What is an Electronic Cheque?


4. What is the full form of FDI?
1) Foreign Development Investment
2) Fiscal Development Investment
3) Foreign Direct Investment
4) Fiscal Direct Investment
5) None of these
5. CMD of a public sector bank is appointed by:
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) Indian Banks Association
3) Central Government
4) Respective Bank's Board of Directors
5) None of these
6. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio?
1) 23 % 2) 24 %
3) 20%
4) 4.5% 5) None of these
7. Expand CTS.
1) Cheque Truncation System
2) Cash Transaction System
3) Current Transaction System
4) Credit Truncation System
5) None of the above
8. Micro finance development equity fund is
managed by:
1) RBI
2) NABARD
3) Indian Banks Association
4) Asian Development Bank
5) None of these
9. What is the full form of LIBOR?
1) London Inter - Bank Offer Rate
2) Liquidity Inter - Bank Offer Rate
3) Liquidity International Bank Offer Rate
4) London International Bank Rate
5) None of these
10. Which of the following does not come
under core sector?
1) Crude Oil
2) Natural Gas
3) Coal
4) Electricity
5) Automobile
11. When banks borrow fund for overnight, it is
called:
1) Borrowing Money 2) Lending Money
3) Push Money
4) Call Money
5) None of these
12. What is ASBA with respect to banking?
1) Application Supported by Blocked
Amount
2) Application Supported by Black Amount
3) Application Sign by Blocked Amount
4) Application Supported by Blocked Array
5) None of these
13. Electronic Cheque means :
1) Cheque which automatically comes from
a machine.
2) Cheque issued online

25. Banks in India are regulated


under:
1) Companies Act, 1956
2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Banking Terminology
4) Special powers conferred on the
17. Rise in Stock Market is usually
RBI
K.V. Gnana Kumar
referred to as:
5) None of these
1) Bear
2) Bull
3) Tiger
26. A savings bank account opened with a
4) Cat
5) None of these
commercial bank with zero or very minimal
balance is known as:
18. The term 'insider trading' is associated with:
1) Savings Bank Ordinary Account
1) Stock Markets
2) Defence Services
2) Student Savings Bank Account
3) Parliamentary Procedures
3) No Frill Account
4) Book Publishing Business
5) Sports
4) Current Account
5) Call Deposit
19. Which of the following is implemented in
India in all the districts of the country for
27. Banks in their daily business face various
providing employment?
kinds of risks. Which of the following is one
such major risk?
1) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
1) Customer Risk
2) Reputation
2) Bharath Nirman
3) Goodwill Risk
4) Protection Risk
3) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act
5) Operational Risk
4) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
28. Which of the following schemes was
launched by the RBI in 2004, under which
5) None of these
Govt of India stated that Securities/
20. Which of the following is the purpose of
Treasury Bills could be issued to absorb
introducing 'Know Your Customer' and AML
surplus/ durable liquidity?
norms by the banks?
1) RTGS
1) To bring more and more people under
2) External Commercial Borrowing
the banking net
3) Market Stabilisation Scheme
2) Identifying people who do not pay
income tax
4) High Value Clearing Scheme
3) To Identify the customer and identifying
5) Prepaid payment instrument facility
the source of funds deposited in banks
29. 'Base Rate' in banks is:
4) To ensure whether the money deposited
1) The rate of interest payable on demand
in the bank is of an Indian or a foreign
deposits
national
5) None of these
21. Which of the
following
organisations has been established mainly to promote micro, small and medium industrial
sector in India?
1) NABARD
2) SIDBI
3) IDBI Bank
4) EXIM Bank
5) All of these
22. Which of the following is not one of the
major functions of the National Bank for
Agricultural and Rural Development
(NABARD)?
1) Acting as regulator for cooperative
banks and RRBs
2) Extending assistance to the government and others in matters related to
rural development
ECIL - Zonal Office, Panagal Building,
3) Providing refinance to lending
institutions in rural areas.
ground Floor, IA, Jeenis Road,
4) Acting as a coordinator in the operations
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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

2) The rate of interest payable on fixed


deposits
3) The rate of interest charged by the RBI
on long - term borrowing of public sector
banks
4) The minimum lending rate decided by
the RBI which shall be adopted by all
public sector banks
5) The minimum interest rate fixed by individual banks below which they cannot
lend funds, except cases like government-sponsored schemes.
30. Banking sector falls under .........
1) Agricultural Sector
2) Service Sector
3) Manufacturing Sector
4) Industrial Sector
5) Small Scale Sector
31. Which of the following is NOT a credit rating
agency?
1) Credit Analysis & Research Ltd (CARE)
2) Lintas India Pvt Ltd
3) Moody's Investors Service
4) Standard and Poor
5) Fitch Ratings
32. Which of the following is a payment and
settlement system used by the banks in
India?
1) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
2) Real Time Gross Settlement
3) Forward Rate Agreements
4) Central Depository Service
5) Negotiated Dealing System
KEY: 1-4; 2-5; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-1; 7-1; 8-2;
9-1; 10-5; 11-4; 12-1; 13-4; 14-4; 15-2; 16-2;
17-2; 18-1; 19-3; 20-3; 21-2; 22-5; 23-2;
24-3; 25-2; 26-3; 27-5; 28-3; 29-5; 30-2;
31-2; 32-2.

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Indian Agricultural Research Institute,
Pusa Campus, New Delhi- 110012

-j: www.iari.res.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 2 -dd 2012

-- j---

SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


Max Marks: 200

Total Questions: 200

(-E-o- --)
Directions (Q. 96-100): Read each sentence to
find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error the answer is 5), i.e., ''No Error''.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
96. The more enlightened (1)/ factory owners (2)/
build homes for their (3)/ workers in Britain in
the 19th century (4)/ No error (5).
97. Most criminals (1)/ realises that they may be
caught, (2)/ but, nevertheless, (3)/ they are
prepared to take the risk.(4)/ No error (5).
98. Strictly speaking, (1)/ spiders are not insects,
(2)/ although most people (3)/ think them
are (4)./ No error. (5)
99. The actress is also (1)/ widely respected in (2)/
the music world (3)/ and deserving so. (4)/ No
error (5).
100. The story was (1)/ inspired by (2)/ a chance
meeting (3)/ with an old Russian duke.(4)/ No
error (5).
Directions (Q. 101-105): Which of the phrases 1),
2), 3), 4) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence
to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and no correction is required,
mark 5) as the answer.
101. He is held regard as the Chief's right-hand
man.
1) regarded to
2) to regard as
3) regarded as
4) being regarded for
5) No correction
102. The inquiry has to bring to light some startling facts.
1) bring light to
2) brought to the lights
3) brings to light
4) brought to light
5) No correction
103. My friend went his way out to oblige me.
1) out on his way
2) out of his way
3) so out of the way 4) little way out
5) No correction
104. They are determined to stand up for their
rights.
1) be standing up
2) for standing up
3) stand up to
4) stand on
5) No correction
105. Recently, my expenses have gone run up
considerably.
1) run up
2) to rise up
3) had to run up
4) got upwards
5) No correction
Directions (Q. 106-110): Each question below has
two blanks. Each blank indicates that something
has been omitted.
Choose the set of words which best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
106. Rachana saw me ____ for a bus; she
stopped and ____ me a lift.
1) standing, took
2) stopped, gave
3) walking, sat
4) testing, signalled
5) waiting, offered
107. During winter, we can ___ ourselves from the
cold by wearing ____ clothes.
1) protect, warm
2) establish, light
3) save, good
4) stop, thick
5) escape, cotton
108. The school refused to ____ acts of ____
behaviour.
1) overcome, spoilt
2) tolerate, violent
3) overlook, sudden
4) appreciate, bravery
5) comment, deserving
109. The actor was not ____ by public criticism
and paid no____ even to the poor reviews in
the media.
1) affected, attention 2) troubled, mind
3) effected, regard
4) bothered, justification
5) shocked, notices

110. The ____ words of the teacher comforted the


____ student
1) harsh, sorrowful
2) encouraging, anxious
3) reality, nervous
4) wise, happy
5) distractered, confused
Directions (Q. 111-115): In each question below,
four words printed in bold are given. These are
numbered 1), 2), 3), and 4). One of these words
printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out
the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if
any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
appropriate in the context of the sentence then
mark 5) as your answer.
111. A overly (1)/ obsessed (2)/ mother from
Banaras wrote (3)/ into tell me of her
trajedy (4)./ All correct (5).
112. The cat is sitting in front of (1)/ the
television (2)/ with its tail, stretched (3)/ out
strait (4)./ All correct (5).
113. It would (1)/ be wrong to infer (2)/ that people who are overweight (3)/ are always
sickly (4)/. All correct (5).
114. The witness (1)/ stated (2)/ that he had not
sean (3)/ the woman before (4)/.
All correct (5).
115. Her giggles (1)/ were infecsious (2)/ and
soon (3)/ we were all laughing (4)/. All
correct (5).
Directions (Q. 116-120): Rearrange the following
five sentences in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below.
(A) The owner of the house was furious.
(B) After it had gone, a donkey who craved
popularity climbed the roof and tried to perform the same tricks.
(C) His servants went up, drove the donkey
down, and beat him black and blue.
(D) A monkey climbed the roof of a house and
entertained the people who had gathered
below to watch him at his antics.
(E) In the process, the donkey dislodged and
broke several tiles.
116. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E
117. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
(LAST) sentence?
1) E
2) D
3) C
4) B 5) A
118. Which of the following should be FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E
119. Which of the following should be the
SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E
120. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D 5) E

COMPUTER & MARKETING APTITUDE


121. Which of the following is another name for a
chip?
1) Silicon Chip
2) Integrated Circuit
3) Semi conductor
4) All of these
5) None of these
122. Decreasing the amount of space required to
store data and programs is accomplished by1) Pressing
2) Disk caching
3) RAID
4) Crashing
5) File Compression
123. Data on floppy disk is recorded in rings called
1) Sectors 2) Ringers
3) Rounders
4) Tracks 5) Segments
124. Documents on web are called ___.
1) Web Pages
2) Web Sites
3) Web Communities 4) Web Tags
5) Home Pages

Time: 135 Minutes


125. Which type of
memory
holds
only that program
and data that
CPU is presently
processing?
1) CMOS 2) ROM
3) RAM
4) ASCII
5) CD
126. The ____ is an information system that must
be reliable and capable of handling the
expected workload.
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Data Input
4) People
5) Mobiles
127. Which of the following is part of the system
unit?
1) Keyboard
2) Floppy disks
3) Monitor
4) Memory
5) CD
128. Specialised programs that allow particular
input or output devices to communicate with
the rest of the computer system are
called____
1) Operating systems
2) Utilities
3) Device Drivers
4) Language Translators
5) Connectors
129. The primary purpose of a software is to turn
data into ____
1) Web sites
2) Graphs
3) Programs
4) Objects
5) Information
130. Storage that retains its data after the power is
turned off is referred to as ____.
1) Volatile Storage
2) Sequential Storage
3) Direct Storage
4) Non-Volatile Storage
5) Mobile Storage
131. An essential ingredient for effective multimedia presentations incorporates user participation or ___.
1) Links
2) Buttons
3) Interactivity
4) Integration 5) Speed
132. A device that copies or reproduces text and
images is also called a(n) ____.
1) Optical scanner
2) Barcode reader
3) Character device
4) Digital camera
5) Printer
133. A CD-RW disk____.
1) has a faster access than an internal disk
2) can be erased and rewritten
3) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be
written once
4) holds less data than a floppy disk
5) is not easily available in the market.
134. Which of the following is a secondary storage
device?
1) Optical Disks
2) RAM
3) Micro Processor
4) All of these
5) None of these
135. A website containing stories and articles
relating to current events, life , money, sports,
and the weather is considered a(n) ____
website.
1) Business/ Marketing
2) Portal
3) Informational
4) News
5) Retailing
136. You can have a live conversation with another connected user via ____.
1) e-mail
2) Instant Massaging
3) e-commerce
4) Distance learning
5) Word Package
137. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data and/or information
is ____.
1) Title Bar
2) Button
3) Dialog Box
4) Window
5) Interaction Box
138. Video-conferencing requires a microphone,
speakers, and a ........... attached to your
computer.
1) Mouse
2) Keyboard

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3) Video Camera
4) Scanner
5) Mobile Phone
139. The process of a computer receiving
information from a server on the internet is
known as ........
1) Acquisition
2) Pulling
3) Transferring
4) Pushing
5) Downloading
140. Any hardware component that allows you to
enter data or instructions into a computer is
called a(n) ___.
1) Printer
2) Storage device
3) Output device
4) System unit
5) Input device
141. The life cycle of a product consist of :
1) Lifespan of products is limited
2) Quantum of Sales passes through distinct
stages
3) Different challenges, opportunities, threats
will be experienced during this cycle
4) Rise and fall of profits takes place at different stages
5) All the above
142. The stages of product development includes:
1) Idea screening
2) Concept testing
3) Product development
4) Testing the market and Commercial launch
5) All the above
143. SIP stands for
1) System Driven Investment Plan
2) Systematic Individual Plan
3) Systematic Investment Policy
4) Systematic Investment Plan
5) None of the above
144. DSA in sales represent:
1) Detective Service Agency
2) District wise Sales Agent
3) Divisional Sales Agent
4) Direct Sales Agent
5) All the above
145. Planning for post retirement savings is called:
1) Economic Planning
2) Mutual fund planning
3) SIP
4) Financial Planning
5) None
146. One of the following is not a pre-sales
activity:
1) Generating a lead
2) Feed back from customer
3) Product design
4) Promotion
5) All
147. Which one of the following is a need/want
mentioned in Moslows's Theory of
Motivation?
1) physiological needs
2) safety needs
3) social needs
4) esteem needs and self actualisation needs
5) All
148. Which of the following is consumer product?
1) ATM machine
2) Milk and Tea
3) Railway Station
4) Transport Service
5) None
149. Which of the following is a durable product?
1) Refrigerator
2) Bread 3) Tomato
4) Butter
5) All
150. In Introduction stage the product will have:
1) Low Profit
2) Low demand
3) Low growth rate
4) Only 1 & 2
5) All 1, 2 and 3
151. Test Marketing means:
1) Testing the product before commercial
production
2) Assessing the product value
3) Developing a concept
4) Giving products at free of cost
5) None

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--- 2 -dd 2012

-- j---

SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


152. What aspects are to be considered before a
Final Launch of product in the Market?
1) Timing of launch
2) Geographical reach
3) Prospect consumer groups
4) Market strategy
5) All of the above
153. BEP Stands for:
1) Breaking Equity Point
2) Breaking Every Point of Sales
3) Beak Even Point
4) 1 & 2
5) None
154. Good packaging should be:
1) Attractive
2) Memorable
3) Interesting
4) Convenient 5) All
155. This is what a sales person need to build with
the customer:
1) Good Company
2) Trust
3) Power
4) Dignity
5) None
156. A probable customer is called:
1) Suspect
2) Prospect
3) Retrospect
4) HNI
5) All of the above
157. Features of financial products are:
1) Intangible
2) Perishable
3) Heterogeneity
4) Only 1 & 2
5) All 1, 2, 3
158. Which of the following aspects are considered before investment by a knowledgeable
investor?
1) References
2) Read and compare
3) Contact Expertise 4) Dynamic needs
5) None
159. Which of the following features of financial
products distinguishes from the non-financial
products?
1) Separable
2) Tangible
3) Homogeneity
4) Perishable
5) None
160. What is professional ethics?
1) Marketing persons should read ethics
2) To keep ethics first and customer next
3) Interest and benefit of customer should be at
forefront
4) Only 1 & 2
5) None

GENERAL AW
AWARENESS
161. In which of the following countries Non
Alignment Movement was held in August
2012?
1) Iran
2) Iraq
3) Syria
4) Russia
5) France
162. Who among the following is the Current Vice
President of India?
1) Pranab Mukherjee
2) P.A. Sangma
3) Mohammad Hamid Ansari
4) L.K.Advani
5) None of the above
163. Sushil Kumar Shinde, who is the current
Minister for Home Affairs was earlier the cabinet minister of ........?
1) Defence
2) Information and Broadcasting
3) Irrigation
4) Food and Agriculture
5) Power
164. Who among the following is the Afghanistan
Counter-Part of S.M. Krishna who visited
India recently?
1) Hamid Karzai
2) Zalmai Rassaul
3) Raza Parvez Ashraf
4) Sheikh Hasina
5) Ansari-Al-Asad-Al-Hassan
165. Who among the following was crowned Miss
Asia Pacific in Busan, South Korea?
1) Vanya Mishra
2) Yu-Wenxia
3) Divya Mishra
4) Himangini Singh Yadu
5) Sravani Gogoi

166. Mehdi Hassan who Expired Recently is a


famous ......
1) Actor
2) Politician
3) Ghazal Singer
4) Boxer
5) Tennis Player
167. What is the current Cash Reserve Ratio?
1) 8%
2) 4.75% 3) 9%
4) 4.50%
5) 7%
168. Maria Sharapova of Russia defeated who
among the following to clinch French Open
Women's Singles Title?
1) Serena Williams, USA
2) Venus Williams, USA
3) Agnieszka Radwanska, Poland
4) Victoria Azarenka, Belarus
5) Sara Errani, Italy
169. Who is the first South African Cricket player to
score a triple century?
1) Hashim Amla
2) Jaques Kallis
3) Mark Boucher
4) Herschelle Gibbs
5) Graeme Smith
170. Swavalamban, a scheme launched by India
is related to:
1) Pension to employees in the unorganised
sector
2) Financial Inclusion
3) Child Health
4) Primary Education to all
5) None of these
171. Common Wealth games in 2018 will be held
in which of the following places?
1) Rio de janerio (Brazil)
2) Queensland (Australia)
3) Maryland (US)
4) Cannes (France)
5) Bali (Indonesia)
172. What is the Currency of Afghanistan?
1) Afghanistan Rupee 2) Afghani
3) Rial
4) Afghanistan Dinar
5) Taka
173. Which of the following the Capital of Bahrain?
1) Manama
2) Panama
3) Bahuddir City
4) Tehran
5) Abu Dhabi
174. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
1) President
2) Prime Minister
3) Governor of the Capital City of the
country
4) Ex-Chief Justice 5) None of the above
175. Which of the following is/are not a part of
United Nations Organisation (UNO)?
1) International Civil Aviation Organisation
2) Universal Postal Union
3) World Intellectual Property Organisation
4) Both 2 & 3
5) All 1, 2, 3 are part of UNO
176. Who among the following has not won a
medal in Olympics from India?
1) Saina Nehwal
2) Vijendar Singh
3) Gagan Narang
4) Vijay Kumar
5) Mary Kom
177. Who is the chairman of IRDA?
1) J. Harinarayan
2) U.K. Sinha
3) Subir Gokaran
4) Rahul Khullar
5) Malegaon
178. Who has taken over the chairman of Indian
Space Research Organisation recently?
1) G.Madhavan Nair
2) Dr. K. Radhakrishnan
3) Debabrata Sarkar
4) D.K.Mehrotra
5) Prashanth Singh
179. RTGS Stands for
1) Real Time Gross Settlement
2) Right Time Gross Settlement
3) Real Time Gross Transfer
4) Real Time Green Settlement
5) None of these

180. Who among the


following is the
winner of National
Snooker Title?
1) Ashuthosh
Khanna
2) Pankaj Advani
3) Dipika Pallikal
4) Bobby Ganapati
5) Aditya Mehta
181. The Present National Security Adviser to
Government of India is:
1) Ranjan Mathai
2) Shiva Shankar Menon
3) Nirupama Rao
4) Bimal Jalan
5) None of these
182. Mahanandi Coal fields is located in:
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Odisha
3) Maharashtra
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) None of these
183. Which of the following is not a core sector
industry?
1) Crude Oil
2) Petroleum refined products
3) Fertilizer
4) Natural Gas
5) All are core sector industries
184. Who is the chief economic adviser to the
Government of India?
1) Ranjan Mathai
2) Nirupama Rao
3) Dr. C. Rangarajan
4) Raghuram Rajan
5) Shiva Shankar Menon
185. Which of the following is the Rating Index
launched by India recently?
1) CIBIL
2) Fitch Rating
3) CRIS
4) IIP
5) None of these
186. Which of the following states has been
regarded as the best performer in implementation of MGNREGA?
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Maharashtra
3) New Delhi
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) None of these
187. Find the odd one out.
1) Malawi - Joyce Banda
2) Ghana - John Dramani Mahama
3) Mauritius - Rajkeshwur Purryag
4) Mexico - Felipe Calderon
5) Singapore - Lee Hsien Loong
188. World Gold Council has its Head Quarters in:
1) France
2) South Africa
3) Tanzania
4) London
5) None of these
189. What is the capital city of Canada?
1) Ottawa
2) Toronto
3) Edmonton
4) Quebec City
5) None of these
190. Which of the following places in India is
famous for its woollen products
1) Satara
2) Bhadohi
3) Nagpur
4) Ambala
5) Bhagalpur
191. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT
associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
1) Davis Cup
2) Merdeka Cup
3) Wimbledon
4) ATP Open
5) Dubai Open
192. Prithvi Nath Dhar who expired recently is an
eminent ____
1) Economist
2) Peace Activist
3) Actor
4) Director
5) Musician
193. Which of the following is NOT decided by
Reserve Bank of India?
1) Rate of Repo and Reverse Repo
2) Marginal Standing Facility Rates
3) Bank Rate
4) Rate of Dearness Allowance to Govt
Employees
5) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

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194. India signed Social Security Agreement with


which of the following countries in June
2012?
1) France
2) Russia
3) Finland
4) USA
5) China
195. ''India's First River-lake link Project launched
in Bundelkhand '' was the news recently.
Larger portion of Bundelkhand (This region is
divided between two states) is in which of the
following states?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Maharashtra
4) Chattisgarh
5) None of these
196. 12th SCO Summit was held recently in
Beijing, China. Who was the representative
from India?
1) Ranjan Mathai
2) Dr. Manmohan Singh
3) Prathibha Patil
4) Pranab Mukherjee
5) S.M. Krishna
197. Who among the following is the Indian
Ambassador to China, who was on a visit to
Tibet recently?
1) S. Jaishankar
2) Nirupama Rao
3) Nancy Powell
4) Rajashekhar Chintapally
5) None of these
198. Which of the following countries is hosting 9th
World Hindi Conference, which aims at making Hindi one of the Official UN languages?
1) India
2) Pakistan
3) South Africa
4) Australia
5) Japan
199. Which of the following countries has secured
highest number of medals (104) in Olympics
2012?
1) China
2) USA
3) Korea
4) Japan
5) India
200. International Youth Day is observed on:
2) 12th August
1) 12th January
3) 24th June
4) 24th August
5) None of these

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E DBS


-P~- n -E-- -%- ---C--*-C.)
KEY:

15; 21; 34; 41; 52; 64; 73; 82;


93; 103; 111; 123; 132; 141; 154; 165;
174; 181; 195; 202; 211; 222; 231; 241;
253; 265; 275; 284; 295; 302; 311; 325;
333; 343; 355; 363; 373; 382; 395; 404;
412; 423; 435; 443; 454; 463; 474; 482;
491; 502; 514; 522; 532; 541; 553; 565;
572; 582; 594; 603; 612; 625; 631; 641;
652; 664; 673; 682; 691; 701; 714; 725;
731; 742; 755; 765; 771; 782; 793; 805;
811; 823; 835; 844; 852; 861; 872; 883;
893; 901; 915; 923; 932; 943; 955; 963;
972; 984; 994; 1005; 1013; 1024; 1032;
1045; 1051; 1065; 1071; 1082; 1091;
1102; 1114; 1124; 1135; 1143; 1152;
1164; 1173; 1181; 1192; 1205; 1212;
1225; 1234; 1241; 1253; 1262; 1274;
1281; 1295; 1304; 1313; 1321; 1332;
1341; 1353; 1362; 1374; 1383; 1395;
1405; 1415; 1425; 1434; 1444; 1454;
1462; 1475; 1482; 1491; 1505; 1511;
1525; 1533; 1545; 1552; 1562; 1575;
1582; 1594; 1603; 1611; 1623; 1635;
1642; 1654; 1663; 1674; 1685; 1691;
1701; 1712; 1722; 1731; 1741; 1755;
1762; 1771; 1782; 1791; 1805; 1812;
1822; 1835; 1844; 1853; 1861; 1875;
1884; 1891; 1902; 1912; 1921; 1934;
1943; 1951; 1965; 1971; 1983; 1992;
2002.

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--- 3 -d- 2012


1. From 1 October 2012, the chairman of Indian
Banks' Association (IBA) is....
1) K.R. Kamath, Chairman
and Managing Director,
Punjab National Bank
2) T.M. Bhasin, Chairman
and Managing Director ,
Indian Bank
3) Bhaskar Sen, Chairman and Managing
Director , United Bank of India
4) Pratip Chaudhuri, Chairman, State Bank
of India
5) None of above
2. Which bank has launched "Sanjeevan", a
savings bank scheme catering to the needs
of pensioners?
1) ICICI
2) Bank of Baroda
3) State Bank of Patiala
4) State Bank of India
5) Syndicate Bank
3. Scheduled Bank means it is a bank....

-- j---
1) State Bank of Indore merged with State
Bank of India in 2010
2) State Bank of Saurashtra merged with
State Bank of India in 2008
3) New Bank of India merged with Bank of
India in 1993
4) Bank of Maduhra Limited merged with
ICICI in 2001
5) Global Trust Bank Limited merged with
Oriental Bank of Commerce in 2004
12. 'With You - All The Way', "The Banker To
Every Indian', "Pure Banking, Nothing Else"
are the slogans of .....
1) ICICI
2) HDFC
3) SBI
4) YES bank
5) Indian Bank
13. India's First Dedicated Education Loan
Company CREDILA is the associate body
of ......
1) SBI
2) Andhra Bank
3) United Bank of India
4) HDFC
5) SBH

Development
(EBRD)?
1) Onno Ruhl
2) K.C.Chakrabarty
3) Suma
Chakrabarti
4) Mrs. V.R.Iyer
5) Shrinath Bolloju
22. On 2nd September
2012, Small Industries Development Bank
of India (SIDBI) signed a 53 million loan
agreement
with
Kreditanstalt
fur
Wiederaufbau (KfW) of....
1) France
2) Italy
3) Japan
4) South Korea
5) Germany
23. EXIM bank details are given. Which one is
the wrong option.
1) Export-Import Bank of India established
in 1982
2) It is established to integrate the country's
foreign trade and investment with the

'Surface' is the tablet released by?


1) in which 51% of share hold by the
Government of India
2) recognized by the state government also
3) not permitted to open the branch in any
foreign country
4) included in the second schedule of RBI
Act, 1934
5) included in the first schedule of RBI Act,
1934
4. RBI was started with a share capital of
Rs ......... crores on 1 April 1935.
1) 15
2) 10
3) 5 4) 20 5) 500
5. Banking industry will need to hire 9-11 lakh
employees over the next five years, according to a report by 1) CRISIL
2) Boston Consulting Group
3) Karvy Consultancy
4) NABARD
5) IBPS
6. Agricultural Census taken for every ... years.
1) 5
2) 10
3) 20 4) 2
5) 11
7. To increase the flow of Foreign Direct
Investment into the country, FIPB established. FIPB means' 1) Foreign Investment Proposal Board
2) Foreign Investment Preliminary Board
3) Foreign Investment Primary Board
4) Foreign Investment Prize Board
5) Foreign Investment Promotion Board
8. List of National Parks given. Pick the incorrect combination.
1) Bandipur National Park - Karnataka
2) Kanha National Park - Andhra Pradesh
3) Corbett National Park - Uttarakhand
4) Dudhwa National Park - Uttar Pradesh
5) Manas National Park - Assam
9. The Award List given. Pick the correct one.
1) US Congressional Gold Medal conferred
on Aung San Suu Kyi
2) Saraswati
Samman
received
by
AA Manavalan, a Tamil Writer
3) Gruber Cosmology Prize 2012 received
by Charles L Bennett, an American
observational astrophysicist.
4) Gopi Chand Narang, the Urdu Poet conferred with Sitara-i-Imtiaz, the third highest civilian honour of Pakistan
5) All of above
10. Trophies and Cups list given. Pick up
correct one.
1) Wimbledon - Tennis
2) Durand Cup - Football
3) Thomas Cup - Badminton
4) Moinuddaula Gold Cup - Cricket
5) All of above
11. Which merger is wrong?

overall economic growth


3) T.C.A. Ranganathan is the
Present Chairman
4) Head office is at Mumbai
5) None
24. An Indian bank raised $ 500
GENERAL AWARENESS
million through Medium Term
Notes (MTN) through its branch
A.Veeraswamy
14. CER was established to prevent
in Hong Kong on 14th August
frauds in loan cases involving
2012. It is....
multiple lending from different banks on the
1) Indian Overseas Bank
same immovable property. CER means....
2) State Bank of India
1) Central Electronic Recognition
3) Union Bank of India
2) Central Ethics Registry
4) South Indian Bank Limited
3) Central Electronic Registry
5) Canara Bank
4) Central Election Registry
25. Which scheme introduced to encourage
5) Central Entry Registry
and enable overseas Indian Workers to
15. International Day for the Preservation of the
save for their return and resettlement?
Ozone Layer is celebrated on...
1) Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Samraksha
1) 7 September
2) 4 September
Yojana
3) 20 September
4) 16 September
2) Pradhanmanthri Swasthy Abhiyan
5) None
3) Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha
16. MCA21 is the e-governance initiative of theYojana
1) Ministry of Commerce and Trade
4) Nirmal Pravasi Bharath Abhiyan
2) Ministry of Home Affairs
5) NRI Pack
3) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
26. Which committee set up by the finance min4) Ministry of External Affairs
istry to improve the credit flow for the cor5) President of India Office
porate sector?
17. 6th International Hybrid Rice Symposium
1) Sachar
2) Kailash Manohar
held from 10-12 September 2012 at....
3) Diwakar Gupta
4) Veerappa Moily
1) Hyderabad
2) Mysore
5) Ratna Tata
3) Cuttack
4) Manila 5) Hanoi
27. On 14th September 2012, the Union
18. Head of National Commissions list given.
Government approved sale of its minority
Select the wrong option.
stakes in four public sector firms to raise up
1) Mamatha
Sharma
National
to Rs. 15,000 crore. Which one is not
Commission for women
among them?
2) Dr.Shantha
Sinha
National
1) Hindustan Copper
2) Oil India
Commission for Children
3) MMTC
4) NALCO
5) BHEL
3) M.N.Rao - National Commission for
28. Typhoon Haikui recently attacked....
Physically Handicapped
1) Philippines
2) India 3) Thailand
4) Rameshwar
Oraon
National
4) Japan
5) China
Commission for Scheduled Tribes
29. Where
the
exclusive
Information
5) Sh. Wajahat Habibullah - National
Technology Investment Region (ITIR) will
Commission for Minorities
be set up?
19. Lakshya-1 is the .......
1) Goa
2) Maharashtra
1) Air to Air Missile
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Bihar
2) Micro-light pilot-less target aircraft
5) Karnataka
3) War Tank
30. Which committee submitted the recommen4) Multiple launching Missile
dations on Customer service in Banks?
5) Navy war ship
1) Shyamala Gopinath
20. 'Surface' is the tablet released by.....
2) C.Ranga Rajan
1) Google
2) Samsung
3) M. Damodaran
3) Apple
4) Microsoft
4) K. C. Chakrabarty
5) Nokia
5) Vyas
21. Which Indian appointed as the President of
31. The most Liquid form among the following
the European Bank for Reconstruction and
one is....

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1) Demand Draft
2) Land & Building
3) Cash in Fixed Deposit
4) Cash in Savings Account
5) Cash
32. In the Newspapers we read the soft loans
granted by World Bank to India. Few state
governments and Central government give
the soft loans to beneficiaries also. What is
meant by soft loan?
1) Short period and more rate of Interest
2) Long Period and more rate of interest
3) Long period, more rate of Interest with
grace periods
4) Long period, less rate of Interest with
grace periods
5) Long period, more rate of Interest with
no grace periods
33. 'Smart Women' is the first Unit-linked plan
platform of ....
1) SBI Life Insurance
2) LIC
3) SEBI
4) HDFC Standard Life 5) Bajaj-Allianz
34. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is in the
state of......
1) Tamilnadu
2) Karnataka
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Assam
5) Delhi
KEY: 1-1; 2-3; 3-4; 4-3; 5-2; 6-1; 7-5; 8-2;
9-5; 10-5; 11-3; 12-3; 13-4; 14-3; 15-4;
16-3; 17-1; 18-3; 19-2; 20-4; 21-3; 22-5;
23-5; 24-1; 25-3; 26-3; 27-5; 28-5; 29-3;
30-3; 31-5; 32-4; 33-4; 34-1.

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1Oth
Class

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
Answers (EM & TM) ...
Click on

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200

www.eenadupratibha.net

- 4 -d- 2012
1. In a certain code 'BACK' 'is written as' 5914'
and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is
'BEAT' written in that code?
1) 5697
2) 5967
3) 4697
4) 5687
5) None of these
2. If 'M' denotes '' ; 'R' denotes '' ; 'K'
denotes '+' and 'B' denotes '', then
24B4M8K6R4 = ?
1) 3
2) 3
3) 52
4) 50
5) None of these
3. How many meaningful English words can be
made with the letters ALEP using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1) 39
2) 48
3) 56
4) 31
5) 72
5. In a certain code language , 'go and come' is

-- j---
within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word MODERATE each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in
the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
10. In a certain code ABSENT is written as
TCBSMD. How is CABLES written in that
code?
1) CBDTFM
2) CBDRDK 3) DBCRDK
4) CBDKDR
5) None of these
Directions (Q.11 - 13):
(i) 'P Q' means 'P is brother of Q.'
(ii) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q.'
(iii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of Q.'
(iv) 'P Q' means 'P is father of Q.'
11. Which of the following means 'M is nephew
of R'?

May whereas his


sister
correctly
remembers that
their father's birthday is after 24th
May but before
30th May. On
which day in May
was definitely their
father's birthday?
1) 25th
2) 24th
3) 26th
4) 25th or 26th 5) None of these
15. What should come next in the following
series of numbers?
223234234523456234567234567
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 7
5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
M, P, J, B, R, T and F are sitting around a

The Colour of Sunflower is?


written as 'na ta ka' and ' black and white' is
written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in
that code language?
1) na
2) ka
3) pa
4) na or ka
5) None of these
6. If 'red' means 'white', 'white' means 'black',
'black' means 'yellow', 'yellow' means 'green',
'green' means 'blue' and 'blue' means
'indigo' ; then which of the following will
represent the colour of sunflower?
1) green
2) indigo
3) white
4) blue
5) black
7. If each of the odd digits in the number
6234518 is changed to the next even digit
and the even digits are kept unchanged,
how many digits will appear only once in the
new number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
8. How many such digits are in the number
8243691 each of which is as far away from
the beginning of the number as when the
digits are rearranged in ascending order
EXPLANATIONS

circle facing at the centre. B is third to


the left of J who is second to the left
of M. P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R. T is not an
immediate neighbour of M.
16. Who is fourth to the right of M?
REASONING
1) B
2) T
3) J
4)
Data
inadequate
S. ARUNMOHAN
1) M T + J R
5) None of these
2) R K M T
17. Who is second to the left of T?
3) R K M
4) R K+ M T
1) F
2) M
3) P
4) J
5) None of these
5)
Data
inadequate
12. Which of the following means 'D is maternal
18. In which of the following pairs the second
uncle of T'?
person is sitting to the immediate right of
1) D J + T
2) D J T 3) D J + T
the first person?
4) D J T
5) None of these
1) JR
2) PJ
3) TR
13. Which of the following means 'R is grand4) MP
5) None of these
daughter of B'?
19. What is F's position with respect to R?
1) R M + K B
2) K + M R B
(A) Third to the left
3) B T + R D
4) B T + R
(B) Fourth to the right
5) None of these
(C) Third to the right
14. Pravin correctly remembers that his father's
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
birthday is after 21st May but before 27th

and

K I T E
+1

T
5 9 1 4

4 8 7 6
C

Similarly,

+1

+1

1 1

C+1 B S M
D
Similarly,
A B L E S

B E A T
+1

M
T
(+)
Therefore, M is the nephew of R.
12. 1; D J + T: Draw the family tree
D ....... J
(+)
()
T
Therefore, D is maternal uncle of T.
13. 3; BT+RD : Draw the family tree
B
(+)
T
()

>

>
>

M O D E R A T E
DE, DA, OR, OT and RT

C
B+1 D R D K
Therefore, Required answer = CBDRDK
11. 2; RKMT : Draw the family tree
R ....... K
(+)
(+)

<

<

5 6 9 7
2. 4;
24B4M8K6R4 24 4 8 + 6 4
= 6 8 + 6 4 = 48 + 6 4 = 50
3. 5; Required words are LEAP, PLEA, PALE
and PEAL.
4. 4; All others are composite numbers.
5. 4; 'go and come' 'na ta ka'
'black and white' 'pa ma ta'
and = ta
go = na or ka
6. 5; The colour of sunflower is yellow. Here
black means yellow. So black is our answer.
7. 2; 6 2 3 4 5 1 8
6 2 4 4 6 2 8
Only 8 is the required digit.
8. 3; 8 2 4 3 6 9 1
1 2 3 4 6 8 9
9. 5;

KEY
1-1; 2-4; 3-5; 4-4; 5-4; 6-5; 7-2; 8-3;
9-5; 10-2; 11-2; 12-1; 13-3; 14-4; 15-5;
16-5; 17-1; 18-3; 19-4; 20-2; 21-4; 22-1;
23-2; 24-5; 25-2.
(Writer - Director, Banking Service Chronicle, Hyderabad)

10. 2;
A

1. 1;
B A C K

4) Both (A) and (B)


5) None of these
20. Who is third to the right of B?
1) R
2) J
3) M
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q.21-25): In the following questions, the symbol @, , %, $ and # are used
with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P%Q' means 'P is either smaller than or
equal to Q.'
'PQ' means 'P is greater than Q.'
'P#Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor
smaller than Q.'
'P$Q' means 'P smaller than Q.'
'P@Q' means 'P is either greater than or
equal to Q.'
Now in each of the following questions
assuming the given statements to be true, for
conclusions I and II given below them is /are
definitely true ? Give answer
1) if only Conclusion I is true.
2) if only Conclusion II is true.
3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
21. Statements : B#F, F$H, HK
Conclusions: I) H@B
II) K$B
22. Statements : H@T, TN, N$W
Conclusions: I) N$H
II) W$H
23. Statements: H$F, F%M, MJ
Conclusions: I) J$F
II) MH
24. Statements: M$T, T%R, MN
Conclusions: I) M$R II) N$T
25. Statements:
D$T, T%B, B@F
Conclusions: I) D#T
II) D@F

R
()

Therefore, R is granddaughter of B.
14. 4; According to Pravin his father's birthday
= 22 or 23 or 24 or 25 or 26 May and
according to his sister his father's birthday =25 or 26 or 27 or 28 or 29 May.
Therefore father's birthday is 25 or 26 May.
15. 5;
2, 23, 234, 2345, 23456, 234567, 2345678
(16-20):
J
P
R
Right

22. 1;

23. 2;

Left

B
24. 5;

16. 5; R is fourth to the right of M.


17. 1; F is second to the left of T
18. 3; R is sitting to the immediate right of T.
20. 2; J is third to the right of B.
(21-25) :
P % Q means P Q
P Q means P > Q
P # Q means P = Q
P $ Q means P < Q
P @ Q means P Q
21. 4; B # F B = F
F$HF<H
HKH>K
Hence, B = F < H > K

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25. 2;

Conclusions :
I. H @ B H B (Not true)
II. K $ B K < B (Not true)
H@THT
TNT>N
N$WN<W
Hence, H T > N < W
Conclusions :
I. N $ H N < H (True)
II. W $ H W < H (Not true)
H$FH<F
F%MFM
MJM>J
Hence, H < F M > J
Conclusions :
I. J $ F J < F (Not true)
II. M H M > H (True)
M$TM<T
T%RTR
MNM>N
Hence, N < M < T R
Conclusions :
I. M $ R M < R (True)
II. N $ T N < T (True)
D$TD<T
T%BTB
B@FBF
Hence, D < T B F
Conclusions :
I. D # T D = T (Not true)
II. D @ F D F (True)

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MENSURRATION
L et us discuss about plane figures first.
Triangle: If a, b and c are the lengths of the
sides of a triangle,

Area = s(s a)(s b)(s c)


a+b+c
Where s =
2

3
Area of equilateral triangle = (side)2
4
b
Area of an isosceles triangle = 4a2 b2
4
Area of a right angled triangle
1
= base height
2
Square: Area = side2
Perimeter = 4 side
Rectangle: Area = length breadth
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)
Rhombus:
1
Area = d1 d2
2

-- j---
10 decimeter
= 1 meter
10 meter
= 1decameter
10 decameter
= 1 hectometer
10 hectometer
= 1 kilometer
1. The area of a rectangular plate is 231.25
sq.cm. If the length of the plate is 18.5 cm,
find the perimeter of the plate.
231.25
Sol: Width of the field = = 12.5 cm
18.5
Perimeter = 2(length + width)
2 (18.5 + 12.5) = 62 cm
2. How many tiles of 20 cm length and 10 cm
width are required to pave the floor of a room
8 m long and 5 m wide?
Sol: Area of the floor of the room = 800 500
= 400000 cm2
Area of theTile = 20 10 cm2
400000
Number of Tiles required = = 2000
20 10

3. A square field has an area of 50625 sq. m.

and 8 m high.
Sol: Length of the
stick = length of
the diagonal of
the room

122 + 92 + 82

=
289 = 17 m
6. A rectangular field
of 60 meter length and 40 meters wide is to
be surrounded by a road 5 meter wide. If the
cost of making 1 square meter road is
Rs.500, what would be the cost of the entire
road?
Sol: Area of the road = Area of outside
rectangle Area of inside rectangle
= 70 50 60 40
= 3500 2400 = 1100 m2

The cost of making 1100 m = 500 1100


= Rs.550000
7. What will be the area of a triangle with base

What would be the cost of the entire road?

Perimeter =
4(d12 + d22)
d1, d2 = diagonals
Parallelogram: Area = b h
b = base
h = perpendicular height
Trapezium:
1
Area = h (a + b)
2
h = perpendicular height
a, b = parallel sides
Circle: Area = r2
r = radius
Circumference = 2 r

Area of sector = r2
360

Length of the arc = 2 r


360

10.2 cm and height 3.5 cm?

r2
Semi Circle: Area =
2
36
Circumference = radius
7

Solid Figures

Find the cost of fencing around it


G.S. Giridhar
at Rs.15 per meter.

Sol: Side of the square field = 50625 = 225 m


Length of the wire required = 4 225 = 900 m
Total cost = Rs.15 900 = Rs.13500
4. A horse is tied with a 14 m long rope. How
much ground will it be able to graze?
Sol: Length of the rope will be the radius of the
circle = 14 m
22
Area of the cicrle = r2 = 14 14
7
= 616 sq.m

Area of the ground that can be grazed


= 616 sq.m
5. Find the length of the longest stick that can
be placed in a room of 12 m long, 9 m broad

EXPLANATIONS
1. Let the length of the plot be x m
75
3x
Breadth = x = m
100
4
3x
1050 = 2 x +
4
x = 300 m

3 300
Area of the plot = 300
4
= 67500 m2
2. Area of four walls = 2 5 (7.5 + 5.5)
= 130 m2
Area of required paper = 130 m2
Breadth of the paper = 40 cm = 0.4 m
130
Length of the paper = = 325 m
0.4
Cost of paper at 75 paise per meter
= 325 0.75 = Rs.243.75
3. a13 : a23 = 8 : 27 a1: a2 = 2 : 3
Surface areas ratio = 6a12 : 6a22
= (2)2 : (3)2 = 4:9
4. Let the length and breadth be10 and 10
Area = 10 10 =100
New length = 12 (20% increase)
New breadth = 11(10% increase)
New area = 12 11= 132
Increment in area =132 100 = 32%
5. Let the number of spherical balls be 'x'
Volume of cylinder = x Volume of sphere
4
72 28 = x 73
3
x=3

1. The breadth of a rectangular plot is


75% of its length. If the perimeter of
the plot be 1050 m, what is its area?

ANSWERS
1-D; 2-B; 3-B; 4-D; 5-C.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

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Cube: Total surface area = 6 a2


a = side
Volume = a3

Diagonal = 3 a
Cuboid: If 'l' is length, 'b' is breadth and 'h' is
height, then
Total surface area = 2 (lb + bh + lh)
Volume = l b h

2
2
2
Diagonal = l + b + h
Cylinder: Lateral surface area = 2 r h
r = radius
h = height
Total surface area = 2 r (h + r)
Volume = r2 h
Cone: Lateral surface area = r l
r = radius
l = slant height
h = perpendicular height
Total surface area = r (l + r)
1
Volume = r2 h
3
Sphere: Total surface area = 4 r2
r = radius
4
Volume = r3
3
Hemi Sphere:
Lateral surface area = 3 r2
r = radius
Total surface area = 4 r2
2
Volume = r3
3
Units of Measuring Length
10 millimeter
= 1 centimeter
10 centimeter
= 1 decimeter

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Sol: Area of triangle


1
= base height
2
1
= 10.2 3.5
2
= 17.85 cm2

A) 12500 B) 57500
C) 62500
D) 67500 E) None of these
2. A room is 7.5 m long, 5.5 m broad and 5 m
high. What will be the expenditure in covering the walls by paper 40 cm broad at the
rate of 75 paise per meter?
A) Rs.245.25
B) Rs.243.75
C) Rs.275.50
D) Rs.275.45
E) None of these
3. Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio
8 : 27. Find the ratio of their surface areas.
A) 2:3
B) 4:9
C) 16:81 D) 8:9
E) None of these
4. The length and breadth of a rectangle
increased by 20% and 10% respectively.
How much
percent will its area be
increased?
A) 25%
B) 30% C) 40% D) 32%
E) None of these
5. 7 cm radius and 28 cm height solid metallic
cylinder is melted and recast into small
spherical balls of 7 cm radius. Find the
number of cubes that can be made.
A) 12
B) 5
C) 3
D) 6
E) None of these

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1. Head office of various banks given. Pick up
incorrect one.
1) Allahabad Bank - Kolkatta
2) Andhra Bank - Hyderabad
3) Bank of Baroda - Pune
4) Bank of India - Mumbai
5) Syndicate Bank - Manipal
2. Which among the following is not the
function of Reserve Bank of India?
1) Deciding Key rates like SLR, CRR
2) Issuing the Paper Currency above the
denomination Rs. 2
3) Giving loans to individuals
4) Supervision of banks
5) None
3. Amortized loan means .................
1) Loan with scheduled periodic payments
of both principal and interest
2) Government finance the banks to
refinance the local money lenders
3) Giving huge loans to customers by taking

-- j---
1) UNESCO
2) AIIMS
3) WHO
4) MCI 5) None
12. Banks Punch lines are given. Pick up
wrong one.
1) Allahabad Bank - A tradition of trust
2) Andhra Bank - This is your Bank only
3) Bank of Baroda - India's International
Bank
4) Bank of India - Relationship beyond
Banking
5) All of the above
13. Asian Development Bank recently funded
Kaliganga hydro power project in the state
of.............
1) Uttarakhand
2) West Bengal
3) Odisha
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) Tamilnadu
14. Which committee submitted its report in
1952 to setup State Bank of India?
1) All India SBI Committee
2) All India Banking Committee

23. What is meant by


Open
Market
Operations?
1) RBI gives the
license to organizations to do
the
foreign
exchange business to make
foreign market in the balance mood
2) RBI gives the loans to individuals at
higher rate of interest, after taking the
funds from the public for lower rate of
interest
3) RBI buys and sells the government
securities in the open market. By buying
the securities, it increases the
circulation of money and by selling it
decreases the circulation of money.
4) RBI having tied up with SEBI, issue IPO
and take deposits from public
5) All of above

Golden R evolution R efers to...?


the security
4) Not providing cash to customers but
providing loan in the form of goods
5) Loan given by RBI
4. Whether all banks accept coins, though
coins mint by government of India1) Accept the coins but they ask the customer to give the undertaking
2) Never accept
3) Accept
4) Accept the coins, telling customer that
the bank return any time
5) Accept the coins at the lower value
5. Golden revolution refers to ...............
1) the production of Gold
2) Horticulture
3) Production of Imitation Jewellry
4) Fisheries
5) Coal
6. Abbreviation list given. Pick the wrong one.
1) TRAI - Telecom Rules Authority of India
2) RGESS - Rajiv Gandhi Equity Savings
Scheme
3) LIBOR - London Inter Bank Offered Rate
4) AMFI-Association of Mutual Fund in India
5) FCNRA
- Foreign Currency Non
Resident Account
7. First East Asia Summit Education Ministers
meeting was convened on 5th July 2012 at
Yogyakarta in ..................
1) Indonesia
2) Malaysia
3) Vietnam
4) Singapore
5) None
8. Recent Award list given. Pick the wrong
combination
1) PEN Open Book Award - Siddhartha
Deb
2) Siksha ratna - Dr. AN Purohit
3) Lata Mangeshkar award 2012 - Jesudas
4) People's Choice Gold Medal AwardSudarshan Pattnaik
5) Chameli
Devi
Jain Award
for
Outstanding Woman Media Person,
2012 - Tushita Mittal
9. Sally Pearson won the 100 mts gold medal in
London Olympics 2012. She belongs
to ............
1) Jamaica
2) Kenya
3) USA
4) Australia
5) France
10. Babur is the nuclear-capable cruise missile
of ...............
1) Iraq
2) Pakistan
3) Saudi Arabia
4) UAE
5) Afghanistan
11. ............has termed dengue as 'the most
important mosquito-borne viral disease in
the world'.

24. The statements relating to Banks


in the Union Budget 2012 - 13
given. Pick the correct one.
1) Short term RRB Credit Refinance
Fund was proposed to be set up
GENERAL AWARENESS
to enhance the capacity of
Regional Rural Banks to disburse
A.Veeraswamy
3) All India Credit Survey
short term crop loans to the small
Committee
and marginal farmers
4) All India Public Sector Banking
2) Kisan Credit Card Scheme is to be modCommittee
ified to make it a smart card which can
5) None
be used at ATMs
15. Nirmal Bharat Yatra started to make the
3) Rs. 15,888 crore to be provided for capcountry free from .............
italization of public sector banks and
financial Institutions
1) AIDS
2) Dengue Fever
4) Financial Inclusion gets the support of
3) Fraud in Banks
4) Open defecation
Central government
5) All of above
5) All of above
16. Verghese Kurien died on 9th September
2012. He is father of.............
25. The appointments list given. Pick the
correct one.
1) Blue Revolution
2) White Revolution
3) Brown Revolution 4) Black Revolution
1) Chairman Economic Advisory Council to
5) Grey Revolution
the Prime Minister - Dr. C.Rangarajan
17. Leaf is the largest-selling car in the world
2) National Security Advisor to the Prime
that runs on battery. It is manufactured by
minister - Shivshankar Menon
.........
3) Advisor to Prime Minister on Skill
1) Toyota
2) Nissan
Development - S.Ramadorai
3) Volkswagen
4) Maruti
5) Fiat
4) Advisor to the Prime Minister on Public
18. ..........is the head the Group of Ministers
Information Infrastructure & Innovations
(GoM) on pricing of bioethanol for blending
- Sam Pitroda
with petrol and other related issues.
5) All of above
1) Manmohan Singh
2) Chidambaram
26. Which of the following is a bio-diesel seed?
3) Jaipal Reddy
4) Sharad Pawar
1) Rose
2) pomegranate
5) Chaturvedi
3) Jatropha
4) mango
5) Wall nut
19. Supreme Court directed which Group to
27. News makers list given. Pick the wrong
refund Rs. 17400 crore to their Investors?
1) Tata
2) Zindal
3) GMR
4) Sahara
5) Jaypee
20. GNP means ...........
1) Gross National Price
2) Gross National Product
3) Gross Notional Produce
4) Goal National Product
5) Gross National Premium
21. In the news papers we read M - Banking
offering by many banks. M - banking
means........
1) Moral Banking
2) More Banking
3) Model Banking
4) Mobile Banking
5) Mercy Banking
22. On 2nd October 2012, which bank celebrated 100 years of its inauguration?
1) State Bank of India
2) Central Bank of India
3) Allahabad Bank
4) ICICI Bank
5) State Bank of Mysore

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combination.
1) Mahmoud Abbas - President of Palestine
2) Emomali Rahmon - President of
Tajikistan
3) Ebrahim Alkazi - Indian theatre Artist
4) Altamas Kabir - Chief Justice of Delhi
High Court
5) Lance Armstrong - Famous Cyclist
caught in doping
28. World Environment Day was observed on
5th June 2012. Theme for the World
Environment Day 2012 was .........
1) You and Your Environment
2) It is Your World: Are you taking Care?
3) Green Economy: Does it include you?
4) Do not kill the Environment! It kills you !!
5) None
29. Which among the following book not written
by Vikram Seth?
1) The Golden Gate
2) A Suitable Boy
3) Shame
4) Arion and The Dolphin
5) Two Lives
30. G - 20 summit details are given. Pick the
wrong one.
1) G - 20 formed in 1999. From 2008 the
Heads of state summits started
2) India is not a member
3) The first summit held in 2008 in
Washington DC
4) On 18 - 19th June 2012 the summit held
in Los Cabos, Mexico
5) Manmohan Singh represented India in
this summit
31. Currency note issuing dept of RBI should
always possess a minimum gold stock
worth of..............
1) Rs.1000 crore
2) Rs. 500 crore
3) Rs.115 crore
4) Rs.1200 crore
5) Rs. 5 crore
32. Automated Teller Machines (ATM) are.....
1) Unmanned, Cash Dispensers
2) Unmanned, Non-Cash Dispensers
3) Manned, Non - Cash Dispensers
4) Manned, Non - Financial Transactions
Machines
5) None of Above
KEY: 1-3; 2-3; 3-1; 4-3; 5-2; 6-1; 7-1; 8-3;
9-4; 10-2; 11-3; 12-2; 13-1; 14-3; 15-4;
16-2; 17-2; 18-4; 19-4; 20-2; 21-4; 22-5;
23-3; 24-5; 25-5; 26-3; 27-4; 28-3; 29-3;
30-2; 31-3; 32-1.

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10th
CLASS

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
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EM English (E/M)
& Physical Sciences
TM
Social Studies
and other papers uploaded...
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~-h--:

www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 7 -d- 2012

-- j---

Priyanjali Suxena, Rajahmundry


Q: What are your hobbies/ habits?
- Which one is correct?
A: Both are correct with different
meanings. Hobbies (Plural of
hobby) are things that we do
just for pleasure.
e.g.: Coin collection, CD collections, taking
longwalks in the evening, watching certain programmes on the TV etc.

( N)

Habit
is a thing that we do often
and almost without thinking, and difficult to
stop doing. Habits can be good/ bad - like
taking coffee, drinking, etc., and getting up
early in the morning etc.

(-)

Q: As your wish/ like


correct?

(O d)

- Which is

A: Both are correct.


Q: Explain about commercial movie/ hit.

anyone wants to give speech infront of huge


crowd?
A: You can get rid of stage fear by practice. It
gives you confidence. Even if you make mistakes and others laugh at you, you continue
to speak. After three or four attempts like
that, you can speak well.
Q: Explain the difference between People and
Public.

Lay on.
A: Such as = like, Men
such as Gandhi =
Men like Gandhi.
Lay on = Lay something on somebody =
To ask somebody to do
something unpleasant.
Q:

A: People = More than 2 or 3 persons, a group


of persons.
Public = The whole group of people in a society/ under a government.

A: People thought/ He thought he would travel


-

v -LqC, F -.

please excuse me.

-
certificates y- Ap----o
Translate into English.

A: Intentionally

(y-)

he is with hold up
my certificates making me go
Y. Gayathri, Asifabad

Q: Explain whether the following translations


are correct or not.

Q:

t--~ C E-E t--o.

A: By my soul, I believe it is true.


Q: "Hath"

(-)

round him.

Sneha Agarwal, Manchirial


Q: Pakistan refused a visa to Praveen who was
to have travelled with the media delegation What is the meaning of the underlined part.

--J E { - .
C = Owing to downpour

What have I said to make you feel so?

- -.

A: Hath is the old form of "have"


nowadays.
Q:

Not used

*a u Et j-?
N-J-.

He is only a ostentatious man, he has


nothing.
A: "... an ostentatious man.." is correct.
He is a stubborn, he never hears what others
say.
A: He is stubborn and never listens to what
others say.
Plagiarism is not a good habit.
A: ... is not a good practice (Habit - wrong)

A: A movie which becomes very popular, and is


seen by a large number of people, and gets
a lot of money for the producer - commercially (as business) it is a success. (Hit =
Success)
Q: He is seeing the doctor - Translate into
Telugu.
A:
Q: Explain about the words that are not used in
present continuous tense like seeing, tasting, etc.

-j-u--E ----o/ -h-o.

A: Verbs expressing feelings and emotions


verbs) - like, dislike, love, hate, hope, etc. Verbs of actions
of the mind: know, understand, suppose,
etc. 'Have' to mean 'owning' something.
'Have' in the present continues means am/
is/ are having = eating/ drinking. Verbs of
sense perception (see, hear, smell -

(-, v-- L

-x--- 703
Q: Explain whether the following
sentences are correct or not and
explain the meaning of it in
Telugu.

M. SURESAN

He is to have told
A:

p-LqC.

He is to have been here


A:

\ LqC.

repair E -LqC.
- -o v, F JT --a. All the sentences are correct.

It is not good to get somebody's nerves.

A: ... the whole work was spoiled.

E--u y? F-Eo-x
pL. E E. (N_ p)
= What a man you are. How many
times have to tell you this work can
not be done.

A: Correct (... have I to tell you Q:

He is to have his car repaired


A:

none of my work has completed. I am


very painful.
A: Owing to incessant rain/ downpour
my work has not been completed at
all.

----L.)
v L-----o?
^E --o? C , h
u- - Translate into English.

A: Do you think that I don't know that much?


Do you think I am a fool? Enough. Have
some respect.
Q:

'h
a n ( n
). Taste = -*-i- n, *
n ).

Q: The citizens will remain subject to the same


tough restrictions - What is the meaning of
the underlined word?
A: Subject to = Under the power of/ ruled by/
controlled by.

Q: Is there any way to get rid of stage fear if

Q: Explain the meaning of the words: Such as,

A: This kind of ill feeling isn't good. What have


I said to make you feel so? I have spoken
the truth - If I have done anything wrong,

x E . --o-E. oC
od p. -i p o ~N. - Translate into English.

You must not breathe a word about it!


Prathap: One thing
you must know. It's
not possible unless
we try hard.

2) You need not say it again and again


3) You must not breathe a word about it to any
one - (breathe a word about something =

(
N y n
-L.
d v-Aoh p
C u )

u E d)
4) When have we to start it?

(p - , F
a ---E p- yL.)

Ramana: I have told them they have to pay


the money now.

(s p d-E

x p)
Kumar: No, they need not.

(. - )

Need not = Don't/ Doesn't need.

Santosh: Who denies


it? You need not
say it again and again.

( --C?
y Sx Sx p-\-x)

Prathap: Ok. The second thing. You must not


breathe a word about this to anyone.

Must/ (I, we, you and they) have to/ (He, she,
it) has to used for
i) Obligations

(NC u-Lq-N) & Orders


E --J -

ii) Duties iii) necessity

-o.
(, N. DEo J* y-J
O p--)
Santosh: That's OK. When have we to start it?
Tomorrow itself?

(. DEo
p v-G-L?)

Prathap: We need not hurry. We must wait till


we get an assurance about the money.

Must/ have/ has to need not

must
F, have
to/ has to
F opposite,
not

( . s J*
O a-- L)
Santosh: That's OK.
Look at the following expressions from the
dialogue above:

need

You must/ have to go now you need not go now

(Ny-p xL)

(x--- )

Sunil: Must I submit the certificates now?


certificates

(p

j forms
j -a.
Gunavanth: Have
I to take these
medicines?

(
Ep B-?)

Doctor: You need


not/
don't
have to, if you
give up smoking.

(--- )

1) One thing you must know

next weekend.

y?)

A: ... get on somebody's nerves.. - Correct.


Owing to his stupidity all the work conduced
to spoil.
Krishna done the homework in a hand over
fist.
A: "Hand over fist" meaning "very quickly" is
used for only "money and selling"
He made money hand over fist = He earned a
lot of money quickly.
Moreover, "Krishna done" - Wrong. Krishna has
done/ did - Correct.
The construction of building work with in
three months is not plausible due to shortage
of labour.
A: ... of the building is not possible.
(Plausible - wrong here) owing to (not due to) ...
His playing of guitar is as good as his friend
Krishna.
A: ... Krishna's (Correct)
To mutate the property of this man, please
give genealogical details.
A: Correct.
Your report is tout court it is not possible to
take further action.
A: Your report is tout court, so it is not
possible..
Pigout is not good for health.
A: To pig out ...
Giridhar Sahani, Kothagudem
Q: "Let's go there" said my friend - Change into
IDS (Indirect Speech).
A: My friend suggested that we (should) go
there.
Q: "How about Rs.500/- for the whole job", said
Subba Rao to Appa Rao.
In one of the previous lessons you have
given the Indirect Speech form for above sentence as - "Subba Rao asked Appa Rao if he
would do the whole job for Rs.500." - Here "he"
refers to Who?
A: Here Apparao is "he", isn't he?
Q: The phonetic form of the letter 'H'
is /e It /. Are all the words begin with "H"
pronounced as silent?
e.g.: Hotel -

(y h - -)

Srinath: Has he to carry all these things?


Jagannath: He need not/ doesn't have to, if
taxi
we can get a taxi.

T - ).

House -

E a---L-

. Clarify.
te \ 'h'

l -L. ' .
--p- Hotel, house '
-. ' . hotel
'ho' L N-Eo L----E
j ~ .
h(e It )

( O-Eo-F B-x?)

Ganesh: You need not, now, but you must by

-;

A: Hotel - pronunciation h

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 8 -d- 2012


1. Pick the odd one out:
1) Interpreter
2) Operating System
3) Compiler
4) Assembler
5) None of these
2. When a particular object or an image is
copied, in which of the following places it is
stored?
1) Notice Board
2) Interim Board
3) Notepad
4) Clipboard
5) None of these
3. The Term 'BIT' is the short form for:
1) Mega Byte
2) Binary Language
3) Binary Digit
4) Binary Number
5) None of these
4. Servers are computers that provide
resources to other computers connected
to a 1) Network
2) Super Computer
3) Micro Computer 4) Client
5) None of these

-- j---
header, appear.
1) Draft
2) Full screen reading
3) Outline
4) Page layout
5) None of these
16. What is the symbol for inbox in mail?
1) BOX
2) Envelope
3) Upper Case 'I'
4) Lower case 'I'
5) None of these
17. '' symbol in computers refers to:
1) Copy
2) Circled 'C'
3) Copyright
4) Italicized C
5) None of these
18. Which of the following is a professional
social networking site?
1) Facebook
2) Orkut 3) Twitter
4) LinkedIn
5) None of these
19. File ....... shrinks the size of a file so that it
requires less storage space.
1) Scanning
2) Synthesizing
3) Defragmenting
4) Compression

4) Internet
5) None of these
30. CRT stands for:
1) Copper
Rod
Tube
2) Campus Report
Truncation
3) Completely
Ready Tube
4) Cathode Ray Tube
5) None of these
31. To prevent a slide from being displayed
during the slide show one should:
1) delete the slide
2) hide the slide by using animation button
3) hide the slide by using the slide show
menu
4) Any of the above
5) None of the above
32. The ALU of a computer usually contains a

What is the Symbol for Inbox in Mail?


5. A bar which is seen at the bottom of the
screen (usually) when the computer is turned
on is known as:
1) Address Bar
2) Task Bar
3) Windows Bar
4) Line bar
5) None of these
6. Something which has easily understood
instructions is said to be:
1) User friendly
2) Information
3) Word Processing 4) Icon
5) None of these
7. To save an existing file with a new name or
to a new location, you should use the .....
command.
1) Save
2) Save and Replace
3) Save as
4) New file
5) None of these
8. Peripheral devices such as printers and
monitors are considered to be:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Data
4) Information
5) None of these
9. In a database, ....... fields store numbers
used to perform calculations.
1) Next
2) Key
3) Alpha Numeric
4) Numeric
5) None of these
10. Where is data saved permanently?
1) RAM 2) ROM
3) CPU
4) Printer 5) None of these
11. Which of the following describes relational
database?
1) It provides relationship between integers
2) It consists of separate tables of related
data
3) It retrieves data related to its queries
4) It provides the relationship between
floats
5) None of these
12. Find the odd one out:
1) Projector
2) Speakers
3) Monitor
4) Microphone
5) Printer
13. A program for viewing webpages is called:
1) Word Processor 2) Spread sheet
3) Protocol
4) Browser
5) Database
14. Domain name Extension '.nic.in' is
generally used for which of the following:
1) Organization websites
2) Educational Websites in india
3) Companies in india
4) e-governance websites
5) None of these
15. ........... view shows how the content on
printed page, along with footer and margin

number of high speed storage elements called ........


1) Semiconductor memory
2) Registers 3) Hard disk
4) Magnetic Disk
5) None of these
COMPUTER AWARENESS
33. A connection from one HTML
5) None of these
document to another HTML docuKVN Prashanth Kumar
ment is called:
20. Ctrl, shift, alt are called .......
keys.
1) Hyper Link
2) Connecting Link
1) Adjustment
2) Function
3) Icon
4) All of these
3) Modifier
4) Alphanumeric
5) None of these
5) None of these
34. Which of the following is true about RAM?
21. An email address typically consists of user
A) It is an acronym for Random Access
id followed by ........ and the domain name.
Memory
1) @
2) #
3) &
4)
B) It is memory built from silicon chips that
is used to store programs and data tem5) None of these
porarily while they are being processed
22. The name, a user assigns to a document is
C) RAM stores the data permanently like
called:
Hard Disks
1) File name
2) Program
1) Only A and C
2) Only B and C
3) Record
4) Data
3) Only A and B
4) All the three
5) None of these
5) None of these
23. ........... is processed by the computer into
35. Capability of computer to perform more
information.
than one tasks at the same time is:
1) Numbers
2) Processor
3) Input
4) Data 5) None of these
24. A menu contains a list of ........
1) commands
2) data
3) objects
4) reports
5) None of these
25. The internet allows you to:
1) Send electronic mail
2) View web pages
3) Connect to servers all around the world
4) All the above
5) None of these
26. Which of the following is a function of UPS?
1) It limits damage caused by fluctuating
levels of electricity
2) It provides battery back up for limited
time
3) It delivers electronic messages via a bus
4) It conducts a power-on self test or POST
5) None of these
27. Youtube, which provides a service of
streaming videos online is provided by ....
1) Google
2) Microsoft
3) IBM
4) Apple 5) Sony
28. ...... is known as unauthorized access to
others system.
1) Hacking
2) Encryption
3) Decryption
4) Trafficking
5) None of these
29. The vast network of computers that
connects millions of people all over the
world is called.......
1) LAN
2) Web
3) Hypertext

,
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1) Batch Processing
2) Real Time Processing
3) Multitasking
4) Scheduled Processing
5) None of these
36. Computer Virus is:
1) A hardware
2) Windows tool
3) A computer program
4) Combination of 1 and 2
5) None of these
37. Firewall is used in communication network /
system to save:
1) Unauthorized attack
2) Virus attack
3) Data driven attack
4) Fire attack
5) None of these
38. Which of the following can hold maximum
data?
1) Optical disk
2) Floppy disk
3) Magnetic disk inside computer
4) Magnetic tape
5) None of these
39. ........ is a process of sending documents to
a storage where they are temporarily stored
and remain there until printer prints them.
1) Printing
2) Queuing
3) Waiting Queue
4) Print Spooling
5) None of these
40. The feature to customize the desktop to display information that can be updated from
internet is:
1) Active desktop
2) Online desktop
3) E-mail
4) Resource Sharing
5) None of these
KEY
1-2; 2-4; 3-3; 4-1; 5-2; 6-1; 7-3; 8-1; 9-4;
10-2; 11-2; 12-4; 13-4; 14-4; 15-4; 16-2;
17-3; 18-4; 19-4; 20-3; 21-1; 22-1; 23-4;
24-1; 25-4; 26-2; 27-1; 28-1; 29-4; 30-4;
31-1; 32-2; 33-1; 34-3; 35-3; 36-3; 37-1;
38-4; 39-4; 40-1.
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 8 -d- 2012


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

--- Jn- vu- --o N?


1) -
2) j p -
3) x-A -
4) g-- --- a -
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3)
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37.

1)

B O NEo
p
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1) 1948
3) 1952

2) 1950
4) 1954

38.

---

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1) -J
2) -
3) -
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39. 'h d v- Fq (NEFA) E
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40. , X u o DN C?
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55.

C- 100 * 200 .O. -qJ {- v C?


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 9 -d- 2012


Directions (Q.1-7): In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the given statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer
1) if only Conclusion I follows.
2) if only Conclusion II follows.
3) if either Conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both Conclusions I and II follow.
1. Statements: Some rings are bangles.
Some bangles are hands.
Some hands are fingers.
Conclusions: I. Some fingers are bangles.
II. Some hands are rings.
2. Statements: Some trees are jungles.

-- j---
Conclusions: I. All bricks are houses.
II. Some stores are tents.
7. Statements: All maps are flowers.
No flower is table.
All tables are chairs.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are maps.
II. No chair is map.
Directions (Q. 8-14): Study the following
information carefully
and answer the
questions given below:
M5R3I8D% J2EPONL9F QA4W
@J6UZ$7HKQ
8. If all the symbols is from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following
will be the eleventh from the right end?
1) Q
2) 1
3) F
4) 4
5) None of these
9. How many such numbers are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel?
1) None
2) One 3) Two
4) Three

1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
13. Four of the following five are alike in
a certain way
based
of their
positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
1) 2PJ
2) AWQ
3) T6@
4) 7K$
5) %8J
14. What should come in place of question
mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement?
53I
DJ2
PNL
?
1) FA4
2) FAW
3) FQ4
4) FA@ 5) None of these
15. How many numbers would remain if the

How is HURT written in the code?


3.

4.

5.

6.

All jungles are stones.


All stones are buildings.
Conclusions: I. Some buildings are trees.
II. Some stones are trees.
Statements: All pins are hammers.
Some hammers are rods.
Some rods are desks.
Conclusions: I. Some desks are pins.
II. Some rods are hammers.
Statements: All poles are sticks.
Some sticks are boxes.
All boxes are rivers.
Conclusions: I. Some rivers are sticks.
II. Some rivers are poles.
Statements: Some benches are roads.
No road is mountain.
Some mountains are jungles.
Conclusions: I. Some jungles are roads.
II. Some jungles are benches.
Statements: All tents are houses.
All houses are bricks.
All bricks are stores.

numbers which are divisible by 5 and


also those having '5' as only one of
the digits are dropped from the
numbers 35 to 70?
1) 23
2) 21
3) 20
4) 24
5) None of these
REASONING
16. What will come in the place of the
5) More than three
question mark (?) in the following
S. ARUNMOHAN
alphabet series?
10. How many such symbols are
there in the above arrangement; each of
AC
DC
EF
IG ?
which is immediately followed by a letter?
1) MI
2) IL
3) IM
4) LI
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
5) More than three
17. In a certain code language FIVE is written
11. Which of the following is the sixth to the
as GHWD. How is HURT written in the
right of the fourteenth from the left end of
same code language?
the above arrangement?
1) ITSS
2) ITST
3) GTSS
1)
2) %
3) P
4) 4
4) ITQU
5) None of these
5) None of these
18. In a certain code language 'La Ke Ta'
12. How many such consonants are there in
means 'go and swim' and 'Ne La Se' means
the above arrangement, each of which is
'you swim here' and 'Pe Ke Ne Ta' means
immediately preceded by a number and not
'he and you go'. Which of the following is
immediately
followed
by
another
the code for 'here' in that code language?
consonant?
1) Cannot be determined
2) La

EXPLANATIONS
2- 5; Some trees are jungles. (I-Type)

9-3; I 8 and A 4
10-3; % J and @ T
12-5; 5 R 3, 8 D % and 4 W @

+2

+5

+5

+5

+5

+5

3 J N A

+2

+5

14-1; 5 D P F

+5

T 6 @

+5

+5

I 2 L 4

+2

7 $
2

+3

% 8 J
15-3; The numbers which are divisible by and also those having '5' as
only one of the digits From 35 to 70:
35, 40, 45, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 65 and 70 = 16
Remaining numbers = 36 16 = 20
17-1;
Since,
Hence,
F I
V E
H U
R T

+1 1 +1 1

+1 1 +1 1

18-5; La

Ke Ta

Se

go

and swim

Ne

La

Pe

Ke Ne Ta he and you

you

swim here
go

The code for 'here' is 'Se'.


19-4; Suman ranks third among the girls.
Amit ranks fifth among the boys, Suman comes after Amit in the
class. It means two girls and four boys Rank higher than Amit in the
class. Therefore, Amit Ranks 7th in the class
20-2; First Friday will be two days after Wednesday.
Total number of days = 2 + (7 4) = 30 days.

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KEY
1-4; 2-5; 3-2; 4-1; 5-4; 6-2; 7-3; 8-1;
9-3; 10-3; 11-4; 12-5; 13-5; 14-1; 15-3;
16-5; 17-1; 18-5; 19-4; 20-2.
(Writer - Director, Banking Service Chronicle,
Hyderabad)

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10th
CLASS

Quarterly Exams
Model Papers with
Answers ...

EM English (E/M)
& Physical Sciences
TM
Social Studies
and other papers uploaded...
To download Click on...

All jungles are buildings. (A-Type)


I+A=I
conversion
Some trees are buildings. Some buildings are trees.
This is Conclusion I.
conversion
3- 2; Some hammers are rods. Some rods are hammers.
This is Conclusion II
4-1; Some sticks are boxes. (I-Type)
All boxes are rivers. (A-Type)
I+A=I
conversion
Some sticks are rivers Some rivers are sticks.
This is Conclusion I.
8-1; After removing all symbols
M5R3I8DJ2EPONL9FQA4WT6UZ7HK
In the above arrangement, Q is the eleventh from the right end.

A W Q

All jungles are stones.(A-Type)


I+A=I
conversion
Some trees are stones. Some stones are trees.
This is Conclusion II.
All jungles are stones. (A-Type)

All stones are buildings. (A-Type)


A + A = A All jungles are buildings.
Again some trees are jungles. (I-Type)

+2

2 P J

13-5;

3) Ne
4) La or Se
5) None of these
19. There are thirty five students in a class.
Suman ranks third among the girls in the
class. Amit ranks 5th among the boys in the
class. Suman is one rank below Amit in the
class. No two students hold the same rank
in the class. What is Amit's rank in the
class?
1) Cannot be determined
2) 5th
3) 8th
4) 7th
5) None of these
20. This year, Balu's birthday is on 27th
January i.e. Wednesday. Balu remembers
that Mohan's birthday is exactly on the fifth
Friday after his birthday. How much
younger is Mohan than Balu?
1) Data inadequate 2) By 30 days
3) By 31 days
4) By 29 days
5) None of these

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 9 -d- 2012

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--h- *-J-C: 2013 31
-j: www.iirmworld.org.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--E- 1 d- 2012
1. EMI can be marketing tool when
1) EMI is very low
2) EMI is very high
3) EMI is fluctuating 4) EMI is constant
5) EMI is ballooning
2. Advertisements are necessary for
1) only old products
2) launching new products
3) only costly products
4) only obsolete products
5) advertisements are wasteful expenses
3. Publicity is required for 1) generating more number of leads
2) better training of sales persons
3) market survey
4) product designing
5) OTC Marketing
4. NAV is the price of
1) Entire fund value 2) one unit of a fund
3) surrender value
4) average value of shares
5) dividends paid in a year

-- j---
5) Persons below a specified income level
10. Effective retail banking presupposes 1) Large premises 2) Huge kiosks
3) big sales force
4) coordination between marketing and
front office staff
5) More products
11. Which of the following is not included in the
7 P's of Marketing
1) Placement
2) Price
3) Production
4) Promotion
5) Product
12. Analysis of marketing problem helps in
1) Evaluating marketing opportunities
2) Reducing marketing staff
3) Reducing profits
4) Motivation
5) None of the above
13. Innovation in marketing is same as
1) Motivation
2) Perspiration
3) Aspiration
4) Creativity

1) Duties determined as a certain percentage of prices of


the product.
2) Advertisement
costs
3) Selling price cost price
4) Either 2 or 3
5) All the above
23. Expand ALCO:
1) Asset-Liability Management Committee
2) Asset Liability Company
3) All India Locomotives
4) Asset Liability Company Organisation
5) None of the above
24. What is Asset Liability Manager (ALM)?
1) Asset/ liability management involves a
set of techniques to create value and
manage risks in a bank.
2) To maintain profitable CD ratio

What do you mean by Augmented brand?


5. A master policy in the case of Life insurance
indicates
1) policy is sale
2) policy is in the name of servant
3) only one life is assured
4) there are several beneficiaries
5) life assured should be a male
6. Customer database is useful for 1) advertisements
2) word-of-mouth publicity
3) CRM Functions
4) PR functions
5) sales persons training
7. CRM (Customer Relationship Management)
is 1) A pre-sales activity
2) A tool for lead generation
3) an ongoing daily activity
4) the task of a DSA
5) back office duty
8. Find the incorrect answer.
1) cross-selling is an expensive way of
marketing
2) market segmentation can boost lead
generations
3) customer lifetime value is a marketing
tool
4) surrogate marketing is a type of viral
marketing
5) internet banking can replace ATMs
9. Financial inclusion needs canvassing the
accounts of
1) Financial Institutions
2) NRIs
3) HNIs
4) Housewives

www.eenadupratibha.net

--j- -K~-

SBI IBPS SSC

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N- \ E
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vo v- Nx- - -
E - --
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3) Liquidity maintenance of banks


4) Only 1 & 2 5) None of the above
25. Product design is a function:
1) Front office staff
2)
Back
office staff
3) Management
MARKETING
4) Marketing and Research Team
5) Team work
K.V. Gnana Kumar 5) Loans department
26. What do you mean by Augmented
14. Market Segmentation is required
brand?
for
1) preferential market
2) OTC Marketing
1) Value addition to the customer services
and benefits that are built around the
3) Internal Marketing
core product or service offering
4) Identifying sales persons
2) Combining with two or more company
5) Identifying prospects
products
15. Bank ATMs are
3) To increase the number of products
1) Alternate Delivery channels
4) To increase the number of branches
2) Market plans
3) Personalized Products
5) None of the above
4) Tools for overcoming buyers resistance
27. What are the elements of consumer
5) Motivating tools
behaviour?
16. A DSA helps in ....
1) Attitude of customer
1) Boosting Direct Sales
2) Necessities of customer
2) Contacting Customers on Net
3) Tentative problems
3) Indirect Marketing
4) Benefits
5) All the above
4) Direct Telemarketing
5) None of these
28. Which of the following does not include in
17. Successful marketing aims at:
personal factors while purchasing a
1) Increasing the sales volume
product?
2) Increasing the profits
1) Age
2) Standard of living
3) Increasing the outputs of the sales
3) Self image
4) Nationality
persons
5) All the above
4) All of these
5) None of these
29. Which of the following psychological factors
18. Internet marketing means:
does not influence consumer behaviour?
1) Marketing to oneself
1) Perception
2) Self-esteem
2) Marketing to core self
3) Self-confidence 4) Income level
3) Marketing to the employees
5) None of the above
4) All of these
5) None of these
30. Buying process involves the following
19. Delivery channel means....
process:
1) Maternity wards
1) Identification of need
2) Handing over the products to the buyers
2) Priority of the need
3) Place where products are made
3) Affordability
4) Type of market
available to the buyers
5)
Only
1,
2,
3
4) All of these
5) None of these
31. Motives of buying does not involve :
20. Marketing Expansion means....
1) Satisfaction
1) Hiring more staff
2) Firing more staff
2) Rest and recuperation
3) Social life
3) Buying more products
4) Consulting all users
5) Only 1, 2, 3
4) Buying more companies
32. Today marketing is:
5) Growth in sales through existing and
new products
1) Product driven
2) Services driven
21. Negotiation skills help in
3) Improvement of bottom line (Profitability)
1) Arriving at consensus
4) Cost conscious
2) Breaking the ice
5) Customer driven market
3) Carrying marketing further
33. Ultimate decision of Consumer depends on:
4) Mutual win-win result of bargaining
1) Cost
2) Quality
5) All of these
3) Benefits
4) Guarantee and warranty
22. What is Ad-Valorem Duties?
5) All the above

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34. In marketing, attitude can best be described


as a:
1) Erratic behaviour of sales person
2) Erratic behaviour of customer
3) Mental status of consumer
4) Behaviour of the company
5) None of the above
35. The level of satisfaction a consumer keeps
towards a brand name is called:
1) Brand equity
2) Brand Name
3) Brand utility
4) Branch loyalty
5) All the above
36. Just in time is a technique first used in
which country?
1) India 2) USA
3) Japan
4) UK
5) Germany
37. Marketing of internet banking product
banks means:
1) All bankers can discuss their issues
through net
2) Creating awareness to do transaction in
forex
3) Transacting with different countries
4) Marketing of bank transactions through
internet as it is cheaper to customer and
bank
5) None of the above
KEY: 1-1; 2-2; 3-1; 4-2; 5-4; 6-3; 7-2; 8-5;
9-5; 10-4; 11-1; 12-1; 13-4; 14-5; 15-1; 16-4;
17-4; 18-5; 19-3; 20-5; 21-5; 22-1; 23-1; 24-1;
25-4; 26-1; 27-4; 28-4; 29-4; 30-5; 31-4; 32-5;
33-5; 34-3; 35-4; 36-3; 37-4

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*-: Sr. Administrative Officer,
National Institute of Nutrition,
Jamia - Osmania, OU Road,
Hyderabad- 500 007

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www.ninindia.org

--E- 1 d- 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPER


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--- 10 d- 2012
1. Which bank is called 'Bankers bank'?
1) SBI
2) National Housing Bank
3) RBI
4) NABARD
5) Exim Bank
2. Reserve Bank of India was Nationalised on 1
January .......
1) 1947
2) 1955 3) 1949
4) 1969
5) 1980
3. Largest Private Sector bank in India is......?
1) HDFC
2) ICICI 3) KVB
4) City Union Bank 5) Axis bank
4. MSF means............?
1) Main Standing Facility
2) Marginal Scoring Facility
3) Marginal Standing Facility
4) Moral Standing Facility
5) More Standing Facility
5. Which Indian chosen for the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for the year 2012, for economic empowerment of thousands of women
and their families in rural areas?
1) Anna Hazare
2) Sundarlal Bahuguna

-- j---
ment bodies only but not to others
3) Putting two lines across the top left of the
cheque ordering the bank to pay cash to
payee through account only
4) The cheque issued by RBI in favour of
State governments and Central governments to give loans
5) None
10. 11th Meeting of Conference of the Parties
(CoP-11) to the convention on Biological
Diversity will be held at ........ in October
2012?
1) Hyderabad
2) Pune 3) Mumbai
4) New Delhi
5) Chennai
11. The Reserve Bank of India asked the
banks not to levy any penalty on pre-payment of .........?
1) Commercial Loans
2) Vehicle Loans
3) Loans given to Infrastructure
4) NRI loans
5) Housing loans
12. In the banking, we use the acronym PIN.

Minister
of
Greece
4) Enrique
Pena
Nieto elected as
next president of
Mexico in the
recent elections
5) Devendra Kumar
Joshi is the new
Navy Chief
21. ......is the intermediate rung in the three-tier
Cooperative Credit structure?
1) Primary Co-operative Banks
2) State Co-operative Banks
3) National Co-operative Banks
4) District Central Co-operative Banks
5) None
22. Pratip Chaudhuri is the Chairman of ....?
1) SBI
2) NABARD
3) NHB
4) PFRDA
5) TRAI
23. CVV means...........

World Population Day is celebrated on...


3) Kulandei Francis 4) Baba Ramdev
5) C.Ranga Rajan
6. The abbreviation list given. Pick the correct
one.
1) NELP - New Exploration Licensing Policy
2) RGCCI - Registrar General and Census
Commissioner of India
3) ABM - Anti Ballistic Missile
4) CAG - Comptroller and Auditor General
5) All of above
7. Which book is not written by Arundhati Roy?
1) The God of Small Things
2) The Cost of Living
3) Malgudi Days
4) The Shape of the Beast
5) The Algebra of Infinite Justice
8. Which committee recommended for the
amalgamation of RRBs?
1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Usha Thorat
3) Vyas
4) C.V. Anand Bose
5) Ajay Kumar Seth
9. Crossed Cheque means .....
1) Two lines put across the cheque to
invalidate it
2) Ordering the bank to pay cash to govern-

EM&
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www.eenadupratibha.net

1) Circular Verification Value


2) Certificate Value Voice
3) Card Verification Value
4) Core Verification Value
5) Cancel Verification Value
GENERAL AWARENESS
24. Effective from 11th August 2012,
RBI reduced SLR (Standard
Liquidity Ratio) by.....
A.Veeraswamy
PIN means .........
1) 2%
2) 3% 3) 0.5%
1) Pure Identification Number
4)
1.5%
5)
1%
2) Personal Identification Noise
25. G-20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank
3) Personal Ignorance Number
Governors Meet 2014 will be held in .........
4) Personal Identification Number
1) USA
2) Australia
3) England
5) Phone Indemnity Number
4) India
5) France
13. How many banks were nationalised by
26. NTPC means....
Indira Gandhi in 1969 ..........?
1) National Thermal Post Corporation
1) 20
2) 25
3) 14 4) 11
5) 6
2) Notional Thermal Power Corporation
14. Rs. 10 paper currency signed by ........?
3) National Thermal Power Coalition
1) Finance Secretary
4) National Thermal Power Corporation
2) President of India 3) Governor of RBI
5) National Thread Power Corporation
4) SBI Chairman
5) Finance Minister
27. National Sports Day celebrated on 29th
15. Which among the following players did not
August on the eve of birth day of .......
get any medal in Olympics 2012, from
1)
C.K.Nayudu
2) Lala Amarnath
India?
3)
Mansur
Ali
Khan
Patudi
1) Sushil Kumar
2) Saina Nehwal
4) Dhyanchand
5) Rajiv Gandhi
3) Abhinav Bindra
4) Yogeshwar Dutt
28. Which among the following term not related
5) Gagan Narang
to Banking?
16. Planning Commission sanctioned Rs. .......
1) Certificate of Deposit
crores for sanitation in the 12th Five Year
2) Cash Reserve Ratio
Plan on 7th June 2012.
3) Law of Demand
4) Clearing House
1) 36,000
2) 34,000
3) 56,000
4) 74,000
5) 15,000
5) Basel
17. SEBI details are given. Pick the wrong one.
29. Nations Capital and Currency list given.
Pick the incorrect combination.
1) SEBI means Securities and Exchange
Board of India
1) Pakistan - Islamabad - Pakistan Rupee
2) SEBI was established on April 12, 1992
2) Australia - Canberra - Australian Dollar
3) Its headquarters is in Mumbai
3) Russia - Moscow - Ruble
4) Its present chairman is C.S. Bhave
4) South Africa - Cape Town - South African
Dollar
5) It is the controller of both Primary market
and secondary Stock markets
5) Italy - Rome - Euro
18. Sunitha Williams is an ........
30. India is not a member in .........
1) Indo-Russian Painter
1) G-15
2) G-20 3) UNO
2) Indo-American Political Leader
4) G-8
5) SAARC
3) Indian origin governor of South Carolina
31. Asian Development Bank (ADB) headquarters is in .......?
4) Indo-American Astronaut
1) Manila (Philippines) 2) Tokyo (Japan)
5) Indo-Srilankan Business tycoon
3) Mumbai (India)
19. India's Air- to -Air missile is ..........
4) Colombo (Sri Lanka) 5) Beijing ( China)
1) Agni
2) Prithvi
3) Shaurya
32. Which International Monetary Organisation
4) Astra
5) Trishul
extended $ 150 million loan for 1st tranche
20. Appointments and newsmakers list given.
of
Railway Sector Investment Program in
Pick the wrong one.
India
on 10th July 2012?
1) Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi is the new
1) IMF
2) World Bank
3) ADB
Army Chief
4) IDA
5) ODA
2) Raja Parvez Ashraf is the Prime Minister
33. Which among the following one is not a
of Pakistan
Private Sector bank?
3) Antonis Samaras is the new Prime

1) ING Vysya Bank


2) HDFC
3) Punjab & Sind Bank
4) ICICI
5) Yes Bank
34. Salboni has Currency Note Printing Press.
It is in the state of .......
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Odisha
3) Tamilnadu
4) West Bengal
5) Karnataka
35. Duleep Trophy belongs to ..........
1) Foot Ball
2) Hand Ball
3) Kabaddi
4) Cricket
5) Wrestling
36. As per 2012-13 budget, to improve productivity in the dairy sector, Rs. 2,242 crore
project is being launched with the assistance of .........
1) World Bank
2) IMF
3) US AID
4) ODA
5) ADB
37. Which bank launched its online application
service for Credit Card - Click2Card on 28th
August 2012?
1) Bank of Baroda
2) Union Bank of India
3) State Bank of India 4) ICICI
5) Axis Bank
38. Green Revolution brings the revolution in
the production of.........
1) Milk
2) Food Grains
3) Meat
4) Fish
5) Onion
39. Who was declared as the most powerful
woman in the world by Forbes magazine on
22nd August 2012?
1) Sonia Gandhi
2) Michelle Obama
3) Angela Merkel
4) Hillary Clinton
5) Dilma Rousseff
40. World Population Day is celebrated on .....
1) 10 February
2) 25 November
3) 11 July
4) 8 November
5) 1 January
41. International donors meeting that pledged
$16 billion contribution for development aid
to Afghanistan until 2015, held in........
1) New Delhi
2) Washington
3) Tel Aviv
4) Tokyo 5) Paris
42. Which two of the following credit cards
HDFC launched recently for Doctors?
1) Prescription & Doctor
2) Platinum & Titanium
3) Superia & Platinum
4) Stethoscope & Me
5) Call & Me
43. Which renowned Assamese Poet died
recently?
1) Rahul Bhattacharya
2) Madan Mohan
3) Hiren Bhattacharyya
4) Rahul Sharma
5) None
44. New Controller General of Accounts (CGA)
of India is .........
1) Vinod Rai
2) Rahul Kullar
3) C.Ranga Rajan
4) Jawahar Thakur
5) Rameshwar Oran
45. Pakistan and India held talks on Siachen
during the month of July 2012 at ....
1) Rawalpindi
2) New Delhi
3) Mumbai
4) Tokyo
5) Washington
KEY: 1-3; 2-3; 3-2; 4-3; 5-3; 6-5; 7-3; 8-3;
9-3; 10-1; 11-5; 12-4; 13-3; 14-3; 15-3;
16-1; 17-4; 18-4; 19-4; 20-1; 21-4; 22-1;
23-3; 24-5; 25-2; 26-4; 27-4; 28-3; 29-4;
30-4; 31-1; 32-3; 33-3; 34-4; 35-4; 36-1;
37-3; 38-2; 39-3; 40-3; 41-4; 42-3; 43-3;
44-4; 45-1.

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 d- 2012
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30-3; 31-3; 32-2; 33-1; 34-3; 35-1; 36-1;
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---- 11 d- 2012
PRICING A PRODUCT
1. Which of the following explains the term
MARKET?
1) Where the goods are sold

-- j---
11. Current account opened by a customer A
with national bank that offers unlimited
cheque use facility, clearing services and
anywhere banking facility constitute -

2) Where the services are sold

1) One product

3) Where the buyers and sellers of products


interact and decide to sell and purchase

3) Three Products

4) Where the sellers dictate terms


5) Where the buyers dictate terms
2. Which of the following statement is not a
part of definition of MARKETING?
1) It is the process of determining consumer
demand for goods and services
2) It is a process of creation of goods and
services as per consumer requirement

2) Two Products
4) Four Products

5) Not a Product

1) Mark up pricing
2) Target
pricing

return

3) Marginal cost
pricing
4) Value pricing
5) Group pricing

12. Kitchens of India ready to eat food, is the


product of which of the following?
1) Hamdard

2) ITC Limited

3) Britannia

4) MTR

21. A firm has fixed its


price at 1999 rather than 2000, for its
product. Such pricing strategy is called:

5) None

1) Psychological pricing

13. Where a manufacturer carries improvement


in quality and performance, to augment the
sales of a product, this is called :

2) Discrimination pricing

1) Product Introduction

3) It is a process of selling goods and


services which a firm produces

2) Product Improvement

4) It is a process of satisfying consumer

4) Product Enhancement

5) None of the above

5) None of the above

1) Marketing system

3) Promotional pricing

2) Management information system

4) Value pricing

3) Management system

5) Product mix pricing


22. Goods reach the consumers from the
producers through a chain of entities. This
chain is called:

3) Product Modification

1) Intermediaries

2) Retailers

Focus of a marketing exercise is?


4) Marketing channels

1) Identification of business opportunities

5) Selling entities

2) Understanding the customer needs

23. Producers
chose
different
channels for product distribution,
on the basis of which of the
following factors:

3) Producing according to customer needs


4) Delivering as per customer convenience
5) All the above
4. What is meant by search goods and
products?
1) Which are tangible
2) Which can be packaged
3) Which can be touched
4) Which can be seen
5) All the above
5. In order to take care of the element of
INSEPARABILITY in case of certain services,
which
of
the
following
becomes essential?
1) Advertisement
2) Interaction between seller and buyer
3) Mass production of services to reduce
costs
4) 1, 2 and 3

5) None of the above

6. The implicit responsibility which the banks


undertake in relation to management of
funds of the customer is called :
1) Fiduciary responsibility
2) Financial obligation 3) Intangible feature
4) All the above
5) None
7. A set of marketing tools that a business
organisation uses to pursue its marketing
objectives in the target market is called :
1) Marketing mix
2) Marketing of products
3) Marketing tools
4) Marketing strategies

5) All the above

8. Which of the following is included under 4 C


corresponding to 4 P for product mix?
1) Customer needs and wants
2) Cost to the customer

3) Convenience

4) Communication

5) All the above

9. FMCG stands for


1) Fast moving consumer goods

MARKETING

14. There are five stages of product K.V. Gnana Kumar


1) Product characteristics
development. Which of the following is the
2) Market characteristics
first stage?
3) Customer characteristics
1) Idea screening
2) Concept testing
4) Resources 5) All the above
3) Product development 4) Test marketing
24. Banks offer products such as Current
5) Commercial launch
Account, Savings Bank Account and Term
15. Under packing of product, where the
Deposit which are different in their features
product is placed in a cover and cover is
and use. The characteristics of these
kept in a cardboard box, this packaging is
products is called:
called:
1) Intangibility
2) Inseparability
1) Primary package
3) Variability
4) Perishability
2) Secondary package
5) All the above
3) Shipping package
25. Banks facilitate payment services at
4) Total package
merchant establishments through which of
5) None of the above
the following?
16. The sum value of all the values that
1) ATMs
2) Branches
consumer exchanges for the benefits of
3) Debit cards
4) Credit cards 5) 4 & 5
having or using the product or service is
26. The process of communicating the
called:
properties of different elements of
1) Revenue
2) Sale
3) Price
marketing mix to the customers with the
4) Spread
5) Pricing strategy
objective of influencing them is called:
17. Which of the following is affected by the
1) Marketing
2) Promotion Mix
pricing, in case of a business concern ?
3) Promotion
4) Advertising
1) Profits
2) Growth 3) Sustainability
5) Reinforcing
4) 1 & 2
5) 1, 2 and 3
27. A customer gives a telephone call to a bank
18. Which of the following is not an Internal
asking for details of housing loan
factor in pricing by a business firm?
availability. Bank representative calls on the
1) Corporate and Marketing objectives of
customer concerned to explain the details.
the firm
This is called:
2) Characteristics of the product
1) Direct marketing 2) Personal selling
3) Life Cycle stage of the product

3) Advertising

4) Manufacturing and Marketing cost of the


product

5) None

5) None of the above


19. Three main inputs (Called 3C's) are taken
into account while fixing price. Which of the
following is not a part of 3C's ?

4) Public relation

28. A promotion strategy which is directed at


channel members to induce them to
purchase the product and sell them to the
final consumer is called:
1) Promotion strategy

2) Frequently moving corporate goods

1) Customer's demand schedule

2) Marketing strategy

3) Selling strategy

3) Forcibly moving consumer goods

2) Cost function

4) Push strategy

5) Pull strategy

4) Fast moving corporate goods 5) None

4) Carrying cost of the product

10. A seller offering to the buyers a range of


products is called :
1) Market Mix

2) Product Mix

3) Product Lines

4) Product Item

5) None of the above

3) Competitors price
5) None

20. If an Organisation fixes price of a loan


product by offering a product value to the
customers at a relatively lower price (say a
personal loan at 14%, Compared with a
credit card at 30% interest), it is called:

29. When a bank wants to inform its customers


about change in interest rates to attract
new business, the strategy used is called :
1) Advertisement

2) Personal selling

3) Cross selling

4) Public relations

5) 1 & 2

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

4) Marketing information system


5) All the above
31. What kind of information is required by a
bank under MIS, so far as market forces
are concerned?
1) Information about customers
2) Information about competitors
3) Information about technology
4) Information about government
5) All the above

3) Wholesalers

3. Which of the following is not a part of


marketing management?

30. The process of providing accurate information for use by marketing decision makers to
improve their marketing plan, execution and
control is known as:

www.eenadupratibha.net

32. Marketing Information System is concerned


with information relating to which of the
following:
1) Customers
2) Channel intermediaries
3) Sales persons
4) 1,2 & 3

5) None

33. Out of the items mentioned below which is


not a physical product ?
1) Pilgrimage tour to Badrinath
2) Dosa and Chapathi
3) Clothes
4) Drinking water

5) None of the above

34. Focus of a marketing exercise is:


1) Consumer and consumer requirements
2) Market demand
3) Goods and services
4) Sale of products
5) All the above
35. The process of planning and executing the
conception, Pricing, Promotion and
Distribution to the target group is called:
1) Marketing

2) Selling

3) Management of business
4) Marketing management
5) Any of the above
KEY: 1-3; 2-3; 3-5; 4-5; 5-2; 6-1; 7-2; 8-5;
9-1; 10-2; 11-1; 12-4; 13-3; 14-1; 15-2; 16-3;
17-5; 18-5; 19-4; 20-4; 21-1; 22-4; 23-5; 24-3;
25-5; 26-3; 27-2; 28-4; 29-1; 30-4; 31-5; 32-4;
33-1; 34-1; 35-4.

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--- 12 d- 2012
Ratio and Proportion
R atio means comparison. The number of times
one quantity contains another quantity of the
same kind.
Thus the ratio between 5 litres of oil and 15
litres of oil can be possible, but not between 10
apples and 25 kg of rice.
The ratio between one quantity to another
a
is denoted by a : b or .
b
e.g: 5: 6 or 12 : 9 etc.
The two quantities in the ratio are called its
terms. The first term is called the antecedent
and the second term is called consequent.
The terms of the ratio can be multiplied or
divided by the same number.
Types of Ratios:
Duplicate ratio: The ratio of the squares of
the two numbers.
e.g: 16 : 9 is the duplicate ratio of 4 : 3.

-- j---
Continued Proportion: In the proportion
3
12
= , 3, 12, 48 are in the continued
12
48
proportion.
Fourth proportion: If a : b = c : x, then x is
the fourth proportion of a, b and c.
bc
Fourth proportion of a, b and c =
a
e.g: Find the fourth proportion of 9, 12 and 21.
Sol: Here, a = 9, b = 12 and c = 21
bc 12 21
= = 28
a

Third Proportion: If a : b = b : x, then x is


the third proportion of a and b.
b2
Third proportion of a & b =
a
e.g: What is third proportion of 36 and 48?
Sol: Here, a = 36 and b = 48
b2
48 48
= = 64
a
36

x:y=7:9
4. Two numbers are
in 4:7 ratio. The
difference
between them is
27. What is the
bigger number?
Sol: Let the numbers
be 4x and 7x.
7x 4x = 27
3x = 27 x = 9

Bigger number is 7x = 7 9 = 63
Short cut: The difference of the terms of the
ratio = 7 4 = 3.
But the actual difference between the numbers is 27
3 parts is equal to 27
7
7 parts (Bigger number) = 27 = 63
3
5. The ratio of the ages of a man and his son is

Equal ratios make a proportion!


Triplicate Ratio: The ratio of the cubes of
the two numbers.
e.g: 125 : 64 is the triplicate ratio of 5 : 4.

7 : 3. The average of their ages is 30


years. What will be the ratio of their
ages after 4 years?

Sub-duplicate Ratio: The ratio between the


square roots of the two numbers.
e.g: 3 : 5 is the sub-duplicate ratio of 9 : 25.

Sol: Average age = 30 years

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Sub-triplicate Ratio: The ratio between the


cube roots of the two numbers.
e.g: 7:5 is the sub-triplicate ratio of 343:125.

Second or Mean Proportion: If


a : x = x : b, then x is Second or
Mean proportion of a and b.

Inverse ratio: If the two terms in the ratio


interchange their places, then the new ratio
is inverse ratio of the first.
e.g: 6 :5 is the inverse ratio of 5 : 6.
Compound ratio: The ratio of the product of
the first terms to that of the second terms of
two or more ratios.
e.g: The compound ratio of
4 7 5
2
4 7 5 2
7
, , and is =
5 8 6
3
5 8 6 3 18

PROPORTION
If two ratios are equal, then they make a
proportion.
3
9
Thus = or 3:5 = 9:15
5
15
3
9
Each term of the ratios and is called
5
15
proportional.
The middle terms 5 and 9 are called means
and the end terms 3 and 15 are called
extremes.
Product of Means = Product of Extremes
1. If a sum of Rs.3150 were distributed among
Ravi, Vijay and Suresh in the ratio of
12:9:14 respectively, then find the share of
Vijay.
A) Rs.1080
B) Rs.1260 C) Rs.810
D) Rs.1620
E) None of these
2. The total number of students in a school is
2850. If the number of boys in the school is
1650, then what is the respective ratio of
the total number of boys to the total number
of girls in the school?
A) 33: 25
B) 11:8
C) 34 : 23
D) 12 : 11
E) None of these
3. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C
and D in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 12 : 15 respectively. If the share of C is Rs. 4092, then
what is the total amount of money?
A) Rs.12960

B) Rs.12828 C) Rs.12450

D) Rs. 12958 E) None of these


4. A sum of Rs.2820 has been distributed
1 1 1
among A, B and C in the ratio : :
3 4 5
respectively. What is the share of B?

Total age = 2 30 = 60 years.


Let their present ages be 7x and
3x years

G.S. Giridhar
60
7x + 3x = 60 x = = 6
10
Their present ages are

Mean proportion of a and b = ab


7 6 and 3 6 = 42 and 18.
e.g: Find the mean proportion of 18 and 32.
Their ages after 4 years
Sol: Mean proportion is

ab = 18 32 = 24
1. a : b = 3: 4; b : c = 6 : 7. Find a : b : c.
Sol:
a
b
c
3
4
6
7
a : b : c = 3 6 : 6 4 : 4 7 = 9 : 12 : 14
2. A sum of Rs.4960 has been divided among
A, B and C in the ratio of 5:4:7. Find the
share of B.
4
Sol: B's share = 4960
5+4+7
= Rs.1240
3. 36% of first number is 28% of the second
number. What is the respective ratio of the
first number to the second number?
Sol: Let the numbers be x and y.
36% of x = 28% of y
x
28
7

=
y =
36
9
A) Rs.900 B) Rs.1200
C) Rs.800
D) Rs.600 E) None of these
5. A, B and C divide an amount of Rs. 6300
amongst themselves in the ratio of 7:6:8
respectively. If an amount of Rs.300 is
added to each of their shares, what will be
the new respective ratio of their shares of
amount?
A) 8 : 7 : 9
B) 7 : 9 : 8
C) 7 : 8 : 6
D) 8 : 9 : 7
E) None of these
ANSWERS: 1-C; 2-B; 3-D; 4-A; 5-A.

EXPLANATIONS
9
1. Vijay's Share = 3150 = Rs.810
35
2. Total number of students = 2850
Number of boys = 1650
Number of girls = 2850 1650 = 1200
Ratio between boys and girls
= 1650 : 1200 = 11 : 8.
3. Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs.5x,
6x,12x and 15x respectively. C's share is
Rs.4092

= 42 + 4 and 18 + 4 = 46 and 22 years

ratio = 46 : 22 = 23 : 11
6. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3:4. If 4 is
subtracted from each, the remainders are
in the ratio of 5:7. What are the numbers?
Sol: Let the numbers be 3x and 4x.
If 4 is subtracted from each, the numbers
will be (3x 4) and (4x 4).

Sol: Milk quantity in the mixture


7
= 30 = 21litres
10
Water = 30 21= 9 litres
New ratio = 3:7
3 parts of milk is 21 litres (There is no difference in the milk quantity of new mixture)
Water quantity in the new mixture
7
= 21 = 49 litres
3
49 9 = 40 litres water is to be added in the
new mixture
8. A bag contains of one rupee, 50 paise and
25 paise coins. If these coins are in the ratio
of 5:6:8, and the total amount of coins is
Rs.210, find the number of 50 paise coins in
the bag.
Sol: Let the the number of one rupee, 50 paise
and 25 paise coins be 5, 6 and 8 respectively.
The value of one rupee coins
= Rs.1 5 = Rs.5
The value of fifty paise coins
= Rs.0.50 6 = Rs.3
The value of twenty five paise coins
= Rs.0.25 8 = Rs.2
Total value = 5 + 3 + 2 = Rs.10
If the total value is Rs.10,
there are 6 coins of 50 paise
If the total value is Rs.210, then the number
210
of 50 coins = 6 = 126
10
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

(3x 4) : (4x 4) = 5: 7
Product of means = Product of extremes
(3x 4) 7 = (4x 4) 5
21x 28 = 20x 20

x=8
The numbers are 3 8 and 4 8
= 24 and 32
7. In a bowl there is 30 litre mixture of milk and
water. The ratio of milk and water is 7:3. How
much water must be added to it so that the
ratio of milk to the water be 3:7?
4092
12

12x = 4092 x = = 341


Total money = 38x = 38 341= Rs.12958
4. LCM of 3, 4 and 5 is 60
60 60
60
3
4
5
15
B's share = 2820
20 + 15 + 12

ratio = : : : 20:15:12

15
= 2820 = Rs.900
47
5. Total shares = 7 + 6 + 8 = 21
21 parts = 6300
6300
each part = = 300
21

Their shares are


7 300, 6 300 and 8 300
2100, 1800 and 2400
If 300 is added to each of them then their
shares are 2400, 2100 and 2700
Their ratio = 2400 : 2100 : 2700
=8:7:9

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www.eenadupratibha.net

- 13 d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around
a circle facing at the centre. F is third to the right
of B who is third to the right of H. A is third to the
left of H. C is fourth to the left of A. E is third to
the right of D, who is not a neighbour of A?
1. In which of the following pairs the second
person is to the immediate right of the first
person?
1) HC
2) BE
3) GB
4) FA
5) None of these
2. Who is second to the right of D?
1) F
2) G
3) A
4) Data Inadequate
5) None of these
3. Who is third to the left of G?
1) H
2) D
3) C
4) F
5) None of these

i.e., 'None of these' as the answer.


Letters:
P MA K T I J E R N D FU W B
Digits/Symbols: 7 # 8 % 1 9 2 @ 3 $ 4 5 6
Conditions:
i. If both the first and the last letters of the
group are Consonants, both are to be
coded as the code for the last letter.
ii. If the first letter is a consonant and the last
letter is a vowel, the code are to be interchanged.
6. BDATFE
1) 6$8146
2) 6$814@
3) @$814@
4) @$8146 5) None of these
7. AWBRND
1) $5638 2) 8563$
3) 8365$
4) 8536$ 5) None of these
8. EMNTKU
1) # 1%@ 2) @# 14 3) @# 1%

1) #@%
2) # $%@
3) #@$%
4) #$%
5) None of these
12. In a certain code
DETAIL is written
as BJMUFE. How
is SUBMIT written
in that code?
1) UJWCVT 2) NJUCVT 3) NJUTVC
4) UJNTVC 5) None of these
13. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the second, the fourth, the
sixth and the ninth letters of the word
PROACTIVE, using each letter only once,
second letter of that Word is your answer. If
more than one word can be formed your
answer is M and if no such Word can be

Who is second to the right of D?


4. Who is fourth to the left of C?
1) F
2) A
3) E
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
5. What is Bs position with respect to D?
A. Fourth to the right B. Fourth to the left
C. Fifth to the left
D. Fifth to the right
1) (A) only
2) (B) only
3) (A) and (B) only
4) (C) and (D) only
5) None of these
Directions (Q.6-10): In each question below is
given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbol's numbered (1), (2),
(3), (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and
mark the number of that combination as the
answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5)

EXPLANATIONS

formed your answer is N.


1) A
2) E
3) T 4) M
5) N
14. How many such pairs of letters
are there in the word FOREHAND, each of which have as
REASONING
many letters between them in the
word as they have in the English
4) #@ 1%
5) None of these
S. Arun Mohan
alphabet?
9. MDEAJI
1) None
2) One
3) Two
1) 1$@82#
2) #$@821
4) Three 5) More than three
3) 1$@821
4) #$@82#
15. Four of the following five are alike in a cer5) None of these
tain way and so form a group. Which is the
10. RKUMFP
one that does not belong to the group?
1) 7%#43 2) 3%#47
3) 3%#43
1) 17
2) 31 3) 23 4) 13
5) 21
4) 3%#47 5) None of these
Directions (Q.16-20): These questions are
11. In a certain code DATE is written as #%$@
based on the following arrangement. Study it
and STYLE is written as $@. How is
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
DELAY written in that code?
T 6 # I J 1 % L E 3 K 9 @ A H 7 B D 2 U $ R 4 8
10-1;

11-1;

Condition (ii) applies

+1
B

9-5;

+1
M

+1
U

+1
F

+1
E

similarly

+1
N

+1
+1
+1
+1
+1
J
U
C
V
T
Hence, Required Code = NJUCVT

13-4; The second, fourth, sixth and ninth letters of the word PROACTIVE are R, A,
T&E
Meaningful words are: RATE, TEAR
14-3;

2
8
#
Condition (ii) applies

>

8-3;

+1
J

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Key
1-1; 2-5; 3-3; 4-2; 5-3; 6-4; 7-2; 8-3; 9-5; 10-1;
11-1; 12-2; 13-4; 14-3; 15-5; 16-5; 17-4; 18-1;
19-5; 20-5.
(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle, Hyderabad)

X---y -

20-5; Fifth to the right of eleventh from the right


end ( 11 5 =) 6th from the right i.e. U.

similarly

>

7-2;

$ @

% $ @

12-2;
B

T Y L E

and

D
1-1;
2-5; C is second to the right of D
3-3; C is third to the left of G
4-2; A is fourth to the left of C
5-3; Bs position with respect to D is Fourth to
the right and Fourth to the left
6-4;

15-5; 16-5; R 4 $ ; 17-4;


+5
+5
+5
6 % 9 B
+5
+5
+5
I E A D
+5
+5
+5
J 3 H 2
18-1; 19-5;
Number
Symbol : 6#,1%, 9@, 4

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in
the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
1) JI 1
2) EL3
3) @9A
4) 7HB
5) R4$
17. What will come in the place of the question
mark(?) in the following series based on the
above arrangement?
6I J
%E3
9AH
?
1) B2
2) 7D
3) 7BD
4) BD2
5) None of these
18. If all the vowels are removed from the
above arrangement which element will be
the sixth to the right of fourth element from
the left?
1) 9
2) K
3) 3
4) @
5) None of these
19. How many such symbols are there in the
above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
20. Which element is fifth to the right of
eleventh from the right end?
1) $
2) U
3) 1
4) 3
5) None of these

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Chittoor, Andhra Pradesh

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1
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--C- 16 d- 2012

-- j---

Joshi Pallavi, Nirmal


Q: What can you compare
with/ to? - Which one is
correct?
A: What can you compare it
with?/ what can you compare
it to? - Both are correct with
slightly different meanings.
Compare to = Similar to

Compare with = Study the similarity =

(x)

are

Dear me.

A: He is better than any other boy = He is


better than all other boys.

Is there no such
thing
as
a
gentleman.

Sanjay Singhania, Vanasthalipuram

La

2) You should not compare Indian movies

A: Oh God!

E n

Q: Translate into English.

A:

You do sir Charles injustice.

e.g.: 1) A beautiful woman's face is often


compared to the moon =

-i Y Eo
v- -h. ( / -
E C)

, o
x u
(L) .

Q: He is better than any other boys/ than all


other boys.

(L )

and my father -

Q: Stones are cracked following the heat Explain the meaning of the underlined word.
A: Because of the heat, cracks
formed in the stones.

Z E @ * -- - o u
\ -- B- - - -Z L- h, Z - v vA- - _ --o v h- o-E vP o-.

A: What are the central ministers from the state


doing when the gas from the K.G. Basin is

A:

words. They can be used with words like is,


was, were, the, a, an etc., which are structure
words.

l-- T x ?
O/ y u h-o/ ho.

However I didn't keep the appointment.


A:

x-Lq - x-Lq

He is not honest as such!


with English movies =

B- *v-, x
*v- a-- (, O C)

(appointment)

being diverted to Maharashtra


without meeting the needs of the
state, he questioned.

D@, d X- vh --
Lh, L .

A:

Q: No one knows where he goes every day - Is


this correct?

A: Correct.

A: Keep up the name of your father/ live up to


the name of your father.

Q: They don't know who I am? - Is this correct?

Raghupathi Naidu, Desaipet

A: Correct.
Q:

M. SURESAN

q N-*-d J Rx
P~ C = I got this punishment as

Q: Translate the following sentences into


Telugu.

I had left my parents and went to the town Is this correct?

There is nothing common between my father


and me

A: This is the punishment I got for leaving my


parents here and going to the town.

A: There is nothing in common between me

Q: They are so rich that they own five cars - Is


this correct?
A: Correct.
Q: We couldn't sleep even though/ quite we
were tired - Is this correct?
A: We couldn't sleep even though we were
tired - Correct.
Q: How much he earns per month?/ How much
does he earn per month? - Which one is correct?
A: How much does he earn per month? Correct?

K. Srinu, Warangal
Q: "call sb's bluff" -

Idiom

j n,

sEo -.
A: Call somebody's bluff = To ask someone to
prove their claim/ what they say they can do
=

p--o p E----E
-/ .

He always claimed that he helped the poor


and she called his bluff when she asked him to
donate a thousand rupees to an orphanage =

--p H h-E p---;


u - N v--E
- A ---C.

Rohit: Have I to go all the way now and get the


files for you?

( Rx F jx
B?)

Mallik: Don't worry.


Who said you
have to? You
don't have to get
them. Just turn
on the net and
download them.

(--.
-E -o? y B- .
,
jx - u.)
Rohit: Wait for a while. I need to get my
laptop. Once I get it, there will be no stopping me. I'll fire away.

(-. a--L. C a- -o -x . h E -h.)

Mallik: You need not get it. I have got one with
me. You can use it.

(C y a---\-. _- - C. yC
a.)

Rohit: Don't we have to get some paper for


taking the print-outs?

Soumya Patekar, Balharsha

Mallik: Just don't worry. I have my pen drive.


We can take all the files and download
them when we need them.

Q: I am a student - Can this sentence be


changed into complex and compound
sentences?
A: You can change, but it will be an awkward
(ugly) sentence. (I am one who is a student)
- Isn't this around about way of saying something. Always remember - our sentences
should be short, plain and direct - whether
they are simple, complex or compound.

Spoken English

--E h h Eo --.

O -
---.

A: He fears.
Q: If I joined here as a teacher, would I be
guided - Explain in Telugu.
A:

E-\ J, ?
Vijay Sahani, Rajolu

A: No meaning - The sentence is wrong.


If I joined here would I be guided.

Q: What is the meaning of "as such"?

A:

A: As such = As a word is usually understood.

E-\ J-T (-),


?

Add Words
A: Add Words = Content Words.
Take for example words like pen, paper,
book, apple etc. These are "add/ content"

He is not honest as such = He is not as honest as the word 'honest' means (Honest
honest
as people
usually understand 'honest' -

E-, -- E n)
n N.

Need I tell you again?

Uttara Kumara's bluff was called when he


faced the Kourava army =

juEo
\Lq *a--p h - vs
Ah-E L--C.

There is a pen/ pencil/ book/ paper etc. We


can go on changing the add words and arrange
them in these places in a group of structure
words. usually structure words are short, 'add'
words are long.

x-.

Taking his father dinner.

O o E--dL.

I have a pen, I have a pencil, ... a book, ....


paper. etc., similarly we can also say.

Structure words are essential for framing


sentences.

I sent the coach home with a message that I would be home for dinner.

-x--- 700

Compare the present leaders with Gandhi


and Potti Sreeramulu. The similarity is little =

Structure words remaining the same, we can


go on changing the add words.

(v q
BE a---- ?)

( --.
_ wj C. jxFo
\*, p --- p
Ba.)

Rohit: I don't know how to use the pen drive.


You should do it yourself.

( -wj -T- . y --L.)

Mallik: I undersand. I'll do it. Hurry up. We


must leave before 6.30.
6.30

2) I need to get my laptop.

Rohit: OK.

Have to be/ Have to + 1st RDW, (Have to


go/ have to work) has to be/ has to + 1st RDW
(Has to go, has to work) Don't have to/ need not/ don't need to / doesn't
need to.

(n-iC. h.
xL.)

y .

Note: 1) Download -

u- * -

B--
vh
3) Fire away - E-- E-- x

4) Don't we have to get some paper?

O uA-

2) No stopping -

3) You need not get

(j -----)

Praneeth: He has to pay the amount.

lesson Have to/ Has to - --o.


1) Obligation (NC -Lq E)/ Order (c
a-.

(- - -h-Eo Lx-L.)
Sunanda: Why has he to? No, he has not
taken it, so he doesn't have to/ he need
not/ he doesn't need to pay it.

(-- Lx-L? .
s B--. Lx---\--.)
(don't = do not; doesn't = does not)
2) Duty -

hu and
3) Necessity ( --Eo ---E)
Have to/ Has to Th-E --o.

Sumanth: When do you want me to be here,


sir?

(o \ p ---?)

Rama Rao: You have to be here by 9. You


have to pay the money into the bank by
10.
Order.)

(y Nt-C--x \--L.
C---x u s d-L.

He has to be at office from 10 to 6.

10

- L

Duty).
She has to go home. Her old mother is
alone.
- Necessity).

( xL. xt -J

Now look at the following from the


conversation above:
1) You don't have to go (.... do not have to go)

Need not = Doesn't/ don't need to =


Look at the following

\--.

Has he to do it? = Does he have to do it?


He need not do it/ He
doesn't
(does
not) need to it

(-C u?) $
(-C -- .)
-C
--? =
Need he do it?/
Does he need to
do it?
Need I tell you
again? =

F Sx
pLq - ?/ Have I to tell you
again? = F Sx p? N
.
Need to, need not , Have to/ has to
opposite --Th.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 17 -d- 2012


Directions (Q.1-5): In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from the
commonly known facts and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from
the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer 2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer 3) if either conclusion I or
conclusion II follows.
Give answer 4) if neither conclusion I nor
conclusion II follows

-- j---
All gems are diamonds
All corals are gems
Conclusions: I. All pearls are diamonds
II. All corals are diamonds
Directions (Q.6-10): In the following questions
symbols @, #, %, $, and are used with different meanings as follows:
A @B means A is not smaller than B
A # B means A is neither smaller than nor
equal to B
A % B means A is neither smaller than nor
greater than B
A $ B means A is not greater than B
A B means A is neither greater than nor
equal to B

Conclusions:
I. F#R
II. R$N
8. Statements: H # I,
I@J, J $ P
Conclusions: I. H#J
II. H#P
9. Statements: L D,
D#K,
K$J
Conclusions: I. LK
II. D$J
10. Statements: Q$W, W%E,
E@K
Conclusions: I. Q$K
II. W@K
Directions (Q.11-15): In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by
four combinations of digits and symbols num-

Some W ells are R ivers!


Give answer 5) if both conclusions I and II
follow.
1. Statements: All taps are wells
Some wells are canals
All canals are rivers
Conclusions: I. Some rivers are taps
II. Some wells are rivers
2. Statements:
Some files are papers
Some papers are books
All books are journals.
Conclusions: I. Some papers are journals
II. Some files are journals
3. Statements: Some apples are grapes
Some grapes are mangoes
No mango is guava
Conclusions: I. Some guavas are apples.
II. No guava is apple
4. Statements: Some computers are screens
Some screens are movies
Some movies are scripts
Conclusions: I. Some computers are movies
II. Some screens are scripts
5. Statements: All pearls are gems
EXPLANATIONS
1-2; All taps are wells. (A type)

Some wells are canals. (I type)


A + I = ''. No conclusion
Some wells are canals (I type)

All canals are rivers. (A type).


I + A = I Type conclusion.
Hence Some wells are rivers.
This is conclusion II.
2-1; Some papers are books. (I type)

All books are journals.(A type)


I + A = I Type conclusion.
Hence Some papers are journals.
This is conclusion I.
5-5; All pearls are gems. (A type)

All gems are diamonds. (A type)


A + A = A Type conclusion.
Hence All pearls are diamonds.
This is conclusion I
All corals are gems. (A type)

All gems are diamonds. (A type)


A + A = A type conclusion.
Hence All corals are diamonds.
This is conclusion II
(6-10): A@B means A B
A# B means A > B

bered (1), (2), (3) & (4). The letters


are to be coded as per the scheme
and conditions given below. The serial number of the combination that
correctly represents the group of letREASONING
ters is your answer. If none of the
combination is correct your answer is
In each of the following quesS. Arun Mohan
(5). i.e , None of these.
tions assuming the given statements
Letter:
H I T KR F A L E M JBQ U
to be true, find out which of the two conclusions
Digit/Symbol:
3 7% # 4 $ 6 9@ 25 8
I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Conditions:
Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true.
i) If the first letter in the group is a vowel and
Give answer 2) If only conclusion II is true
the last letter is a consonant their codes
Give answer 3) If either conclusion I or conare to be interchanged
clusion II is true
ii) If the first letter in the group is a consonant
Give answer 4) If neither conclusion I nor
and the last letter is a vowel both are to be
conclusion II is true.
Coded by the code for vowel
Give answer 5) If both the conclusions I and
iii) If the first as well as the last letter is a
II are true
vowel both are to be coded by the code
for the first Letter
6. Statements: T@V, V # M,
M%F
11.
I
RHMEJ
Conclusions:
1) 743@2
2) 243@2
I. T # M
II. T@F
3) 743@7
4) 243@7
7. Statements:
L$N,
N F, R % L
5) None of these
A % B means A = B
A $ B means A B
A B means A < B
6-1; T@V T V
V#M V > M
M%F M = F
Hence, T V > M = F
Conclusions:
I. T#M T > M (True)
II. T@F T F (True)
7-5; L$N L N
NF N < F
R%L R = L
Hence, R = L N < F
Conclusions:
I. F#R F > R (True)
II. R$N R N (True)
8-1; H#1 H > 1
I@J I J
J$P J P
Hence, H > I J P
Conclusions:
I. H#J H > J (True)
II. H#P H > P (True)
9-4; LD L < D
D#K D > K
K$J K J
Hence, L < D > K J
Conclusions:
I. L K L < K (Not True)
II. D$J D J (Not True)
10-2; Q$W Q W
W%E W = E
E@K E K
Hence, Q W = E K

Conclusions:
I. Q$K Q K (Not True)
II. W@K W K (True)
11-4;
I R H M E J

2 4 3 @ 7 Condition (i) applies


12-5;
T F I K A R

% $

13-3;
M H

E J K

@ 2 #

F I

K L R U

14-3;

8 7 # 9 4 8 Condition (ii) applies


15-2;
A L F J H E


6 9
(16-20):


2 3 6 Condition (iii) applies

H
D

K
16-2;
17-5;
18-1;
19-3;
20-4;

KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-4; 4-4; 5-5; 6-1; 7-5; 8-1;


9-4; 10-2; 11-4; 12-5; 13-3; 14-3; 15-2;
16-2; 17-5; 18-1; 19-3; 20-4.
(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle, Hyderabad)

uuf jq p--

12. TFIKAR
1) 4$7#6%
2) 4$7#64
3) %$7#6%
4) %$6#74 5) None
13. MHEJKQ
1) 3@2#
2) 3@2#
3) 3@2#
4) 3@2#@
5) None
14. FIKLRU
1) $7#948
2) $7#94$
3) 87#948
4) 87#94$
5) None
15. ALFJHE
1) @9$236
2) 69$236
3) @9$23@
4) 69$23@ 5) None
Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Seven friends K, M, L, H, F, D & C are sitting
around a circle facing the centre. L is second to
the right of H who is to the immediate right of C.
M is third to the left of D and to the immediate
right of F.
16. Who is third to the left of C?
1) L 2) K 3) F 4) K or F
5) None
17. Which of the following pair of persons represent the neighbours of K?
1) LD
2) FM 3) ML 4) CH 5) None
18. Who is to the immediate right of L?
1) K
2) D 3) H 4) M
5) None
19. Who is second to the right of C?
1) M 2) L 3) D
4) F
5) None
20. Which of the following pair of persons has
the first person sitting to the immediate right
of second person?
1) DL 2) KF 3) CH 4) DH 5) None

K is third to the left of C


LF
K is to the immediate right of L.
D is second to the right of C
D is to the immediate right of H.

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

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--- 17 -d- 2012

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 18 -d- 2012


1. Which of the following is most essential for
effective multimedia presentations incorporates user participation or ....
1) Links
2) Buttons
3) Interactivity
4) Integration
5) None
2. Most of the websites have moving graphics,
which are called as:
1) animations
2) vectors
3) links
4) morphs
5) None
3. Which of the following is the term used to
enlarge a window to its maximum area so
that it fills the entire desktop?
1) Maximize
2) Zoom 3) Enlarge
4) Extend
5) None of these
4. Microsoft Windows and Apple Mac are
widely used Operating systems in today's
world. Which of the following feature makes
them so popular?
1) Multitasking Capacity
2) Calligraphy

-- j---
9. During the boot process, which of the
following looks for the system files?
1) CD
2) BIOS
3) CPU
4) DVD
5) None of these
10. DNS is the abbreviation of:
1) Domain Name Service
2) Domain Name System
3) Direct Network Service
4) Direct Network System
5) None of these
11. File transfer protocol is used for:
1) Transferring email
2) Uploading files
3) Downloading files
4) Both 1 and 2
5) Both 2 and 3
12. Which of the following keys is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?
1) Function
2) Space Bar 3) Del
4) Alt
5) Arrow
13. Which of the following command is used to

2) Horizontal
Market
Software
3) Vertical Market
Software
4) Firmware
5) None of these
17. Hyperlink in a
web
document
usually appears:
1) Bold and Coloured
2) Bold and Italicized
3) Underlined and coloured
4) Bold and underlined
5) Italicized and underlined
18. Which of the following allows users to
upload files to an online site so that they
can be viewed and edited from another
location?
1) Office Live
2) Microsoft Outlook
3) Common-Purpose applications

File transfer protocol is used for...?


3) User-friendly GUI
4) Being Inexpensive
5) None of these
5. Physical components of a computer are
called:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Viruses
4) Internet
5) None of these
6. Which of the following is an object oriented
feature:
1) Structured Programming
2) Multi-Tasking
3) Linking
4) Inheritance
5) None of these
7. In Windows XP, which of the following views
is the best to see the file size and modified
dates of all files in a folder.
1) List
2) Icon 3) Thumbnails
4) Details 5) None of these
8. Which of the following keys is used to
remove a character on the right of the cursor
in a word document?
1) Home
2) End
3) Delete
4) Backspace
5) None of these

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4) Web-hosted Technology
5) None of these
19. The letter and the number of the
intersecting column and row is
the ........
COMPUTER AWARENESS
1) Cell location
2) Cell position
start MS Word from the Run com3) Cell address 4) Cell coordinates
KVN Prashanth Kumar
mand in the Start Menu?
5) Cell contents
1) Msword
2) Winword
20. In Power-point, the Footer and Header but3) Winms
4) Worddoc
ton can be found on the Insert tab in which
of the following groups?
5) None of these
1) Illustrations Group
14. Windows Explorer is a .........
1) Personal Computer
2) Drive
2) Object Group
3) Text Group
3) Browser
4) Network
4) Tables Group
5) None of these
5) File manager
21. In the basic computer processing cycle
which of the following are present?
15. Which of the following shows all the
websites and pages that are already visited
1) Input processing and output
over a period of time?
2) System and application
1) Status Bar
2) Task Bar
3) Data information and application
3) History List
4) Tool Bar 5) None
4) Hardware, software and storage
16. A Web browser is an example of:
5) None of these
1) Open Source Software
22. Which of the following defines a Firmware?
1) The physical Component used in a
computer system.
2) A set of instructions through which a
computer does one or more work.
3) People involved in the computing
process.
4) A set of programs that are pre-installed
in read-only memory of computer during
www.drysrhu.edu.in
manufacturing.
5) None of these
23. Which of the following can be used instead
of remembering e-mail addresses?
1) Phone book
2) Address Book
3) Search Engine
4) Browser software
5) None of these
24. Which of the following is considered as both
input and output device?
1) Printer
2) Scanner
3) Monitor
4) Speaker
5) Modem
25. '.exe', '.html', '.mp3', '.doc' etc, are examples of which of the following?
1) Databases
2) Extensions
3) Domains
4) Protocols
5) Websites
26. Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as:
1) Super Computers
2) Laptops
3) Mini Computers
4) Mainframe Computers
5) None of these
27. Which of the following menu is selected to
go to print preview?
1) Edit
2) File
3) Insert
www.navodaya.nic.in

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

4) View
5) None of these
28. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing multimedia web pages, websites and web-based
applications?
1) COBOL
2) Java
3) BASIC
4) FORTRAN
5) None of these
29. Which of the following will be the common
file extension for an installation file?
1) .mpeg
2) .doc
3) .ppt
4) .pdf
5) .exe
30. Windows XP, Mac, Linux are examples of:
1) Processors
2) Domain names
3) Modems
4) Operating systems
5) None of these
31. Any letter, number or symbol found on the
keyboard that you can type into the computer is called:
1) Output
2) Character
3) Type
4) Print
5) None of these
32. A technology for using the Internet or
another intermediate network to connect
computers to isolated remote computer networks that would otherwise be inaccessible
is known as:
1) Local Area Network (LAN)
2) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
3) Campus Area Network (CAN)
4) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
5) None of these
33. Pick the odd one out.
1) Mouse
2) Keyboard
3) Printer
4) Windows
5) Speaker
34. When sending an e-mail, the ..... line
describes the contents of the message.
1) To
2) Subject
3) Contents
4) CC
5) None of these
35. Which of the following is not a graphic file
format that allows animation to be viewed
on a computer?
1) GIF
2) MNG 3) MP8
4) SVG
5) SWF
36. Which of the following is true about Blu-ray
Disc?
1) It is an optical storage medium
2) Its size is same as CD and DVD
3) Single Layer Blu-ray Disc contains 25
GB and Dual Layer discs Contain 50 GB
4) Blu-ray Disc uses blue-laser light unlike
red laser used in DVDs
5) All are correct
37. '.rtf' is a file extension for documents. RTF
stands for?
1) Real Time Formatting
2) Rich Text Format
3) Real Time Fonts
4) Real Text format
5) None of these
38. Android is a / an:
1) Application Software
2) Web Browser
3) Mobile Operating System
4) International Standard Organization
5) Social Networking Site
KEY: 1-3; 2-1; 3-1; 4-3; 5-1; 6-4; 7-4; 8-3;
9-2; 10-2; 11-5; 12-4; 13-2; 14-5; 15-3;
16-2; 17-3; 18-4; 19-3; 20-3; 21-1; 22-4;
23-2; 24-5; 25-2; 26-2; 27-2; 28-2; 29-5;
30-4; 31-2; 32-4; 33-4; 34-2; 35-3; 36-5;
37-2; 38-3.
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)

--- 18 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 19 -d- 2012


1. Expand BRBNMPL ......
1) Bharatiya Reserve Borrow Note Mudran
Private Limited
2) Bangalore Reserve Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited
3) Bharatiya Resale Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited
4) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Negotiable
Mudran Private Limited
5) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited
2. From 1 April 2012, the validity of cheque is...
1) 3 months
2) 6 months
3) 9 months
4) 12 months
5) 18 months
3. On 8th August 2012, which bank introduced
the First Financial Super market at Jaipur?
1) Syndicate Bank
2) Andhra Bank
3) Canara Bank
4) ICICI
5) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur
4. SWIFT is an internationally-recognized iden-

-- j---
14. RTGS stands for ......
1) Real Time Gross Stipulations
2) Role Time Gross Settlement
3) Real Time Gross Settlement
4) Real Tag Gross Settlement 5) None
15. Reserve Bank Staff college is at ....
1) Hyderabad
2) Pune 3) Chennai
4) New Delhi
5) Kanpur
16. Banking Regulation Act was passed in .....
1) 1947
2) 1949 3) 1991
4) 2000
5) 1935
17. GAAR means .....
1) General Advantage-Avoidance Rules
2) General Anti-Avoidance Rules
3) Government Anti-Avoidance Rules
4) General Anti-Advantage Rules
5) None
18. Miss World 2012 is .......
1) Sophie Moulds (Wales)
2) Jessica Kahawaty (Australia)

3) used
Atom
Bomb
4) to walk on the
Moon
5) visited the north
pole by foot
29. Dr.
Poonam
Kishore Saxena is
the Chairman of....
1) National Commission for Woman
2) Insurance Regulatory Authority of India
3) Competition Commission of India
4) Central Board of Direct Taxes
5) None of above
30. The list of Revolution given. Pick the
correct one.
1) White - Milk
2) Green - Food Grains
3) Blue - Fish
4) Yellow - Oil Seeds
5) All of above
31. Foreign Exchange Reserves are kept in the
custody of.....

Buy now and Pay later!


tification code for banks around the world,
which has 8 or 11 alphanumeric characters.
SWIFT means ......
1) Stand for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunication
2) Society for Worldwide Internal bank
Financial Telecommunication
3) Society for World Interbank Financial
Telecommunication
4) Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunication
5) None
5. As per the RBI Governor statement, how
much fund needed by the Indian Banking
Sector to fulfil the Basel -III norms by 31st
March 2018?
1) Rs.5 Lakh Crore 2) Rs.4 Lakh Crore
3) Rs.8 Lakh Crore 4) Rs.15 Lakh Crore
5) Rs.3.5 Lakh Crore
6. How much percent of Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) in insurance and pension
sector proposed to allow by the Finance
Ministry on 22nd August 2012?
1) 100
2) 51
3) 49 4) 74 5) 41
7. Which is not a Maharatna Company?
1) IOC
2) ONGC
3) HAL
4) NTPC 5) SAIL
8. Recently Delhi and Rajasthan extended the
age bar on child labour from 14 years to....
1) 16 years
2) 21 years 3) 18 years
4) 25 years
5) 30 years
9. Which Delhi based scientist, won the prestigious Norman Borlaug Award for her work in
transforming access to water for thousands
of farmers in West Bengal?
1) R.Srinivasan
2) Panchala Gore
3) Aditi Mukherjee
4) Aditya Mukherjee
5) Kala Singham
10. 'Lasting Peace through Joint Global
Governance' is the theme of which summit
recently held in Teheran on 30-31 August
2012?
1) ASEAN
2) NAM
3) SAARC
4) SCO
5) G-7
11. Chief Minister of Meghalaya is ....
1) Okram Ibobi Singh 2) Pu Lalthanhawla
3) Mukul Sangma
4) Tarun Gogoi
5) Neiphiu Rio
12. ......... became the fastest player to score
3000 runs in one-day internationals in 57
Innings.
1) Virat Kohli
2) Hashim Amla
3) Sachin Tendulkar 4) Yuvraj Singh
5) Ricky Ponting
13. 'Buy now and Pay later' is the principle of...
1) Debit Card
2) Credit Card
3) Now card
4) ABM card
5) AADHAR Card

1) RBI
2) SEBI
3) NABARD
4) Ministry of External Affairs
5) None
32. ISO 27001: 2005 given to banks
GENERAL AWARENESS
in the recognition of ....
1) having best telephone service
3) Yu Wenxia (China)
A.Veeraswamy
2) having good infrastructure
4) Vanya Mishra (India)
3) having best managers
5) Mariana Notarangelo (Brazil)
4) having best security practice
19. Which book not written by Robin Sharma?
5) having Air-conditioned branches
1) Top 200 Secret of Success
33. RBI does not mint ...... paper currency.
2) Mega Living: 30 Days to A Perfect Life
1) Rs. 5
2) Rs. 10
3) Rs. 1
3) The Luminous Sparks
4)
Rs.100
5)
Rs.
20
4) The Lead without A Title Manifesto
34. Bank note Press Dewas is in the state of...
5) Family Wisdom
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Madhya Pradesh
20. International Youth Day Celebrates on ......
3) Goa
4) Tamilnadu
1) August 15
2) September 18
5)
Karnataka
3) December 9
4) August 12
35. Which of the following statement is wrong
5) January 18
regarding the banking systems?
21. On 22nd August 2012, Supreme Court
1) Group banking means the banks regubanned the tourism in the core areas of...
lated by a group or association
1) Crocodile Parks 2) Lion Reserves
2)
Investment banking means the bank
3) Western Ghats
4) Rhino Parks
assists
companies raising capital by
5) Tiger Reserves
underwriting and acting as the agent in
22. Where the Confederation of Indian Industry
the issuance of securities
(CII) held the 'Eleventh Energy Efficient
3) Universal banking means the banks run
Summit' recently between 22 August 2012
by universities
to 25 August 2012?
4)
Virtual banking means the bank offers
1) Pune
2) Kolkata
services predominately or exclusively
3) Hyderabad
4) Chennai
through the Internet, telephone etc.
5) Kanpur
5) All of above
23. India won Nehru Cup football tournament
36. India and which country signed an agreebeating......
ment to avoid double taxation and prevent
1) Israel
2) Sri Lanka
3) China
fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on
4) Cameroon
5) France
income on 27th July 2012?
24. Indian
Institute
of
Agricultural
1) Iran
2) USA 3) UK
Biotechnology will be established in.....
4) Indonesia
5) Japan
1) Jalandhar
2) Amritsar 3) Mysore
37. Which Stock Exchange became the world's
4) Ranchi
5) Nagpur
largest bourse in terms of the number of
25. ...... launching is 100th mission of ISRO
trades in equity segment for the first six
(Indian Space Research Organization).
months of 2012?
1) PSLV C-20
2) PSLV C-21
1) BSE
2) MSE
3) NSE
4) SEBI
5) MCX-SX
3) SLV C-21
4) PSLV -21
38. Empowered Group of Ministers (EGoM) on
5) ASLV C-21
drought headed by .....?
26. Vanuatu is the 157th member of ......
1) Sharad Yadav
2) Chidambaram
1) UNO
2) WTO
3) World Bank
3) Man Mohan Singh
4) SAARC
5) NATO
4) Sushma Swaraj 5) Sharad Pawar
27. 'Kerosene-free' scheme recently launched
39. Uttarakhand Chief Minister is.....
by....
1) Vijay Bahuguna 2) Raman Singh
1) Delhi
2) Andrha Pradesh
3) Nitesh Kumar
4) N.D.Tiwari
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) West Bengal
5) Margaret Alwa
5) Gujrat
40. Leon Panetta visited India in the month of
28. Neil Armstrong is the first person .....
June 2012. He is ....
1) to walk on the Mars
1) US Ambassador to India
2) to make journey in the space

2) US Defence Secretary
3) US Special Envoy on Kashmir
4) US Ambassador for Nutrition in India
5) None
41. Who was appointed as the head of Rajiv
Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards Committee?
1) Sachin Tendulkar
2) P.T.Usha
3) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
4) Sushil Kumar
5) Abhinav Bhindra
42. Khandelwal committee report deals with....
1) Banking sector human resource management
2) Poverty in rural areas
3) Railway Traffic
4) Human Trafficking
5) None
43. .....became the first bank to offer 'RuPay
Kisan Card' with 'Aadhaar' authentication?
1) SBI
2) OBC
3) Syndicate bank 4) Andhra Bank
5) ICICI
44. Which co-operative bank applied for the
license with RBI to join the group of commercial banks on 12th June 2012?
1) APGVB
2) DGB 3) REPCO
4) CGGB
5) SGB
45. Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT) at.....
1) Gurgoan
2) Jalandhar
3) Chennai
4) Hyderabad
5) Pune
Key: 1-5; 2-1; 3-5; 4-4; 5-1; 6-3; 7-3; 8-3; 9-3;
10-2;
18-3;
26-2;
34-2;
42-1;

11-3; 12-2; 13-2; 14-3; 15-3; 16-2;


19-3; 20-4; 21-5; 22-3; 23-4; 24-4;
27-1; 28-4; 29-4; 30-5; 31-1; 32-4;
35-3; 36-4; 37-3; 38-5; 39-1; 40-2;
43-2; 44-3; 45-4.

17-2;
25-2;
33-3;
41-3;

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 19 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 2 d- 2012

-- j---

R. Rajavalli, Himakuntla,
Kadapa
Q: The time now is 5 O' Clock.
'O'

\ j -Z
L? N-J-.

A: 5 O' clock; O' clock = Of the


clock (O' = Of) =

v.
Mayuri Govind, Gandhipur
Q: 1) While the Earth moves around its axis,
only half portion of it receives Sun's rays.

j u had ----N?
J--C !

Past doing

word

A: Ram had lost his bicycle yesterday - Wrong.


Had lost - Had + past participle (PP) of lose
- Past Perfect tense. Past doing word
correct.

He lost his bicycle yesterday - Past perfect


(had + PP)
past action at a definite time
(yesterday)

Q: Did she quarrel with you?

d- (h
* d-
p LC)

2) Dry (up) = To
change from a wet
state into a state
without water =

* nA .
uid state =

Had she quarrelled with you? -

O u
N? Eo -s --T-L.
A: j -- Had she quarrelled ....? -

A: .... only half the portion of the Sun's rays Correct ('Sun' is wrong)

Q: She has a car, She had a car -

Wrong. Did she quarrel with you - Correct.

.
A: She had a car -

eg.: 1) Harden =

3) Melt = To change from a solid state into a liq-

2) The fixed and regular path through which


Earth revolves round the sun is called orbit.
Here ''the" should come before the underlined words - Clarify.

.... through which the earth revolves - Correct

-p C.

nA * v-n-A .

4) Ripen = To change from a raw state into a


ripe (fruit) state =

J--y--.
Verb \- Preposition,
Adverb L ! Idioms, Phrasal verb
N?

Q: Phrasal Verbs

A: Phrasal verbs are all verbs, but not all

The lesser of the two evils!


(Earth - wrong)
Q: Explain the difference among emphatic,
reflexive, material, uncountable nouns.
A: He himself has told me that he has
cheated me (himself here - emphatic).
He looked at himself in the mirror (himself reflexive).
These have been explained in earlier
lessons. Refer to them.
B. Vani Ganapathi, Addanki
Q: Ram had lost his bicycle yesterday.
Ram lost his bicycle yesterday.

idioms are verbs. Idioms


verbs
'The lesser of
the two evils'
idiom.

Fo
-\--. ---,
C
DE n:
o -, \ fC.

-x--- 698
She has a car -

Between cheating and stealing,


stealing is the lesser evil =

\
Q: Inchoative verbs N-~ n
M. SURESAN
Verb

! -N

C.
C
C. OE -s By
hook
or
by
crook

idiom
(

-T- L--.
Verb

.
N

*
j

)
A: Inchoative verbs: Verbs which indicate
Q: Delexical verbs p --T- L?
progress from one state to another -
A: Delexical verbs: -N English grammar
* p L Verbs.
j J-- (research) J v
(vh).

How might finding that out help us?


Srimukha: Mihir is disappointed. He thought
he might get the job,
but he didn't. (

N
E---f.
u -a---o,
F .)

Observe the use of 'might' in the sentences


above:
1) He might be here any moment from now

J 'may' present/ future


-a/ --a n probability E
L---E --E --o.
may -Eo --C !

Nagaraja: The competition might have been


tough. He had hardly the time to prepare.
(

\- ---a. - v---E J-.)


Srimukha: He might be here any time from
now, and we'll know what has exactly happened. (

~-j- \ a.
--p -hC \ J-T.)

Nagaraja: You know one of the selectors. You


might try to find out from her what has exactly happened. (

--xx O
! _ * O ---a, J-T?)

Srimukha: How might finding that out help


us? They can't reverse the selection, can
they? How about one of us meeting Mihir and
finding out? (

C -\- x J--?
- x a- !
N L -\-?)

Nagaraja: By the time we go there, he might


be here. (

\- x--J --\ -

a.)
Look at the following expressions from the
dialogue above:
He might be here any time from now
He thought he might get the job
You might try to find out from her what has
happened
How might finding that out help us?

1) 'Might'

Present/
Eo L----E .

a) He

may

future

b) He might pass

( Bh-g--a d p)
c) It may rain ({ a)
It might rain (h- \- a n pJ-hC).
This is the first use of 'Might'
2) 'Might' is the past form of 'May' (Present/
future
'may'
(past)
'might'

-a/ a/ --a ! N-
E
--a/ -a n
)

Devanand: Prakash says he may buy a flat in


this area.
flat

(-- v
v -o)

Sashank: She may know what exactly happened that day.

( V J-T

L--a)
Abhiram: I doubt. Somebody told me that she
might not know anything because she was
not there

( -. \ -x O L-aE
o)
N- (Past) -Eo L---hC,
might, may past form.
3) 'Might present Polite suggestions (j
u----i --
Present)
(

h -\-, j--- v-Ao-a.)
Sameer: What are we to do next? (
y L?)

( Bh-g-a. C/
)

--aE

Damodar: But he told me that he might buy


one in Hyderabad.
flat
Past)

(F, j---
-aE p

P. Ramanujam, Pydipalli
Q: If a student/ pupil has to request his
teacher/principal which of the following is
correct request form?
a) Shall I go there, sir? (Orally)
b) May you please give me leave for one day?
(Written)
A: Sir (If the teacher is a man)/ Madam (If the
teacher is woman) please
a) shall I go there, sir? (Correct)
b) May you please ... (Wrong)
Please give me/ sir, please give me/ could
you give me leave for one day? (Correct)
Q: Explain whether the following sentences are
correct or not?

If you cannot find the book in that shop, you


shop
might try in Hyderabad.

pass

h LT . English get, have,


take, make, give verbs dictionary
*a n- NN prepositions
L n- .
Get = ; n- get ill,
get going etc. -. N- take,
have verbs .
Q: -C vO v- Tx-j h
o, j guidance ----.
---J OJa N?
A: English ni, -- English news
paper, English stories -L. Oj--px
English x-L. English TV news
N y English x
hF, -- -C---a.

Tarun: That beats me, sir. You might consult


some expert, sir.
(Polite
suggestion)

( n .
* EE v-C---a--)

Kesav: How do we know the results, boy?


What were you suggesting?

( L--
-h? y -o?)
Narayan: I was saying you might
phone the Deputy
Registrar, and ask
him at least about
the date, sir)

(-o-- O
Deputy Registrar
phone

D
---aE.) Might phone
- Polite suggestion.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

You should have raised your doubts when


the question papers were being given.
A: Correct.
Having been given the class/ taken the class,
he went away.
A: Having taken the class, he went away Correct
Don't make noise/ a noise.
A: Don't make a noise - Correct.
The largest chord of a circle is called as/
called ....
A: The largest chord of circle is called ... Correct (Called as - wrong)
I hope my brother will get a job/ my brother
gets a job.
A: Both are correct.
P. Ramji Singhania, Vijayawada
Q: He was burnt following the incident - underline

-E n--N?
(E L-)
Q: Clause, Predicate u N?
A: Following = as a result of

A: Clause - a group of words with a subject and


a verb.
Predicate - Part of a sentence talking about
the subject.
Though he is rich, he spends little money.
In the sentence above,
1) Though he is rich - one clause (He: subject,
is: verb)
2) He spends little - Another clause (He: subject, spends: verb)
In the sentence above, there are two predicates
i.e. "is rich", "spends little"
In any sentence, the number of clauses =
the number of verbs.
For all practical purposes, we can say that
a group of words with a verb is a clause.

- 20 d- 2012
1. Which of the following cannot be a market
situation?
1) One seller, many buyers
2) Many sellers and many buyers
3) Few sellers and many buyers
4) Many sellers and few buyers
5) None of the above
2. On the basis of geographical area, this kind
of market does not exist.
1) Retail Market
2) Local Market
3) Regional Market 4) National Market
5) Global Market
3. Importance of marketing has increased in
the recent years due to which of the following
1) Consumer experiencing wide choices of
goods and services
2) Availability of information to consumer
about goods and services
3) Customised and target communications
and offerings
4) All the above
5) None

-- j---
thrust is on:
1) Need to develop market
2) Expand the market by penetration
3) Protect the market share by retaining
the existing customers
4) Cut cost and reposition the product
5) Any of the above
13. Which of the following is a reason for product elimination?
1) Sales keep declining continuously without any possibility for improvement
2) Profit keeps declining continuously without any possibility for improvement
3) Product prices are declining continuously without any possibility for improvement
4) Emergence and growth of substitute
products
5) All the above
14. When a firm adds attractive business that is
unrelated to the existing business, such
growth strategy is called:

3) Study
on
Frequency of
occurring
things.
4) All the above
5) None of the
above
21. Under marginal
cost
pricing,
which of the following is generally ensured
by a bank or firm
1) Fixed cost is fully recovered
2) Fixed costs and variable costs are fully
recovered
3) Variable cost is fully recovered but fixed
cost is not covered
4) Variable cost is fully recovered and fixed
cost is partial recovered
5) All the above
22. A news paper has fixed different prices for
different locations, regions of countries, it
is called:

What is 'casual research'?


4. Services offered by the banks fall under category of goods
1) Inseparable
2) Which can be touched
3) Intangible
4) Which can be evaluated only after use
5) All the above
5. It is difficult to standardize the output of certain services, as these are delivered by
human beings. This element is reflected in
which of the following terms.
1) Intangible
2) Inseparable
3) Heterogeneous
4) Perishable
5)All the above
6. The process of production and consumption
of services take place simultaneously is
called
1) Market
2) Marketing
3) Services
4) Products
5) All the above
7. Which of the following additional tools are
included in the marketing mix for services?
1) People
2) Physical evidence
3) Process
4) 1, 2 & 3
5) 1 & 2
8. Under the concept of marketing, anything
that can be offered to satisfy a want or need
is called:
1) Goods
2) Services
3) Product
4) Any of the above
5) None
9. Successful firms make efforts to reach
which of the following level of a product hierarchy for customer attraction:
1) Core benefit
2) Expected product
3) Augmented product
4) Potential product
5) None of the above
10. ............. comprises the process of developing and maintaining a portfolio of products
that satisfy the needs of the customers from
different segments:
1) Product mix
2) Product planning
3) Product marketing
4) Product manufacturing
5) None of the above
11. Different products remain in existence for a
different limited period. This is called:
1) Product life cycle
2) Product life
3) Product maturity
4) Product decline
5) Product growth cycle
12. At growth stage of a product, the strategic

MARKETING

1) Geographical pricing
2) Discrimination pricing
3) Marginal cost pricing
4) Value pricing
5) Product-mix pricing
23. Which of the following pricing
strategy is not suitable for new
products?

K.V. Gnana Kumar


1) Intensive growth
2) Integrative growth
1) Market skimming
3) Diversification growth
2) Discriminatory pricing
4) Any of the above
3) Market penetration
5) None of the above
4) Promotional pricing
15. Zero level channel implies:
5) None of the above
1) Retail Trades selling through salesmen
24. Which of the following actions on the part
2) Direct selling by manufacturer to the
of the marketing channels is a part of
consumer
market information?
3) Retailer selling to consumer directly
1) Gather information about current
4) All the above
customers
5) None of the above
2) Gather information about potential
16. When single price is charged for all concustomers
sumers without any discrimination, it is
3) Gather information about competitors
known as:
4) Disseminate the information to producer
1) Pricing strategy 2) Single price
5) All the above
3) Fixed price
4) Dynamic price
25. What do you mean by Brand Rejuvenation?
5) Variable price
1) It is like up-selling in credit card
17. What among the following purposes, for
2) Cross selling a product to the existing
the consumer, is served by the price?
customer
1) Allocation of purchasing power among
3) Attracting/refocusing the attention of
various products according to need
customer
2) Information about the quality or value of
4) None of the above
5) All the above
the product
26. A bank makes use of certain other persons
3) Details about availability of the product
on hire basis for marketing of bank
4) 1 & 2
5) 1, 2 & 3
services. This process is called:
18. Business of a bank is increasing, but
1) Direct sale agents
increase of business of other banks is high2) Direct marketing agents
er than the increase in the business of the
3) Direct representatives
concerned bank. The result would be:
4) Outsourcing of financial services
1) Lowering of profits
5) All the above
2) Lowering of business turnover
27. Which of the following is not a part of the
3) Lowering of market price
promotion process in marketing?
4) Increase in market share
1) Persuasion
2) Information
5) All the above
3) Reminding
4) Reinforcing
19. In India which among the following deter5) Manufacturing quality product
mines the prices of banking products:
28. A paid form of non-personal presentation
1) Government of India
and promotion is called:
2) Reserve Bank of India
1) Direct Marketing
2) Personal selling
3) Policy formulation by IBA
3) Advertising
4) Public relation
4) Policy formulation by Boards of con5) Product modification
cerned banks
29. A bank offers discount coupons to the
5) All the above
customers availing consumer loans from
20. What do you mean by 'casual research'?
the bank. Which of the following kinds of
1) Establishment of Cause and effect
marketing mix is it?
relationship
1) Direct marketing 2) Personal selling
2) Research which lacks purpose/serious3) Advertising
4) Public relation
ness
5) Sales promotion

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30. While taking a decision on 'brand extension


decision' main factor to be considered are:
1) Value perception from the point of view
of customer
2) Advantage of the product over the nearest competitors
3) Quantity of sales
4) None of the above
5) Only 1 & 2
31. Major functions of a bank marketing
management are to systematically manage
the process of which of the following:
1) Collection of information
2) Evaluation of information
3) Disseminating market information
4) All the above
5) 2 & 3
32. Which of the following is not a factor makes
the MIS important in the present day environment?
1) Information explosion
2) Communication gap
3) Prompt decision making
4) Non-price competition
5) None of the above
33. Which of the following is not a component
of MIS?
1) Internal records system
2) Marketing research system
3) Market intelligence system
4) Marketing Management and science
system
5) None
34. Marketing Information System is concerned
with information relating to which of the
following?
1) The computer hardware system used in
handling the data base
2) The set of input and output reports to
collate and purvey information
3) The structure of people, equipment and
procedures for generating and processing the information
4) The software used for collecting and processing the information
5) All the above
KEY
1-5; 2-1; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-3; 7-4; 8-3;
9-4; 10-2; 11-1; 12-2; 13-5; 14-3; 15-2; 16-3;
17-4; 18-3; 19-4; 20-1; 21-4; 22-1; 23-2;
24-5; 25-3; 26-4; 27-5; 28-3; 29-5; 30-5;
31-4; 32-5; 33-5; 34-1.

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--v- 21 d- 2012

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Time and Work


Work means doing a job like constructing a

wall, painting a building etc.


Work is always taken as one unit.
If a man can do a piece of work in n days,

1
then his one day's work is
n .
1 , then he can
If a man's one day's work is
n
complete the entire work in n days.
If a man can do a piece of work in A days and
another man can do the same work in B
days, then they together can complete
AB
the work in days.
A+B
Three persons A, B and C together can
ABC
complete it in days
AB + BC + AC
If A is 3 times as good workman as B, then he
takes one third time taken by B for the same
work.

are required to complete the remaining


work in 12 days?
Sol: M1 D1 W2 = M2 D2 W1
2
3 = M 12
10 8
2
5
5
M2 = 10 days
Pipes and Cisterns
The problems in pipes and cisterns require

the application of the same basic concepts


of those of Time and Work.
Negative work also will be there due to leak-

age or drain pipes in the questions.


e.g: A pipe fills a tank in 8 hours and a leak in
the bottom empties it in 12 hours. In what
time can the tank be filled when both function simultaneously?
1
Sol: Pipe's one hour's work = hours
8
1
Leak's one hour's work = hours
12
(... negative work)

what time can the


tank be filled when
all the three are
open simultaneously?
Sol: A = 12 minutes
(+),
B = 15 minutes (+),
C = 10 minutes ()
All three together can fill the tank in
ABC
minutes
AB + BC + AC
(+12) (+15) (10)

(+12) (+15) + (+15) (10) + (+12)(10)
1800

+180 150 120


1800
= 20 minute
90
3. A and B can complete a piece of work in 24

How many more men are required?


e.g: A can complete a piece of work in 4 hours
and B in 6 hours. In what time will they
complete it if they work together?
Sol: A can complete in 4 hours and B in 6 hours
if they work together they finish in
46
24
= = 2.4 hours
4+6
10
If 'm' persons complete a work in 'n' days
then the number of days required for one
person to complete that work will be m n
days.
For example, if 3 people complete a work in
4 days, then number of days required for 1 person to complete that work will be 3 4 = 12
MAN DAYS: If 5 men can complete a work in
6 days, then the number of man days required
to complete that work is 5 6 = 30.
e.g: 16 men together can complete a work in
3 days. In how many days 12 men finish
that work?
Sol: 16 men complete in 3 days.
16
12 men take 3 = 4 days.
12
Short cut: The work which 16 men finish in
3 days, will be finished by 12 men in 'x' days

16 3 = 12 x
x = 4 days
If M1 persons can do W1 work in time D1 and

M2 persons can do W2 work in time D2, then


the relation between these quantities is
M1 D1 W2 = M2 D2 W1
e.g: If 10 persons can complete two-fifth of a
work in 8 days, then how many persons

EXPLANATIONS
18 12
1. = 36 days
18 12
25 50
2. = 50 min
50 25
3. 26 12 = 39 ?
?=8
1
4. Work of A for 1 day =
20

1
6. In the first minute A fills
of the tank
4

1
in the second minute B fills
of the tank.
6
5
1
1
In the first 2 minutes, +
= of
4
6
12

1
20

1
Work of A for 10 days = 10 =
2

1
1
Remaining work = 1
=
2

days. B and C can complete it in 30


days and A and C in 40 days. In what
time A, B and C together can complete
that work?
1
Sol: One day's work of A and B =
24
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
1
One day's work of B and C =
Pipe and leak's one hour work
30
G.S. Giridhar
1
1
1
1
= = hour
One day's work of A and C =
8 12 24
40
2 days work of A, B and C
As net work is positive, tank will be filled in
1
1
1
1
24 hours
= + + =
24
30
40
10
1. A can do a piece of work in 24 days. A and
1
B together can complete the same work in
One day's work of A, B and C =
20
14.4 days. In what time does B alone com A, B and C can complete that work in
plete that work?
1
20 days
Sol: A and B together's one day's work =
14.4
4. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He
1
A's one day's work =
worked for 6 days and then he was joined by
24
B and the remaining work was completed by
1
1
1
them in 12 days. In how many days can B
B's one day's work = =
14.4
24
36
alone do the whole work?
1
B can complete the work in 36 days.
Sol: A's one day's work =
30
Shortcut: When two persons together can
1
1
complete a work in 'x' days and one of the
A's 6 days work = 6 =
30
5
persons can complete in 'y' days, then the
other person can complete that work in
1
4
Remaining work = 1 =
xy
5
5

days.

y x
4
A and B can do the work in 12 days
5
14.4 24
= 36 days

A
&
B
can
do
the
whole
work in
24 14.4
2. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 30 min5
12 = 15 days
utes and 15 minutes respectively. A drain
4
pipe C can empty a full tank in 10 minutes. In
1
1
1
B's one day's work = = days
15 30
30
20
B can complete in 150 = 30 days
B alone can complete in 30 days.
100
5. 16 men can do a piece of work in 16 days. 4
A and B together can complete in
days after they started the work, 8 more men
20 30
joined them. In how many days will they take
= 12 days
20 + 30
to complete the remaining work?

... Work is done by A and B in 2 days


2

Total work is done by A and B in 2 2


= 4 days
5. A is150% efficient than B
If A takes 100 days then B takes 150 days
to complete that work.
But A can complete in 20 days

the tank is full.

5
5
and in 4 minutes 2 = tank is full
12 6
1
Now the remaining tank A can fill in
6
2
1
4 = minutes
6
3

The time taken to fill the tank


2
=4
3
1
7. Ratio of their oneday's work = :
15
5
B's Share = 5400 = Rs.3000
9

minutes
1
12

= 4:5

Sol: Work done by 16 men in 16 days = 1


4
1
Work done by 16 men in 4 days =
=
1
3
Remaining work = 1
=
4

16

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-- d -- - j q

Total number of men now = 16 + 8 = 24


16 men do 1 work in 16 days
16 16 3
3
24 men do
work in =
4
24 4
= 8 days
Shortcut: Total mandays required for the work
= 16 16 = 256
Number of mandays completed in 4 days
= 4 16 = 64
Remaining mandays = 256 64 = 192
Number of men available now = 16 + 8 = 24
192
Number of days required = = 8
24

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6. 25 men to complete a work in 20 days. But


after 15 days only 60% work has been finished. In order to finish the work in the stipulated time, how many more men are
required?
M1D1
M2D2
Sol: =
W1
W2
25 15
M2 5
=
M2 = 50
60
40
To complete the remaining work,
(50 25) = 25 men are required.
1. Ganesh can complete a piece of work in 18
days while Ganesh and Laxman together can
do the same work in 12 days. In how many
days will Laxman alone can do that work?
A) 30
B) 16
C) 20
D) 36
E) None of these
2. A tap can fill a tank in 25 minutes and another can empty it in 50 minutes. If both are
opened simultaneously, in what time the tank
is filled?
A) 25 min B) 50 min
C) 44 min
D) 40 min E) 24 min
3. 26 men can do a piece of work in 12 days. In
how many days can 39 men do that work?
A) 8 days B) 12 days C) 15 days
D) 20 days E) None of these
4. A can do a work in 20 days. He worked alone
for 10 days and the remaining work was
completed with the help of B in 2 days. In
how many days will the total work be completed if they work together?
A) 15 days B) 10 days C) 4 days
D) 8 days
E) None of these
5. A is 150% as good work man as B. If A can
complete a work in 20 days, in what time
both A and B together can complete that
work?
A) 16 days B) 9 days
C) 8 days
D) 6 days
E) 12 days
6. A can fill a tank in 4 minutes and B can fill it
in 6 minutes. If both are opened alternatively
for one minute each starting with A, find in
what time the tank is filled.
2
A) 5 minutes
B) 4 minutes
5
2
C) 4 minutes
D) 10 minutes
3
E) None of these
7. A and B can complete a piece of work in 15
days and 12 days respectively. They started
working together and received an amount of
Rs.5400. Find the share of B.
A) Rs.2400
B) Rs.1800 C) Rs.1200
D) Rs.3000
E) None of these
ANSWERS
1-D; 2-B; 3-A; 4-C; 5-E; 6-C; 7-D.

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--E- 22 -d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:
Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U & V are teaching different subjects Maths, Physics, Biology,
English, History, Psychology and French not
necessarily in the same order. Each one of
them has liking for a different colour Pink,
Green, Blue, Red, Yellow, White, and Orange
again not necessarily in the same order.
T teaches Biology and likes Green colour. Q
teaches History and he does not like Yellow or
Orange. The one who likes Red teaches
Physics teaches French and likes Blue. The
one who teaches English likes Pink. R teaches
Maths and V teaches Psychology does not like

and then all the vowels are replaced by the


previous letter and all the consonants are
replaced by the next letter from English
alphabet, which letter will be third from the
right end?
1) I

2) S

3) M

4) V

5) None of these
8. If 'AB' means 'B is father of A', 'A +B' means
'A is wife of B' and 'AB' means 'A is brother of
B', then what is the relation of J with L in
'J+HRL'?
1) Daughter

2) Daughter-in-law

3) Sister-in-law

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

they have in the


English alphabet
?
1) None 2) One
3) Two 4) Three
5) More than three
13. In the following
set of numbers, if
'1' is added to the
last digit and then the order of digits is
reversed, which number will be fourth if
arranged in ascending order ?
567

284

1) 567

2) 284

696

865

3) 696

738
4) 865

Which colour is liked by V?

Give answer 1) if only Conclusion I is true.


Give answer 2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer 3) if either Conclusion I or II is
true.
Give answer 4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is
true.
Give answer 5) if both Conclusions I and II are
true.
16. Statements :

V $ W, W @ T, T # H

Conclusions: I. V T
Red. Maths teacher does not like Yellow.
1. Which colour is liked by V?
1) Pink

2) White

14. In a certain code RAIL is written


as 5796 and TAPE is written as
3748. How is PAIR written in
that code ?

3) Orange

4) Yellow 5) None of these

REASONING

2. Who teaches English?


1) U

2) S

1) 4796 2) 4785 3) 3795


4) 8795 5) None of these

3) R

9. In a row of children facing North,


S. Arun Mohan
Ritesh is twelfth from the left end.
15. Four of the following five are alike in a cerSudhir who is twenty second from the right
tain way and so form a group. Which is the
end is fourth to the right of Ritesh. Total how
one that does not belong to that group?
many children are there in the row?
1)
Rose
2) Jasmine
1) 35 2) 36
3) 37
4) 34

4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
3. Who likes White?
1) R

2) S

3) U

4) V

5) None of these
2) S

10. In a certain code DUPLICATE is written as


MRVFJFVBE. How is CARTOUCHE written
in that code?

3) R

4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
5. Which of the following combinations is
definitely correct?
1) Red-T-Physics

2) Pink-U-English

3) Red-S-Psychology 4) Yellow-U-Biology
5) None of these
6. How many meaningful English words can
be formed from the letters 'ACER' using
each letter only once in each word?
1) None

2) One

3) Hibiscus

5) None of these

4. Who likes Orange?


1) V

3) Two

4) Three

1) UTBEPWDJF

2) UTBFQFJDW

3) UTBEQFJDW
5) None of these

4) UTBEPFJDW

1) HJG

7. If in the word FLOURISH, all the vowels are


first arranged alphabetically and then all the
consonants are arranged alphabetically
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION
(1-5) 1.4; V likes yellow.
2.1; U teaches English.
3.5; Q likes White
4.3; R likes Orange
5.2; Pink-U-English is definitely true.
(6-10) 6. 3; Meaningful words: RACE, CARE.
7. 3;
8. 2; J + H
R L : Drawing family tree

4) Marigold

2) PQN 3) DEB

4) TUR

12, How many such pairs of letters are there in


the word PHYSICAL each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as
Hence, Required Code is UTBEPFJDW
11. 1;
12. 3;

Directions (Q.16-20): In the following questions, the symbols @,#, and % are used
with different meanings as follows:
'P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor
equal to Q'.

Now in each of the following questions


assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/are definitely true ?
Hence, V < W

TH

Conclusions: I. V T V > T (Not true)


II. H % W H = W (Not true)
M@E M

E $ C E<C
Hence, H > M

E<C

Conclusions: I. C M C > M (Not true)

II. H E H > E (True)

RH R>H
Hence, N

Reversing the arrangement

Reversing the arrangement

(16-20):
P @ Q means P Q

P # Q means P Q

Similarly,

P $ Q means P < Q

Reversing the arrangement

Reversing the arrangement

J=R>H

Conclusions: I. R # N R

Required Code is 4795


15. 5

P Q means P > Q
P % Q means P = Q
16. 4; V $ W V < W
W @T W T
T# HT H

J % R,

RH

Conclusions: I. R # N
II. N H
19. Statements : L @ K, K A, A $ W
Conclusions: I. W $ L
II. L # W
20. Statements: J # R, R D, D @ F
Conclusions: I. F $ R

KEY: 1-4; 2-1; 3-5; 4-3; 5-2; 6-3; 7-3; 8-2;


9-2; 10-4; 11-1; 12-3; 13-1; 14-1; 15-5;
16-4; 17-2; 18-5; 19-4; 20-1.
(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle, Hyderabad)

'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor


smaller than Q'.

J%R J=R
Hence,

II. H E
18. Statements: N @ J,

'P Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor


equal to Q'.

18. 5; N @ J N

Hence, J is Daughter-in-law of L
9. 2;
10. 4;

Conclusions: I. C M

II. F % R

17.2; H M H > M
13. 1 ; Given Numbers : : 765 482 696 568 937
Ascending Order: 482 569 696 765 937
Fourth Number = 765 567
(Original number)
14. 1;

17. Statements: H M, M @ E, E $ C

5) Lotus

'P # Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in
English alphabet and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
5) KLI

5) More than three

II. H % W

5) 738

N (True)

II. N H N > H(True)


19. 4; L @ K L K
K A K>A
A$W A<W

Hence, L K > A < W

Conclusions: I. W $ L W

L (Not true )

II. L # W L W (Not true)


20.1; J # R J R
RDR>D
D@FDF
Hence, J

R>DF

Conclusions: I. F $ R F < R (True)

II. F % R F = R (Not True)

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

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E-, u- jq, --t- o-@,
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2) ~ v-v-
--j-: http://www.ircc.iitb.ac.in

----vv

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th --j-
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10
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1) v
2) v--
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1)
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2) j o
3) N---d
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-
1-2; 2-2; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-4; 7-4; 8-2; 9-4;
10-2; 11-2; 12-3; 13-3; 14-2; 15-2; 16-3;
17-4; 18-2; 19-1; 20-4; 21-4; 22-3; 23-3;
24-2; 25-3; 26-1; 27-2; 28-3; 29-4; 30-4;
31-3; 32-4; 33-2; 34-2; 35-2; 36-3; 37-2;
38-4; 39-3; 40-3.

(-- - ->-x ----E ->-x -J--


--o- --- -v---u--)

K-j Jq- * uMd


j o-E - K-j Jq ()

* uMd d Kh --h -C.


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1) v-: 11; 2) -- v-: 19
3) -d v-: 35
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--h- *-J-C: d- 15
-j: www.imu.tn.nic.in
x ---.. www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 23 -d- 2012

-- j---

Pooja Pallavi, Secunderabad


Q: The child ran
road/ across
Please clarify.
'over',

over/ on the
the road 'road'
'on', 'across'

Other - additional/ remaining. May be singular or plural.

-E

Only one boy has come. The other


(Remaining) boy hasn't (singular).

One boy is here. The other boys haven't


come yet. (The remaining boys - plural).

--Th E
h N-J-.

A: The child ran over the road


- Wrong.

One boy has came. Other (Some more) boys


will be coming.

Sarvarayudu, Bhaimsa

The child ran on the road = The child ran in


any direction on the road.

Q: squelch sound -

The child ran across the road = The child ran


from one side of the road to the other - It
crossed the road, running.

A: Squelch = make a wet, sucking sound, as


when you walk in mud -

n N? Make a wet sucking


- --C-.

- o
---p a l x -- CT-p, S} j *p, p-J*x a l.

Q: A hawk flew over the heads of the people/ A


hawk flew above the heads of the

Justice
is
no
longer. The Chief
Justice - He was in
the past.
Q: 'H'

-u
-Fo ' l
---?
'? eg:
haste = d, hotel =
etc.

A: H is pronounced as
But sometimes
it is pronounced,
as in History, and
sometimes as
as in hour, and honest.
In 'hasty', 'h' is pronounced as
(hasty =
and not as
Hotel

.
'
'/

d)
'd.

l ' ' . p ',
p ' L --E E-- .

The child ran on the road!


people -

- d v ---.

n -?

A: They give the same meaning.

A: Raju very (much) certain of his success Correct

Q:

A: Another = One more - always singular.

A: Baskerville

A: Milk, coffee, tea, solution, environment common nouns.


Population - collective noun
The words above do not begin with capital
letters, if they are not used at the beginning of
a sentence.
They are common nouns because they are
the names of objects/ things/ persons, in general, and not the names of particular
thing, object or person.

()

King - common noun - name of any man


who rules a country. Ashoka - name of a particular
king - proper noun.

()

K. Srinu, K.P

Dheeraj Singhania, Vijayawada


M. SURESAN

A: The first chief Justice of India was - correct,


because, the person who was the Chief

'Another boy came with you yesterday'.

--E/ -E o

v d v uJh = The first Chief justice of


supreme court was/is - Which one
is correct? Please explain.

Q: Another/Other - Clarify the difference.

Q: The curse of the Baskervilles Please say in Telugu.

-x--- 701

Q: Raju is very much certain of/ in his success


- Which is correct?

nouns? If we are dictated the words like


milk, coffee, tea, population, solution, environment etc., will we have to write the first
letter of the above words as capital? As they
are said to be common nouns. How are the
above words said to be common nouns?

Q: Milk is sold by litres/in litres - Which


is right?

Q:

A: Milk is sold by the litre.

'He
must have been held up by traffic'. He, she,
it
'has'
3rd person 'have'

h- C u C-.

Q: Are the words milk, coffee, tea etc. common

v L ?--

a?

-sx?
A: He/she/ it

You must not park the car here!


Sarathi: When are they expected here?

(x

\ p--E ---o?)
Venkat: They must be here by six. That's the
order.

(Rx-\ J--x L. C

c.)
Sarathi: If they are late?

L.)
2) They must not be late

(x u --

.)
3) Must you do it at once?

(C

?)
(x -u-

i?)
Venkat: They must not be late and if they are,
they have to miss a good opportunity).

(x
u . -u-i * --Eo
p-.)

4) Well, do it if you must.

( F -E

E-h u.)
lessons Have to/ has to
(O have/has ), don't have
to/ doesn't have to, don't need to/ need not
-s --o:

Sarathi: It's raining


heavily. They can't
(can not) but be late.

( { hC.
u p.)
can't but = p.
He can't but go =

x p.
Venkat: Let's (let us)
see if we can help them. I'll (I will) talk to the
officer and see if she can make some
allowance for their late coming because of
the rain.
officer

( x ---
x, { x Jl.
T x -uEo Eo-h- --E -.)
Make allowance for = Eo-.
Sarathi: Must you do it at once? Wait. There's
still an hour to go. If the rain stops, they
must be able to make it.

( p
C? . C.
{ T, x --E J_ a.)

Venkat: Shall I call them and remind them of


the time?
phone

(x
h ?)

Sarathi: Do it if you must.

J*

I/ We/ You/ They have to be/have to + 1st


RDW (go, do, work, etc), and He/ she/ it has to
be/has to + 1st RDW (has to go, has to do, has
to work, etc.)
orders
obligation
duty
necessity

OE
(c-)/
(NC -Lq -),
(hu),
(---) --E --Th.
p
j
- - -E
u the

use of 'must'- as
in 'must be'/ must
+ 1st RDW (must
go, must do, must
work etc) -

DE
- -
Have to/ has to - o
o. , must 1) orders/ obligations,
2) Duty and 3) Necessity J* -
- -C.
1) They must be here by six = Rx-\ J-x L. (order - c)
Sadanand: When are the files to be ready?
files

p l L?)

Vijai: They must be ready by 10 tomorrow.

(-Lq -
( C- N l L.)

u.)

Sadanand: Can I have a little more time

Venkat: OK.

Look at the following expressions from the


conversation above:
1) They must be here by six

(x J---\

(h B--a?)
Vijai: I'm (I am) afraid no. You must finish them
by tomorrow.

(-. - Jh L.)

j -- must L, L E
c (order)/ obligation -NC)- --C ?
must not be/ must not go/ do/ work
etc- --E E (prohibition) J*
-C.
Gopal: This place is vacant. I think we can
park our car here.
park

( \

a -).
Eswar: Look at the 'No parking' board there. It
means you must not park the car here.
board
car

(\ 'x E---
,
Ny-\ E-- --E n.)
El Prohibition --E
must - not --Th.
Sunanda: Can you
wait for five more
minutes?

(
EN- -?)

Haritha: No, I must


be at office in five
minutes. I am
going.

v hC.

Zeeshan, Yellandu
Q: Original - is commonly pronounced in India
as '
' but in Oxford Advanced
Learner's Dictionary of Current English - the
word 'Original' is pronounced as
Which one is right? Similarly, positive as

J->-

J-o

, -L N -d?
A: Original - The 'o' here is pronounced neither
as
nor as
but as a sound between
and
as in 'above' - We do not have this
sound in Telugu. Same is the case with the
sound of the second syllable in positive.

'
'

',

'

l-, ~x p. O
pronunciation CDs (EFLU xN) E,
practice -a.
Q: Article, simple, little etc.. _
-
* , , E -?
A: Article - ()-- .
Rashmi Pallavi, Vizayanagaram

A: He is physically present - Correct

I must be at office office


'must'
duty

h, y

hC.

Q: He is physically present/ He is materially


present - Translate into Telugu.

(-.
ENx office
L.)

\
T-ho.

'has'
correct.
am, is, are, was, were,
do, does, did, shall, will, should, would,
auxiliary
could, may, might, must
verbs
'have'

y
, y

L.
(h-u-E) --

She must work from 10 to 5 to earn her pay


=

@-E | - 10 * 5
E --L.

Keerthana: If I file a request to the RTI (Right


to Information) Officer, will he give me the
information?

(--\ C--J
u-n , - h?)

Vanitha: He must give it. You can proceed


against him, if he doesn't.
(duty)

( yL
. O u
NC
vN--a.)
Proceed against - d v u B--.
JEo N- a-.

(
\ o, , \ ---o-O
-E- .)

He is materially present - wrong.


Q: The students should be prohibited from/ on
seeing the films - Which is correct?
A: .... prohibited from seeing - Correct.
Q: We take great pride in offering the best service in town - Please translate this.
A:

x u-h --C-h-o-,
Jyho.
Q: Student/ stju:dnt/- DEo -L?
A: Student pronunciation: d u- (British);
d- (American).
Q: i) We would have been able to be here if he
had asked us.
ii) We would have got our own house
painted -

u -d?

A: Correct.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 24 -d- 2012


1. Banks usually share the information of CIBIL
at the time of giving loans to the borrowers.
CIBIL stands for.....
1) Credit Inform Bureau (India) Limited
2) Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited
3) Consumer Information Bureau (India)
Limited
4) Credit Information Board (India) Limited
5) Collective Information Bureau (India)
Limited
2. Which paper currency note has more
circulation?
1) Rs.100
2) Rs.50
3) Rs.10
4) Rs.1000
5) Rs.5
3. Till 1969, which sector is the major beneficiary of Co-operative banking system?
1) Industrial
2) Service
3) Education
4) Export
5) Agriculture
4. Aim to establish the proposed Post Bank of
India (PBI) by the Department of Posts (DoP)
is.....
1) To provide banking services with special

-- j---
13. As per the statement given by Finance
Minister on 25th August 2012, Public sector
banks should disburse Rs. ...... agriculture
loan during the current fiscal year 2012-13.
1) 6 Lakh Crore
2) 5 Lakh Crore
3) 7 Lakh Crore
4) 2 Lakh Crore
5) 1.5 Lakh Crore
14. A bill of Exchange drawn in a local
language as per the custom of the place1) Hundi
2) Handi
3) Parole
4) Clot
5) Post
15. Which account in India is called the
common man account?
1) Recurring account 2) Fixed deposit
3) Savings account
4) Current account
5) Kiddy account
16. In the prestigious Yale University's
Environmental Performance Index, India
holds......
1) 140th rank
2) 15th rank
th
3) 170 rank
4) 125th rank
th
5) 128 rank
17. Which state celebrating 2012 as 'Yuva

23. Micro
Finance
Companies provide loans to1) Rich people
2) Government
employees
3) Poor
class
people
4) Billionaires
5) RBI
24. Best example for demand deposit is..
1) Current Account and Fixed Deposit
2) Savings Account and Current Account
3) Savings Account and Fixed Deposit
4) Fixed Deposit and Recurring Deposit
5) Fixed Deposit
25. Which Stock Exchange and United Bank of
India has signed a Memorandum of
Understanding with for offering an internetbased equity trading platform?
1) National Stock Exchange
2) Bombay Stock Exchange
3) Calcutta Stock Exchange Ltd

From Deliberation to Transformation!


focus on rural areas
2) To say Post Offices are not inferior to
banks
3) To resist the dominance of Reserve Bank
of India
4) To get the profits more than Banks
5) None
5. Punjab National Bank and Central Bank of
India will jointly set up a bank in......
1) Mozambique
2) Somalia
3) Sri Lanka
4) Australia
5) South Africa
6. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has
made electronic filing of tax returns mandatory for individuals with income above Rs....
1) 50 Lakh 2) 100 Lakh
3) 10 Lakh
4) 15 Lakh 5) 1 Lakh
7. TAPI gas pipeline passes through. .....
1) Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Panama and
Iran
2) Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and
Indonesia
3) Turkey, Australia, Paraguay and India
4) Thailand, Andorra, Pakistan and Iran
5) Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and
India
8. World Sepsis day observed for the first time
on....
1) August 13
2) September 7
3) September 13
4) August 31
5) September 1
9. Expert Committee on GAAR (General AntiAvoidance Rules) headed by .....
1) K.C.Chakravarthy
2) Vijay C. Kelkar
3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
4) C.V. Anand Bose
5) Parthasarathi Shome
10. The Formula -1 Grand Prix winner list
given. Pick the correct one.
1) Italy Grand Prix - Lewis Hamilton
2) Belgium Grand Prix - Jenson Button
3) Monaco Grand Prix - Mark Webber
4) Germany Grand Prix - Fernando Alonso
5) All of above
11. If a cheque bearing date prior to the date,
when it was actually drawn, it is called...
1) No date cheque 2) Every date cheque
3) Last date cheque 4) Anti-dated cheque
5) Stale cheque
12. Which among the following is not a foreign
bank working in India?
1) Standard Charted Bank
2) HSBC
3) Yes Bank
4) Royal Bank of Scotland
5) CITI bank

4) Madras Stock Exchange


5) None
26. The awards list given. Pick the
correct one.
1) ICC Cricketer of the Year is
Sangakkara and ODI Cricketer of
GENERAL AWARENESS
the Year is Virat Kohli.
2)
Nisan-i-Imtiaz, the Pak highest
A.Veeraswamy
Shakti Varsh' or the 'Year of
civilian honour given to Pakistani
Youth Power' to commemorate
writer Saadat Hasan Manto.
Swami Vivekananda's 150th birth anniver3) Damien-Dutton Award given to people
sary?
who make significant contribution in the
1) West Bengal
2) Tamilnadu
fight against Leprosy, Orissa's state
3) Gujarat
4) Tripura
Leprosy Officer P.K.B. Pattnaik got for
5) Andhra Pradesh
the year 2012.
18. The book written by R.K.Narayan 4) Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana
1) Swami and Friends
Award received by D.R. Mehatha, for
2) The Guide
popularizing Jaipur Foot.
3) Malgudi Days
5) All of above
4) Grandmother's Tale
27. Important International summits and their
5) All of above
venues given. Pick the wrong combination.
19. Disinvestment means....
1) Recent APEC summit held in
Vladivostok of Russia
1) Government put investment in Private
Sector
2) Recent ASEAN summit held in Phnom
Penh of Cambodia
2) Private Share holders buy the shares in
PSU
3) Recent BRICS summit held in New
Delhi, India
3) Government buys the shares in Banks
4) Recent Earth Summit held in Brasilia of
4) Government withdraws its share in PSU
Brazil
5) Foreign banks buy all the shares in PSU
5) Recent NATO summit held in Chicago of
20. Finance Minister proposed to set up
USA
National Investment Board (NIB) under the
28. Theme of 'World Economic Forum on India'
chairmanship of . .....
to be held between 6th and 8th November
1) Prime Minister
2) Ministry of Finance
2012 is ....
3) RBI Governor
4) CBDT
1) Crisis to Revival
5) President of India
2) From Weakness to Strength
21. 'www.paisaboltahai.rbi.org.in' is a ...
3) From Damage to Repair
1) Website of RBI to collect the donations
from public
4) From Debilitation to Rise
2) Website of RBI to bring the awareness
5) From Deliberation to Transformation
among public about Base Rate of Banks
29. In the 59th National Film Awards, the Best
3) Website of RBI to bring the awareness
Actress Award recipient is .....
among the public about detection of fake
1) Nisha Shetty
2) Kajal Aggarwal
currency notes
3) Rekha Ganesan 4) Vidya Balan
4) Website of Government of India to tell
5) Anushka Sharma
the people to save money to counter
30. Kaushik Basu is recently appointed as the
Inflation
Chief Economist of...
5) None
1) World Bank
2) IMF
3) ADB
22. Which committee submitted recommenda4) AFD
5) RBI
tions to review the guidelines on restruc31. The policy rates/Reserve ratios declared by
tured advances of banks and financial
RBI from time to time given. Pick the wrong
institutions?
combination.
1) Janaki Raman
2) Upadhyaya
1) SLR - 23%
2) CRR - 4.5%
3) Mahapatra
4) Tarapore
3) RR - 8%
4) RRR - 7%
5) C.Ranga Rajan
5) Bank Rate - 10%

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

32. National Housing Bank (NHB) granted


Rs. ...... crore under rural housing Fund on
13th September 2012.
1) 2500 2) 1500
3) 6000
4) 4000 5) 8000
33. World Bank appointed whom as the country
director of India on 10th September 2012?
1) Vineeth Verman 2) Raghuram Rajan
3) Onno Ruhl
4) C.Ranga Rajan
5) Y.V.Reddy
34. If an account opened by Account holder
and written nominee name, if nominee dies
first then.. .........
1) Account holder loose the amount in the
account
2) Account holder is not allowed to write
another's name as nominee
3) Account holder must open other account
4) Account holder is allowed to write another's name as nominee
5) Account holder must close the account
35. SX-40 is the new flagship index of the....
1) NSE
2) BSE
3) KSE
4) MCX-SX
5) HSE
36. Present Heads of State/ Government
given. Pick the wrong option.
1) Australia - Kevin Rudd
2) USA - Barack Obama
3) Canada - Stephen Harper
4) Bhutan - Jigme Khesar Namgyel
Wangchuck
5) Afghanistan - Hamid Karzai

KEY
1-2; 2-3; 3-5; 4-1; 5-1; 6-3; 7-5; 8-3; 9-5;
10-5; 11-4; 12-3; 13-1; 14-1; 15-3;
16-4; 17-3; 18-5; 19-4; 20-1; 21-3; 22-3;
23-3; 24-2; 25-3; 26-5; 27-4; 28-5; 29-4;
30-1; 31-5; 32-4; 33-3; 34-4; 35-4; 36-1.

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-- 24 -d- 2012

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--Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---..

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 25 -d- 2012


1. Internet Protocol Version 4, Consists of how
many bits?
1) 16 bits
2) 8 bits
3) 30 bits
4) 32 bits
5) 64 bits
2. A computer virus is a software program
which has the essential ability to1) Clone itself
2) Hide itself
3) Damage Program
4) Damage Data
5) None of these
3. Which of the following is the short cut for
opening Task Manager?
1) Ctrl + Shift + Del
2) Alt + Shift + Del
3) Ctrl + Alt + Del
4) Alt + Windows + Del
5) None of these
4. A ....... is approximately equal to one billion
bytes.
1) Kilobyte
2) Bit
3) Gigabyte
4) Megabyte
5) None of these

-- j---
11. Which of the following is not an example of
hardware?
1) Word
2) Printer
3) Monitor
4) Mouse
5) Scanner
12. Peripheral Devices such as Printers and
Plotters are considered to be:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Data
4) Information
5) None of these
13. Find the odd one out.
1) Hard Disk
2) Flash Drive
3) DVD
4) CD
5) Monitor
14. To move the data from one part of the document to another, which of the following is
used?
1) Cut and Paste
2) Copy and Paste
3) Cut and Delete
4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert
15. Which of the following is the full form of
LSI?

1) Asymmetric
Digital
Subscriber Line
2) Anti
Dot
Subscriber Line
3) Asymmetric
Digital System
Line
4) Anti
Digital
System Line
5) None of these
20. 'FIND' option is available under which of the
following menu?
1) Tools
2) View
3) File
4) Edit
5) None
21. Which of the following keys launches 'Start'
button?
1) Windows
2) Shift 3) Shortcut
4) Esc
5) None of these
22. Which of the following is not a type of error?
1) Logical Error
2) Runtime Error
3) Syntax Error
4) All the above

What is the full form of USB?


5. Which of the following operations is not performed by Computer?
1) Taking the input
2) Processing
3) Controlling
4) Understanding
5) None of these
6. ....... is a set of computer programs used on
a computer to help perform tasks.
1) An instruction
2) Software
3) Memory
4) Processor
5) None of these
7. What is the capacity of a standard 3.5'' floppy disk?
1) 1.44 GB
2) 1.44 MB
3) 1.44 KB
4) 1.44 B
5) None of these
8. Which of the following Operating Systems
does not have a Graphical User Interface?
1) UNIX
2) LINUX
3) Microsoft Windows
4) Mac OS
5) None of these
9. Which of the following shortcut keys is used
to check spelling in Microsoft Word?
1) F1
2) F5
3) F4
4) F7
5) None of these
10. A collection of programs that controls how
the computer runs and processes information is called:
1) Operating System
2) Computer
3) Office
4) Compiler
5) Interpreter

p, N--

5) None of these
23. '.bmp' extension is used by which
of the following software?
1) MS- Powerpoint 2) MS- Word
3) MS-Excel
4) Paint
5) All the above
COMPUTER AWARENESS
24. Which of the following is the min1) Low Scale Information
imum zoom percentage supportKVN Prashanth Kumar
2) Large Scale Information
ed by MS Word?
3) Low Scale Integration
1) 10%
2) 15%
3) 25%
4) Large Scale Integration
4) 4%5) None of these
5) Local Scale Integration
25. DSL is an example of ............ connection.
16. Which of the following is an active cell in
1) Network
2) Wireless
Excel?
3) Slow
4) Broadband
1) Current Cell
2) Formula
5) None of these
3) Range
4) Cell Address
26. The number of pixels displayed on a screen
5) None of these
is known as the screen .....
17. Which of the following is the short cut key to
1) Resolution
2) Colour Depth
center a paragraph?
3) Refresh Rate
4) Viewing Size
1) Ctrl + C
2) Ctrl + E
5) None of these
3) Alt + P
4) Alt + C
27. Which of the following is the correct order of
5) None of these
the four major functions of a computer?
18. In windows XP, what does 'XP' stand for?
1) Process, Output, Input, Storage
1) XTRA Programming
2) Input, Output, Process, Storage
2) XTREME Programming
3) Process, Storage, Input, Output
3) XTRA Processing
4) Input, Process, Output, Storage
4) XTREME Power
5) None of these
5) None of these
28. ....... servers store and manage files for net19. ADSL is the abbreviation of:
work users.

q L. --J-NA: 40 x.
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Delhi

.1500 L.
-j J>-Z-: d- 1 * 17
-j: www.bsnl.co.in

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For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

1) Authentication
2) Main
3) Web
4) File
5) None of these
29. Which of the following keys is used to move
to the bottom of the document?
1) Insert key
2) Home Key
3) Ctrl + End
4) End
5) None of these
30. Which of the following folder retains copies
of mails that are started but are not yet
ready to send?
1) Inbox
2) Outbox
3) Drafts
4) Sent Items 5) Address Box
31. Date and time are available on the desktop
are available at which of the following
places?
1) TaskBar
2) My Computer
3) Recycle Bin
4) Only 2 and 3
5) None of these
32. What is the full form of USB?
1) Universal Security Block
2) Universal Security Bus
3) Under Security Block
4) Universal Serial Block
5) Universal Serial Bus
33. Before beginning to use e-mail, one must
have a(n)
1) Printer
2) Mouse
3) Server
4) Scanner
5) e-mail Account
34. Which of the following is the slowest
Internet connection?
1) Digital Subscriber Line 2) T1
3) Cable Modem
4) Leased Line
5) Dial-Up
35. What happens when Ctrl + V is pressed?
1) A capital V letter is typed into your document at the cursor point
2) The selected item is pasted from the
clipboard
3) The selected item is pasted to the
Clipboard.
4) The selected drawing objects are distributed vertically on the page.
5) None of these
36. The speed of the clock frequency of a
micro-processor is measured in ....
1) Hertz
2) Baud Rate
3) CPS
4) Bits
5) Bytes/sec
37. Which among the following has the smallest storage capacity?
1) Hard Disk
2) Floppy Disk
3) CD
4) DVD 5) Zip Disk
38. How many types of views are present in
Power point?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6 5) None
39. Which of the following Computer languages
is used for Artificial Intelligence?
1) FORTRAN 2) PROLOG
3) C
4) COBOL
5) None of these
40. What is the full form of SQL, related to
Database?
1) Structured Queue Language
2) Systematic Queue Language
3) Structured Query Language
4) Systematic Query Language
5) None of these
KEY
1-4; 2-1; 3-3; 4-3; 5-4; 6-2; 7-2; 8-1; 9-4;
10-1; 11-1; 12-1; 13-5; 14-1; 15-4; 16-1;
17-2; 18-2; 19-1; 20-4; 21-1; 22-5; 23-4;
24-1; 25-4; 26-1; 27-4; 28-3; 29-3; 30-3;
31-1; 32-5; 33-5; 34-5; 35-2; 36-1; 37-2;
38-2; 39-2; 40-3.
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)

--- 25 -d- 2012


1.

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 26 -d- 2012

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS)-2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge
1. A person who used his or her expertise to gain
access to other people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a
A) hacker
B) analyst C) instant messenger
D) programmer
E) spammer
2. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors isA) multi programming
B) multi tasking
C) time-sharing
D) multi processing
E) None of these
3. A central computer that holds collections of data
and programs for many PCs, workstations, and
other computers is a(n)A) super computer B) mini computer
C) laptop
D) server E) None of these
4. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter
data in Excel is called aA) tab
B) cell
C) box
D) range
E) None of these
5. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel
over telephone lines is called
A) red wire B) blue cord
C) tower
D) modem E) None of these
6. Also called laptop computers, ..... are lightweight,
portable computers with built-in monitors, keyboards, hard disk drives, batteries, and AC
adapters.
A) desktop computers
B) micro computers
C) notebook computers D) workstations
E) None of these
7. Total memory of system can be known using
A) DIR commands
B) MEM commands
C) Warm boot
D) TOT MEM commands E) None of these
8. Tiny, specialized microprocessors installed in
'smart' appliances and automobiles are called
A) micro computers
B) micro controllers
C) servers
D) workstations
E) None of these
9. A system that connects, usually by special cables,
a group of desktop PCs and other devices such as
printers in an office or a building is called .......
A) local area network
B) client
C) internet
D) World Wide Web
E) None of these
10. An input device that converts letters, numbers,
and other characters into electrical signals readable by a processor is called a .........
A) keyboard B) mouse
C) printer
D) speaker
E) None of these
11. Semi Conductor Memory is known as
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) PROM
D) EPROM E) None of these
12. Banks and other big organizations requiring large
data storage use:
A) Micro Computers
B) Nano Computers
C) Mainframe Computer D) Workstation
E) None of these
13. Users access mainframes by means of a ......,
which has a display screen and a keyboard.
A) client
B) server
C) terminal
D) local area network
E) None of these
14. The cut, copy, and paste buttons are normally
located on which toolbar?
A) Status
B) Menu C) Standard
D) Formatting
E) Title
15. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
download?
A) Saving pictures from the internet to your hard
drive.
B) Storing a map for your vacation from the internet to your hard drive.
C) Saving a presentation to a CD.
D) Saving a program from an internet site to your
hard drive.
E) None of these
16. The .gov, .com, .net and .edu extensions are
examples of ........
A) emoticons B) FAQs C) top-level domains
D) URLs
E) None of these
17. .......tags, when placed on an animal, can be used
to record and track in a database all of the animals
movements.
A) POS
B) RFID
C) PPS
D) GPS
E) None of these

-v--y --u-

TIME: 135 Minutes

MAX. MARKS: 200

No. of Questions: 200

18. Which of the following is an example of an input


device?
A) scanner B) speaker
C) monitor
D) printer
E) None of these
19. The OSI model is divided into....... processes
called layers.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) None of these
20. Which of the following is world's fastest super
computer?
A) TOI Tech B) K-computer
C) Tianhe-1A
D) Param
E) None of these
21. Calling on the prospective customers is known
as........
A) Call
B) Communicating C) Prospecting
D) Courtesy E) None of these
22. Business demand which finally comes from the
demand for consumer goods is called....
A) Demand
B) Consumer Demand
C) Derived Demand
D) Sales Demand
E) None of these
23. Consumer behaviour, 'Perception' is a process
through which
A) A consumer make ultimate purchasing
B) A consumer's mind receives, organizes and
interprets physical stimuli
C) A consumer is repeated
D) A consumer is satisfied
E) None of these
24. Reducing the business portfolio by eliminating
products or business units that are not profitable
or that no longer fit the company's overall strategy
is called .....
A) Downsizing B) Eliminating
C) Selling
D) Closing
E) None of these
25. During pricing, the factors customers' demand,
cost function and the competitors' prices are collectively known as
A) 3Cs
B) Consumer Cs
C) Competitions Cs
D) C factors
E) None of these
26. A strategy for company growth through starting up
or acquiring business outside the company's current product and markets is.....
A) Upsizing
B) Acquiring
C) Diversification
D) Centralisation E) None of these
27. A formalized means of obtaining information that is
to be used making marketing decisions is known
as
A) Marketing Research B) Business Research
C) Project Report
D) Market Mix
E) None of these
28. The collection of business and products that make
up the company is ..........
A) marketing
B) business
C) business portfolio
D) market portfolio
E) None of these
29. The method of sending promotional items to
clients is called
A) Drip Marketing
B) Direct Marketing
C) Retailing
D) Advertisement
E) None of these
30. A ........ is a formalized set of questions for collecting information for research.
A) Data collation
B) Information gathering
C) Questionnaire
D) Data collection
E) None of these
31. Any paid form of non-personal presentation and
promotion of ideas, goods or services by an identified sponsor is .......
A) Positioning
B) Advertising
C) Direct Marketing
D) Selling
E) None of these
32. Demonstration is an exercise to .......
A) attractively pack and display the goods
B) understand the customers

or sale of a product or
service is called ......
A) Sales
B) Advertising
C) Sales Promotion
D) Dividend
E) None of these
35. The extant to which a product's perceived performance matches a buyer expectations is known as
A) Customer Perceived Value
B) Customer Satisfaction C) Customer Value
D) Customer Demand
E) None of these
36. In marketing, 'Initiator' is a term which describes
A) Who determines that some need is not being
met and authorities a purchase to rectify the
situation
B) Who most directly involved in the consumption
of the product
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Only A
E) Neither (A) nor (B)
37. A persuading communication between the
Company's representative and a prospective
buyer lies under the class of............
A) Personal Selling
B) Direct Marketing
C) Function Selling
D) Target Marketing
E) None of these
38. Human wants that are backed by buying power is
known as .........
A) Demand
B) Derived demand
C) Consumer demand
D) Buying power
E) None of these
39. Which among the following is not an example of
Direct marketing ......
A) Departmental stores B) Catalog Marketing
C) Mail order sales
D) Online Marketing
E) None of these
40. The process of evaluating each market segment
attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter is known as ....
A) Segmentation
B) Market Positioning
C) Target Marketing
D) Market Mix
E) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 41-50): What should come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following questions?
41. 188.34 + 42.97 + 7228.34 = ?
A) 7395.09
B) 7637.28
C) 7643.73
D) 7459.65
E) None of these
42. 4941 27 + 17 = ?
A) 183
B) 200
C) 164
D) 181
E) 112.2
1
43. 7
3

4
1
4
+3=?
5
4

7
1
1
B) 4
C) 4
A) 4
9
11
14
E) None of these
44. 16% of 350 + 75% of 280 = ?
A) 263
B) 236
D) 266
E) None of these
45.

A) 14
B) 256
E) None of these

C) 4

49. 2.5% of 8501.6% of 320 = ?


A) 16.13

B) 16.96

D) 16.25

E) None of these

B) Pull Strategy
D) IMC Mix

E) None of these
34. A short term incentives to encourage the purchase

-v-- --u-

-v---

50.

4+28

72 3 4
26

E) None of these

C) Promotion Mix

D) 16

42.25
?
46. =
?
25
A) 65
B) 13
C) 1056.25
D) 32.5
E) None of these
47. 47% of ? = 1403.42
A) 2176
B) 2986
C) 2870
D) 2726
E) None of these
5
3
48. of 351 + of 328 = ?
13
8
A) 16
B) 124
C) 258
D) 256
E) None of these

D) knowing the buying power of the customers

A) Push Strategy

C) 216

5476 37 + 14 = ?2

C) prove the characteristic of the product

33. A promotion strategy that calls for spending a lot


on advertising and consumer promotion to build
up consumer demand is called .......

1
D) 5
9

C) 19.25

=?

4
2
B)
A)
5
7
E) None of these

2
C) 1
5

3
D)
5

Directions (Q. 51-55): What should come in place of


question mark (?) in the following number series
questions?

\---

51. 258 275 294 ? 338 363


A) 316
B) 315
C) 318
D) 298
E) None of these
52. 17 37 77 157 317 ?
A) 516
B) 537
C) 637
D) 427
E) None of these
53. 728 ? 342 215 124 63
A) 512
B) 545
C) 618
D) 511
E) None of these
54. ?
1653
546
177
54
13
A) 4974
B) 2314
C) 2348 D) 3291
E) None of these
55. 134
255
?
568
764
989
A) 426
B) 385
C) 399
D) 409
E) None of these
56. How many solid spherical balls each of radius
1 cm can be made out of solid metallic cube of
edge 22 cm?
A) 22
B) 120
C) 121
D) 2541
E) None of these
57. The average dividend paid during 7 years by a
company is 17.5%. The dividend paid for the first
6 years were 12.5, 15, 18, 12.5, 20 and 18 percent
respectively. What is the dividend for the 7th year?
A) 17.5%
B) 18.5%
C) 26.5%
D) 25%
E) None of these
58. There are 26 students in a class and one of them
who is 14 years old leaves the class and his place
is filled up by a newcomer, if the average age is
thereby lowered by one month, what is the age of
the newcomer?
A) 11 years 11 months
B) 12 years
C) 13 years 11 months
D) 16 years
E) None of these
59. The ratio between the ages of P and Q four years
ago was 6 : 7. If the total of their ages at present
is 60 years, what is the ratio of their present ages?
A) 4 : 5
B) 8 : 9
C) 7 : 8
D) 6 : 7
E) None of these
60. Sixteen men can complete a work in fifteen days.
Twenty four children can do the same work in
twenty days. In how many days will eight men and
eight children together complete the same work?
A) 16
B) 15
C) 20
D) 18
E) None
Directions (Q. 61-65): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Following graph gives the demand and production
of refrigerators of five companies A, B, C, D and E (in
thousands)

--- x----:

61. The production of company B is what percent of its


demand?
A) 88.8%
B) 45%
C) 112.5%
D) 75%
E) 40%
62. What is the average production of refrigerators by
all the companies?
A) 3600
B) 25000
C) 36000
D) 31000
E) 24000
63. The production of company E is what percent of
the production of company A?
A) 30%
B) 180%
C) 85%
D) 40%
E) 55.56%
64. The production of refrigerators by company E is
the same as the production of which of the following pairs of the companies?
A) A and D B) B And A C) D And B
D) C and A E) None of these
65. The difference between the average production of
the companies B & D and the average productions
of the companies A & C is
A) 3500
B) 15000
C) 2500
D) 2000
E) None of these

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 26 -d- 2012

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS) -2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


66. A puts

1
1

of the capital for of the time,


2
2

B puts

1 rd
2

of the capital for rd of the


3
3

time and C puts rest of the capital for the whole


time. Then the ratio of their profits is A) 8 : 6 : 7
B) 6 : 7 : 9
C) 9 : 8 : 6
D) 2 : 4 : 8
E) None of these
67. In a tournament, every team plays one match
each with the other teams. What is the total number of matches played if 10 teams participated in
the tournament?
A) 55
B) 45
C) 90
D) 110
E) None
68. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and
132 metres respectively. What is the difference
between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
A) 440 sq.m
B) 510 sq.m
C) 770 sq.m
D) 225 sq.m
E) None of these
Directions (Q. 69-70): What should come in place of
question mark (?) in the following questions?
69.

63 225 25? = 9

A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 4
E) None of these
70. 362.3 61.4 60.8 = 36?
A) 2.6
B) 1.6
C) 4.2
D) 2.8
E) None
Directions (Q. 71-73): What approximate value should
come in place of the question mark(?) in the following
questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the
exact value)
71. 7331 46.93 + 19.08 = ?
A) 165
B) 153
C) 185
D) 175
E) 169
72.

3
11988 = ?

A) 23
B) 32
C) 25
D) 28
E) 19
73. 134.039 + 24.869 + 98.181 = ?
A) 265
B) 252
C) 257
D) 275
E) 269
74. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a
rectangular garden is 5 : 3. If the perimeter of the
garden is 160 meters, what will be the area of a 5
meter wide road around it's outside?
A) 600 sq.meters
B) 1,200 sq.meters
C) 900 sq. meters
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
75. A man buys an article with 30 percent concession
on the labelled price. He sold it for Rs.1,820 with
30 percent profit on the labelled price. At what
price did he buy the article?
A) Rs.1,274
B) Rs.980
C) Rs.1,456
D) Rs.1,092
E) None of these
76. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the
aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 224
marks and is declared failed by 16 marks. What
are the maximum aggregate marks a student can
get?
A) 800

B) 860

C) 600

D) Cannot be determined

E) None of these

77. A 415 m long train running at 64 kmph speed


crosses a bridge in 36 seconds. Find the length of
the bridge.
A) 250 m
E) 350 m

B) 200 m

C) 300 m D) 225 m

78. The difference between 62% of a number and


49% of the same number is 5130. What is 35% of
that number?
A) 4795
D) 4450

B) 4630
E) None of these

C) 4156

79. The population of a city increases by 10% in one


year and decreases by 10% the next year. If at the
end of second year, the population is 99000, what
was it in the beginning of first year?
A) 120000 B) 110000
D) 95000 E) 105000

C) 100000

1
80. A pipe can fill a tank in 4 hours. Because of
2
1
leakage it takes hour more time. If the tank is
2
full, how long would be leakage empty the full
cistern?
A) 30 hours

B) 45 hours

C) 35 hours

D) 15 hours

E) 22 hours

GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions(Qs. 81-95): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help
you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
In India, a certain amount of crop (transgenic)
biotechnology is being put to use. Major efforts are
being undertaken to make cotton pest-resistant. Most
people would be aware of the spate of suicides by cotton farmers recently. Let us hope there will be scientific and technological breakthroughs in pest-resistant
transgenic cotton seeds. Till we achieve success in
this on a commercial scale we cannot be sure that we
will have enough supplies to plan large-scale operations. No doubt, such researches should be encouraged, but we should look at other fronts too. It is necessary for research on crop biotechnology in India to
be focused on our important crops, especially those
related to food security.
We have to bear in mind that the application of
biotechnology may not have any major impact on food
security in India in the next five years, though crops of
industrial value and vegetables may benefit to some
extent. Therefore, we will still need to depend upon
conventional agricultural technologies even while we
target biotechnology for future-oriented applications.
Internationally, no major breakthrough in improvement
of wheat strains has occurred lately. Hybrid rice is
more productive. China had a few major initial successes in increasing the yield through large-scale use
of hybrid rice. India has begun use of hybrid rice
recently and there are plans to increase it. But it may
be noted that in recent years there has been no further
improvement in Chinese production of rice. Still,
hybrid rice will play an important role in India, as we
are yet to introduce it on a large scale.
There are a number of improvements in agricultural implements, machinery, plastics, water technologies, agrochemicals and fertilizers which are possible
and are well within the country's reach. There is an
urgent need to conserve water in a number of ways :
ranging from water harvesting to drip irrigation. There
are a number of good examples in India of water harvesting though these are in isolated pockets. Israel
has made water conservation a national policy and
has achieved remarkable results. India with its size
and with better endowments in water resources can
make miracles happen. A major industry can grow
around such agriculture support systems. There are
also technologies which can contribute a great deal to
agriculture. We need to use all available methods
because the coming years are not going to be easy on
the food front. Let us look at one, space technology.
Remote sensing or taking electronic pictures of the
earth from space is extensively used for assessing
natural resources, land degradation and water
resources as well as to predict crop yield and snow
melt, among other things. Some developed countries
monitor crop yields of other countries to help their own
exports. India is strong in the area of remote sensing
technologies. We have our own high resolution remote
sensing satellites whose pictures are used all over the
world commercially. We also have excellent capabilities in utilizing remotely sensed data for various applications; groundwater targeting, soil salinity assessment, crop yield estimates, and so on. In addition,
space technology can be used very effectively to
assist extension work, disseminate success stories to
farmers, educate them on do's and don'ts, and to help
them ask questions through talk-back facilities that
can be made available through satellite. A number of
experiments conducted by ISRO in this regard in
Haryana and Madhya Pradesh have to be taken up by
other States in a major way. Our farmers should and
can be given facilities to keep pace with advances in
agricultural technology. Yes, it is a lot of effort. But we
have plenty of talent and also the resources. Providing
these facilities in different languages, partly with public support and partly through various business houses and private bodies, can become a good source of
employment generation by itself.
81. According to the passage, the farmers' suicides
were triggered because of:
A) tremendous loss to their cotton crop due to
pest
B) misuse of transgenic biotechnology for breeding cotton
C) intake of pest-affected transgenic seeds
D) reason not mentioned in the passage
E) None of these
82. During the next five years, India will have to:
A) discard the traditional agricultural technology

B) use a judicious
blend of conventional and modern
technologies
C) equip itself to continue with the conventional technologies
D) make people aware of the futility of modern
technology
E) None of these
83. Which of the following is TRUE about the ISRO
experiments carried out in Haryana and Madhya
Pradesh?
(1) Other States have taken up these experiments
in a major way.
(2) Good achievements made by farmers were
publicized through these channels.
(3) Two-way satellite communication between
farmers and expert consultants was possible.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
D) All the three, 1, 2 and 3
E) None of these
84. Which of the following is NOT the implied meaning
of the word AVAILABLE as used in the passage?
A) Affordable
B) Existing
C) Accessible
D) Obtainable
E) Usable
85. Author's optimism, about employment generation,
can be transformed into reality if:
(1) our abundant talent and resources are used to
their fullest extent.
(2) information to farmers is made available to
them in their own language.
(3) private bodies, business houses and general
public extend their help.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3 D) Only 1 E) None of these
86. Remote sensing technology is extensively useful
for all the following EXCEPT:
A) judging the extent of availability of natural
resources.
B) foretelling the production of agro products.
C) estimating extent of land degradation.
D) enhancing the yield of crops.
E) exploring water resources.
87. Hybrid rice, according to the author, will be useful
for India because:
A) China's success story inspires us.
B) India has begun use of hybrid rice recently.
C) India does not require to use it on a large scale.
D) Indians are aware of its better nutritive value.
E) None of these
88. Which area does the author suggest to shift the
emphasis on?
A) Commercial scale operations B) Other fronts
C) Food grains and related crops
D) Crop-biotechnology
E) None of these
89. What results of biotechnology applications does
the author envisage in the next half a decade?
(1) No substantial improvement in food yield
(2) marginal improvement in crops of industrial
value
(3) Slightly better yield of vegetables
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All the three 1, 2 and 3
E) None of these
90. Some countries keep a close watch on the crop
yield of other countries in order to:
A) plan to make up their own deficit of particular
crops
B) look for a better prospect to find a needy market for their surplus yield
C) utilize their remote-sensing technology
D) export the remote-sensing technology to other
countries
E) None of these
Directions (Qs.91-93): Choose the word which is
most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given
in bold as used in the passage.
91. Conservation:
A) Preservation
B) Generation
C) Irrigation
D) Prevention E) Application
92. Spate:
A) Epidemic of
B) Status of C) Increase in
D) Wave of
E) Arrival of
93. Improvement:
A) Magnification
B) Exaggeration

For SI of Police Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

C) Progress
E) Perfection

D) Improvisation

Directions (Qs.94-95): Choose the word which is


most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold
as used in the passage.
94. Remarkable:
A) Wonderful
B) Graceful
C) Miraculous
D) Inexplicable
E) Insignificant
95. Extensively:
A) Briefly
B) Widely
C) Miserly
D) Rarely
E) Economically
Directions (Q.96-105): Read each sentence to find
out if there is any error in it. The error, if any will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors in punctuation if any).
96. The company has launched/ (A) a creative
marketing campaign/ (B) to reach for/ (C) its rural
customers/ (D) No error/ (E).
97. After her retiring/ (A) she established many/ (B)
institutions to train/ (C) underprivileged but
talented children/ (D). No error/ (E).
98. Against his family's wishes/ (A) Rajesh plans
to/(B) take up a job/ (C) as a journalist./ (D) No
error/.(E)
99. The candidate has appealed/ (A) for donations
from younger voters,/ (B) who will be used/ (C) to
defray campaign expenses./ (D) No error./ (E)
100. Most of that country/ (A) hilly land is not only/ (B)
unsuitable for building/ (C) but also for agriculture./ (D) No error./ (E)
101. It is now/ (A) possible for customers/ (B) to handle nearly all/ (C) their transactions online./ (D)
No error/.(E)
102. The minister has/ (A) recently announced/ (B) a
detail insurance plan to/ (C) meet the needs of
the poor./ (D) No error./(E)
103. In the circumstance/ (A) the manager has/ (B) no
option/ (C) except to resign./ (D) No error./ (E)
104. On account of/ (A) its new investment rules/ (B)
more companies are planning/ (C) for open its
business in China./ (D) No error./ (E)
105. He deserves a lot/ (A) of praise for all/ (B) the
records he achieves/ (C) during his career./ (D)
No error./ (E)
Directions (Q.106-110): Which of the phrases (A),
(B), (C), (D) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the
sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct mark (E) i.e. 'No correction required' as the
answer.
106. The crowd which has gather to protest against
the decision slowly returned to their homes.
A) which has gathered
B) which have gather
C) gathering up
D) which gathers around
E) No correction required
107. The bridge in connection with the two cities will
remain closed for security reasons.
A) connects between
B) in connection to
C) being connected from
D) connecting
E) No correction required
108. Newspapers have great power because their
enormous circulation.
A) on account
B) because of
C) as a result
D) owing
E) No correction required
109. Besides criticism of some supervisors the
Chairman still commands respect from the
employees.
A) Despite criticism from
B) Without criticism of
C) Except the criticism from
D) Unless criticism of
E) No correction required
110. He will be handling the next project since he has
vastly experience in this business.
A) vast experience
B) vastly experienced
C) a vast experiencing
D) the vast experience
E) No correction required

(-N- -v-o- '- - -@-x)


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-- 27 -d- 2012

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS) -2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


No. of Questions: 200

(-E-o- --)
Directions (Qs.111 - 115): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given
below them.
(A) His friend, however, used to lose his temper
at the slightest excuse.
(B) Socrates however quietly said, ''I was
expecting this, after thunder comes rain.''
(C) One day this friend decided to test
Socrates' self-control.
(D) Since Socrates paid no attention to the
insults he emptied a bucket of water over
him.
(E) Socrates, the Greek philosopher tried hard
to control himself and never lost his temper.
(F) He began to shout at the philosopher and
even insulted him.
111. Which of the following is the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement?
A) A B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
112. Which of the following is the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
A) A
B) B
C) C D) D
E) E
113. Which of the following is the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) F
114. Which of the following is the FIFTH
sentence after rearrangement?
A) B
B) C
C) D
D) E
E) F
115. Which of the following is the SIXTH
(LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
A) F
B) E
C) D
D) C
E) B
Directions (Qs.116 - 120): In the following
passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
India can be truly proud of having made at
(116) costs some very demanding biomedical
products: blood bags, heart valves and KalamRaju stents, to name a few. However, the (117)
in biomedical R and D or industry has (118)
fully kept pace with the ever-growing demands.
Therefore, several industries will be set up in
the country with (119) technology for the (120)
of medical devices. Polymers, ceramics and
metal alloy industries would help themselves to
produce the required biomaterials.
116. A) affordable
B) expensive
C) trivial
D) significant E) high
117. A) treatment
B) extension
C) implementation D) advancement
E) degradation
118. A) indeed
B) miraculously
C) hopefully
D) definitely E) not
119. A) known
B) imported
C) prudential
D) old
E) traditional
120. A) disposal
B) use
C) manufacture D) utilization
E) sale
REASONING
121. In a certain code DATE is written as
# % $ @ and STYLE is written as
$ @. How is DELAY written in that
code?
A) # @ %
B) # $ % @
C) # @ $ %
D) # $ %
E) None of these
122. In a certain code COMPANY is written as
ZOBQNPD. How is EDUCATE written in
that code?
A) FEVDBUF
B) FUBDVEF
C) FUBDUEF
D) FUADVEF
E) None of these
123. How many such pairs of the letters are

MAX. MARKS: 200

there in the word 'COMPETITION' each of


which have as many letters between them
in the word as they have in the English
alphabets?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
124. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?
A) 19
B) 27
C) 29 D) 31 E) 37
125. If 'water' is called 'black', 'black' is called
'tree', 'tree' is called 'blue', 'blue' is called
'rain', 'rain' is called 'pen', and 'pen' is
called 'pencil'. Which of the following will
give fruits?
A) blue B) rain
C) black
D) pen E) pencil
126. How many meaningful three letter English
words can be formed with the letters DAN,
using each letter only once in each word?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
127. Four of the follwoing five are alike in a
certain way so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belongs to the group?
A) Ginger
B) Garlic C) Brinjal
D) Carrot
E) Radish
128. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, third and
fifth letters of the word 'TECHNOLOGY'.
Which of the following would be the third
letter of that word? If no such word can be
made, give 'X' as your answer and if more
than one such words can be formed, give
your answer as 'Y'.
A) C
B) T
C) N D) X E) Y
129. In a certain code 1 2 3 4 means "He is an
Engineer", 3 4 5 6 means "Her husband is
an Engineer", 2 7 8 means. "He likes
banana". Which of the following means
"Banana"?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 8 D) 6 E) 7 or 8
130. Introducing a man a woman said "He is
the son of my mother's mother's son".
How is the man related to the woman?
A) Cousin
B) Brother
C) Maternal Uncle D) Paternal Uncle
E) None of these
Directions (Qs.131 - 135): Study the following
arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below:
MJ%4TEKI9#PA$Q38N5U7W
B@DF1Z6H
131. How many such symbols are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and
immediately allowed by a consonant?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
132. How many such consonants are there in
the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and
also immediately followed by a number?
A) None B) One
C) Two D) Three
E) More than three
133. If all the symbols are deleted from the
above arrangement, which of the following
will be the sixth to the right of the
thirteenth from the right end?
A) B
B) 9
C) D
D) I E) None
134. If all the digits are removed from the
above arrangement, which of the following
will be the fourth to the left of the twentieth
from the left end?
A) H
B) 4
C) B D) E) None
135. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belongs to that group?
A) I9E
B) 7W5
C) 1D
D) QA3 E) EK4

TIME: 135 Minutes

Directions (Qs.136140): In each of the


questions below are
given three statements are followed
by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both of the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and conclusions
which follow it andGive answer (A) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (B) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (C) if either conclusion I or II follows
Give answer (D) if neither conclusion I nor
conclusion II follows
Give answer (E) if both conclusion I and II follow
136. Statements: Some cats are dogs
All dogs are elephants
Some elephants are animals
Conclusions: I) Some cats are animals
II) No animal is cat
137. Statements: All pens are pencils
All pencils are papers
No paper is book
Conclusions: I) Some papers are pens
II) No book is pencil
138. Statements: Some houses are roads
No road is table
Some tables are chairs
Conclusions: I) Some houses are tables
II) No table is house
139. Statements: All monkeys are dogs
No dog is rabbit
Some rabbits are owls
Conclusions: I) Some monkeys are rabbits
II) No monkey is rabbit
140. Statements: Some books are pens
Some pens are papers
No paper is fan
Conclusions: I) All pens are being books is
a possibility
II) Some pens are not fans
Directions (141-145): In the following questions
symbols @ # % $ and are used with different
meaning as follows.
A @ B means A is not greater than B
A B means A is not smaller than B
A $ B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
A # B means A is neither less than nor equal to B
A % B means A is neither greater than nor less
than B
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/ are definitely true.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I is true
Give answer (B) if only conclusion II is true
Give Answer (C) if either conclusion I or II is true
Give Answer (D) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
Give Answer (E) if both conclusion I and II are
true
141. Statements: A @ B, B C, C # D
Conclusions: I) A $ D
II) B # D
142. Statements: A @ B, B $ C, C # D
Conclusions: I) A $ C
II) B # D
143. Statements: A $ B,
B # C,
C@D
Conclusions: I) A # D
II) A $ D
144. Statements: A B,
B @ C,
C$D
Conclusions: I) A D
II) A $ D
145. Statements: A B,
B % C,
CD
Conclusions: I) A # D
II) A % D
Directions: (146 - 150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.

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A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a


circle facing the centre. D Who is second to the
right of C is not to the immediate right of G. F is
not between G and E. A is between B and C.
146. Who is to the immediate right of C?
A) D
B) A
C) F
D) Data Inadequate E) None
147. Who is to the immediate left of G?
A) A
B) F
C) D
D) Data Inadequate E) None
148. Who is sitting between A and F?
A) C B) G
C) D
D) E E) None
149. Who is fourth to the immediate left of D?
A) E
B) B
C) G
D) Data Inadequate E) None
150. Who is opposite to G?
A) C
B) D
C) E
D) Data Inadequate E) None
Directions: (151 - 155): In each of the questions
below, a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit and symbols numbered 1, 2,
3, 4 are given. You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of
letters based on the digits/ symbol code of each
letter given below and the conditions those follow and mark the number of that combinations
as your answer. If none of these combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, give
(E) i.e. 'None of these' as the answer.
Letter

P K A R E T I M N U J F V

Digit/
Symbol 6 1 H $ 8 3 @ 4 # 7 5 9
Conditions: (i) If both the first and the last
letters in the group are vowels
both are to be coded as '?'
(ii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is
a consonant, the codes for these two letters
are to be reversed.
151. TMAPKI
A) 32 61 B) 2613 C) $613
D) 2913
E) None of these
152. IJFNVE
A) 375498
B) 875493
C) ?75498
D) ?7549?
E) None of these
153. UATEMK
A) 18@# B) #8@1 C) ?8@?
D) #8@1 E) None of these
154. MUEVTR
A) #@89$ B) $#89@ C) @#89$
D) @#89$ E) None of these
155. VNTRKI
A) 49$13
B) 34$19
C) 95$13
D) ?4$1?
E) None of these
Directions: (156 - 160): In each of the
questions given below which one of the five
answer figure should come after the problum
figures, if the sequence were continued.

156.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

157.

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SBI (ASSO. BANKS) -2012 CLERKS MODEL GRAND TEST


158.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

159.

160.

161. Which of the following types of accounts


are known as demat accounts?
A) accounts which are zero balance
accounts
B) accounts which are opened to facilitated repayment of a loan taken from the
bank. No other business can be
conducted from there
C) accounts in which share of various
companies are traded in electronic form
D) accounts which are operated through
internet banking facility
E) None of these
162. Kaushik Basu has been appointed as the
chief economist of ....
A) World bank
B) IMF
C) Asian Development Bank
D) Asian Development Bank Institute
E) None of these
163. P V Sindhu who was in news recently
is a ....
A) Badminton Player B) Tennis Player
C) Chess Player D) Table Tennis Player
E) None of these
164. Which among the following city is the host
for 13th International conference on
Mobility and transport for elderly and disabled persons (Transed ) 2012?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkatta
D) Hyderabad
E) None of these
165. Recently in which of the following country,
the Senahiya military hospital was
inaugurated by Indian Defence Minister
AK Antony ?
A) Japan
B) Bhutan
C) Nepal
D) Maldives
E) None of these
166. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is
overdue for period exceeding how many
days?
A) 90
B) 91
C) 180
D) 182
E) None of these
167. Which of the following is an interest
bearing demand deposit?
A) Time Deposit
B) Re-investment deposits
C) Cash Certificates
D) Savings Bank account
E) None of these
168. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is A) 60%
B) 40% C) 90%
D) 30%
E) None of these

169. Which among the following ministry


conducts Census in India ?
A) Home affairs
B) Human Resource Development
C) Planning Commission
D) Statistics and Planning
E) None of these
170. Who is regarded as father of Indias White
Revolution ?
A) M S Swaminathan
B) Verghese Kurian
C) O P Murugappa
D) Gadgil Shetter
E) None of these
171. Recently the Union Cabinet has allowed
.... % of FDI in the civil aviation sector ?
A) 49%
B) 50% C) 51%
D) 75 %
E) 65%
172. Who was recently honoured with
''Cricketer of the year'' by the ICC?
A) Virat Kohli
B) Kumara Sangakara
C) M S Dhoni
D) Hashim Amla
E) Sachin Tendulkar
173. Recently which among the following bank
became the first bank in the country to
offer ''RuPay kisan card'' with Aadhar
Authentication?
A) Andhra Bank
B) SBI
C) Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC)
D) Vijaya Bank
E) Bank of Maharashtra
174. What is the annual average economic
growth rate target revised by the planning
commission for the 12th five year plan
from 9% envisaged earlier?
A) 8.00%
B) 8.1 %
C) 8.2%
D) 8.3 %
E) 7.9%
175. Who among the following will be the next
Chief Justice of India after S H Kapadia ?
A) Altamas Kabir
B) Dheer Madura
C) G S Singhvi
D) Rakesh Mathur
E) None of these
176. The 52nd national open athletics
championship was recently held in?
A) New Delhi
B) Chennai
C) Kolkatta
D) Mumbai
E) Hyderabad
177. Who among the following has been
elected as the new Prime Minister of Libya ?
A) Mustafa abbu Shagour
B) Mohd Gilani
C) Mehmoud Ul Khannum
D) Mohd Gadaffi
E) None of these
178. Which of the following is not one of the
RBI directives on clean note policy?
A) Currency note packets are not to be
stapled and secured with paper bands
B) Soiled notes are to be stapled before
they are remitted to Currency Chest
C) Water mark window of bank notes
shall not contain any writings
D) Currency notes are to be sorted into
Issuable and non-issuable notes
E) None of these
179. Trade control in India is regulated by?
A) RBI
B) SEBI C) EXIM Bank
D) DGFT
E) None of these
180. Which of the following is a public sector
Bank?
A) IDBI
B) ICICI C) AXIS
D) HDFC
E) None of these
181. When the customer withdraws cash from
ATM, the banker and customer relation
ship is A) Debtor and Creditor
B) Creditor and Debtor
C) Lessor and Lessee

D) Agent
and
principal
E) None of these
182. Recently
the
government has
increased
the
number of guaranteed work days under
MGNREGS from 100 days to .... days.
A) 120
B) 150
C) 175
D) 200 E) 160
183. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Reserve Bank of India empowers the
banks to open branches according to
their will and pleasure
B) Reserve Bank of India is a central
bank which monitors only lending
activities pertaining to export credit
C) Banks have authority to establish the
ATMs at their convenience
D) Rural banks of commercial banks do
not have freedom to issue credit cards
E) None of these
184. Who won the US open 2012 recently?
A) Novak Djokovic
B) Roger Federer
C) Andy Murray
D) Rafael Nadal
E) None of these
185. Which among the following state government
has
recently
launched
unemployment allowance scheme?
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Goa E) Gujarat
186. Which bank has recently announced to
launch the non cash transactions through
social networking site Facebook ?
A) SBI
B) Andhra Bank
C) Bank of Baroda
D) ICICI
E) Axis Bank
187. Service Area Approach is associated with?
A) Industrial finance B) Micro finance
C) Rural finance D) Consortium finance
E) None of these
188. The Nayak Committee has suggested the
turnover method for assessing the
working capital and pegged it at A) 15% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
B) 20% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
C) 25% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
D) 30% of the projected annual turnover,
as working capital limit
E) None of these
189. The central bank of the United States:
A) Citi Group B) Bank of America Chase
C) JP Morgan D) Federal Reserve
E) None of these
190. The New Capital Adequacy Framework
prescribed for the banks is commonly
known as .
A) KYC norms
B) Credit Policy
C) Basel Accord
D) Fiscal Policy
E) None of these
191. Which of the following is the Apex level
institution for housing?
A) EXIM Bank
B) NABARD
C) NHB
D) SIDBI
E) None of these
192. The largest bank in Pakistan:
A) State Bank of Pakistan
B) Habib Bank Limited C) Sonali Bank
D) DBS Bank
E) None of these
193. In the recently concluded Olympics, what
was India's position ?
A) 50
B) 55
C) 60
D) 75
E) 58

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194. Recently AIR India got its first Dreamliner


aircraft which is ?
A) Advanced Boeing 787
B) Advanced boeing 789
C) Advanced boeing 798
D) Advanced boeing 765
E) None of these
195. What is India's rank in the global competitiveness report 2012 - 13 of the world
economic forum ?
A) 50 B) 59 C) 60 D) 75 E) 53
196. In which sport did India get its first medal
in the para Olympics ?
A) High Jump
B) Shot put
C) Swimming
D) Javelin throw
E) Long jump
197. Who of the following is not a party to the
IPO?
A) Registrar of Issue
B) Investment Banker
C) Advertisement Agency
D) Registrar of Companies
E) None of these
198. The credit policy of a bank does not consist of A) Lending policies B) Quality control
C) Loan product mix
D) advertising of loan products
E) None of these
199. Service Area Approach (SAA) is
associated with?
A) Rural and Semi-urban branches of
commercial banks
B) Urban branches of commercial banks
C) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
D) Development banks
E) None of these
200. Recently the 16th NAM summit was held
in A) Iran
B) Iraq
C) China
D) India
E) Bangladesh

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E RACE -d-u- -E-- -%- ---C--*-C.)


KEY:

1-A; 2-D; 3-D; 4-B; 5-D; 6-C; 7-B; 8-B;


9-A; 10-A; 11-A; 12-C; 13-C; 14-C; 15-C; 16-C;
17-B; 18-A; 19-C; 20-B; 21-A; 22-C; 23-B; 24-A;
25-A; 26-C; 27-A; 28-C; 29-A; 30-C; 31-B; 32-C;
33-B; 34-C; 35-B; 36-A; 37-A; 38-A; 39-A; 40-C;
41-D; 42-B; 43-A; 44-D; 45-C; 46-D; 47-B; 48-C;
49-A; 50-E; 51-B; 52-C; 53-D; 54-A; 55-C; 56-D;
57-C; 58-A; 59-C; 60-C; 61-D; 62-C; 63-B; 64-E;
65-C; 66-C; 67-B; 68-C; 69-B; 70-A; 71-D; 72-A;
73-C; 74-C; 75-B; 76-C; 77-D; 78-A; 79-C; 80-B;
81-D; 82-B; 83-B; 84-A; 85-C; 86-D; 87-B; 88-B;
89-A; 90-B; 91-A; 92-C; 93-C; 94-E; 95-E; 96-C;
97-A; 98-E; 99-C; 100-A; 101-E; 102-C; 103-A;
104-D; 105-C; 106-A; 107-D; 108-B; 109-A;
110-A; 111-E; 112-A; 113-C; 114-C; 115-E; 116-A;
117-D; 118-E; 119-B; 120-C; 121-A; 122-B;
123-E; 124-B; 125-A; 126-D; 127-C; 128-C;
129-E; 130-A; 131-B; 132-C; 133-A; 134-D;
135-D; 136-C; 137-E; 138-C; 139-B; 140-E;
141-B; 142-A; 143-D; 144-C; 145-C; 146-C;
147-D; 148-A; 149-B; 150-D; 151-E; 152-D;
153-A; 154-C; 155-E; 156-E; 157-C; 158-B;
159-B; 160-A; 161-C; 162-C; 163-A; 164-D;
165-D; 166-A; 167-D; 168-A; 169-A; 170-D;
171-A; 172-B; 173-C; 174-C; 175-A; 176-B;
177-A; 178-B; 179-D; 180-A; 181-A; 182-B;
183-C; 184-C; 185-B; 186-D; 187-C; 188-B;
189-D; 190-C; 191-C; 192-B; 193-B; 194-A;
195-B; 196-A; 197-D; 198-D; 199-A; 200-A.

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TIME AND DISTANCE


The speed of a moving object is the distance
travelled by it in a certain time.
Distance
Speed =
Time
Similarly,
Distance = Speed Time. or
Distance
Time =
Speed
Speed is usually measured in kmph or mps.
If a train covers 50 kilo metres in each hour
then the speed of the train is 50 kmph.
If a man travels 5 metres in one second's
time then the speed of the man is 5 mps.
e.g.: A car covers a distance of 1656 kilo
metres in 23 hours. What is the speed of
the car?
Distance
Sol: Speed =
Time
1656 km
= 72 kmph
23 hours

speed of 60 kmph and comes back from


B to A at an average speed of 90 kmph.
What is the average speed of the man for
the entire distance?
2xy
Sol: average speed =
x+y
2 60 90
= 72 kmph
60 + 90
TRAINS
When a train crosses a pole or a man or
any point, then it covers a distance equal
to its own length.
When a train crosses a platform or bridge
or tunnel or any length then it covers a
distance equal to its length and platform/
bridge/ tunnel or any length together.
Relative speed
When two bodies are moving in the opposite direction with speeds x and y, then the
relative speed = x + y (Sum of the speeds).
When two bodies are moving in the same
direction with speeds x and y ( x > y), then

Stream/ Current:
Flow of the water
with some speed.
Down stream:
Speed of the boat
along with the
flow = Speed of
the Boat + Speed
of the current.
Upstream: Speed of the boat against the
water flow = Speed of the Boat Speed
of the current.
If the speed of the boat in still water is 'b'
kmph and speed of the current is 'c' kmph
respectively, then
Downstream (DS) = b + c
Upstream (US) = b c
DS + US
Speed of the boat (b) =
2
DS US
Speed of the current (c) =
2
e.g.: A boat covers 76 km downstream in 4

Find the Speed of the Boat?


Conversion of speeds

hours. If the speed of the current is


3 kmph, find the speed of the boat.
76 km
Sol: Speed = = 19 kmph
4 hrs

KMPH to MPS
5
18

x kmph = x mps
MPS to KMPH

Boat + Current = 19

18
5
e.g.: 72 kmph is how many mps?

x mps = x kmph

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

5
Sol: 72 = 20 mps
18
e.g.: In what time can a car cover 315 metres
at a speed of 54 kmph?
Sol: Distance = 315 m,
5
Speed = 54 kmph = 54 = 15 mps
18
Distance
315 m
Time = = = 21 sec.
Speed
15 mps
When two equal distances are covered
with two different speeds x, y, then the
2xy
average speed =
x+y
e.g.: A man goes from A to B at an average
1. A car covers a distance of
190 km at 80 km/hr and next
190 km at 120 km/hr. What is the
average speed of the car whole
journey?
A) 100 kmph
B) 78 kmph
C) 96 kmph
D) 90 kmph
E) None of these
2. In what time a 350 m long train
running at 108 kmph speed can
overtake a 175 m long train
running at 36 kmph speed?
A) 26.25 sec
B) 12.5 sec
C) 21.75 sec
D) 32.15 sec
E) None of these
3. A car takes 5 hours to cover a
distance of 300 km. How much
should the speed in km/hr be
maintained to cover the same
4 th of the previous
distance in __
5
time?
A) 50 kmph
B) 60 kmph
C) 45 kmph
D) 75 kmph
E) None of these
4. A boat covers 189 km upstream
in 7 hours. If the speed of the
current of the stream is 4 kmph,
find the speed of the boat.
A) 23 kmph
B) 27 kmph
C) 32 kmph
D) 21 kmph
E) None of these

Boat = 19 3 = 16 kmph
1. A 150 m long train running at
G.S. Giridhar
36 kmph speed crosses a bridge in
the relative speed = x y
27 sec. Find the length of the
(Difference of the speeds).
bridge.
e.g.: A 360 m long train crosses a signal pole in
Sol: Let the length of the platform be 'x' metres
18 seconds. Find the speed of the train in
kmph?
Distance = (150 + x) m,
Sol: Distance = 360 m, Time = 18 sec
Distance
Speed =
time
360 m
18
= 20 mps = 20 = 72 kmph
18 sec
5
BOATS AND STREAMS
Still water: water without motion. A boat
can travel or a man can swim in that water
with their original speeds.

5. A boat covers 78 km down


stream or 30 km upstream in the
same time. If the speed of the
current is 4 kmph, find the speed
of the boat.
A) 18 kmph
B) 13 kmph
C) 5 kmph
D) 9 kmph
E) None of these
ANSWERS
1) C

2) A

3) D

4) E

5) D

EXPLANATIONS
2xy
1. Average speed =
x+y
2 80 120

80 + 120
= 96 kmph
2. Distance = 350 + 175
Speed

= 525 m
=108 36
= 72 kmph

5
= 72 = 20 mps
18
( ... overtaking is same direction)
525 m
time =
20 mps
= 26.25 sec

5
Speed = 36 kmph = 36 = 10 mps,
18
Time = 27 sec; Distance = Speed Time
150 + x = 10 mps 27 sec
150 + x = 270 m x = 120 m
2. Two trains 125 m and 95 m long are running
in opposite directions with speeds of
40 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. In what
time will they completely clear each other
from the moment they meet?

3. Distance = 300 km
4 of 5 = 4 hours
Time =
5
Distance
Required speed =
Time
300
= 75 kmph
4
189 km
4. Speed =
7 hrs
= 27 kmph
... Upstream = 27 kmph
Boat Current = 27 kmph
Boat 4 = 27
Boat = 31 kmph
5. Let the speed of the boat be 'x'
kmph
Time to cover 78 km down stream
78 km

=
(x + 4) kmph

Time to cover 30 km upstream


30 km
=
(x 4) kmph
But the time to cover both the distances is same
78
x+4

30
x4

=
x = 9 kmph

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

Sol: Total Distance = (125 + 95) = 220 m,


Relative Speed = 40 + 32 = 72 kmph
5
= 72 = 20 mps
18
220
Required Time = = 11 sec
20
3. Two cars start from A and B respectively
and moves in opposite directions towards B
and A at average speeds 44 kmph and
40 kmph respectively. After what time will
they be 294 km apart?
Sol: As they are moving opposite direction,
they can be 44 + 40 = 84 km in one hour.
294
to be 294 km apart it takes =
84
= 3.5 hours.
4. A person reaches his office 5 minutes late if
he drives at 30 kmph speed. However if he
drives at 40 kmph speed he reaches his
office 10 minutes early. How far is the office
from his house?
Sol: Let the distance between his house and
office be 'x' km
Difference in the time taken with two speeds
15
1
= 5 + 10 = 15 mins = = hour.
60
4
x
x
1
= x = 30 km.
30
40
4
5. A thief steals a car at 2 pm and runs away
at a speed of 60 kmph. The theft was
noticed at 3 pm and the policeman started
chasing in another car at a speed of
75 kmph. At what time can the policeman
catch the thief?
Sol: In one hour's time thief can go 60 km.
Relative speed = 75 60 = 15 kmph
(Same direction)
60
Time to cover the distance = = 4 hours
15
Policeman catches the thief at 3 + 4 = 7 pm.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

*-J-C: d- 19
-j: jnafau.ac.in

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 29 -d- 2012

-- j---

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:
Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are
sitting around a circle facing the centre. J is not
the neighbour of N. L is third to the right of K.
Q is second to the left of N, who is next to the
right of L. O is not the neighbour of N or K and
is to the immediate left of P.
1. Which of the following is the correct position
of L?
1) To the immediate right of N
2) To the immediate right of Q
3) To the immediate left of J
4) To the immediate left of Q
5) None of these
2. Which of the following pair of persons represents O's neighbours?
1) L & N
2) P & K
3) M & P
4) N & P
5) None of these
3. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two persons?

5) All follow
7. Statements: Some keys are locks.
Some locks are numbers.
All numbers are letters.
All letters are words.
Conclusions: I. Some locks are letters.
II. Some words are numbers.
III. All numbers are words.
1) Only I & II follow
2) Only II & III follow
3) Only I & III follow
4) Only I & either II or III follow 5) All follow
8. Statements: Some windows are doors.
All doors are walls.
No wall is roof.
All roofs are shelters
Conclusions: I. Some windows are walls
II. No wall is shelter.
III. No door is shelter.
1) None follows
2) Only II & III follow
3) Only I & III follow
4) Only I follows

1) None follows
2) Only I & II follow
3) Only II & III follow
4) Only I & III follow
5) None of these
Directions (Q.11-15): In
each of these questions, a group of digits
is given followed by
four combinations of letters and symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), and (4). The group of digits
is to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. The serial number of the
combination which correctly represents the
group of digits is your answer. If none of the
four combinations is correct, your answer is (5)
i.e. 'None of these'.
Digit
: 5 8 4 3 6 2 9 0 7 1
Letter/Symbol: T J $ # H Q @ L % K
Conditions:
(i) If the first as well as the last digit is

Some windows are walls!


1) PKJ
2) JQL 3) QNL
4) LMN
5) None of these
4. Who is to the immediate right of K?
1) J
2) P
3) Q
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
5. Who is to the immediate left of O?
1) P
2) L
3) Q
4) J
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 6 - 10): In each of the questions
below are given four statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You
have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
6. Statements: All chillies are garlics.
Some garlics are onions.
All onions are potatoes.
No potato is ginger.
Conclusions: I. No onion is ginger.
II. Some garlics are potatoes.
III. Some chillies are potatoes.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows
3) Only I & II follow
4) Only I & III follow

ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION


L
(1-5) :
N
Q
M

K
P
1-2; L is to the immediate right of Q.
2-1; L & N is not neighbours of O.
3-5; None of these
4-1; J is to the immediate right of K.
5-5; M is to the immediate left of O.
(6-10):
6-3; All onions are potatoes.( A - Type)
No potato is ginger. ( E - Type)
A + E = E Type Conclusion
''No onion is ginger.'' This is Conclusion I.
Some garlics are onions. ( I - Type )
All onions are potatoes. ( A - Type)
I + A = I Type Conclusion.
''Some garlics are potatoes.'' This is
Conclusion II.
7-4; Some locks are numbers. (I - Type)
All numbers are letters. ( A - Type)
I + A = I Type Conclusion.
''Some locks are letters.'' This is Conclusion I.
O

odd, both are to be coded as .


(ii) If the first as well as the last digit
is even, their codes are to be
swapped.
(iii) If '0' is the last digit, it is to be
Reasoning
coded as .
11. 270514
S. ARUNMOHAN 1) %LTK
5) None of these
2) $%LTKQ
9. Statements: All bottles are jars.
3) Q%LTK$
4) $% TKQ
Some jars are pots.
5) None of these
All pots are taps.
12. 364279
No tap is tank.
1) H$Q%
2) #H$Q%@
Conclusions: I. No pot is tank
3) @H$Q%#
4) #H$Q%
II. Some jars are tanks.
5) None of these
III. Some bottles are pots.
13. 875306
1) Only I & III follow
2) Only I & II follow
1) J%T#LH
2) H%T#LH
3) Only II & III follow
4) All follow
3) H%T#LJ
4) J%T#LJ
5) None of these
5) None of these
10. Statements: Some fish are crocodiles
14. 592476
Some crocodiles are snakes.
1) H@Q$%T
2) @Q$%T
No snake is tortoise
3) H@Q$% 4) @Q$%
5) None of these
All tortoises are frogs.
15. 468910
Conclusions:
I. No snake is frog
1) $HJ@KL
2) LHJ@K$ 3) HJ@K$
II. Some snakes are fish.
III. Some fish are frogs.
4) $HJ@K
5) None of these
All numbers are letters. (A - Type)
All letters are words. ( A - Type )
A + A = A - Type Conclusion
''All numbers are words.'' This is
Conclusion III .
After reversing ''All numbers are words'',
we get
Some words are numbers. This is
Conclusion II.
8-4; Some windows are doors. ( I Type )
All doors are walls. ( A Type )
I + A = I Type Conclusion
''Some windows are walls.'' This is
Conclusion I.
No wall is roof. ( E Type )
All roofs are shelters ( A Type )
E + A = O Type Conclusion
''Some shelters are walls .''
9-5; All pots are taps. ( A Type )
No tap is tank. ( E Type )
A + E = E Type Conclusion
''No pot is tank.'' This is Conclusion I.
Some jars are pots . ( I Type )
All pots are taps. ( A- Type )
I + A = I Type Conclusion.
Hence ''Some jars are taps.''
Some jars are taps.( I - Type)
No tap is tank. ( E Type )

I + E = O Type Conclusion
''Some jars are no tanks.''
This conclusion is not given in question.
All bottles are jars. ( A Type )
Some jars are pots. ( I Type )
A + I = ' ' No Conclusion.
Hence only Conclusion I follows.
(11 15) :
11-2;
2 7 0 5 1 4

12-1;

$ % L T K Q
Condition ( ii ) applies.
3 6 4 2 7 9

13-3;

H $ Q %
Condition ( ii ) applies.
8 7 5 3 0 6

14-5;

H % T # L J
Condition ( ii ) applies.
5 9 2 4 7 6

15-4;

T @ Q $ % H
4 6 8 9 1 0

$ H J @ K
20) :
(16
A@BA+B

Directions (Q. 16-20): These questions are


based on the following information :
'A @ B' means 'A is added to B'.
'A B' means 'A is multiplied by B'.
'A # B' means 'A is divided by B'.
'A $ B' means 'B is subtracted from A'.
In each question, some information is
given. You have to find out which expression
correctly represents the statements:
16. Total age of 12 boys is 'X' and the total age
of 13 girls is Y. What is the average of (A)
of all the boys and girls together?
1) A = (X@Y) # 25
2) A = (X$Y) # 25
3) A = (X@Y) 25
4) Cannot be determined
5) None
17. Population of state M (P1) is less than half
of population of state N (P2) by 1,50,000.
1) P2 = (P1 # 2) $1,50,000
2) P1 = (P2 # 2) @1,50,000
3) P1 = (P2 # 2) $1,50,000
4) P2 = (P1 # 2) 1,50,000
5) None
18. Number of boys (B) in a class is equal to
one-fourth of three times the number of girls
(G) in the class.
1) B = (3 # G) 4
2) B = (3 G) @ 4
3) B = (3 G) # 4
4) B = (3 $ G) # 4
5) None of these
19. Salary of Mr. X (S1) is more than 40% of
Mr. Y's salary (S2) by Rs 8,000/-.
1) S1 = [S2 (40 @ 100)] # 8000
2) S1 = [S2 (40 # 100)] @ 8000
3) S2 = [S1 (40 # 100)] @ 8000
4) S2 = [S1 (40 @ 100)] # 8000
5) None of these
20. Marks obtained by Sujit in History (H) are
85% of his marks obtained in Science (M).
1) H = (100# 85) M 2) H = 85100 M
3) H = 85#100#M
4) H = (85#100) M
5) None of these
KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-5; 4-1; 5-5; 6-3; 7-4; 8-4;
9-5;10-1; 11-2; 12-1; 13-3; 14-5; 15-4; 16-1;
17-3; 18-3; 19-2; 20-4.

A BAB
A # BAB
A $ BAB
16-1;

17-3;

18-3;

19-2;

20-4;

X+Y
Required Average age =
12 + 13
or, A = ( X + Y ) 25
or, A = ( X @ Y ) # 25
P2
P1 = 150000
2
P2
or, P1 = 150000
2
= (P2 # 2) $ 150000
3G
B=
4
or, B = ( 3 G ) # 4
S1 = 40% of S2 + 8000
S2 40
S1 = + 8000
100
S1 = [(S2 40) # 100 ] @ 8000
S1 = [S2 (40 # 100 ) ] @ 8000
H = 85% of M
85
or , H = M
100
or , H = M (85 # 100 )
= (8 # 100) M.

For SBI (Associate Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

(Writer - Director, Banking Service


Chronicle, Hyderabad)

www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 29 -d- 2012


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 3 d- 2012
1. Among the following banks, which one is
called 'Lender of the last resort'?
1) RBI
2) SBI 3) EXIM bank
4) NABARD
5) NHB
2. Reserve Bank of India formed on the recommendations of .... as it submitted report in
1926.
1) Keynes Commission
2) Royal Commission on Indian Banks and
purchases
3) Hilton-Young Commission
4) Kelkar Committee
5) O.V.Smith Committee
3. Which among the following one is not the
subsidiary of SBI?
1) SBI DFHI Ltd.
2) SBI Life Insurance Company Ltd.
3) SBI Real Estate Brokers
4) SBI Capital Markets Ltd.
5) SBI Cards & Payments Services Pvt. Ltd.

-- j---
14. Bharat Nirman introduced for the development of ......
1) education
2) to build rural infrastructure
3) air ports in the Tier II cities
4) banking in town areas
5) small scale industries
15. Regulator of Stock Market in India is.......
1) RBI
2) Bombay Stock Exchange
3) SEBI 4) SBI
5) UTI
16. The award list given. Pick the wrong one.
1) Spelling
Bee
competition-Snigdha
Nandipati.
2) Gandhi Foundation International Peace
Award 2011 received by Dr. Binayak Sen
and Bulu Imam.
3) For conceiving and implementing microirrigation in arid and dry land regions,
Daniel Hillel of Israel got World Food
Prize 2012.

1) Japan -Tokyo-Yen
2) Canada - Ottawa
- Canadian dollar
3) Syria -Damascus
- Dinar
4) Mexico - Mexico
City - Peso
5) Brazil - Brasilia Real
26. Financial inclusion means.......
1) providing banking services in rural areas
with affordable cost
2) providing corporate accounts in industrial
area
3) giving many joint accounts to save the
money of banks
4) not to allow the banks to open the
branches in village area
5) All of the above
27. Which term not used in the banking?

What is the E arlier N ame of State Bank of India?


4. The second largest Public Sector bank in
India is........
1) SBI
2) Bank of Baroda
3) ICICI
4) Andhra Bank
5) Punjab National Bank
5. Chairman of Insurance Regulatory Authority
of India (IRDA) is........
1) U.K.Sinha
2) Yogesh Agarwal
3) J.Hari Narayan
4) D.Subba Rao
5) Rahul Kullar
6. Abbreviations list given. Pick the wrong one.
1) CBS-Core Booking Solutions
2) KYC-Know Your Customer
3) IARI-Indian
Agricultural
Research
Institute
4) NHB-National Housing Bank
5) CII-Confederation of Indian Industry
7. Which book is not written by Chetan Bhagat?
1) Revolution 2020: Love, Corruption,
Ambition
2) 2 States
3) The God of Small Things
4) The 3 Mistakes of My Life
5) One Night @ the Call Center
8. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(CCEA) approved ........ percent disinvestment in Steel Authority of India (SAIL) on 19
July 2012.
1) 8.01 2) 18.92 3) 10.82 4) 9.25 5) 0.5
9. Public Sector Banks should disburse .........
percent of their total loans to Priority Sector.
1) 40
2) 32
3) 65
4) 100 5) 20
10. On 7th June 2012, Central government
approved a capital infusion of Rs.632
Crores in to the...........
1) Public Sector Banks
2) Private Sector Banks
3) Co-operative Banks
4) Land Area Development Banks
5) Regional Rural Banks
11. In Regional Rural Banks, Central
Government holds the share capital of 50
percent, a sponsored bank hold 35 percent
and who holds 15 percent share?
1) RBI
2) Ministry of Finance
3) Ministry of Banks 4) State Governments
5) SEBI
12. On 20 June 2012, RBI framed the guidelines on setting up of WLA by Non-banking
entities. What is meant by WLA?
1) White Legal ATM
2) Whole Label ATM
3) Wonder Label ATM
4) Wrong Label ATM 5) White Label ATM
13. 12th Five Year Plan period is ..........
1) 2012 - 17 2) 2007 - 12
3) 2002 - 07
4) 2017 - 22 5)1951 - 56

1) ATM 2) Open Market Operations


3) Deuce 4) LIBOR
5) PLR
28. What is meant by money
laundering?
1) a process of conversion of money
obtained from foreign country to
GENERAL AWARENESS
appear to have originated from the
4) Vandana Shiva, an Indian
banking loans.
A.Veeraswamy
environmental philosopher and
2) money obtained in the business
activist received Fukuoka Prize.
and putting in the lotteries to earn
5) None
more money.
17. Which Indian neighbour country has Sheikh
3) a process of conversion of money
Hasina as the prime minister?
obtained illegally to appear to have originated from the legitimate sources.
1) Pakistan
2) Sri Lanka
4) doing two or three businesses at a time
3) Bangladesh
4) Nepal
which is not allowed as per law in India.
5) Bhutan
5) None
18. 19th International AIDS conference 2012
29. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest
held at ........ from July 22 to 27.
award in.......
1) Washington D.C
2) Moscow
1) Sports
2) Hockey
3) IT
3) Paris
4) Canberra
5) Sao Paulo
4) Cinema
5) Education
19. Citius, Altius, Fortius is the motto of .........
30. On 15th August, which country also cele1) Under 19-World Cricket Cup
brates Independence Day like India?
2) Common Wealth Games
3) Olympics
1) USA
2) Pakistan
3) Russia
4) FIFA World Cup 5) EURO cup
4)
Australia
5)
South
Korea
20. 'E-Yantra challenge' is the competition
31. The earlier name of State Bank of India is ...
conducted by .............
1) State Bank of British India
1) Ministry of Industries
2) Royal Bank of India
2) Osmania University
3) ASSOCHAM
3) National Bank of India
4) IIT Trichy
5) IIT Bombay
4) Good Will Bank of India
21. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
5) Imperial Bank of India
Development (NABARD) head office is at...
32. Largest Associate of State Bank of India is..
1) Pune
2) Chennai
3) Lucknow
4) Mumbai
5) Hyderabad
1) State Bank of Mysore
22. Who among the following one is not the
2) State Bank of Hyderabad
Deputy Governor of RBI?
3) State Bank of Patiala
1) K.C. Chakrabarty 2) Subir Gokarn
4) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur
3) Raghuram Rajan 4) Anand Sinha
5) State Bank of Travancore
5) H.R. Khan
33. KYC stands for.....
23. Banks barrow funds from RBI and pay.....
1) Know Your Customer
1) Base Rate
2) Repo Rate
2) Know Youth Customer
3) Reverse Repo Rate
3) Know Your Cancellation
4) Zero Rate
5) Whole Rate
4) Kick Your Capital
5) None
24. Chairman of Committees/ Panel list given.
34. A loan allows the person to pursue higher
Pick the wrong combination.
studies is .....
1) Usha Thorat - Financial Inclusion
1) Education Loan 2) Housing Loan
2) K.C. Chakrabarty - Recapitalization of
3) Admission Loan 4) Passing Loan
RRB
5) Purse and Mess Loan
3) C.Ranga Rajan - High denomination of
35. Per capita income is equal to ........
coins
1) National Income/ Population
4) V.K. Shunglu - Commonwealth Games
2) Population/ National Income
Scam
3) International Income/ Indian Income
5) C.V. Ananda Bose - Supervise the
4) Indian Income/ States Income
unearthing and preservation of the gold
5) None
treasure in Anantha Padmanabhaswamy
Temple
36. SENSEX, India's first equity sensitive index
25. Capital and currency options are given.
launched on 2 January 1986 by .......
Pick the wrong combination.
1) MSE
2) OSE
3) PSE

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

4) BSE
5) RSE
37. Population Census taken for every .....
years in India.
1) 10
2) 5
3) 15
4) 7 5) 20
38. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(NCSC) headed by .......
1) Rameshwar Oraon
2) M.N.Rao
3) Mamatha Sharma
4) P.L.Punia
5) Dr. Shantha Sinha
39. In the acronym BRICS, 'B' stands for .....
1) Bhutan
2) Burma
3) Bangladesh
4) Brazil
5) Burundi
40. Statements relating to Bharat Ratna given.
Pick the wrong one.
1) Bharat Ratna is the highest Civilian
Award in India.
2) First
three
recipients
are
Rajagopalachari, C.V. Raman and
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
3) Jawaharlal Nehru is the first prime
minister to receive Bharat Ratna.
4) Gorbachev is the first foreign national
received Bharat Ratna.
5) Latest Recipient of Bharat Ratna is
Bhimsen Joshi, the Hindustani classical
singer.
41. Shangai Cooperation Summit (SCO)
recently concluded on 7th June 2012 at....
1) Hongkong
2) Shangai
3) Moscow
4) Bejing 5) Hanoi
42. INS Vikramaditya is India's ...........
1) War Tank
2) Ballistic Missile
3) First Atom Bomb 4) Aircraft Carrier
5) War Sea Port
KEY
1-1; 2-3; 3-3; 4-5; 5-3; 6-1; 7-3; 8-3; 9-1; 10-5;
11-4; 12-5; 13-1; 14-2; 15-3; 16-5; 17-3; 18-1;
19-3; 20-5; 21-4; 22-3; 23-2; 24-3; 25-3; 26-1;
27-3; 28-3; 29-4; 30-5; 31-5; 32-2; 33-1; 34-1;
35-1; 36-4; 37-1; 38-4; 39-4; 40-4; 41-4; 42-4.

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--- 3 d- 2012

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4) h-v -- --E
2. - g ---E
--i-C
1)
2) j-x-N
3) Ju-
4) -
3. EKg v- uC \
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3) p-N
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4. --J H-G-%Cl --, Y -
s-v - N-N x
?
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3)
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3) j
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1) ud-J
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19. 'jv--Eq N?
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2) --, F - - %~-
lA
3) yE -- FE Cl
4) F --- ~
20. - h - v----
p % p-?
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2) 5 x
3) 15 20 x 4) 5 EN-
21. u-- u N- --T
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1) 2) l --{
3) d 4) p--

3) t-
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29. 'L E
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31. C- C Nh- y
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1) 2) M-x-
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32. h vN-p o h
1) \- vN-hC
2) vN T--C

'j-v--Eq -- --N-?
5. H \- J- ?
1) 40 50%

2) 15 40%

3) 10 14%

4) 4 7%

6. -x -E-J -- a uC
1) -y
2) vG--
3) L--
4) i-
7. uCE ' E -h?
1) v
2) G
3) -
4) v
8. B.O.D. N?
1) J @
2) @-v-v x ---
3) @ - vv x C v--
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9. x-- C?
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10. -E \ T-
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3) -N
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11. C u vq-O- x
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1) -j---L
2) --E
3) i
4) GABA
12. -
p x pf?
1) j -E
-
2) j -E
-
3) C -E -E-
4) j --E v y--
13. ~-o -
1) -J 2) wj-x --vU-
3) v -vJ 4) J-u-
14. --- -s- --pE

1) -D- p Nu-~ -T
- a
2) -D--
3) p p
4) -E F -G-%-Cl p
15. C-- L El- v- C?
1) YY 2) XY
3) XX
4) D
16. ya -i F pH N ?
1) 0

2) 6

3) 7

4) 9

17. C-- * s -j q
C?
1) J-v
2)

3) h -C 4) D-
33. ' C
*q?
1) s-Ao ---
2) s-Ao v-
22. '-- q Ja -d-u
3) s-Ao h-- 4) sAo -x
\ C?
. -- -v-Dl- 34. -u- C
1) uMx
2) p
1) C4H10
2) C9H20
3) o
4) -
3) q
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23. K-- E -_ - 35. %vA s-p-Ah --T '-q x
E --T-C
v---h?
1) q
2) yE -
1) v v-E
2) -f
3) -q 4) o- J-q
3) v q-
4) v s j j q
24. ' d bK u- -JE 36. E El- ' d h?
\-?
1) -y
2) h-J
1) o
2) L
3) j-
4) J _
3) x
4) Ld
37. Eu --T 'x \-E ?
25. 'jq f E Eo h?
1) 2) v 3) 4) o
1) v@
2) -@
38. 'Md d x E--hC?
3) -@
4) v@
1) -O
2) v ~v
26. Q h @NE Jh-.
3) jv
4) j
1) p 2)
39. 'q u--J vC C?
3) 4) Gs
1) x
2) j-
27. K-E 'd- >
3)

C
4)
d
C?
AB J O h _
40.

L
x

1) 2) -J-A-h 3) B 4) \
, d- P h_
28. ..-. ju K~ E -C-*C?
- C?
2) a--x
1) HIV/ q

----@

1) A

B
2) O
B O 4) AB O
41. uCE 'x E ?
1) x
2)
3) uE
4) jv--G
42. K-x L--J E Jp
J-TC?
1) -J-AAh
2)
3) 4) v-
43. - P pAh v
@-N?
1) \
2) x
3) -
4) pF
44. @q l-Eo vA--C-*C
1)
2)- .-._
3) s x 4) q, v
45. K--E 't-d- E- vC C?
1) j-
2) v-
3) uK
4) j-
46. \ @N--C
1) -L 2) j- 3) - 4)
47. @, EKb ~-- v-JzC C?
1) ud-J
2) -O
3) j
4) FL -a j-
48. vx q- p-Ah NE--T
\ C?
1) jvx 2) xx 3) d 4) -J-
49. - y L-j
@N --C?
1) *> 2) Jx
3) Lp
4) AN-
50. v--- s
t- C?
1) J
2) - x
3) O
4) C-L
-: 14; 22; 31; 41; 52; 63; 73; 83;
94; 104; 113; 121; 132; 141; 152; 163; 173;
182; 191; 202; 211; 224; 234; 244; 253;
261; 273; 281; 292; 302; 314; 322;
331; 341; 351; 362; 371; 383; 392;
401; 411; 422; 431; 443; 454; 463;
473; 481; 493; 501.
3) A

(- -- >-x --- -v--y --o- --- ---u--)

vq d: -J 13
v-yu, q- yu: Ja 720
-j: www.admission.tiss.edu

Gq-\ -v- vv

-F-E Gx -d-u o-@


--E -d-u jq (Gq) -u- \ -v- Jo
jq () @ vv---x v--E --h
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/ q: \, ---
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t-E-Z-.
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vv-x v--E --h -C.


-v- d vU vv: H >-F-J
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|: Hq/ o- x--- -C
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u vU vv: (u-u-a-J
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: --N J, \ q--J-q
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-j J>-Z-- *-J-C: d- 31
-j: www.bits-pilani.ac.in

>-- 71 E- -x
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(>) 71 E- - d Kh
d 8 -- Ey--hC.
N-: -h- 14, -O 4, --NZ 1,
--- 1, f 11, - 2, iv---@ 2,
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|: -C N / vU
L. --J-NA: 33 x.
: K~, yu y.
C: Charakka Theatre, Ground Floor,
Administration Block, JIPMER, Puducherry - 605 006

-- - --M d- ---J--, -G- -u, ---j- --K~- x ---...

-j: www.jipmer.edu
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 30 -d- 2012

-- j---

Yeshpal Chopra,
Secunderabad
Q: We drunk to his health Explain the meaning.

something (qualifies) the noun


food.

correct.
 There is a person and his son/ his children.
A: There are a man and his son - Correct.
 I dont know myself/ I myself dont know.

A: We drank (not drunk) to his


health - This is a custom in the
Western Country. In a party,
when they have drinks (wine,
whisky etc), one of the guests, raises the cup of
drink and proposes the toast, that is, thanks the
host (one who gives the party)/ wishes the host
good luck/ good health etc. We drink to his
health = We drink to wish our host good health.

A: I dont know myself = I dont understand


myself - Correct.

Q: I have observed in some sentences a


comma (,) is kept after the word so and not
kept in another sentences - Clarify.

He came to know that he had lost his money


- Correct.

I myself dont know = Even I dont know Correct too.


 He had been crying since he come to know/
He had come to know that he had lost his
money.
A: He has been crying since he came to
know... - Correct.

 He told his experience with goddess to his wife.

Vishal Singhal,
Khammam
Q: But if I must go, I
will go the battle
field as a plain soldier - Is this correct?
A: ''...... go to the battle field'' is correct.
Q: Let no one know that old Rustum had to be
called to fight a beardless boy - Here Fearless
should have been write - Explain.
A: ''..... beardless boy'' here is correct with the
meaning, a young boy, so young that he
has no beard growing.

I think he will come tomorrow!


A: When you begin a sentence with so, you
place a comma after so.
Q: Popular,
Environment,
Restaurant,
Population, Solution - Whether these are
common nouns? Explain.
A: Popular - Adjective, not a noun
Environment, Restaurant,
Common nouns

Solution

Population - Collective noun


The words above begin with a capital letter,
only if they are the first words in a sentence.
Otherwise, they begin with only a small letter.
Common nouns are the name of any thing, any
person, any animal, any place, etc. and not the
name of a particular person, place, thing or
animal.
City - Common noun (name of any city).
Hyderabad - Name of a particular city - Proper
noun.

Q: Chiranjeevis
son/
son
of
Chiranjeevi - Which one is correct?
Once I heard that the word of is
702
used and said before the stationary
things i.e. which are not alive. A: He told his wife of his experience
Explain.
with the goddess - Correct.
A:
Chiranjeevis
son/
Son
of
 While he was praying to the sun/
Chiranjeevi
Both
are
correct
M.
SURESAN
to sun
Both s (the apostrophe and s)
A: ...... to the sun - Correct.
and of are used with living beings and abstract
The must be used before sun, moon,
nouns, but of is used only with the non-living.
earth, world, universe etc.

-x---

Q: I would like to talk to you/ to speak to you Explain the difference.

Sri Vani Maruthi Krishna Gitarjuna, Nidadavolu

Q:

A: Both are correct, with a slight difference in


meaning.
I would like to talk to you - Informal
I would like to speak to you - Formal.

Sheetal Koushik, Warangal

Q: He has had little food - Whether the underlined word an adjective? or an adverb? Clarify.

Q: Explain which of the following sentences is

A: Little here is an adjective because it tells us

l- -- -C-
v-. DE-- x Honble.,
Respected --o. l, v-v-AE-, J---, C- O j o
--T--a? \- Resp. Madam
-C, Honble Madam E N ! NJ-. N- Your Excellency -J
--T- -. l-
C---E j --
L.

A: Honble Madam
(MLAs/ MPs),
Governors, Judges
of High/Supreme Court, President
Honble Sir,
Honble Madam

. v vA-E,
v,
,
--x-
--x-,
.
Respected -J-j/ o--xj -a ( u--x-N --p). Respected y / a-a.
Letters Respected Sir/ Madam J-. Sir/
Madam -- -Lq- Respect C
d.
Your Excellency Governor .
MK Rao, Visakhapatnam
Q:

1) It means ... 2) It Could mean ...


3) It probably means ... 4) It can also mean ...
A: It means = It has the meaning.
He did not attend classes the whole of last
week. It means that he is irregular.
It could mean = It probably means =

He has not asked me again about the car. It


could mean/ It probably means he is not interested
( o car J* - Sx --.
h .)
It can also mean = There is a possibility of this
meaning

( n a - C)

e.g.: The police havent arrested him. It can


mean he is innocent. It can also mean he has
bribed them.

M E d -.
El a. x
*a -a-- -- C.




( - J L.
--E \ -E -*aC.)
Sampath: Its getting time. Dont you see?
Wait for her if you must. But I am going.

( _---*aC. n-- ?
-Lq - ,
y h a. -o.)
Likhith: We must be grateful to her for all that
she has done for us, mustnt we? Why are
you in a hurry?

(- --
%-Vc-
L ! -
--o?)

(hu)
 Necessity (-)
p J-Eo must -- l.
Look at the following sentences from the
dialogues above
1) She must be on her way now - Certainly.
2) Wait for her if you must - Allowed to do
something, but you dont like it.

f. N-
~ pL)

Likhith: We must give her a beautiful present


for all that she has done to us.

(
i yL)
lessons must
Eo-E . N:
 Obligation - (NC -LqN)/ c

- n.
b) Mukund: How cool and pleasant the
weather is!

(-- x, C!)
Sukumar: Hear those peals of thunder and
see the flashes of lighting! It must be raining heavily somewhere nearby.

3) We must be grateful to her - Obligation


4) I must say sorry to her - Obligation

( - , - -Eh-o? _--\ { --L)


'-d -, y Lq
n .

a) Subodh: Mom, shall I


watch cricket on
the TV?

u-i --x :
*a
p L/ --L --.

(Sorry.

a) Pranav: He wants
to buy the latest
model car of that
company.

( company x A
-----o)

h---.
h-E ---o.

A: I think he will come tomorrow

 Duties

Must
Certainly =

Sampath: I am sorry. I
have been in a hurry.
I must say sorry to
her for this.

a/ n a.

Q: Translate the following sentences into


English.

Do it if you must
Likhith: She must be on her way now. She
promised to be here about this time.

*a Phrases u L--,
J* N-J-.

(t,
O
v
?)

Sourabha: Do it if you
must, but let me go
to office first.

(
---
d . o - x-Ey)

model car

b) Nandan: I want to go with you to the sports


meet.

(F v -E --

C)

Ramesh: He must be having a quite a lot of


money to change cars so frequently.

Shanmukh: Do come along if you must, but


dont expect me to buy you the ticket.

( - x a-E _
s-L) Certainly - L----, C/ J

(, y --- , F F
\ -E v -.)

( u- n). --, --o F English I think


. '-- n, am/ is/ are
thinking . C p.

www.eenadupratibha.net

-N-u, --u
--

N-x ju Nu
N-x ju Nu ------o?
- \ -o?
q, V N-?
E-, \ C-N Nun --o?

--E--Jq-- ---q

- E--Jq- Eg B--o?
Jd q --f?
K-~ p ---?
---- -N-u---
O x- - - Nu--x

a-E -o?
kx L, \--\ \x o?
\x a x v- N?
- ---o -N--- ... x ...
www.eenadupratibha.net

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

-- 4 d- 2012
Directions (Q.1-5): In the following questions, the symbols @, , #, $ and % are used
with the following meaning as illustrated
below:
P Q means P is either greater than or
equal to Q
P % Q means P is either smaller than or
equal to Q
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor
smaller than Q
P#Q means P is smaller than Q
P$Q means P is greater than Q
Now in each of the following questions
assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer 1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer 2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer 3) if either Conclusion I or II is
true
Give answer 4) if neither Conclusion I nor II
is true.

-- j---
changed with the alternate letter, number or
symbol. Then which element will be fourth to
the left to A?
1) P
2) 4
3) D
4) @ 5) T
7. Which of the following is exactly midway
between the seventh from the left and the
eighth from the right?
1) A
2) Z
3) #
4) N 5) D
8. Shirt is related to Button in the same way
as Shoes is related to
1) Stitch
2) Leg
3) Sleeper
4) Socks
5) None of these
9. Which of the following pairs of words bears
the same relationship as that of the pair of
words given at the question place?
Victory : Defeat :: ?
1) King : Poor
2) King : Queen
3) Father : Brother 4) Mother : Sister
5) None of these
10. There are 43 students in a class. If the rank
of Raja from the beginning is 21st, then

1) 32
2) 34
3) 36
4) 30
5) None of these
13. Which of the
following is odd
one?
1) XYZ1 2) PQR2
3) STU3 4) DCB5
5) None of these
14. Garden is related to Gardener. In the
same way as Agriculture is related to
1) Plant
2) Field 3) Farmer
4) Produce
5) None of these
15. According to Manju the birthday of her sister is after January 15 but before January
20. According to Manjus father the birthday
of Manjus sister is after January 18 but
before January 22. What is the birthday of
Manjus sister?
1) January 18
2) January 19
3) January 20
4) January 21
5) None of these

W ho is the youngest among them?


Give answer 5) if both Conclusions I and II
are true.
1. Statements: D $ N,
N # F,
FT
Conclusions: I. T # N
II. D $ F
2. Statements: K R,
R $ F,
F#B
Conclusions: I. B $ R
II. F # K
3. Statements: J $ M,
M K, K # N
Conclusions: I. J $ K
II. N $ M
4. Statements: F # T,
T @ W, W $ H
Conclusions: I. F # H
II. F H
5. Statements: M % T,
T#R,
R@ D
Conclusions: I. D $ T
II. R $ T
Directions (Q.6 - 7): Study the following
letter - number - symbol sequence and
answer the questions given below it.
SMP2LT@ND45#ZAQ98OFG
73EH
6. If in the above sequence from the beginning
each letter, number or symbol is inter-

EXPLANATIONS

means ; % means ; @ means = ;


# means < ; $ means >
1-4; D $ N D > N;
N#FN<F
F T F T. Therefore, D > N < F T
Conclusions:
I. T # N T < N : Not True
II. D $ F D > F : Not True
2-2; K R K R;
R$FR>F
F # B F < B. Therefore, K R > F > B
Conclusions:
I. B $ R B > R: Not True
II. F # K F < K: True
3-1; J $ M J > M; M K M K
K # N K < N. Therefore, J > M K < N
Conclusions:
I. J $ K J < K : True
II. N $ M N > M : Not True
4-3; F # T F < T; T @ W T = W
W $ H W > H. Therefore, F < T = W > H
Conclusions:
I. F # H F < H: Not True
II. F H F H: Not True
5-5; M % T M < R;
T#R T<R
R @ D R = D. Therefore, M T < R = D
Conclusions:
I. D $ T D > T : True
II. R $ T R > T : True
6-2; According to the question,S is interchanged with P, M with , 2 T, L @,
N 4 and so on. New sequence
PSMT@2L45NDAQ#ZOF98
4th to left of A is 4.
7-3; 7th from left T;
8th from right O

16. Onkara says that his brother


leaves home half an hour before
he reaches home. If Onkara
observes that it is 11.00 AM 45
minutes after he entered home,
then at what time his brother did
Reasoning
leave the home?
1) 10.30 AM
2) 9.45 AM
S. Arun Mohan
what
will
be
his
3) 9.30 AM
4) 10.00 AM
position from the last?
5) None
1) 21
2) 22
3) 23
4) 24
17. Rahul is elder than Vipul but as old as
5) None of these
Saketh. Saketh is younger than Jeetu but
11. In a certain code language COACHING is
elder than Ramu. If Ramu is elder than Vipul,
written as ENCBJHPF. How will the word
then who is the youngest among them?
SCHOOL be written in that code language?
1) Rahul
2) Vipul
3) Saketh
1) KQNJBU
2) UBNQKJ
4) Ramu
5) None of these
3) NQKJBU
4) UBJNQK
18. If the first and second letters of the word
5) None of these
PRGMATISM are interchanged, similarly
the third and the fourth letters are inter12. Complete the following number series:
changed, and so on, then which of the
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, ?
T @ N D 4 5 # Z A Q 9 8 O

Middle
8-5; We put on shirt and place the button to
wear it firmly. Similarly, in shoes laces are
used.
9-1; Victory and Defeat are antonymous to
each other. Similarly, King and Poor are
antonymous to each other .
10-3; The rank of Raja from the last
= 43 - 21 +1 = 23
11-4;
C
O A C
H
I
N
G

+2 1 +2 1 +2 1 +2 1
E
N
C
B
J
similarly
S
C
H
O

H
O

P
L

+2 1 +2

1 +2 1

12-1; 1 2 2 2 4 2 8 2 16 2 32
13-4; Except in DCB5, in all others, the letters
are given in the proper order.
14- 3; Gardener maintains garden. Similarly,
farms works are done by farmer.
15-2; According to Manju, the birthday of her
sister will be on 16 or 17 or 18 or 19 or 20
or 21 January. According to the father of
Manju, the birthday of her sister will be on
19 or 20 or 21 January. Common date is
19th January.
16-2;
11 AM 0.45 = 10.15 AM
10.15 AM 0.30 = 9.45 AM
17-2; Saketh = Rahul > Vipul
Jeetu > Saketh > Ramu; Ramu > Vipul
Clearly, Vipul is the youngest.
18-1; According to the question, the new word
is

+1
Z

Similarly
S

A
R

Key : 1-4; 2-2; 3-1; 4-3; 5-5; 6-2; 7-3; 8-5;


9-1; 10-3; 11-4; 12-1; 13-4; 14-3; 15-2;
16-2; 17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-2; 21-2; 22-5.

(-- j-----E
-u -Ky -v-E- -P~- n -jd)

I M

7th from right


19-2; Third to the right of eight from the left
means 11th from left. Since English
alphabetical series is reversed, hence we
can calculate the letter at 11th position in
reversed English alphabet series as
given below: 11th position from left (in
reversed English alphabet)
= (26 +1 - 11) 16th from the right i.e. P.
20-2; Starting from the left two consecutive
letters are interchanged and the remaining letter becomes the following letter.
M

following will be seventh from the right?


1) M
2) G
3) A
4) T
5) None of these
19. If all the letters of English alphabet are
written in reverse order which of the
following will be third to the right of eighth
from the left?
1) Q
2) P
3) R
4) T
5) None of these
20. In a certain code language MATRIMONY is
written as AMRTMINOZ. How will the word
STRATAGIC be written in that code
language?
1) TSARTAGIC
2) TSARATIGD
3) TSARATGID
4) TSARTAIGD
5) None of these
21. In a certain code language Po Cho To
means who came yesterday', Ho No To
means who play there' and Bo Po No
means 'beauty come there. How will the
word yesterday be written in that code
language?
1) Po
2) Cho
3) To
4) Cho or To
5) None of these
22. If the second half of the following alphabets
is written in the reverse order, then which of
the following will be the tenth letter to the
left of 17th from the left?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST
UVWXYZ
1) S
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+1
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21-2; 'Po Cho To' means


'who came yesterday' (i)
'Ho No To' means 'who play there' (ii)
'Bo Po No' means 'Beauty came there' ... (iii)
From (i) and (ii),
'To' is the code for 'who', ... (iv)
From (i) and (iii),
'Po' is the code for 'came' (v)
From (iv) and (v), 'Yesterday' is coded as 'Cho'
22-5; From the pre-calculation rule, 10th letter
to the left of 17th from the left means
(1710) 7th letter from the left.
But the order of the letters of the second
half has been reversed. So, the required letter
would remain unaffected. 7th from the left is G.

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--- 5 d- 2012
SIMPLE AND COMPOUND INTEREST
Interest is the money that paid for the use of

a certain amount.
The amount borrowed is called the Principal.
The sum of interest and principal is called

the Amount.

SIMPLE INTEREST
If the interest is calculated on original
Principal for a certain period is called the
Simple Interest (S.I.). Simple Interest will be the
same for all the years.
If P is the principal, R is the rate of interest,
T is the time and S.I. the simple interest, then
PTR
Simple Interest =
100
TR
Amount = P 1+
100
e.g: Find the Simple Interest obtained on an

1
amount of Rs.16800 at the rate of 4
2
p.c.p.a. for a period of 3 years

-- j---
the principal for the next period, then the money
is said to be lent at Compound Interest. Thus
the amount at the end of period becomes the
principal for the next period.
If A is the amount, C.I. is the Compound
Interest, P is the principal, R is the rate, and T
is the time, then
R T
A = P 1+
100

R T
C.I. = P 1 +
P
100
e.g: What is the Compound Interest accrued on
an amount of Rs. 8000 at the rate of
5 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years?

R T
C.I. = P 1 +
P
100

Sol:

5 3
C.I. = 8000 1 + 8000
100
105
105
105
8000 8000
100
100
100

Difference
61
= P
8000
@ 10% Difference =
31
P
1000
e.g: What is the difference
between
Simple and Compound Interest on
Rs.42800 for two years at 5% rate?
P R2 42800 25
Difference = = Rs.107
1002
10000
e.g: On what sum does the difference between
Simple and Compound Interest for 3 years
at 10% rate will be Rs.403?
P 31
P 31
Sol: Difference = 403 =
1000
1000
403 1000
P = Rs. 13000
31
1. A certain sum of money becomes Rs.1250

= Rs.1261

Principal = 1488 - 288 = Rs.1200


288 100
Rate = = 8%
1200 3

How much does he get as interest?


Sol: Here P = Rs.16800, T = 3 years
1
9
R = 4 % = %
2
2
16800 3 9
Simple Interest = = Rs. 2268
2 100
e.g: What principal will amount to Rs.5700 at
1
4% per annum in 3 years?
2
TR
Sol: Amount = P 1 +
100

74
P 1 + = 5700
2 100
5700 2 100
P = = Rs. 5000

228
Shortcut: For one year, rate of interest is 4%
1
1
and for 3 years it is 4 3 = 14%
2
2
The amount will become 114%.
If 114% money = 5700,
100
then 100% money = 5700
114
= Rs. 5000
COMPOUND INTEREST

When the interest that has become due at


the end of a period is not paid to the lender, but
is added to the sum lent which then becomes
1. What would be the Simple Interest obtained
on an amount of Rs. 52580 at the rate of 4
p.c.p.a. after 3 years?
A) Rs.6209.60
B) Rs.6102.70
C) Rs.6309.60
D) Rs.5986.40
E) None of these
2. The Simple Interest accrued on an amount
of Rs.12450 at the end of 6 years is
Rs. 8964. What is the rate of interest?
A) 9
B) 12
C) 14
D) 10
E) None of these
3. Find the Simple Interest on Rs.8000 at 3%
per annum from August 2nd to October 14th
in the same year.
A) Rs.36 B) Rs.42 C) Rs.56 D) Rs.48
E) None of these
4. On what sum does the difference between
Simple Interest and Compound Interest for
3 years at 5% rate be Rs.427?
A) Rs.12000
B) Rs.24000
C) Rs.56000
D) Rs.32000
E) None of these
5. A man deposits Rs.5600 in a bank at 5%
annual interest. After 6 months he
withdraws Rs.4400 together with interest
and after 6 months the remaining money.

in a span of 5 years and further to


Rs.1700 in the span of 8 years at the
same rate of Simple Interest. What
would be the amount at the end of 12
years?
Sol: Interest for 3 years (8 - 5 years)
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
= 1700 - 1250 = Rs.450
5
G.S.
Giridhar
Interest
for 5 years = 450
Shortcut: Amount = 105% of 105%
3
of 105% of 8000 = Rs. 9261
= Rs.750
C.I. = 9261 8000 = Rs.1261
Principal = 1250 - 750 = Rs.500
Note: If the Interest is paid half yearly, time
12
Interest for 12 years = 450 = Rs.1800
is doubled and the rate is halved.
3
If the Interest is paid quarterly, time
Amount after 12 years = 500 + 1800
becomes 4 times and the rate becomes
= Rs.2300
one -fourth
2. An amount of Rs.15600 is to be divided into
Difference between Simple
two parts such that the Simple Interest on
and Compound Interest
the first part at 8% p.a. for 3 years is equal to
It can be calculated by the following
the Simple Interest on the second part at 6%
formulae.
p.a. for 4 years. What is the difference
between the two parts?
For one year: There is no difference.
Sol:
Let the first part be Rs.x and 2nd will be
2
PR
Rs.(15600 - x)
For 2 years: Difference =
1002
x8 3
(15600 - x) 6 4
(300 + R) P R2
=
100
100
For 3 years: Difference =
2x = 15600
1003
15600
If the rate of interests are 5% and 10%, the
x = = Rs.7800
2
following formulae can be used
Both parts are equal so there is no difference
@ 5%
How much does he get as interest?
A) Rs.140
B) Rs.210
C) Rs.170
D) Rs.190 E) None
6. A sum of money will become Rs.4600 in 5
years and Rs.4960 in 8 years at a certain
rate of Simple Interest. Find the rate of
Interest.
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 8%
D) 4%
E) None of these
ANSWERS: 1-C; 2-B; 3-D; 4-C; 5-C; 6-A.

EXPLANATIONS
S.I. 100
2. R =
PT
8964 100
R = = 12 %
12450 6
3. Time from August 2nd to October 14th
= 29 days of August + 30 days of
September and 14 days of October
73
= 73 days = years
365
1
= years
5
1
8000 3
5
S.I. = = Rs.48
100

Short cut: If we can observe 8% for 3 years on


1st part is 24% and 6% for 4 years on 2nd part
is also 24%. Interest on both parts are equal
means both 1st and 2nd parts are equal.
3. A sum of money amounts to Rs.1488 in 3
years at a Simple Interest. If the rate of
interest is raised by 25%, the sum amounts
to Rs.1560 during the same period. Find the
sum and the rate of interest.
Sol: Rs.1560 - Rs.1488 = Rs.72.
25% of interest = Rs.36
100
100% interest = 72 = Rs.288
25
The interest for 3 years = Rs.288.

4. A sum of money invested at Compound


Interest amounts to Rs.650 at the end of first
year and Rs.676 at the end of second year.
Find the rate of interest.
Sol: Interest in 2nd year = 676 - 650 = Rs.26
As this is Compound Interest, 2nd year
interest is calculated on1st year amount
26
Rate of interest =
100 = 4%
650
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

P 61
4. D = P = Rs.56000
8000
5. S.I. on Rs.5600 for 6 months =
1
5600 5
2

= = Rs.140
100

He withdrew Rs.4400 together with interest,


the remaining amount
= 5600 - 4400 = Rs.1200

1
S.I. on Rs.1200 at the rate of 5% for year
2
1
1200 5
2

= = Rs.30
100

Total interest = 140 + 30 = Rs.170


6. Amount after 5 years = Rs.4600
Amount after 8 years = Rs.4960
Difference = 360, which is interest for 3 years
5
Interest for 5 years = 360 = 600
3
Principal = 4600 - 600 = 4000
S.I. 100
600 100
R = = = 3%.
4000 5
PT

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www.eenadupratibha.net

- 6 d- 2012
1. Which of the following powerpoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a
thumbnail and is useful for rearranging
slides?
1) Slide show
2) Slide master
3) Slide sorter
4) Notes Page
5) Design Slide
2. A set of rules for telling the computer what
operations to perform is / are called:
1) Structures
2) Procedural Language
3) Command Language
4) Natural Language
5) Programming Language
3. Devices that enter information and let you
communicate with the computer are called:
1) Software
2) Hardware
3) Output Devices
4) Input / Output devices 5) Input Devices

-- j---
2) A software to protect from computer
hacker intrusions
3) A software to destroy computer
4) A wall to make partitions in computer
5) None of these
15. Chiranjeevi sent a mail to Pavan Kalyan by
putting his email address in 'Cc' and to
Nagababu by putting his email address in
'Bcc'. Which of the following is true based
on the given scenario?
1) Pavan Kalyan can view the email
address of Chiranjeevi and Nagababu
2) Nagababu can view the email address of
Pavan Kalyan & Chiranjeevi
3) Pavan Kalyan can view the email
address of Nagababu only
4) Both 1 and 2 5) None of them is true
16. When data changes in multiple lists and all
lists are not updated, this causes:
1) Data Population Problem

1) Status Bar
2) Formatting
Toolbar
3) Standard
Toolbar
4) Titlebar
5) Status
and
Title bars
27. SMPS in a computer stands for?
1) Switched-Mode Power Supply
2) Simple-Mode Power Supply
3) Simple-Mode Power System
4) Switched-Menu Power Supply
5) None of these
28. The process of transforming information
using an algorithm to make it unreadable by
anyone is usually referred to as:
1) Decryption
2) Encryption

What is a Firewall?
4. The speed of which of the following memory
chips is faster?
1) Not Fixed
2) DRAM
3) SRAM
4) For smaller chips SRAM is faster
5) For larger chips DRAM is faster
5. Mahesh Babu has his cute childhood photos
in an album which might fade out in a couple
of years, which he wants to show it to his
fans by uploading it in his twitter account.
Which of the following devices can he use to
do that?
1) Keyboard
2) Mouse
3) Printer
4) Scanner
5) None of these
6. Which of the following is not a social networking site?
1) WAYN 2) Hi 5
3) Orkut
4) Yahoo 5) Facebook
7. In the URL https://twitter.com, what does 's'
represent in 'https'?
1) Safe
2) System
3) Start-up
4) Semantic 5) Secured
8. Which among the following is the file
extension for Word Documents?
1) .xls
2) .ppt
3) .docx
4) .worddoc
5) None of these
9. Linux Operating system is an example of
which of the following?
1) Freeware
2) Open Source Software
3) Shareware
4) Complimentary
5) None of these
10. A device that connects to a network without
the use of a cable is said to be:
1) Distributed
2) Non-Wired
3) Centralised
4) Open source
5) Wireless
11. Which of the following software applications
would be most appropriate for performing
Statistical and Numerical calculations:
1) Document Processor
2) Graphics Package II
3) Power Point
4) SpreadSheet
5) Meta Processor
12. Removing and replacing devices without
turning off the computer is referred to as:
1) Search Engines 2) Operating System
3) Software
4) Resource Locators
5) Plug-n-Play
13. Mr. Prashanth has a song sung by him on
the desktop, in the C drive, and also in the
D drive. This scenario in computer
language is generally referred to as:
1) Data Redundancy
2) Multiple Data Places
3) Various File Places
4) Data Inconsistency
5) Data Independent
14. What is a Firewall?
1) A wall to protect against Fire

3) Alphabet Coding 4) Encrography


5) Deptography
29. ..... is a type of RAM that stores
each bit of data in a separate
capacitor within an integrated circuit making it an efficient way to
COMPUTER AWARENESS
store data in memory.
1) DRAM
2) PRAM 3) NRAM
KVN
Prashanth
Kumar
2) Data Reduction
4) NORAM
5) None of these
3) Data Induction
4) Data Overload
30. A computer network that uses Internet pro5) Data Inconsistency
tocol technology to share information,
17. The legal right to use software based on
Operational system, within an organization
specific restrictions is granted via a:
is usually referred to as ......
1) Software privacy policy
1) Internet
2) MAN 3) PAN
2) Software License
4) NPN
5) Intranet
3) Software password manager
31. What is the symbol for attachments in
4) Software log
5) None of these
yahoo mail?
18. Which of the following is not an operating
1) Envelope
2) Letter A
system?
3) Paper Clip
4) Pen
5) None
1) Windows 2000
2) DOS
32. Which of the following computers is used in
3) Windows 7
4) Mac Os X Lion
Scientific researches?
5) Google
1) Super Computers
2) Main Frame
19. Find the Mis-Matched pair.
3) Laptop
4) Micro Computers
1) Chrome - Google
5) None of these
2) Opera - Opera Software
33. Winzip is an example of :
3) Internet Explorer - Microsoft
1) Free ware
2) Shareware
4) Safari - Net Scape Communications
3) Open Source
5) None of these
20. What is the full form of RISC?
1) Reduced Instruction Set Computing
2) Reformed Instruction System Computing
3) Reduced Information System Computing
4) Restoration of Information in System
Computing
5) Reduced Instruction Sect Code
21. The common name for Modulator and
Demodulator is:
1) Modem
2) Joiner
3) Networker
4) Connecter 5) Mom-dom
22. In order to delete a sentence from a document you would use .......
1) Highlight and copy
2) Cut and Paste
3) Copy and Paste 4) Highlight and Delete
5) Select and Paste
23. What is the keyboard shortcut for Slide
Show in Powerpoint ? :
1) F4 2) F8
3) F9
4) F5
5) F12
24. A ...... is a design tool that graphically
shows the logic in a solution algorithm.
1) Flow chart
2) Hierarchy Chart
3) Structure Chart 4) Context Diagram
5) None of these
25. The justification that aligns text on both
margins of a document in Word is ......
1) Justify
2) Bold 3) Centre
4) Right
5) Balanced
26. The Open, Print and Save Buttons are all
located on the ......

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34. ........... is the science that attempts to
produce machines that display the same
type of intelligence that humans do
1) Nanoscience
2) Nanotechnology
3) Simulation
4) Artificial intelligence (AI)
5) None
35. COBOL is an acronym for .............
1) Common Business Oriented Language
2) Computer Business Oriented Language
3) Common Business Operated Language
4) Common Business Organized Language
5) None of these
36. The human readable version of a software
program is called:
1) cache
2) instruction set
3) source code
4) word size
5) None of these
37. Which of the following is not a programming
language with Object Oriented Features?
1) COBRA
2) ABAP 3) C++
4) C#
5) C
38. Which of the following programming language is favoured for Artificial Intelligence?
1) ABAP 2) COBOL
3) LISP
4) JAVA 5) C#
39. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to
locate a particular word or phrase in a
document
1) Replace
2) Find
3) Lookup
4) Search
5) None of these
40. What symbol is present on the number key
'2' on the keyboard?
1) !
2) %
3) ^
4)
5) @
(Writer - Director, DBS, Hyderabad)
KEY
1-3; 2-5; 3-5; 4-3; 5-4; 6-4; 7-5; 8-3;
9-2; 10-5; 11-4; 12-5; 13-1; 14-2; 15-2; 16-5;
17-2; 18-5; 19-4; 20-1; 21-1; 22-4; 23-4; 24-1;
25-1; 26-3; 27-1; 28-2; 29-1; 30-5; 31-3; 32-1;
33-1; 34-4; 35-1; 36-3; 37-5; 38-3; 39-2; 40-5.

- -K~: -d- 21.


--j-: www.apsfc.com

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--j-: www.gailonline.com

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

- 6 d- 2012

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3:4

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2:3

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www.eenadupratibha.net

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--v- 7 d- 2012

-- j---

1. In a certain code DROWN is written as


MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that
code?
1) LBFSC 2) JBDSA
3) JZDQA
4) LZFQC 5) None of these
2. Among M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter
than M. R is taller than N but shorter than D.
Who among them is the tallest?
1) D
2) T
3) M
4) R 5) N
3. How many such digits are there in the number 5436182 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when
the digits are arranged in ascending order
within the number?
1) None
2) One 3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
4. What should come next in the letter series
given below?
DDEDEFDEFGDEFGHDEFGHIDEFGHIJD
1) D
2) E
3) F

4) Radish
5) Brinjal
8. How many meaningful English words can be
made with the letters ALPE using each letter
only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
9. Four of the five are alike in the certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
1) 24
2) 48
3) 32
4) 72
5) 64
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word CHAMBERS each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as
in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
Directions (Q.11-15): In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the given statements to be true even

follow
11. Statements:
Some toys are
desks.
Some desks are
pens.
All pens are rods.
Conclusion:
I. Some rods
are toys.
II. Some pens are toys .
12. Statements: Some tables are huts.
No hut is ring.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusion: I. Some bangles are tables.
II. No bangle is table.
13. Statements: All stars are clouds.
All clouds are rains.
All rains are stones.
Conclusion: I. All rains are stars.

Some bangles are tables!


4) J
5) None of these
5. The letters in the word MORTIFY are
arranged in such a way that the vowels are
replaced by the previous letter in the English
alphabet and the consonants are replaced
by the next letter in the English alphabet.
Which of the following will be the fourth letter
from the right end of the new set of letters?
1) S
2) H
3) G
4) N
5) None of these
6. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and
so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
1) Leaf
2) Flower
3) Petal
4) Fruit
5) Tree
7. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and
so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
1) Garlic 2) Ginger
3) Carrot

EXPLANATIONS
1-2;

i.e. 'Some tables are not rings'


No hut is ring ( E Type)

J
B +1 D +1 S
A
2-3; M > T > D > R > N. Hence, M is tallest.
3-2; Given Numbers: 5 4 3 6 1 8 2
Ascending order: 1 2 3 4 5 6 8
4-2; D DE DEF DEFG DEFGH DEFGHI
DEFGHIJ DE
5-5; New set of letters: N N S U H G Z

fourth from right


6-5; 7-5; 8-4; Meaningful words: PALE,
PEAL, and LEAP

9-5; 10-3;

C H A M B E R S
11-4; Some toys are desks. (I - Type)

Some desks are pens. (I - Type)


I + I = ' ' No conclusion.
Some desks are pens, (I-Type)

All pens are rods. ( A-Type)


I + A = I Type Conclusion
'Some desks are rods'.
12-3; Some tables are huts. (I - type)

No hut is ring ( E-type)


I + E = O Type Conclusion

All rings are bangles (A type)


E + A = O Type Conclusion
'Some bangles are huts'
Given conclusions are complementary
pairs. Hence the required answer is (3).
13-2; All stars are clouds. (A Type)

All clouds are rains. (A type)


A + A = A type Conclusion
i.e. 'All stars are rains'.
All clouds are rains (A Type)

'Some trees are chairs'


This is Conclusion II
All rooms are trees. (A Type)

All trees are poles. (A Type)


A + A = A Type Conclusion i.e. 'All rooms
are poles.'
16-20:
+2

D J I
1

+2

F U A
2

+1

H @ I
+2

B
+2

+5

+5

I # 5
17-3;

+5

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+5
+5
+5
J T F N
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+5
+5
K 4 3 V
18-2;

Conversion

j----E C Tx J y-
E--Jq (x) Nu v @,
x, Jd-- vv-x v--E
h -C. q...
1) : Tx (x)
|: vU Tx- -bd -L.
2) @ Jd-- C * Tx (@-). uC: ---C. |: Tx- @.
3) @ x * Tx (@-).
uC: ---C. |: x * @--.
-h: -j * - -a.
V: The Registrar, EFL University,
Hyderabad .500 Lx- L.
@--, q- *-J-D: d- 31
@-- q *-J-D: v-J 2
-j: www.efluuniversity.ac.in

-N-u --u --

Vowel

Some doors are buildings. (I Type)


I + A = '' No conclusion

x @, x q

Conversion

All rains are stones (A Type)


A+ A = A Type Conclusion
i.e. 'All clouds are stones'
This is conclusion II.
14-1; Some doors are buildings (I Type)

'Some cages are doors'.


This is conclusion I.
'All windows are doors'. ( A Type)

(Writer - Director, Banking Services Chronicle,


Hyderabad)

All rooms are trees. ( A-type)


I + A = I Type Conclusion i.e.
'Some chairs are trees'

16-3;

All buildings are cages. (A type)


I + A = I Type Conclusion
i.e. 'Some doors are cages'

KEY
1-2; 2-3; 3-2; 4-2; 5-5; 6-5; 7-5; 8-4; 9-5;
10-3; 11-4; 12-3; 13-2; 14-1; 15-2; 16-3;
17-3; 18-2; 19-3; 20-2.

15-2; Some chairs are rooms. (I Type)

M
X +1 N +1 S
Similarly
B
R
E
A
1

II. All clouds are stones.


14. Statements: All windows are
doors.
Some doors are buildings.
All buildings are cages.
Reasoning
Conclusion: I. Some cages are
doors.
S. Arun Mohan
if they seem to be at variance from
II. Some buildings are windows.
commonly known facts. Read all the conclu15. Statements: Some chairs are rooms.
sions and then decide which of the given conAll rooms are trees.
clusions logically follows from the given stateAll trees are poles.
ments disregarding commonly known facts.
Conclusion: I. Some poles are chairs.
Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows
II. Some trees are chairs.
Give answer 2) if only conclusion II follows
Directions
(Q.16-20):
Study
the
Give answer 3) if either conclusion I or II
following arrangement carefully and answer
follows
the questions given below:
Give answer 4) if neither conclusion I nor II
GM5ID#JKE2PT4W%AF3U8$NV6Q@7H1B
follows
9Z
Give answer 5) if both conclusions I and II

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
1) DJI
2) FUA 3) H@1
4) B
5) I#5
17. What should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement?
DJK
2T4
%F3 ?
1) U$V
2) U$N
3) 8NV
4) 8NI
5) None of these
18. How many such numbers are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also
immediately followed by a symbol?
1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
19. How many such consonants are there in
the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number but not
immediately followed by a consonant?
1) None 2) One
3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
20. Which of the following is the fourth to the
right of the twelfth from the right end of the
above arrangement?
1) 8
2) 7
3) K
4) A
5) None of these

Number Symbol
8

19-3;
Number Consonant

Consonant

2
P
T
20-2; The fourth to the right of the twelfth from
the right end means: (12 4 = ) 8th from
the right which is 7.

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--E 8 d- 2012

-- j---
B

v N-

N-

--u _-- v- N-. vN- () v- N--Eo x -q


Y-h vA--C-.
DEo -- vU ~ ' (t)
*-h.
C N- x *a-i, u-i .

v- N- N
v --u N \L (x )
2) --u * vA N- o N-- (dx) \-L. dx = xi - x
3) N-- _- \L. (dx2)
4) N-- _ h- (dx2) \L.
5) C v
y v- N- - Eo - L.
1)

(S.D.) =

v- N-

2
dx

= 100
x

N--

-u * \o N-- _

(dx = xi - x )

N--
_ dx2

28

-21

441

70

+21

441

31

-18

324

-49

2401

59

+10

100

108

+59

3481

82

+33

1089

14

-35

1225

-46

2116

95

+46

2116

v-

N-

(B) =
=

dx2 = 13,734
2

dx
13734
=
N
10

1373.4 = 37.06

6
= 100 = 20%
30
B

N-
h * B u ( x ) = 25,
v N-() = 4
N- (CVB)

4
100 = 100 = 16%
x

25

, N- -- A B
\ N- LT x, E-E ,
n - A B \ -n.
3. 200 C Nu-n , v-
N- 40, 15 -. F 43, 35 -- 34, 53 B--o.
j v- N--Eo, v- N-

14.97
= 100 = 37.47%
39.95
4. 250
15.6
100
15 3

u , v-N--
13.44.
u, v-N---

- , . NT-L v-N--Eo -.
: 100 u, u, v N-
n1, x1, 1. NT-L u, u, vN- n2, x2, 2 , h v
n1 = 100, x1 = 15, 1 = 3

n = n1 + n2 = 250, x = 15.6, = 13.44


n = n1 + n2

-- -\- -E-- --?


- v-

N-,
= N-- _
h, N - N-- u.
6) N- (CV)
v- N-

= 100 =
100 .

--u
x
N- -Eo x -.
E: E-, ny, t --u
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-E \- -E
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1. 10 Eoq A, B uh -
N- C N- o. O
\- E-- L---.
A : 42 17 83 59 72 76 64 45 40 32
B : 28 70 31 0 59 108 82 14 3 95

: A uq- 10 Eo-q
- = 42, 17, 83, 59, 72, 76, 64,
45, 40, 32
A -- uq-- - (x A)
42 + 17 + 83 + 59 + 72 + 76 + 64 + 45 + 40 + 32
=
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530
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10
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Eo-q -
(
x B)

uq- -

28 + 70 + 31 + 0 + 59 + 108 + 82 +14 + 3 + 95
=
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490
= = 49
10

- V { -I

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N--

42

-11

121

17

-36

1296

83

+30
+6
+19
+23
+11

900

59
72
76
64

36
361
529
121

45

-8

64

40

-13

169

32

-21

441
dx2 = 4038

v-
=
A

N-

(A) =

2
dx

4038
= 403.8 = 20.07
10

N-

ux- -- -
-d-u

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jq (-) WE- Ja - vv v--E --h -C.
--J-NA: x.
- u: 17
-: ---/ --/ @/ H,
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n1
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x =
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Brig SK Mazumdar Marg,
Timarpur, New Delhi- 110054

-j: www.drdo.gov.in

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- Eq d-J- Ja
(---) WE- Ja, d--d- ,
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|: dK/ J\--@/ u>---@ 55
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150x2 = 250 15.6

100 15
= 3900 1500 = 2400
2400
x2 = = 16
150
d1 =
x 1 x = 15 15.6 = 0.6

x = 16 15.6 = 0.4
h 250 t Nh %A

d2 = x 2

n1(12 + d12) + n2 (22 + d22)

(2)

=
(n1 + n2)
(n1 + n2) 2 = n1(12 + d12) + n2(22 + d22)

250 13.44
= 100(9 + 0.36) + 150(22 + 0.16)
15022
= 250 13.44 - 100 9.36 - 150 0.16
= 3360 - 936 - 24
= 2400

150 22 = 2400
2400
150

2 = 16 = 4

22 = = 16
NT-L

v-N--

= 4

(- N----- E
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--J-Eo ----x, N-u --u -- x---..

[CVA] =
x 100
A
20.07
= 100 = 37.87%
53

40 = 8000

34 53 + 43 + 35 = 7991
B N- [CVB ] =
--O- -
j =
B
37.06
h 7991

100 = 100

= = 39.95
49
xB
u 200
= 75.63%
xi2
2
2
F, =
n x , xi-, x- u
B N- A N-
\- o-x B A \ n
* _ h (x i2)
E p-a.
= n (2 + x2)
2. E-O l Jt- D`-- C
= 200(225 +1600) = 200 1825
L- -.
= 3,65,000
A
B
j _ h
E Jh--E d
= 3,65,000 - (34)2 - (53)2 + (43)2 + (35)2
30
25

= 3,64,109
x i2
v- N-
6
4
j v- N 2 =
- x2
n
1) l-J \ n-yEo LT
364109
o?
= - (39.95)2
200
2) E-E Jh----?
= 1820.54 - 1596.40 = 224.14
: l Jt- n-yEo, E Eo
j v- N () = 224.14
----E A, B N- -- \L.
= 14.97
A N- h * A --u

(x ) = 30, v-N-- () = 6
j N (CV) = 100
X
N- (CVA) =

N--
_ dx2

(dx = xi - x )

-Eo \.
: h v,
h = 200
j h
= 8000

N-

n2 = n - n1

100 15 + 150
x2
15.6 =
250

dx2

uq--

= 250 - 100 = 150, 2 = ?

www.eenadupratibha.net

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For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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DRDO, Lucknow
Road, Timarapur, New Delhi- 110054

-j: www.drdo.gov.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 9 -d- 2012


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*-J-D: d- 21
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-j: www.jntuh.ac.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 9 d- 2012

-- j---

Y. Gayatri, Asifabad

Mounika Sharma, Kothagudem

Q: Due to fire accident (3) huts


reduced to ashes -

Q: I haven't had a good meal for/ since ages Which one is correct? Is it necessary to say/
place the article 'a'? - Clarify.

u j-?
A: Not
correct.
Because
of/owing to a fire accident,
the huts were reduced to

A: I haven't had a good meal for ages - Correct.

ashes - Correct = To-v


x - --u.
ashes =
Q: E, O h-o? DEo Tx-
pL?

Q: On/ At Christmas as we go to church and


offer prayers to God/ we pray to god - Which
one is correct?

A: I am Raghu. Do you remember me?


Q:

C u

Usage

Meal - countable singular, so 'a' should be


used before it.

A: On Christmas day/ During Christmas we


offer prayers/ we pray - Correct. (to God not necessary.)
Q: He studies during the day/ In the day. Which
is correct?

j-?

a) These boys be my students


b) One of my friends be sitting here for three
hours.

A: He studies during the day - Correct.

c) The boys did it, if you want it.

Q: By the grace of God through you I have


been able to learn a little English =
English

d) I know that he goes to Madras


e) A lakh of rupees be a large amount of
money for us.

Saif Khan, Warangal

x O y Cl
o C -d?

a--

through him

y L-C.
By (): It was done
by him = C.
By = by the side of. He
sat by me.
Q: The exam being
held - Explain the underlined word.
A: The exam being held =

(Letters)
(Sounds)

Ey--o

K~.
exam being held now is for the selection of
teachers =

p Ey-----o K~
x .

Q: Having been here since yesterday he is


happy =

Eo-o* \ -
- o. - -u d-?

A: Correct.
Q: I want to send an application for the post of
lecturer for the part. Please say the meaning
of underline part.

They paid for it themselves!


A: ... for the part - This part of the sentence has no meaning here.

f) If you want it, I would give it.


g) There be many countries in Africa

-x--- 699

h) This be my brother and his wife.

Q: 'Use' - It is pronounced as
(z
sound), prison (z sound) etc and
some words pronounced ' sound.
How can we know
sounds?

i) The crowd be well behaved.


j) Some of the teachers already left us.

A: Correct.

A: a) Wrong. These boys are my students Correct.


b) One of my friends has been sitting here for
three hours =

o-x
\ aE o/ C.
c) Wrong. O p--- G E v
sentence C. The boys did it, if you
d) Correct.
e) A lakh rupees is a large amount - Correct.
f) Wrong. If you want it, I will do it 'OR' if you
wanted it, I would do it - Correct.
g) Wrong. Use are in place of 'be'.
h) These are my brother and his wife.
i) Wrong. The crowd is well behaved.
j) Some of the teachers have already left us Correct.

j sentences , 'be'
O? be = . E o, C,
o, C, C -- n --E .
Q: C reflexive pronouns -d? -
N-J-.
a) Lalitha cursed her for trusting him
b) Mohan Reddy was ready do it himself with
out any out side help.
c) Rajashekhar Naidu himself asked her to
marry him.
d) They paid for it themself.
e) We have to look after us during our stay
there
A: a) Lalitha cursed herself for trusting him (self / -selves, pronouns
reflexive pronouns

- N
?)

b & c) correct.

?)

e) ... look after ourselves. Us reflexive pronoun

.
Q: Communicative skills development

OJa N?
A: Communication skills (communicative
improvement
Reading practice
English newspaper, short story books
etc.
English

)
-.

W
-. Ojp-x
x-,
p--- .

Q: Through/ By - Clarify the difference.

A: There are no clear rules when 's' is


M. SURESAN
pronounced as 'z'. However in the foli) Through = from one end of something to the
lowing cases, 's' is pronounced as 'z'. In these
other =
cases the sounds alone are important and not
He entered through the window =
the letters.

-.

( E) - --- -L v-P-.
ii) Through (y): I came to know of it

want it - Not a sentence, because it has no


meaning.

d) themselves (them - plural

Home - The word ends with the sound 'm'.


Home

n-i-C !

o. F l
, ' , C '.
English Pronunciation rules , l
v u. letters (~--) v
.
There are no rules which are always followed
for pronounced 's' as 'z'. However, in the following cases 's' is pronounced as 'z' (Only people with English as their mother tongue know
the correct pronunciation of English words).
i) 's' as pronounced 'z' when 's' follows b, d, g,
l, m, n and v.
e.g: Jobs - Jobz: buds - budz; bags - bagz; falls
- falz, homes - homz, pens - penz.
ii) 's' is pronounced as 's' when it follows voiceless sounds like p, t, k is pronounced s.
e.g: Tips, pots, cakes (Keiks) etc.

Fo * ' () a )
Eo x Jh---a.
-u Vowel sounds y a 's' E
'z' -L. Jaws - Jawz
rule

'd' is pronounced as 't' if 'd' comes after s, p,


k sounds.
e.g: used - uzet; tapped - tapt, looked - lookt.
In all other cases it is pronounced '-id'
painted - peintid.
For further help, practice pronunciation with
the help of CDs prepared by EFLU (English &
Foreign Languages University) and available in
the market.

~-

He has to take you home


Mihir: You have to finish the work by
tomorrow evening.
No more delay.

(
-v-Ex y
E Jh L.

u
.)

Varun: Is the time


enough? I have to
take care of certain
other things too. Why don't you ask Charan
to do it?

( -?-- Eo
N - --L. -
E---E ---?)

.)
Look at the following expressions from the
conversation above:
You have to finish the work by tomorrow
evening.
I have to take care of certain other things
too.
He has to go to Hyderabad.
Then I think I have to make do with ....
We have to get the money.
Mihir has to arrive by the evening.
He has to bring along the mechanic too.

Varun: Then, I think I have to make do with


whatever assistance. I can get from Nikhil.
Hope I will be able to finish it on time.

(, E" _ * --L-T
l--L. --E J_ Jh
h-E --o.)
Mihir: We have to get the money for it. The
earlier we finish is the better.

(E s
L. y Jh h -
*C.)

Varun: Nikhil has to arrive here by the


evening. Hope he will.

(E" -v-Ex \- L. h---!)

Mihir: He has to bring along the mechanic too.


Hope he won't forget.

(E -v
\ .
o x-Ey.)
Rajeev: Your brother
has to come to
take you home,
hasn't he?

(O
t Eo
B--x--E L
!)

He has to take you home (necessity).

Eo B-

xL F -

Has to/ have to


(Necessity)

Mihir: He has to go to Hyderabad tomorrow.


By the time he returns it will be too late.

( j--- xLq C. AJT


a--p K -u---C.)

Deepika: I cannot
wait any longer.
Please let me go.

---E
-- -Lq E

sentence
have to + 1st regular doing
word (have to + finish, have to + take care of
etc.), has to + 1st regular doing word (has to
go, has to arrive, has to bring)

-Eo

E.
Have to + 1st Regular Doing Word (RDW),
I, we, you and they
Has to + 1st
RDW, He, she, it
English conversation
Have to/
has to + 1st RDW (V1)

.
. N
u-i .
u-i --.
1) Obligation: c--l, NC -Lq---
.

e.g.: a) You have to finish the work by tomorrow evening


Order/ Command -

( -vEx E Jh
c)
L
b) She has to be at office by 10. ( Cx office L Order/ Command/
Obligation (c--/ NC -Lq
E.)

.
Madan: Why are you so impatient?

(-

-----o?)
Srikar: I have to
catch a train. If I
miss it, I have to
waste a whole
day here.
train

(
--L.
C p-,
\
% Lq hC.)
N- have to/ has
L-E .

to

Necessity

So, we use "have to/ has to" for obligation

(- c v NC -Lq E),
(--- -E-
Necessity ( - Dl -Lq E).
B---L. J-*-- --o.)
J-Eo have to/ has to + 1st RDW/ "be"
Varun: He doesn't usually. (-
form a-J.
Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 1 -d 2012

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Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
1
2
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1

B
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1

C
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
4
4
1
1
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
1
2
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

D
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
4
4
1
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3

B
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
1
2
1
3
1
3
1
4
4
1
1
4
3
1
1
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
4
4
1
1

C
1
2
3
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
4
3
3
1
4
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
4
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
4
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1

u
x u v L- - p-

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4
1
1
1
3
4
4
4
4
1
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4
1
1
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
4
4
1
3
1
3
1
1
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
2
3
2

1
3
1
3
2
4
4
1
4
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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 12 -d 2012

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Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4

B
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4

C
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2

D
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
1
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
2
4
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2
1
4
3
2
4
3
3
2
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
1

B
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2
3
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2

C
3
1
2
3
?
3
2
1
4
1
2
2
3
3
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
2
1
2
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
1
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1

D
2
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
2
3
3
1
4
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
4
3
3
1
3
2
1
4
2
4
2
3
2
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
3
1
2

j-----E -~ d- -J\- -jd -G-Vb- N-g-l--f, -N------E --O d- -J\- jd --O -- '-E --C-.
-v-o-v, ' x- ---: www.eenadupratibha.net

-- j---
1. Storage that retains its data after the power
is turned off is referred to as
1) Volatile storage
2) Non-volatile storage
3) Sequential Storage
4) Direct storage
5) None of these
2. HTML stands for:
1) Hyper Text Mark-Up language
2) High Technology Mobile Language
3) Hyper Text Mobile Language
4) High Technology Mark-up Language
5) None of these
3. Which ports connect special types of musical
instruments to sound cards?
1) BUS
2) CPU
3) USB
4) MIDI
5) MINI
4. Antivirus is an example of which of the
following?
1) an operating system
2) a business software

1) Optical Coding
Recognizer
2) Original Code
Reader
3) Original Compatibility Recognizer
4) Original
Character
Reader
5) Optical Character Recognition
16. How can you paste the contents of a screen
in a word document
1) Press Print screen key open Word
Ctrl + V
2) Press Print screen key Ctrl + C Alt
+V
3) Press Print screen key Alt + C
Open word Ctrl + V
4) Press Print screen key Alt + C
Open word Alt + V
5) None of these

the ____
1) Menubar
2) Formatting toolbar
3) Standard toolbar 4) Title bar
5) None of these
27. Which of the following are the two parts of
an e-mail address?
1) Username and Password
2) Username and Street address
3) Initials and password
4) Legal name and password
5) Username and Domain name
28. A website address is a unique name that
identifies a specific ____ on the web.

To R eload a W ebpage pr ess Refr esh!


3) a security utility
4) an office suite
5) None
5. A computer checks the ____ of user names
and passwords for a match before granting
access.
1) website
2) network
3) backup file
4) database
5) None of these
6. Restarting a computer that is already on is
referred to as :
1) shutting down
2) cold booting
3) warm booting
4) logging off
5) None of these
7. Full form of pixel is :
1) Picture in excel
2) Print in Excel
3) Picture element
4) Programming and executing in language
5) None of these
8. A DVD is an example of a(n)
1) Hard disk
2) Optical Disc
3) Output device
4) Standard disc
5) None of these
9. To print a document, the short-cut key is :
1) Shift + P
2) ALT + P
3) CTRL + ALT + P
4) ALT + SHIFT + P
5) CTRL + P
10. .xlsx is the extension used for which of the
following files?
1) Windows
2) Access
3) Word
4) Excel
5) Powerpoint
11. In a website address www.prashanth.com,
what does '.com' stands for
1) communication
2) commercial
3) commerce
4) computer
5) None of these
12. If there is a file on the desktop, that means
the file is present in:
1) C drive
2) D drive
3) E drive
4) All the drives in the computer
5) The drive in which the operating system
is installed.
13. What is Cc in regard to e-mails?
1) Carbon copy
2) Communication copy
3) Client copy
4) Computer copy
5) None of these
14. Even if a disk drive fails, the computer
application running and using it can continue processing. This application is designed
with a feature called:
1) High Reliability
2) Bounce Back
3) Fault tolerance
4) All of these
5) None of these
15. OCR stands for:

1) User
2) Link
3) Website
4) Web browser
5) PDA
29. A byte can represent any number
between 0 and ___
1) 1024
2) 256
3) 255
COMPUTER AWARENESS
4) 2
5) 1025
KVN Prashanth Kumar 30. Vendor created program modifica17. .mpeg, a popular video file
tions are called ____
extension format, is an abbreviation of :
1) Patches
2) Anti viruses
1) Movie Picture Expressive group
3) Holes
4) Fixes
2) Motion picture Experts group
5) Overlap
3) Movie Picture Extension group
4) Motion Picture Extinct group
KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-4; 4-3; 5-4; 6-3; 7-3; 8-2;
9-5; 10-4; 11-2; 12-5; 13-1; 14-3; 15-5;
5) None of these
16-1; 17-2; 18-5; 19-5; 20-1; 21-4; 22-2;
18. Reusable optical storage will usually have
23-1; 24-2; 25-5; 26-4; 27-5; 28-2; 29-3; 30-1.
which of the following acronym?
1) DVD
2) ROM 3) CD
(Writer - Director, DBS Bank Coaching Centre, Hyderabad)
4) ROS
5) RW
19. To reload a webpage press ____ button
1) Restore
2) Redo
3) Reload
4) Reboot
5) Refresh
20. The ____ manual gives you information
about using a software program.
1) Documentation
2) Programming
3) Dictionary
4) User
5) None of these
21. A ____ uses pressure as a user presses it
with a stylus to send signals.
1) Track point
2) Graphics tablet
3) Keyboard
4) Touchpad
5) Track pad
22. In 'P2P computing' P2P refers to which of
the following
1) Point 2 Point
2) Peer 2 Peer
3) Pack 2 Pack
4) Patch 2 Patch
5) None of these
23. Most application softwares today comes
with an interface called a(an)
1) Graphical User Interface
2) Character User Interface
3) Icon User Interface
4) Button User Interface
www.indiapost.gov.in
5) Voice User Interface
24. Web pages are saved in which of the
following formats?
1) HTTP 2) HTML
3) DOC
4) URL
5) None of these
25. Which of the following is the feature that
keeps track of the right margin?
1) Find and Replace
2) Ragged Right
3) Left Justified
4) Word Wrap
5) Right Justified
26. The Name of a Microsoft Office word document is displayed in both the task bar and
www.pnbindia.in

---- -d- 431 --S-

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For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 13 -d 2012

--q d- --p --q


(-v-IV) -I -- d- '

--q --C- -Ey-*-- d- --p -q (-v-IV)


-I - d- E -C-* '- E Cho. un- - -D-Eo ---T-a.
N N - --- - v- A -J----L.
Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3

B
1
4
3
4
4
4
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1

C
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
4
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2

D
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
1
4
3
4
4
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3
1
4
3
4
4
1
2
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3

B
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
1
4
2
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3

C
1
1
2
3
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
1
4
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
2
4
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
4
1
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3

D
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
4
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
1
1
2
1
3
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
4
4
4

1
1
1
2
3
4
4
4
2
4
4
4
3
2
4
1
4
2

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-II E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un-
- -D-Eo ---T-a. N N --- - v- A -J----L.
Q.No.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

A
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1

B
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4

C
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4

D
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4

Q.No.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

A
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
2
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3

B
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
4
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4

C
1
4
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
2
4
3
1
3
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
3
2
3
1
2
2
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3

D
1
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
4
3
4
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
1
4
2
1

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PERCENTAGE
Percent means per every 100.
40 percent means 40 out of 100.
The symbol % is used to denote percent.
eg.: 20%, 25% etc
A fraction with denominator 100 is called
percentage.
Converting percent to fraction: To convert
percent into fraction, divide the percent by 100.
35
7
eg.: 35% = =
100
20
Converting fraction to percent: To convert
fraction into percent, multiply the fraction by 100.
3
3
eg.: = 100 = 60%
5
5
Increment
Increment percent = 100
Source

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To express one quantity (x) as a percentage
of another quantity (y), we have to write
x 100

y
eg.: 160 grams is what percent of 2 kilograms?
160
100 = 8%
2000
Sol: When there are three articles 'a', 'b' and'c'
in a group, then to express any one article
as a percentage of the group, then
a/b/c
Percentage of a/b/c = 100
(a + b + c)
eg.: There are 5 English, 9 French and 6 Hindi
books. Find the percentage of French
books.

25
Sol: 100 = 20%
125
If an objects value is
increased/
decreased by x%
and other factor
increased/
decreased by y%,
then the net effect is
xy
x y %
100

Note: The percentages are taken with positive/negative sign according to increase/
decrease in the factor.
eg.: In order to increase the total revenue, a
trader announced 25% discount. As a result,

What per centage is the first of the second?


Decrement
Decrement percent = 100
Source
eg.1: A number is increased from 500 to 600.
Find the increment percent
600 - 500
Sol: Increment % = 100
500
100
= 100 = 20%
500
eg.2: A man reduced the length of a scale from
1.5 metre to 1 m 5 cm. What is the percentage decrement in the length of the scale?
150 cm -105 cm
Sol: Decrement% = 100
150
45
= 100 = 30%
150

Some Important Percents and their Fractions


1
1
1
100% = 1, 50% = , 25% = , 12.5% = ,
2
4
8
1
3
1
2
6.25% = , 75% = , 20% = , 40% = ,
16
4
5
5
3
4
1
5
60% = , 80% = , 10% = , 125% = ,
5
5
10
4
2
1
1
1
2
2
16 % = , 33 % = , 66 % = ,
3
6
3
3
3
3
1
3
1
7
37 % = , 87 % =
2
8
2
8
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

What is 25% of 40% of 7650?


A) 1530
B) 765
C) 1845
D) 1250
E) None of these
A man spends 45% of his money and still
has Rs.3960 with him. Find the money he
had originally.
A) 8400
B) 9200 C) 8600 D) 6700
E) None of these
The wages of a worker were increased by
20% and then reduced by 15%. What was
the net change in his wages?
A) 5% increment
B) 15% decrement
C) 5% decrement D) 2% increment
E) None of these
A man spends 13% of his monthly income
on rent, 9% of his monthly income on
school fees, 40% of his monthly income on
cloths, 19% of his monthly income on
house-hold expenditure and saves remaining Rs.5700. What is his yearly income?
A) Rs.3,00,000
B) Rs.2,75,000
C) Rs.3,50,000
D) Rs.3,60,000
E) None of these
When 40% of a number is added to 54, the
result is the number itself. What is that
number?
A) 60
B) 80
C) 90
D) 120
E) None of these
If the price of sugar be increases by 15%,
find by how much percent a householder
must reduce his consumption of sugar so
as not to increase his expenditure?

the sales volume increased by 20%.


What is the net effect on the sales
revenue?

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
9

G.S. Giridhar

Sol: 100 = 45%


5 + 9 +6
When two variables are inversely proportional, If one is 'x' percent more/less than the second one then the second one is
x
100 percent less/more than the
100 x
first one.

Note: If first one is more use '+' and if it is less


use ''
eg-1: A's salary is 20% more than B's salary.
Find by what percent B's salary is less than
A's salary.
20
2
Sol: 100 = 16 %
100 + 20
3
eg-2: If the price of sugar be increased by 20%,
find by what percent a housewife has to
reduce her consumption so that there is no
change in her expenditure on sugar.

Sol: Net effect is


25 20
-25 + 20 - % = 10%
100

10% decrease

1. Two numbers are 30% and 40% more than a


third number. What is the first number as a
percentage of second number?
Sol: If the third number is 100, then the first and
second numbers are 130 and 140 respectively.
First number as a percentage of
130
6
second = 100 = 92 %
140
7
2. A man spends 70% of his monthly income. If
his monthly income is Rs. 5250, how much
does he save in a year?
Sol: Spending 70% of income means saving
30% of income
Monthly savings = 30% of 5250
30
= 5250 = 1575
100
Yearly saving = 12 1575 = Rs. 18900
20 (-15)
3. +20 15 + = +2
100
2% increase
4. Total expenses percent
= 13% + 9% + 40% + 19% = 81%
Remaining percent = 100% - 81% = 19%
Saving money = Rs. 5700
19% = Rs. 5700
100
Total money (100%) = 5700
19
= Rs. 30000
Yearly income is 30000 12 = Rs. 3,60,000
5. Let the number be 'x'
40% of x + 54 = x (100%)
60% of x = 54

1
C) 10%
B) 13 %
23
D) 50%
E) None of these
7. If two numbers are respectively 20% and
25% more than the third number, what percentage is the first of the second?
A) 96%
B) 45% C) 75% D) 90%
E) None of these
8. A student scores 24% marks and fails by
36 marks while another student who
scores 32% marks, gets 12 marks more
than the minimum required pass marks.
What are the maximum marks for the
examination?
A) 500
B) 900 C) 800
D) 600
E) None of these
9. In an examination 42% students failed in
English and 52% failed in Hindi. If 17%
failed in both the subjects, find the percentage who passed in both the subjects.
A) 77%
B) 25% C) 23% D) 32%
E) None of these
ANSWERS: 1) B 2) E 3) D 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) A
8) D 9) C.

15
1
6. 100 = 13
115
23%
7. Let the third number be 100 then first and
second numbers are 120 and 125 respectively

EXPLANATIONS
25
40
1. 7650 = 765
100 100
2. 45% spent means he has 55% with him
55% = 3960
If 55% is 3960, then 100% (total money)
100
= 3960 = 7200
55

120
125
8. 32% - 24% = 8%
and 12 - (- 36) = 48
8% marks = 48
100
100% marks = 48 = 600
8
9. Failed in English only = (42 - 17) = 25%

A) 25%

100
x = 54 = 90
60

100 = 96%

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3. A student has to get 35% marks to pass. He


gets 183 marks and fails by 27 marks. What
are the maximum aggregate marks a student
can get?
Sol: Marks required for the student to
pass = 183 + 27 = 210
Percentage marks required to pass = 35%
35% = 210
100
Total marks (100%) = 210 = 600
35
4. Population of a town is increased from 75000
to 76125. What is the percentage increase?
Sol: Net increment = 76125 - 75000 = 1125
1125
Increment percent= 100 = 1.5%
75000
5. A man spends 15% of his monthly income on
rent, 20% of his monthly income on children's education, 25% of his monthly income
on other house-hold items and saves
Rs.3840. What is his monthly income?
Sol: Total expenses percent
= 15% + 20% + 25% = 60%
Remaining percent = 100% - 60% = 40%
Saving money = Rs.3840
40% = Rs.3840
100
Total money (100%) = 3840
40
= Rs.9600
6. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by
20% and its denominator is decreased by
14
15%, the value of the fraction is .
17
Find the original fraction.
100x
Sol: Let the number be
100y
120x
14
=
85y
17
x
14
85
7
= =
y
17
210 12
7
Original fraction is
12
Failed in Hindi only = (52 - 17) = 35%
Failed in one or two subjects
= (25 + 35 +17) = 77%
Passed students = (100 - 77) = 23%

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16 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPER


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16 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPERS


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--E- 18 -d 2012

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DSC - 2012 S.A. TELUGU MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

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3) 31

4) 35

30. vu ---o N- Nu-n- NN --


* - Ja vu Kp C -u--
- Jh-.
1) Jq
2) u-
3) u *
4) --
31. \o n, N p- -q--
.
1. SCERT
A. 1993
2. SIET
B. 1985
3. NUEPA
C. 1967
4. NCTE
D. 1971
1) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B 2) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
3) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A 4) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
2005
NCERT

32. B Nu-v--R
-C---E
J u-~- N-E E-N-*C?
1) d -n--f
2) v- -
3) d K
4)
33. B J (-@-) --J* vA -q
Eo 'u-- Ey--h?
1) W 22-29
2) W 5-12
4) W 12-19
3) Vj 7-14
34. Nu q -C* J-E u-C?
1) Nu-N-- NuJn T q-Eo
'-- -h.
2) l o Nu v--q-Eo '---
u-J-h.
3) x Nu-N-- L- Nu v-Eo
'JqL q .
4) x Nu-N- Nu v q--Eo
'Gtx --.
35. K~ Nu-n x 'Jh-y y----G-%ClE
C N -E \o N C?
1) 1952 ~ t--yN -L- N-
2) 1964 K N-
3) 1948 Ny-N-u- Nu N-
4) 1986 B Nu-N-
36. -- Nu--\j v -- Lp
~u - 11 * vy v u-v-Eo
-dC. u-v-Eo E -h?
1) y-P~ v
2) y-Nu v
3) P~- G-
4) y- N-
37. Z - \ d p * -x
*aC?
1) d- 13, 2005
2) d- 12, 2005
4) W 12, 2005
3) 15, 2005
38. 'NCF-2005' v ' u - n
\-E C?
1) - -B--, Ay -, -h---
vu Lp
2) -y h--- Nu-N-- a
3) %-- v-u--Nh Cy vEo -
4) u-- y-G-%-Cl u u
Nu p-E--J p
39. -u C C, h -u --E
-A C - -Lq ju C?
1) Nu-n- E- vPoh
2) Oj- \ EE Lp-
3) vA---- v E- vq-h

4)

-A CE \ Ey---L n u

40. NCTE ~ -
N Ey-
\ vB u-Eo p C?
1) i
2) j-- 3) -
4) j o
41. --- -C* J-E Eo Jh-.
1) 'u-v hJ --y-- --

2) -Y
v-N C--vA- N---i
-
3) - v----i -- *-*
-- x ---
4) C--vA ----E No C
ElP* p vA-- x --y--
42. -vO --E ---?
1) --, -, *aa, -
2) u--, \, %T, -~
3) --, ---t, - -, p
4) , P-o, -A, --
43. C-E ---.
1. Cl vu-
. ---
2. % vu- G. , , , -, -
3. A vu-
. , J, ,
4. C vu- . , , N,
1) 1G, 2, 3, 4
2) 1, 2G, 3, 4
3) 1, 2, 3, 4G
4) 1, 2, 3, 4G
44. ''- o-E u- --, yCl u v- N--... o -
v--f u --EN?
1) v Jv
2) v- vA --
3) \ vA --
4) \ *
45. '' C\ h x C - u-E vN?
1) v-n, h- L 2) -n, --L
3) hyn, --L
4) v-n, --L
46. '< YE n. vh Y J Y N--E
n. n--J--Eo n .
C n J-T -N?
1) , , d, N-
2) -u, -j, u, Pju
3) , t, Cl, vl
4) Ht, , , v-R
47. vA-- - u-, v--,
u--o u?
1)
2) -UA
3)
4) --C
48. --?
A. - u--- -x v--u-iC
B. ju N-- - o
C. - *-* v l Lp
D. h N -x
1) A, C -u- j--N 2) B, D -u- j--N
3) C, D -u- j--N - 4) A, B -u- j--N -
49. ' * p JC?
1) vA--E -
2) Ny Ny
3) A- -v
4) - O-y--u
50. 'v-R T-h-o N?
1) o
2) A\
3) v 4) X-
51. jNF - *-* N?
1)
2) v
3) x--vJ -O-
4) \
52. j\, j n u--J - -E --P-*C ?
1) G.. %g-Jh
2) xx --Y
3) \ --o
4) v-tu Y
53. u----i --E l --E u?
1) -
2) -- 3) --C 4) u-\
54. ''d- - *a--p -- - o o L. *a- ---o E
-- E J- o--?
1) h-N-v 2) v 3) J-J 4) J-%\
55. 'A--J\ A-- v o u?
1) -v-n
2) Gs
3) h Gs
4) %--
56. C ux -t v o u C?
1) X- j *- .
2) a --J-
3) t -*C
4) - --d-*C
57. x-Lx --%-g-t vD--J-* v?
1) --h-A
2) --J-q-
3) %-\
4) -y-- -
58. ' u
1) , ,
2) -, -u, u
3) -u, -N---, --, --N
4) --N, -N--, -u, --%-y

59. '- J-* g?


1) j--
2) N--o
3) Mx
4) o--d
60. u-- -q -E x
v u?
1) - 2) o- 3) - 4)
61. C -, - ---.
1. -
. d- y yN
2. v E
G. J ---Y
3. u-v . N-Y
4. - d
. .-.j. -L
5. h . Ny- u---
1) 1, 2, 3, 4G, 5
2) 1, 2, 3, 4G, 5
3) 1G, 2, 3, 4, 5
4) 1G, 2, 3, 4, 5
62. 'j-yuE C-?
1) -C
2) %Cl C
3) -g-D` C
4) N_ C
63

. Oo-- ?
1)
2)
3)
4)

-- v uEo a
- v uEo a
- uEo v a
-%-A uEo a
64. ''--- n Jg CJ-T -j o
- %gE CJ-T a.... -s-
---?
1) -
2) -s-
3) v
4) Jg
65. - , - v N- J
s...?
1) h u Pxd u- p---p
2) h u- N-D- --p
3) u u Pxd u- p---p
4) Pxd uEo N-D- --p
66. C- J-E Eo Jh-.
1) ' Lx u- uh p- vA
2) 'N Y Ny v --E p- vA
3) 'y-E C- Ny v --E p- vA
4) '*- -- vq--* vA
67. - j *a x J- v?
1) vEq- q vq--
2) vq- vd
3) vq-- jG
4) q C vEq- q vq--
68. 'Eo v- J \ o N-
1) y--N N-
2) N N-
3) v-u N-
4) c-v-h N-
69. g-, g-, g-u-u, g- -- x J

1) q- 2) u 3) -s- 4) s-
70. ' Ny Eo %d-*C ?
1) -v
2) sJ
3) %g-Y
4) -x J--y-h
71. p-N \o h-N x 'l N ~
1) % --h C uEo *--
2) N--l x A-N--n N--
3) - N-
- i n- - - a-
4) g ln E- J-* u a
72. --N -- Jh-.
1) v-, --, % , d
2) % , -, --- - ,

3) p-, %g-~, y-, %


4) -, --, % , -J
73. C L- uC...
1) -h-~--E o a
2) Cyy-~--E o a
3) N-_ a
4) a
74. N
- yEo x L- - - - .
1. -v s-
. p-E Ny
2. --Lx %g-Y
G. u--Ny
3. yJ N-f
. G- N
4. J - --Y
. U Ny
1) 1, 2, 3, 4G
2) 1G, 2, 3, 4
3) 1, 2, 3, 4G
4) 1G, 2, 3, 4
75. ''u-v- %u - v- %u-yEo
p --A N-- E -A
J* p -E N
1) v- -- a Y 2) v- X--t
3) v 4) -- --- A
76. '% v%A -E N%A
1)
2) % 3)
4)

--E- 18 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. TELUGU MODEL GRAND TEST


77

. C-E ---.
1. -v
2. _
3. - Et
4. NvA

. vA Y Et L
G. x
. Nv ju
. -{ d-
. C-x
. j --uL
>. Md- l
1) 1G, 2, 3, 4>
2) 1, 2G, 3>, 4
3) 1, 2, 3>, 4 4) 1, 2>, 3, 4
u - v E- -
78. 'u\ f v
x * Eoj v - A C
1) L- (-Nt t-V)
2) FL ( v-tu t)
3) v- (J P---Y)
4) c (Q-o -)
79. -E n
1) h-
2) p-
3) -
4) Cl-
80. '' 'y -C v---x
Cj v *-- n u C.
- *-. C u oN u-
v- E - --u J J*
uu-E-?
1) *--Jh ~ t--- 2) - ~ t---
3) -J O--L
4) - XE---
81. v-- ux -nEo C x
-C l C
1) vu
2) N 3) 4)
82. n -o, --- N u C?
1) '@ N* -- --
2) 'N - >-x-
3) '-- - E ~ u -J
4) '- --i
83. ' --~- E \o N
1) -- -
2) --N--
3)
4) h %-J
84. Sheep () C?
1) v-
2) 3) u 4) yv
85. '- T ?
1) *-T-
2) Cyy-~
3) --h
4) *o
86. 'y 'y-- -Eo ?
1) g--O--
2) g-
3) g-u-u
4) y-h
87. '- -E -n
1) , p
2) F, p
3) -, p
4) , p
88. u ~ N?
1) - %p 2) -u - -\
3) Ny-A
4) -h
89. 'p--N- -u h
1) %g-Y
2) -X
3) - p-
4) J s-
90. -- v Fo - NE- uC?
1) *B *
2) ---
3) o--
4) --U-
91. ''B- Nu v--*-x -
v--h-o E N-Y -JE v--?
1) - v-- 2) \--
3) s- -v
4) l
92. h-h v--u - Et
N
1) -YA
2) --
3) %--E --
4) Md--- l
93. ' K~ --a u
1) Ean u
2) ---n u
3) --un u
4) E--n u
94. N -V %d-* J
1) L
2) v- 3) P- 4) yP
95. - 'u-\, 'Cl- vv-- C -?
1) ,
2) , -E
3) u,
4) -E,
96. %-C -Eo ux *- ?
1) h, p--
2) l, p--
3) --, l
4) --, p--
97. ' g, -v- -b C
---E --?
1) vh
2) x 3)
4) vp~
98. p-h J-, _-.
u- L xd u .
1) p-h J- F _-
2) p-h J-T _-
3) p-h - _-
4) p-h J-T _-
99. ''O--L O--
N%-G-* A-C. N-- v --E x
-- -* N-C E --o?
1)
2) .N. --f
3) - --u 4) \-V --A-
100. u-- C N?
1) -n-i -
2) y, y y --

3)
4)

y-E y-y
y- y
101. (v), (T/--N)
1) y----E C-N
2) ~ --E C-N
3) h --E C-N
4) u --E C-N
102. L -E 'Cl-- -C--EC
1) 'u- v-- o
2) -N-y-Eo yn-v--- NE--T-
- *-*
3) -LE, -- v v o
4) ' *Lx E-E -
oi C -o
(103- - 105): Ea u(E), --u () u
-p --E p-p- Jh-.
103. (E): ya vu CC
(): Y ju %d x
1) (E) jC . () jC
2) (E), () j-N
3) (E), () j-N
4) (E) jC. () jC
104. (E): 'd C ~un Cl --
(): --n oC -v-
Eo-n- x
1) (E), () - j--N
2) (E), () j-N
3) (E) jC. () jC
4) (E) jC . () jC
105. (E): vA--E -yN J L - -
(): * x
1) (E), () j-N
2) (E), () j-N
3) (E) jC. () J-
4) (E) jC . () jC
106. vv- -C* J-E Eo Jh-.
1) ' u L
2) ' Jv L u
3) '-- N- -u- \ % * i L
4) 'E--- vGx E--E j L
107. 'C '-{ n p-C. \
J-T n J-
1) ~u-n- Cl
2) n-- 3) n-{ 4) n--
108. '- @N, - J, A--
C J E?
1) Nx
2) u-
3) C-
4) --h
109. C-J N E-?
1) -C
2) x- -
3) Jh
4) aJ v-tu
110. ' -p -J{-* h- Jv d E o--?
1) A
2) --
3) XX
4) -C
111. C- -Eo N- \-J- ?
1) J~
2) x
3) Ga-h 4) M
112. u- Ny N-y-- --C?
1) C--h-N-y
2) B Ny
3) Ny
4) R Ny
113. N-E--E Y-- u Eo L--J
-?
1) - Et
2) -v
3) _
4) - Et
114. P- -L N --Eo *- ?
1) . U
2) - j-A
3) -B-N
4) NvA
115. N - 'K Kh K
--u?
1) M l v
2) .. s
3) h
4) v
116. '' FC, FC, v- -EC E -v-
-- ER Jp-* N ?
1) XX
2) 3) >
4) -C
117. 'y-JE o - H AN j--AE o N ?
1) %gY
2) -v 3) 4) x--m
118. N-y-E v- *ax
-?
1) Nx
2) C-
3) E-
4) u-
119. - *a --x -C?
1) - -
2) - p-%~
3) Ey---h -
4) x -
120. X- L C?
1) Q-
2) -N-
3) L-- h--A
4) -h--a-Jv
121. u-- y -- *a -
1) ,
2) ,
3) ,
4) ,
122. ' -- -n
1) N, vA, N
2) , ,
3) JvA, ~v, u 4) vt, Ng, P
123. ' -E up-un
1) -Eo --h d

2)

-J- uAJx ~v
3) \ Fx d
o- d

4) A
Bh d

(124 128): C u Eo CN *a vo- j


-- Jh-.
u--- o X d.
A\-- Nh % . t --Eo
E-T-. l-- v . A-A
- Nu O-N- . ux * u
E-\-E N->-x C.
124. 'X d C
1) h
2)
3) B
4) h
125. 'A-A --- - Nu O-N-
u ' C n v-h-iC?
1) G-u--n
2) j--n
3) x--n
4) El--n
126. 'E--\- C
1) t-n v
2) v--n v
3) -j t--v
4) yn v
127. 'ux * u E--\-E N->-x C.
u '* Eo n v-T-?
1) yn
2) --n
3) - %-\-
4) u-n
iC?
128. -- N\L d-
1) -u-- 2) E-l-~J 3) h-C 4) uh~J
129. '~u-t-
1) K~ E- --- Eo
2) vA vo EJld y--F- LT
3) - Ey-* -i L
4) El-P ~uEo C
130. t-&-- l N?
1) u-Eo vPo-
2) u u--E ol
3) y, vh--- Nu-n p-
4) ------ --Th QJ{ d
131. jL jNu o u- C- L?
1) o
2) u-N
3) v-N
4) y-v--N
132. yEE --J* p-
1) u
2)
3)
4) v-
133. jN-Ah u-
1) u--Eo E- l-A p
2) -- E- p- v--o u- -
3) a-o E- p- v--o u- -
4) --- y v- -d
134. ''vu? vC-? u -
1) -- xu
2) xC u---
3) - ~ t - --
4) T tJh
135. -A Dl--- p, C v---
N->-?
1) Jb
2) Kq-
3) f
4) vF-
136. yE, n-E c C
1)
2) -
3)
4)
137. "Manual for School Level Seminor" SCERT
p v-J-*C?
1) 197374
2) 197071 3) 196566 4) 195657
138. -u N-Eo --o. NuJn Eo
o-x- C
1) h-- 2) %d-- 3) h-- 4) *-
139. C- J--E-C?
1) L" u h -C---E --
p--C
2) * n -- \
3) uN ---Eo J- L
4) Eo v - -a
140. Ty Eo n- ?
1) --
2) -y
3)
4) -O
141. ''Nu ~u -E - Ey
u--- - Nu-v--R E Ey-*-*C?
1) Lq q
2) -d q
3) -qJ
4)
142. --A- E --u- %u- -s--Eo -aC?
1) 2) -- 3) % h 4)
143. ''vA v \ % uh f-L-d
C E \-o---?
1) D
2) ..-F{ 3)
4)
144. lA Nu-n u-- --T--a?
1) %
2) u-v
3) ~ t--
4) -E
145. N- h, pu a KA (y
v) uEo l-A C-h.
1) vA--n lA
2) lA

3) lA
4) g lA
. --Y-Vc pL
--E ---N?
1) - Nu-Jn J- x
2) --E --E o
3) v- l-AE --J*
4) Nh %--i c
147. -
1) Vt-A --NA - C.
2) --NA \-, VtA \- C.
3) VtA \-, --NA \- C.
4) --NA VtA .
148. ''--n vA-- l u E Ey-*-*--?
1) n-
2) -o-
3) Ny--
4) V
149. -u u-v-- -C* J--EC.
1) u u-v-- Go
2) v-R-- - LT
3) -j uE h
4) -u v \
150. l- -C* J--E-C?
1) OE C- x
2) u v-R * C- -Lq-N
3) --- - C
4) n-i p *-h
151. J{ v-R- \--Lq
1) -u---, ~u- %d E E-x
N->-
2) Nu -q- Lq N-
3) -q- --Lq Nu u-v-
4) v G-%Cl v-R
152. -u- uEo 'g--l-A p--L- .
N-Eo --J-L?
1) u- E - N-D vA -E n
-y- y-- N--* pL
2) uE N--o - B-E n-i
Nu-n- L- L
3) vA
- - -nEo CN E N- - p * y-v- Eo p- * vA -E n N-J* pL
4) uEo NE-* p-uEo L AJT Eo Nu-n
x p-L
153. -E -C--EC.
1) yE, -E -
- - i -
2) , - E p-
3) o-p -
---
4) v%A -t--F, vA n v---
LT -
154. C- %u ------ --
1) x-x, kxx, --t, T -
2) -, .-.., kxx, dx
3) --vA-, -*-v, *v *-, kxx
4) -G-, .., --t, -
155. f lA J-N-x
1) C u-N, o Nu-n- v
--J-hC.
2) --, u \.
3) Nu-n ---- - C.
4) Nu-n - % - \.
156. K~ x u, -h, ~u-t vo \-
--o -
1) vo Et Nun --E
2) jNui vo -E
3) vh K-~ xE - E-J---E
4) -G-, -u-G- -C---E
157. -s- N - C-N?
1) %
2) ~t
3) u-v
4) -A
158. jL, KA, , - -C-*-N?
1) -u-c
2) -c
3) \ %A - J-c 4) -
159. - ---E --- h ,
C-u, -E C v-?
1) -A, G-uh, L"--, v
2) Dl-, G-uh, L"--, v
3) -A, v, L"--, v
4) Dl-, v, L"--,
160. u - v - v
1) v-z, v, -Jy-z, -E
2) v, v-z, -E, -Jy-z
3) v, v-z, -Jy-z, -E
4) v-z, v, -E, -Jy-z
146

(' -- -@-x)
-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E -X -vt-v-P~- n E-- -%- --C-*-C.)

--C- 19 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. SOCIAL MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

(1 *

40

Eo -bd---J
vo )
41. --- -v-- P-L v-
-h?
1) Nt
2) u-
3) t
4) v
42. vt-v CE - 'q .
DE n--N?
1) vt * Et-*C
2) ya -iC
3) N-v-iC
4) u-o--iC
43. C- *-F q EC C?
1)
2)
3) -
4) q
44. v --E C
v
1) j
2) -d

3) -
4) u
45. u- i
v- G-%Cl --E
q p n C?
1) v vH t
2) v vH t
3) v Ja t
4) D-
46. 'jp f E Z-E
?
1)
2) g- 3) N-- 4)
47. j--E-Ap y -L F--- u -x >xx u- G-%Cl -C?
1) -- 2) o
3) *h
4) X- N---
48. v-- A-l --
Z u un
o vd C?
1) vd
2) -
3) -~
4) \
49. - J-v-x q E-Eo
-T-h?
1) -F
2)
3) u-N-E
4)
50. >x- E To-- E--E
vCl?
1) T
2) d
3) -F
4) u-N-E
51. -jj E J - >x
C?
1)
2)
3) x
4) X-
52. x _ E Eo -h?
1) Nu-a h
2) t Nu-a h
3) Nu-a h
4) D-
53. hE --T* Nu- pAh
v C?
1) --
2) N
3) N>>
4) D

-E-o- -v--J-*- --q -.-. -- -d ----


14; 21; 31; 43; 54; 64; 72; 83; 92; 102;
111; 124; 132; 142; 153; 162; 172; 183;
194; 202; 214; 221; 231; 243; 252; 262;
273; 284; 291; 304; 312; 322; 331; 341;
351; 363; 371; 383; 394; 403; 413; 422;
434; 443; 454; 463; 472; 482; 493; 502;
513; 522; 531; 543; 551; 563; 571; 584;
591; 602; 613; 622; 632; 641; 653; 663;
674; 681; 694; 704; 713; 724; 731; 743;
752; 761; 773; 782; 791; 802; 812; 824;
831; 843; 854; 863; 872; 882; 891; 903;
911; 924; 932; 943; 952; 964; 972; 984;
991; 1002; 1011; 1022; 1032; 1043; 1051;
1063; 1071; 1082; 1091; 1103; 1111;
1123; 1132; 1143; 1154; 1163; 1171; 1182;
1191; 1204; 1211; 1224; 1233; 1243;
1252; 1261; 1274; 1284; 1292; 1302;
1311; 1322; 1334; 1342; 1354; 1362;
1371; 1383; 1394; 1404; 1412; 1423;
1432; 1442; 1451; 1462; 1474; 1482;
1494; 1503; 1511; 1522; 1532; 1541;
1553; 1563; 1572; 1581; 1592; 1603.

Max. Marks: 80

Time: 2.30 Hours

54.

jy- -C* 'O q


x \ p?
1)
2) -
3) -
4) -h
55. E q-v j u
1) 4

2) 5

3) 6

4) 8

56.

--- ---J wj
EJt-* jy-_ C?
1) N--o K
2) _
3) - L- 4) - h
57. ---- -- \
\-o?
1) y-"
2) vA
3) %-g---J
4) --
58. 2001 -N* v-C?
1) 2) 3) 4) h Q
59. - J--e E To--y C?
1)
Z L
2) L--
3) \
4) u-q
60. v NE -J d----E
-C?
1) 23 56 EN-
2) 24 15 EN-
3) 24 52 EN-
4) 23 50 EN-
61. Dy- E v C -
- l NE--hC?
1) ---
2)
3) *
4) -
62. --x - PC
v o?
1) q
2) tF
3) Kd-E
4) v-
63. ' -J v v E Eo
h?
1) L--Jo
2) Jq--
3)
4) Mbq
64. --- E v--- - --- -Eo -?
1) p-q
2) p-
3) wl
4) -
65. -U n J* L-hC?
1) h Jv
2) u Jv
3) p \ %A
4) x \ %A
66. c J N-Eo N-J C?
1) y
2) V-y
3) -
4) -y
67. u v-G-*--?
1) vF-VII
2) L---I
3) x-I
4) q-I
68. -N-x p J-TC?
1) 1688

2) 1687 3) 1689 4) 1690

69.

-Jx vq * vEo -C?


1)
2) -
3) xJ
4) q
70. vq x- d -- 16
Eo -q- y ----J?
1) 170

71.

3) 181

4) 185

-L- vq v-Jh -q
1) 1800

72.

2) 175
2) 1802

3) 1803

4) 1804

'C L *v-- ?
1) L-f NFq
2)
3) i--->
4) -
73. u- O J* --
v C?
1) v
2) vq
3) y
4) -
74. 1917 Nx -N-*C?
1) -J 2) u
3) vq 4) tF

75.

** v C?
1) O
2)
3) q
4) D-
76. -%g Eo --- \ n- ?
1)
2)
3) v
4) --h
77. XA Jf- ju - \
n?
1) Mx
2) --
3) --h
4) C
78. u- v v -*--?
1) --
2) --
3) -
4)
79. E-G- B v u-~--L
p u--J-?
1) 1905

2) 1917 3) 1929 4) 1947

80.

-o - N-
l ?
1)
2)
b
3) Jf
4) LA
81. , , p
JB?
1) 1930 -J 23
2) 1931 Ja 23
3) 1931 d 31 4) 1934 - 30
82. D- G -JC?
1) *h--
2) .. v
3)
4) Kb
83. 'Nd-J - v- -q?
1) 1803

84.

1) 1850
85.

2) 1858 3) 1856 4) 1909

t l p J-TC?
2) 1852 3) 1854 4) 1856

E-- u -d
d 4 * 9 \ -
Ey--?
1)
2) -h
3) o
4) -
86. - -v- Kd n ?
1) -t-D
2) ..
3) R-F-h
4) V-
87. Z -Jy-- p * - x
*aC?
1) 1956 - 1
2) 1953 d- 1
3) 1956 - 1
4) 1960 - 1
88. v N- E p ?
1)
2) J-l
3)
4) Fq
89. --q u C ?
1) v-- 2) vv Gy
3)
4) u-
90.
Z -E vN ?
1)
2) -
3)
4) D
91. \ EJt?
1) H
2) H-
3) s_
4) H
92. d-- EJt-* C?
1) j--
2) Ny-y
3) N-~
4) -y
93. d y x-- vu x
G v---d?
1) Eqx d 1861
2) Eqx d 1862
3) Eqx d 1909
4) vy d 1935
94. 1929 N--- Ey--* v-- u-~ -*C ?
1) y-Lx -%g 2) -f
3) >. N
4) --pu
95. u-u
NA -C--q--Eo V

?
d- 2
2) d- 24
3) d- 30
4) d- 12
96. d 6 -- h N-h?
1) -
2) -
3) v 4) v C
97. u-u NA - v u-Jz n?
1) y 2) t
3) y 4) t\
98. >- \ ?
1) vq
2) L-pq
3) ~-D-
4) L-
99. -, -, O-
G- l --E --- v-
C?
1) 16 v-
2) 17 v-
3) 18 v-
4) 19 v-
100. B -Eo u Et yJ* C?
1) 1946 - 9 2) 1947 -J 22
3) 1947 Vj 22
4) 1947 d 14
101. B , B U; u
J--~, --E -C* 1971
d J---E \o N C?
1) t N 1999
2) --- N 1998
3) - N 2000
4) v-v-A-Eu d 1951
102. v- -C* Jd- 41
EC?
1) E-\
2) v- \
3) Nu-\
4) vy - \
103. u-- 12 C Eg-- N-
--E -- v- C?
1)

1) 80

2) 80(2)

3) 80(3)

4) 80(1)

104.

x--K N -Jp E-C--j


vy-E, x--K N- u Gv p- E-C-- J
JQ-- L?
1) -
2) ---
3) u-
4) Z-A
105. u- 100 V --
L. - Eo V--
-- -Lq C?
1) 100

106.

2) 120

3) 140

4) 150

--- -v-- A v- J~-E l-P-* v- C?


1) 370(1)

2) 371 H

3) 371 D

4) 371 B

107.

-J-- ~ EC C?
- d--l --
2) v--J -u-Eo C-
3) \-j
4) -- --G-%-Cl NE--T---
108. -J-- Eo --J q -T?
1)

1) 1992
109.

1) 1968
110.

2) 1989

3) 1987

4) 1986

-\ _-E v-- p
-y ?
2) 1970

3) 1969

4) 1971

C- u- u-v EC
C?
1) --- l
2) 20 v u-v
3) H n B
4) Z-A u-- C-- -T-
111. v G-- E C?
1) jd
2) jx
3) vd
4) h--vA-

--C- 19 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. SOCIAL MODEL GRAND TEST


112.

v-v- --- vA-~


?
1) .--u
2) .-T-f
3) >.-ao
4) X%g
113. j-- Z -v- ?
1) E M
2) --Dl
3) _ -%-g- 4) t M-
114. u J-- \ -J-* \-o
E- C?
1) v- 31
2) v- 32
3) v- 32 (2)
4) v-30
115. v- 82 u l N?
1) Z-A Eo
2) u- n Jy-
3) - n JyN--
4) v-d Et
116. - f-- %Cl -j ---
v-R C?
1) v-R 2) v-R
3) v-R 4) v-R
117. E- v-R -q
C?
1) 1970

2) 1972 3) 1975

4) 1978

118.

--G-%Cl -< --p-


C?
1) -J 2) -v-
3) Nu
4) jFo
119. v-v- - j-u l >x C?
1) j--
2) x
3) ---- 4) --
120. --E vy j F
OE Lph v- C?
1) -
2) K
3) F l
4) jFo
121. u- p-h- F l
Eg n C?
1) u- N-
2) .. N
3) p--
4) yN-- N-
122. vy -o, NF-o --
p v -d-C?
1) 1996

2) 1997

3) 1998

4) 1999

123.

B--- y -T-* j -B- - ?


1) J-q 2) 3) 4) v-Jh
124. u \- N u-~ ?
1)
2) ~ t--yN
3) v
4) -
125. ~ o-j -- -E
pj N u-~ ?

1)

--
2) u-u
.. "
4) -- --
126. '-J -x \-* -J B- D`- ---- Jn--G-%Cl
E \-oC ?
1) i -
2) >..
3) -x-Q
4) Kb
127. - -
\- Jn un G-%Cl C
v--hC?
1) 2) 3) 4)
128. v u- v -Eo p
v-G-?
3)

1) 1960 2) 1962

3) 1964 4) 1965

129.

NuJn D N-Eo E @N-


J C ~u?
1) NE-
2) G-*
3) jJ
4) v--F
130. --J --E NuJn -v
C ~u
1) NE-
2) G-*
3) jJ
4) v--F
131. ' -, --- J* NuJn
N-J-h ---C
1) NE-
2) jJ
3) ju
4) --
132. NuJn O-v- *v--j o
p-p- Jh C ~u-E
-C-* pd--?
1) --
2) c
3) G-*
4) ju
133. '-A C -u- -- d
v-t - u E Ey-**C?
1)
2) j
3) d--
4) d
134. 'h--i v-R j l--,
j -u- x @- C.
- N EKb-- oC
1) J N- 2) -K Nu N-
3) tJh N 4) D-
135. 'L- E * L- E E-j
C C %p?
1) E-
2) Nx-
3) -
4) x---t
136. d - C L- Ny-N-u-
C?
1) yf
2) df
3) -G
4) *
137. Nun x vu~ -- LT---E
p %u C?

1)
2)

E
vu~
3) ~v u--
4) jFo
138. ' EKg n
EKg
- @N- u- E
Ey**C?
1) u-N 2) -d

3) i-M
4) Nd-J \ f
139. Nu-n -- -------E ---i N-, @N--y
p C?
1) v-
2) vA-p-C-
3) N d
4) u-n-
140. - n NuJn Bt-Eo
E --E u lA vu
hC E \-oC?
1) j-E 2) i-M 3) -d
4) d
141. 'u-, v, J-Q- Nc--E
y E \-oC ?
1) u q
2) -NL Jd
3) vEq--\
4) d
142. P- --- - N
NE--T-h, o Nu v-R
\oC ?
1) --
2) v
3) Eo
4) v & -v
143. u- ~ C?
1) N- vv
2) v
3) Nu vv- -s 4) jFo
144. N--v K-~- v-dE *-*C?
1) x
2) ---L- N-
3) J
4) jFo
145. E E-- E ~u-, N-Eo L
d- -?
1) vo-v
2) -F-L-~ (x-v--)
3) --*
4) jFo
146. --u- vv ---o-p
u--Eo -?
1) Et--t
2) v
3) -
4) -E-
147. Ld y ~- E-E J-Q-L--LT, J y ~- v-Eo
-a?
1) - J-f 2) E
3) yu
4) J-Q- d
148. Eq-y-E Ny-N-u-- --
C?
1) ~ t
2) E
3) v-d
4) Et--t E

q-L D: d- 7
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-t 2012

o- u-- (v-v-)
vU @ vv x-d-
t q v--E --h

---E --- v o-->- -C. uC: x.


E--Jq, y--E Hx -d-u
o-@ -h Cho ' vU @
vv L--u-E-- v--E h o. DE -j u-n
(N-d 1) -- ---,
N 18 (N-d 2, 3, 4) y-E
Hx -d-u o--@ ----E
- G-hC.
|: -Z-Eq L--u-E--/ -Z-Eq
L--q/ u- jq/ --t-
o-@ >-F-J- 55 \- H/
H/ - vU L. h, , >-FJ nx Tx O- CN L.
: --N J - u-n
qL Ey--h. -h: -j *
- -a. *-J-D: d- 3

|: uq/ -@, >q, NZ -bd-


Bh-gj L. : \
- q-L Eyh.
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j @ x

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(j) Nu y 'wj --- - @ x q v--E --h
-C. uC: -q; |: j vU.
: --N J -.
-h: -j * - -a.
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~ u jy 1250 S
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N-: -J{- 18, v- (>-F-J)
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(Recruitment), RRC, Secunderabad
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149.

vu~ ~, j-h -> ~u


u Nu v-R -- E
*-*C ?
1)
2) j
3) , j
4) --
150. -gy C Eo u- Eo
u- u---- 'N-
- --o-C
1) ----
2) d- d
3) -J-
4) j-E
151. J- x -C C?
1) v-z
2)
3) y-
4) u- n--
152. ' E Nu-n- C- -Lq
cEo v--l-A- vu- --J*---o u-v E \-o-C
?
1) v & -v
2)
3) .- .-.--..
4) ---
153. NuJn, J-- u, u- J- n-
u J - vA--Eo
?
1) u- vv- 2) u- --
3) vu~ -- 4) --C --
154. u- vv- El-P---E -u-
--J -N-- lA E Ey-*-*C
?
1) -u
2) x- & - \
3) -K Nu--N
4) .N.-
155. -J \x l-A YEo
v---d?
1) -- lA
2) Nv
3) vu--Y lA
4) iu
156. NuJn * u- P-*
p-- v-R- pd \--Eo
-?
1) -
2) ~u
3) pd--
4) jFo
157. --, Eq -- C?
1) -a
2) FL-
3)
4) --
158. x C
1) CyN-B
2) -v
3) vAN-B
4) l-- - Zd
159. ' Eo-- Jh -u-t
%u vd E \-oC
1) - v
2) j-E
3) xf
4) d--
160. N--o >x o -, J-v-,
\ v O-u C- J-Q-L-* y NuJn N--o
G-%Cl CC E L--- ~u?
1) --y--
2) x-
3) u-
4) Nx-
----: 411; 422; 431; 443; 452;
461; 471; 482; 491; 501; 512; 521; 531;
541; 552; 562; 571; 582; 594; 603; 612;
621; 631; 642; 653; 662; 671; 681; 692;
702; 714; 721; 733; 742; 753; 762; 771;
782; 792; 803; 812; 822; 832; 842; 852;
862; 871; 882; 893; 902; 911; 923; 933;
942; 952; 962; 973; 982; 993; 1003;
1011; 1022; 1033; 1042; 1052; 1062;
1074; 1082; 1093; 1104; 1111; 1121; 1134;
1142; 1153; 1161; 1174; 1184; 1194; 1203;
1211; 1222; 1232; 1244; 1253; 1262;
1272; 1284; 1293; 1302; 1314; 1324;
1334; 1342; 1353; 1361; 1373; 1384;
1394; 1401; 1411; 1422; 1434; 1441;
1452; 1461; 1472; 1484; 1493; 1502;
1513; 1522; 1532; 1542; 1554; 1563;
1574; 1583; 1594; 1604.

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E vtv *


- -N-- -E-- . Ov --C--.)

- 2 -d 2012

-- j---
%h pKz-
C(B, r2) %h u-p-Jz--j

----E A-u x '%h .


%h-E -C* C u -
-u- E- - K~x -
\.
1) %h E l-
2) J-%h %h v -s
v -s tj -u
3) %h pz-
4) %h p-Jz- %h
5) vu~ t pz--, Au t pz %h- l %h-E
uj l.

%h u - l-

i) C (A, r1),
AB = AP + BP
d = r1 + r2

pJz--j

ii)

AB = r1 r2

iii)

B
P

--j

AB > r1 + r2

pz-- -E j
Eo Au t
pz-- -E .
C(A, r1), C(B, r2),
AB = d -
a) d = r1 + r2
vu~ t pz u = 2
b) d < r1 + r2 Au t pz- u
= 0.

r1 .P
A
K

iv)

n G ('O') * n- (r) o
G N-AE %h . DEo C (O, r)
h. 'O' %h--v-E, 'r' %h ul-E . O C (O, r).
C(O, r) j A, B G-

ABE , AB u h. AB u
%h-v y R, C u---C.
%h l -u u .

r2

r1
A

. r2

c) d > (r1 + r2)


B
K

-%-h--

--j AB < r1 + r2 -C.


i) u-p-Jz %h- UL t pz- u = 3 d = r1 + r2 C(A,
r1), C(B, r2) UL t pz-
l3
l u
1

= 3

l2

vu~ t pz, Au t pz-- u-n---.

d) vu~ t pz- = d2 (r1 r2)2


Au t pz-
=

d2(r1 + r2)2

e) C(O, r)

%h-E
v * 'd'
E P u
G *
pz- U-.

PA = PB =

A
r

x p D`---v j-u-E
.

C(O, r) AB, CD
u. N 'P' l -.

OP = r

ii) C (o, r)

%h-E l
----
OP < r
iii) C(O, r) l
OP>r -C.

l
P

-- --
l

d2 r2

--l-
v * pz-G-- L
ul, pz-G- l pz--
.
- -%h ul *J G-
l ulE -i,
%hE pz-.

--Jt--d -X-E--
%h- l-

pJz--j O UL 'O' v o %h-E A l


PQ pz-, AB
t pz-- u = 1.
u. ACB j 'C'
G ACB E
BAQ ---E- -- -%-h- C
iii) C (A, r1) ,
B
C(B, r2)
----E ---E, ADB
O
%h- E BAP -E
D
B
UL t
A
P
Q
pz-- u = 2. %h-E
-E Ey-*-h.
l4
l3
ACB = BAQ, ADB = BAP ---Eo -- -%-hl1
- -l- -Ey-*h. -Nu- ACB =
BAQ, ADB = BAP - - -%h-E -A l
PQ
A
B
pz- -----C.
l

ii) C (A, r1), C(B, r2)


AB

l1

l2

iv)

%h
C(A,
C(B,

r1),
r2)

UT t pz- - u = 4.
vu~ Au t pz-: t pz-
%h- j Eo vu~ t

P
D

(P

G )

ii) PA. PB = PC. PD


= OP2 r2

C
D

u G
O
)
P
B
l: PAB -- A
C(O, r)
%hEo A, B x h PT pz- C v -\-.
(P

-%--h-E --e- -~- -u ---!

i) PA. PB = PC. PD= r2OP2

PA.PB = OP2r2
= PT2

vA u %h-E e-~. d
%h-E e--~ u .
vE xDl 'u _-C.
A, B C (O, r) X, Y C(O, r)
X
j G-.
P
AXB > AYB d AXB E
r
C -E, AYB E pO
--E
.
AXB = AYB AXB, A
B
Y
AYB l-%-h--.

AXB , u AB
%--i- %h- Eo %h- .
AXB > AYB AXBE C %h E, AYB E p-%h -E .
A, B C(O, r) AXB E C %hE --E, AYB E p-%h E -E .
C %h--- E p-, p%h-E C , l-%-h-E
-.
%h uj l-
i) C(O, r), C(O', r) %h y--.
ii) %h u
h. N-u E.
iii) %h u v *
. N-u- %h v
* E u -
.
iv) %h v l
- h. N-u- u.
v) %h j u --Cy %h
v y -C.
vi) %h v * j u U
u --Cy-- hC.
vii) %h-v, u u-G-- L u
C.
%h pz-
i) C(O, r) %h-E l
pz-

O
.

PA. PB = PC. PD

(... POT -

%h u

vA)

PT= PA.PB

O
r

T
l-:
u pJz %h
pz-G-, v L-- -j C.
C(A, r1), C(B, r2) %h 'P' l pJz-
i) r1+r2 = AB AB E 'P', r1:r2 Ep-Ah
-,
ii) r1r2 = AB AB E 'P', r1 : r2
EpAh u N>h.
l: %h U vu~, Au
t pz-- G- %h
v L --Eo ul EpAh u, - h.
C(A, r1), C(B, r2)

%h
AB > r1 + r2 u , v
u ~ pzC
-
D
G 'P', AB
P
E r1:r2 EpA- h A
B
u
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-- 21 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. MATHS MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

Max. Marks: 80

(1 *

n(n + 1)(n + 2)

40

Eo -bd---J vo
)
41 . A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, B = {1, 2, 3, ....., 30}. f v-Eo A
* B f(x) = x2 + 1 Ey*. X A u
X N-AE f(x) = {10, 17, 26} Ey-*h,
C-- NA 'X' --C?

1)
6
n2(n + 1)2
3)
4

1) {1, 2, 3}

2) {2, 3, 4}

42. (p (q)) (p q)
1)

2)
4)

u p, q v- Ey*h, q p u-N-
1) u
2) u 3) El-J-
4) D-
44. C- C u?
45.

1) [p (q)] [(p) q]

2) (p q) p q

3) (p q) p q

4) (p q) p q

C- j y E-Eo N- yC?
1) A (B C) = (A B) (A C)

2) A

3)

4)

' =

=A

jFo
46. x 'O' v,
'R' ul o
AB = 35 R u-N-
A.
hEo -J-. h O
.
-J-, --J--
C?
B

1) 50.5

2) 60.3

3) 70.1

4) 57.6

47 log102 = 0.3010, log103 = 0.4771

2 30 3100

Eo ?
1) 57

2) 58

3) 59

4) 60

48 ax - 1 = bc, by - 1= ac , cz - 1 = ab

, C-

C u?

1)

x,y,z

3)

xy = x
x,y,z
x

x,y,z

2)

x,y,z

= x
x,y,z

4)

1) ay + bx + c = 0

xy2 = x
x,y,z

D-

49 (a - b)5+ (b - c)5 + (c - a)5

66.

ab)
3) 5(a - b)(b - c) (c - a)(a2 - ab)
a2 -

2) 2(a - b)(b - c)(c - a)(

a,b,c

a,b,c

4)

D-
50. C-- u v-C?
1) f(x), g(x) e --j f(x). g(x)
e
2) f(x) -
--i f(kx) = knf(x).
(f(x) \ J- n)
3) 1, 2
4) D-
51. x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = (x2 + px + q)2 q =
a2

(
(

1
1) b -
2
4

)
)

(
(

1
b
2) a2 -
4
4

1
a
3) b2 -
2
4

1
4) b2 - a2
3

52. (3a + 2b - c + d)2 - ka(2b - c + d)


k

)
)

67.

69

\ N--

-
~Eo pJzhC?

3) {1, 3}

4) {1, 2}

(
(
(
(

)
)
)
)

(
(
(
(

)
)
)
)

q q
p
r
4) x2 + + x + + + 2 = 0
p
r
r
p

g(x) =

2) (2n + 1)Cn

20

) Nh--

3) 2nCn+1 4) 2n Cn-1

%h v C?
1) (2, 3)
3
5
3) (
2 ,
2 )

Q{o

ABC

\ J-

2) (1 1)

- -u Nu
(x + 2), - (x2 + Ax 4), 3
A N ?

2) 15

3) 18

4) 20

1) 5

1) AD > CD > AB

2+3

2-3

2) 4
2

)(
+

2-3

2+3

2) 194

3) 6

4) 7

3) AB > AD > CD

=
3) 185

4) 195

%d u

f = 2x + 3y

2) 18

3) 15

4) 24

1)

%d u f(x, y)
-v---E Eo Je
2)

J-N

3)

u 4) D-
u-n-u

72 x + y 6, 2x + y 8, x 0, y 0

2
1)
p

2)
p

p
3)
2

p
4)

1
74. Lt =
x 0 x
1)

2) 0
3) 1
4) u- n
x4
{

5}, Z g--u NA
3
AZ =

75 A = x R :

1
3

1
2

1)

1
4

2)

3)

4) 0

105.

- -d * j o P
30 n y-- C. \ * 60 O. P
C
J-T--p C 60 n y C.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
P
h ?
-- n ju 1386 .O., p
1) 10 O. 2) 20 O. 3) 303 O.
4) 15 O.
7 Ox-, --E u ul (Ox ) ?
106. a cos ( + ) = b cos( ) cot . cot =
1) 28
2) 42
3) 35
4) 56
a+b
ab
b
a
> --- h, u--
1)
3)
2)
4)
a
b
ab
a+b
h-E 5 x, -> u
1 3
?
(A2 2A) vA El-
107. A = [
2 1]

89 ABC

E o

4) (
2

104. sin 780 . sin 480 + cos 240. cos 300 =

(x3 + 3x2 2x 5),

1) 12
x

AC BD
3) 4) AC + BD
2

-C?

= 4x + 3y

87.

AC + BD
2)
2

B = 70, C = 50. A \ -Cy AD - AB, AD, CD j v

1) 16

xy

86.

88.

1) 2nCn

1) AC BD

Nh-- u ?

55.

C vA--e C?
1) x, y R x y
2) x, y R
3) A = {1, 2, 3} j R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3)}
4) jFo
56. f(x) = 2x +3, gof(x) = 16x2 + 48x + 36

95 A(2, 2), B(8, 4), C(5, 7)

77. xp = y

2n

- ->
% - ->
2) N% - ->
3) 1, 2
4) D-
73. %h -Jx-"--i -> u n.
n --p -> d-- p ,
%h ul ?

q q
p r
3) x2 - - x + - + 2 = 0
p
r
r
p

a
x

1)

2) x2 - + x + + - 2 = 0
p
r
r
p

x =1

x
a

1) x2 - + x + + + 2 = 0
q
r
r p

71 x 0, y 0, 8x + 5y 40, 4x + 3y 12

54. ,

- --o _ --D O--


1
1
px2+ qx + r = 0 , + , +
- --o

_----D O-- C?

anx + an1 xn1 + .... + a0


76. Lt
= (m n)
x bmxm + bm1 xm1 + ...... + b0
an
an
bm
bm
1) , 1
2) , 0
3) , 1 4) , 0
bm
an
an
bm

4) -24

~u-v- Je N ?

X-

2) { -1, 1}

3) 27

70. x 0, y 0, x + y 5, 3x + y 9

4) 18

53 y = (k - 2)x2 + 2(2k - 3)x + (5k - 6)


1) {2, 3}

2) 16

NA

F v A * B 15 .O.
vhC. uh A * B , AJT v--E
G-- B * A v----E 8
dC. E- F - 4 .O.
, F v ?
1) 1 .O./
2) 2 .O./
3) 3 .O./
4) 4 .O./

g _-i

3) 16

2) ax + by + c = 0
4) ax - by + c = 0

_ O--
A = {x : x 2 x 4} -C?

1) 182

2) 12

4) {11, 10, ..... ,19}

68. x +

x x

N ?

1) 10

1) 24

-
1) 3(a - b)(b - c)(c - a).(a2 + b2 + c2)

n2(n - 1)2
4)
4

, 52 )
\ -C* C- C 96. (2, 1), (4, 5), (1, 3) - ABC
u?
u G- ABC ju
1) x2 - 6x + 8 > 0
2) x2 - 6x + 8 0
1) y < 0, p = 2n + 1 C
1) 20
2) 16
3) 18
4) 8
3) x2 + 6x 8 > 0
4) x2 - 6x + 8 0
2) y < 0, p = 2n
97. E---~ - Eo- LT
1
1
1
C jx C-
3) 1, 2
4) D-
59. + + + ... + n h ?
1
1
1
1
1
1
1.3 3.5
5.7
1) ( , , ) 2) (
78. a, b u 'n' --u-- h ?
,
,
)
2
2
2
2
2
2
n
n
2n + 1
2n - 1
1
1
1
1
1
1
n(a b)
n(a + b)
n(b a)
1)
2)
3)
4)
3) ( , , )
4) (
1)
2) 3) 4) D-
,
,
)
2n + 1
2n - 1
n
n
3
3
3
3
3
3
2
2
2
60. ---- l
18
98. --- E N-g u i
i
i1
1
79. (2 + 3
)=
1
1) vu--- lA
2) E- lA
1) sin1 ( )
2) cos1 (
)
i=1
2
1 18
1 17
2
17
18
3) v Et lA
4) D-
2) 3(2 1) + (3 1)
1) 2(2 1) + (3 1)
1
1
2
2
3) tan1 ( )
4) cos1 ( )
2
2
1
61. n(A) = n(B) --p C-- C u?
3) 2(2181) + (3181)
4) D-
,
4
,
5)
,
(3
,
5
,
4)
G

-L --Eo
99.
(2
2
1) f : A B y f : A B vh
80. GP Tm, Tn, Tp Sx G.P. , m,
xy Ep-Ah N>hC?
2) f : A B y f-1 : B A u- n
n, p v ?
1) - 5 : 4
2) u 5 : 4
3) f : A B vh f : A B y
1) A.P.
2) G.P.
3) H.P.
4) D-
4) u 4 : 5
3) - 4 : 5
4) jFo
n , logn
81. 1 < a < b < x, n N. n > 1 logn
,
log
.
100
log
1
log
{
log
32
}
=
2 x =
[
]
a
c
b
x
4

2
62. f : A A q v, g : A B n vi,
H.P. a, b, c v ?
16
625
25
4
C C u?
1) A.P.
2) H.P.
3) G.P.
4) D-
2)
3)
4)
1)
625
16
4
25
1) gof n v
2) gof q v
82. a, bu A.M., G.M., H.M. A, G, H
101. sinA = psinB, cosA = q cosB tanA =
3) fog q v
4) D-
*h, A, G, H v ?

n
n- 1
1q2
1p2
63. f(x) = a0x + a1x
+ ..... + an -C a0 + a1
1)
2)
1) A.P.
2) H.P.
3) G.P.
4) D-
2

1q
p2 1
2
2
+ a2 + a3 + ..... = 2 (a1 + a3 + a5 + ...) tEo
83. ABC AD BC, BD = 3 CD 2 AC + BC =

1q2
1+p2
h f(x) \ -
3)
4)
1) 3 AB2
2) AB2
3) 2 AB2
4) 5 AB2
2+1

p
1+q2

1) (x - 1)
2) (x + 1) 3) (2x - 1) 4) (2x + 1)
84. ABC BC, CA , AB u G- D, E, F
2001
2001
102.
3sinA
+
5
cosA
=
5

5
sinA
3 cosA =
64. C-- C (1999
+ 2001
) Ez
AB2 + BC2 + CA2 =
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5
4) 3
3
4
ThC?
2
2
2
2
2
2
1)
4 (AD + BE + CF ) 2)
3 (AD + BE + CF )
103. x = tan170. tan80, y = tan70. cot20
1) 1999
2) 2001
3) 3999
4) 4000
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
3) (AD + BE + CF ) 4) (AD + BE + CF )
4
x3 + y3 =
65. x2 - 3x + 2 = 0, x2 - 5x + p = 0 _--O--- t
D 3l AB + CD =
85.

ABC %h BC
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
--- p2 - 10p E ?

58.

n(n + 1)(n + 2)
43 p: x R, x2 0, q: n N, N
8

2) {10, 9, ..... ,14}


3) {0, 1, 2, 3, ..... ,15)

--p ax2 + bx + c = 0 _--O--


C y = x2 ---Eo pJz-hC?
3) bx + ay - c = 0

-h
D-

2)
3

57. b2 = 4ac

4) {1, 4, 5}

N--
j

3)

3) {3, 4, 5}

Time: 2.30 Hours


1) {11, 10, ..... ,15}

2n(n + 1)(2n + 1)

1) 5
2) 25
y = 1,
x+
y=1
x +
108.
a
b

2) AD < CD < AB
4)

D-
90. ABC \ G 'O' , C
C u?
1
2
1
2) (OA + OB + OC) < (AB + BC + CA)
2
1
3) (OA + OB + OC) = (AB + BC + CA)
2

1) (OA + OB + OC) > (AB + BC + CA)

3) 5

C-*--p

B1 =

1) ab(a + b)

2) ab(ab) 3) ab(b a) 4)

109 (AT)1 =

1) A1
110.

4) 25

O---- v lA

2) AT

3)

D-

4) (A1)

vA- %d u C- C u?
1) A.B = 0 A = 0 B = 0 -- --
2) (k. AB)T = k. AT.BT (k C)
1
3) (AB) = I (AT) = BT
4) 1, 3
4) D-
2
3
2 4

111. [
.A = [ 3 1] %h J A vA

4
6 ]
91. ABCD v->- AB // CD. AB = 20 .O.,
BC = 8 .O., CD = 10 .O., AD = 6 .O.
1/8
8/7
7/8
1) [
] 2) [ 1/8
]
ABCD v >- j u (..O.-- ) ?
12/7
4/3
7/12
3/4
1) 84
2) 92
3) 72
4) D-
7/8
1/8

4) D-
3) [
7/12 4/3 ]
92. ABC \ J-%-hj 'P' G. PL , PM ,


PN - BC , AC , BA U -j L,
2 1 n
]=
112. n N , n J-u [
3 2
M, N y --x -?1)
2

u
v
A
2)
2

2 C vA
1) -
2) q
3)
2

E
vA
4)
D

3) -
4) D-
2 + B2 =
113.
AB
=
B,
BA
=
A

A
93. C C v?
1) A + B
2) A B 3) AB
4) O
1) -s -Cy-- - p s
114. -v vA A, vA O-- A24A5I = 0
2) G- ---u s
%h--Jh A1 =
3) 1, 2
4) D-
1
2) (A 4I)
1) (A 4I)
3
94. A(2, 1), B(0, 0), C(3, 0) Q{- vA ABC
1
1
4) (A4I)
3) (A4I)
pC. A -Cy-- BC E
4
5
G E--
115. C(A, r1), C(B, r2) %h. r1 + r2 < AB u

- %h- UL t yz-- u
1) (5 10, 0)
2) ( 5 + 10, 0)

1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 0
3) (5 + 10, 0)
4) D-

-- 21 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. MATHS MODEL GRAND TEST

116 ax + 3y + 1 = 0


1)

117. y - 1 = 0

135
2)

X-~
a =

-%-d u (3,

1) (3, -2)

3) - 3
2)

4) 2

G vA-G

2) (0, -3) 3) (3, 0)

4) (-3, 0)

1) A.M.

u- -
u- -
3) A.M. = u- = --
4) D-
128. x, (x + 2), (x - 3), (x + 6) --u -
29
1, 2, 3, 4. hE A.M. = x =
10

118. A

* 4 vE, 5 xE --o.
* B 3 vE, 7 xE o. *
A * AE, * B * -
%-*a- B. - *a h 3
x 2 xE, vE A a -
-u ?

4C1 7C2
5C1 3C1 7C1
1) +
9C1 10C2
9C1 10C2
4C2 7C1
5C1 3C2 7C1
2) +
9C1 10C2
9C1 10C2

4)

D-
yv -. A, B - -N
-u 16 . O A B p--E -u
1

A -u
3
1
1
1 1
1 1
1) ,
2) , 3) ,
4) D-
2
3
4 5
5 6
120. .11000j vf R = 5% p
xJ f \d lA- -x
vf h ?
1) .13200
2) .13310
4) .14500
3) .13500
121. h d .2400 Ej 10% N*a 8% h d ,
- C ---L?
1) 20

.
1) 60

2) 30
20

3) 25

4) 15

EN x u-
2) 70

3) 85

4) 90

123 P, Q

u 120 .O. P *
uo 12 - --J- A, 4
Q -. Q l 1 PM --J- B
3 40 EN PM P E ---. A, B
L
1) P * 55 .O.
2) P * 60 .O.
3) P * 66 .O
4) P * 70 .O.
124. H@ vv-- -j u
1) u-
2) -
3) --
4) D-
125. x = 10n, (n = 1, 2, ..., n) f(x) = log10x E
Ey*h, .... f(1), f(2), ....f(n) =
.

1) n

2) (n + 1) 3) (n - 1)

2) 3

3) 4

4) 1

1) i, ii, iii

2) i, ii, iv 3) i, iii, iv

4) ii, iii, iv

. \---u C i) l P-
ii) ----
iii) o -C-* E a
iv) = 3.1416
1) i, ii, iv

NuJn
---
y
ii) NuJn
u
-C-* hEo, Eo
\ -
iii) NuJn xE - J NE-
iv) NuJn u T l-AE
ju

. j--- C Eo Jh-.
i) j-u-j J- - ii) vA-- u
iii) j--J-- vA
iv) vA-- E -- h 180

2) ii, iii, iv 3) i, ii, iii

4) i, ii, iii, iv

131.

119 A, B

122 6

1) 2
129

130

4C1 7C2
5C2 3C1 7C2
3) +
9C2 10C1
9C2 10C2

i)

2) A.M.

C-- J-E Jh-.


i) x C L-q
ii) d uvq j J---
iii) Jb- u--q
od
iv) X --%-g-Bn C u--q
1) i, iii

2) ii, iv

3) iii, iv

1) i, ii, iii

o - nE l
1) vN x pd p
2) - Ny, juEo -C-
3) Nun x x h, Ny, G--Eo
-C-
4) NuJn Eu-@-N- Y j-u,
%p NE--T--N-
133. '% -b C C
Y N- L---hC?
1) v- N
2) -> N
3) v-P-~ N
4) \ %-A N
134. - J----G-%-Cl ----C
1) -L-d
2) - v-R
3)
4) ---E
135. --A -- o NuJn
uY-E -- -\---E
*a -u N- d-- E -A
, --u- ---
--L-. C-* ~u
1) c
2) --
3) NE-
4) ju
136. Nt -A --o u Nu-JnE

3
A = .. v - vA

1) i, ii, iv
140.

-o h 10, 3 -o
h 5 O NtR h
1) 15.0
2) 10.0 3) 8.5
4) 7.5
127. Eo h-- Jh E

d2013

ju Jh-*C. C-* ~u
c
2) --
3) NE-
4) ju
137. C-- J--EC C?

-b d o - -d u (d 2); 2) u- q/ - @; 3) >- C; 4) s -d
u (Tx) , 5) - .b - - - 3 TK 50, *- - J- 2 - T- K- - 25 \- -.
K~ D: 2013 -J 27
-j: nest.net.in

--- '--j u--


\-- d 2013--- N- C.
Dx d1, d2 -T-K .
d1: \ \ C-* u-Jn .35,000,
10 nx EL-* u-n- \-\J
.25,000 --h.
|: >-F-J, H-H-/ H--/ H--/ H--/ H-/ H/ Hq
, q x >F-J *J -q Nu-n |.
d2: n EL-* u-Jn
.50,000, C nx EL-* u-n \-\J .35,000 Ch.
|: >-F-J, H-H-/ H--/ H--/ H--/ H-/ H/ Hq
*J q Nu-n |.
K~: h \ 200.
-T-K: 1) > q / NZ (d 1)-/ -C

-- -Jq q
N----E d Fd- E--Jq
h jq , q Jq, qx
v--E --h -C. uC: x.
q: (- y, N, F);
q (Jq); d >
- - - .
|: -C N vU/ x.
: v K~ y (>--- )
-j J>-Z- *-J-D: d 31
q- v K~: d- 7
q Jq q v K~: d- 16
-j: http://pgntruhs.org

3) i, iii

4) ii, iv

1) i, ii
143

4a

1)

2) i, iv

- N u-h
(Developmental Activities) E ?
1) N N-D--
2) CJ u
3) Nu-n u- u--~
4) NE-
141. v--t u- v-uEo h---
Nu v-R Ey- vx E
C?
1) J\ v
2) P--vD-
3) ---t-
4) N--J-u
142. QJ{ l-A C
i) -Jy--z -
ii) P v l-A uA-
iii) vc--- N d-hC
iv) Eo Jh a--o-o %h
A -
2) ii, iii

3) iii, iv

4) i, iv

. v lA x L v-?
i) c--h --C
ii) vc--- -jC
iii) Eo Jh a--
iv) Nu-n -- a--
1) i, ii, iii

4) n(n + 1)

126. 7

4) iii, iv

. 'Nu-n E J-CE n --
EE Eo *-hC?
1) v
2) g %d
3) -uEo -\- 4) Fo
139. u x - u-
- L v
-
i) \ v Eg---o ~u- -
C---.
ii) C- ----.
iii) % -a.
iv) v-Rl
C--Eo
-
.

4) ii, iii

132.

2) i, iii, iv 3) ii, iv

138

2) i, ii, iv 3) i, iv

4) i, ii, iii, iv

144

. v-N--, CJ u - -
-h y vOu C-E -j
u- N?
1) "
2)
3) - 4) Fo
145. uN-B -- U-E --T
--
i) >-f
ii) -f
iii) J-- d iv) x-f
1) i, ii, iii

2) i, iii

3) iii

-A C s- -u E y Nu-n- K-~* \
n uo-, u n uo-,
\ n uo-- N->-. E
~
1) v--
2) Ny--F-
3) hy-v-
4) N-~ h
147. -- - j * C aCl
hy
1) -C
2) _-C
3) JT y _-C
4) p
148. C jE Jh-.
i) ----
j--
ii) --
j o
iii) -
Mx
iv) -

1) i, ii, iii

2) i, ii, iv 3) ii, iii, iv 4) i, ii, iii, iv

C- J--EC
i) 1
ii) 37 -
iii) 53 -

E
uMx
b -

1) i, ii

-xq

2) ii, iii

3) ii

4) iii, iv

150.

vA o Nu-n y- vu
Nu--u-v- -C-* Y-h
1) j--
2) x
3) q
4) x
151. -u- -d--T u-v C?
i) -A 20 * 30 C Nun L
ii) Oj--- uh-- L
iii) -Eo *J J-- C- L
iv) -Eo Nu-n Eu-@-N--E y-- L
1) i, ii, iii
2) i, iii, iv 3) i, ii, iv 4) ii, iii, iv
152. y a--, JQ
- - y a- v-j - o Al
1) -
2) v--
3) y-
4) v-p
153. (2x - y)4 Nh-J- u --C---E
-j ---lA
1) -
2) E-
3) Nx-
4) x-
154. Nx- l-A -C-* N
i) * h--E -C.
ii) - vv.
iii) NuJn t %A N--E-hC.
iv) -u *o - N>- y xd
-u J-\-Eo -- hC.
1) i, ii, iii

2) ii , iii, iv 3) i, ii, iv 4) i, ii, iii, iv

155

. -l, u-, L l--j ---


lA
1) y-
2) v-p
3) u J-\
4) x-
156. v ' c L-
p- --u- Et-j --
C?
1) J\
2) v--
3) c
4) Fo
157. ---Y-E -C?
i) J\
ii) -
iii) %--t-
iv) , *a-y
1) ii, iv

2) i, ii, iii

3) ii, iii, iv 4) ii

158

. nK-- JTD, ED E y --a?


1) " E
2) E
3) -h N
4) E-
159. E---E -C* C?
i) i y u-
ii) -A - T_-hC
iii) -- E S- JhC
iv) u---E T-C
1) i, ii, iii

4) i, ii, iii, iv

146.

149.

iv) 54

160

2) i, ii, iv 3) i, iii, iv

. Nu-n --
N--E
---C
1) " K~
2)
3) N--v K~
4)

4) iii, iv

p--p a -,
- J-C-l--E
u-- K~
---E

----:

41-3; 42-1; 43-1; 44-4; 45-4; 46-4;


47-1; 48-1; 49-3; 50-3; 51-1; 52-2; 53-1; 54-4;
55-4; 56-2; 57-1; 58-4; 59-1; 60-2; 61-4; 62-1;
63-2; 64-4; 65-4; 66-1; 67-1; 68-3; 69-4; 70-3;
71-1; 72-2; 73-1; 74-4; 75-4; 76-2; 77-3; 78-2;
79-3; 80-1; 81-3; 82-3; 83-3; 84-2; 85-4; 86-1;
87-3; 88-1; 89-3; 90-1; 91-3; 92-2; 93-3; 94-1;
95-4; 96-4; 97-4; 98-4; 99-1; 100-2; 101-2; 102-4;
103-2; 104-2; 105-3; 106-1; 107-2; 108-3; 109-4;
110-4; 111-2; 112-3; 113-1; 114-4; 115-3; 116-3;
117-3; 118-1; 119-1; 120-2; 121-1; 122-2; 123-3;
124-3; 125-2; 126-3; 127-2; 128-4; 129 2 130 3
131 4 132 4 133 1 134 4 135 4 136 1 137 2
138 2 139 3 140 4 141 3 142 1 143 3 144 2
145 3 146 4 147 1 148 1 149 3 150 4 151 3
152 2 153 2 154 3 155 2 156 3 157 4 158 1
159 1 160 1

;
;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;
.

;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;
;

;
;
;
;
;

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E -X vtv


-P~- n -E-- -%- --C--*-C.)

-- 22 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. PHYSICAL SCIENCES MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

Max. Marks: 80

(1 * 40 Eo
-bd---J vo .)
41. C- NA t
1) \, E
2) & vu-, v-
3) vu-, x n 4) Fo j-
42. - Ve = Ga Mb Rc N v B- h a, b, c N- - (G = Ny-y n, M = v-u-P, R = ul)

58.

3) =

y-vA -n-
1) 8.318

2) = 2

4) =
2
(R)

2) 102 T
3) 104 T
4) 106 T

76.

107 erg gm m1 k1

2) 8.318 J gm m1 k1
3) 1.986 Cal gm m1 k1

Z V =

107 i ms1. C B = 2 jT v Bv o \ ~v- v--*C. Ej E


?
1) 3.2 1012 N
3) 3.2 106 N

4)

Fo j
,
,
, ,
60. - , 20C l --J 100 cm3 Eo 100C -h --J, ,
4) D-
125 cm3 uC. --J-
?
43. v\ -\ O 200 N---o.
'5 x Ap-p - 5 N.O.
1) 0.033/C
2) 0.0033/ C
CL, v\ F (.O.-)
3) 0.33/C
4) D-

1) 0.05
2) 0.005 3) 0.0005 4) 0.001
61. F = 2i + 3j + 4k ux h
- j E- Eo

44. 70 .O. -o -u- - 33.6 x


S = i + 2j + k Ox nv- Ch J-T E
20 - hC. E - 80 .O. h
1) 10 J
2) 11 J
3) 12 J
4) 20 J
E ---h ?

62.
A
=
4i
+
3j;
B
=
8i
+
6j

A
+
B C =
1) 1.8 . 2) 1.6 . 3) 33.6 . 4) 1.59 .
3
5
45. j A l-Eo -J-*C
1) tan1 ( )
2) tan1 ( )
4
6
1) v 2) 3) v, 4) q-
4
13
3) tan1 ( )
4) tan1 ( )
3
14
46. - u-- - u ?
63. 300 Ox ho v * E C
1) 2n
2) n
3) 2n
4) (2n+1)
-N--. -~- N * E
47. He-Ne --j` u ?
l y 100 O./ . v~h h
1) 6943 A
2) 6328 A
o- ---?
3) 5000 A
4) 5500 A
1) 300 O. 2) 150 O 3) 219.9 O. 4) 100 O.
48. g -E - N
64. 39.2 Ox ho P-j * Ed-E-- j
N-J h 4 x y NE J, Eo
1) 4 d-x
2) 2 dx
N-?

3) d-x
4) d-x
1) 39.2 O./.
2) 9.8 O./.
r2
49. 20 .O. ul o - p -
3) 19.8 O./.
4) 6.29 O./.
15 .O. h *-p
65. ~A -
- 45
vA-G p--C?
300 ms1 a. E uh ?
1) 25 .O.
2) 30 .O.
1) 2.296 .O.
2) 9183.67 .O.
3) 10 .O.
4) 15 .O.
3) 9.184 .O.
4) 3.29 .O.
50. -g- --h --E E
66. EN--E 240 -
1) A v- * N---500 ms1 a-a. vB vu-P
-E v--hC.
5 103 @ -- n u ?
2) -- N E C-l- \.
1) 1.5 KW 2) 2.5 KW 3) 4.5 KW 4) 6 KW
3) A, B j-N
4) A, B j-N .
67. X- - --j` u ?
51. v- y v-J-ho A-- L1) 0.0001 nm 0.1 nm
2) 0.001 nm 10 nm
- u Eo 45 -- p %P-*C. F
3) 10 A 100 A
4) 0.001 A 1 A
v-- -. --p v-- 68. ~-E N?
?
1) v *-- 2) Q-M-----v
1

1) 2
3) 2
4) 2 2
2)

3) xsx
4) Fo
2
69. 20 .O. ~ j -52. - -vA - v-J---E
\ -\--~v Bv 15 A/m. 10 .O.
--E -Lq t
-\ ~v Bv ?
1) y
2) nA-n--
1) 12 A/m 2) 120 A/m 3) 240 A/m 4) 60 A/m
3) v
4) y, nA-n--
70.

uK E-Eo -E \ -n-N?
53. 0C l L yE- 331.3 O./.
1)
2) v
3) 4) O-
27C l yE ?
.
71

Eo -R h v
1) 347.7 O./.
2) 331 O./.

*
,

n
G

p
3) 353 O./.
4) 331.3 O./.
1)

2)
-
54. -- L-h v- 412 Hz %A3)

4)
Fo j-N
-Eo --T-. v- 20 .O.; C 60 .O. l p-C. 72. C- u E
yE ?
d
dip
2) p = L
1) = (NBA)
dt
dt
1) 300 O./.
2) 329.6 O./.
0i1i2
3) 343 O./.
4) D-
4) r =
3) = BiNA
2 (f/l)
55. vA-yE p---E f---E, yE----E Lq F
73. \-\ 'R' E o 'n' y --i B1) 14 O.
2) 15 O.
--E-- v, y --E--
-- L-. u E- EpAh
3) 16.5 O.
4) 20 O.
1) n2
2) nR2
3) n2R
4) R2 n2
56. - 72 .-O. j h,
74. - v:
1800 Ox T-*C. E vAyE 10 x y NEh yE-?
0 idl sin

2)

B . dl = 0i
1) dB =
1) 330 O./.
2) 340 O./.
4
r2
0ni
3) 331.3 O./.
4) 329 O./.
3) B =
4) D-
2r
57. 0.25 Ox o d A-y
75. 5 A Nu v
- - ho T B u 1 .O. E
--u-? (l- 330 m/sec)

j
o
- \ G- v
1) 990 Hz 2) 330 Hz 3) 360 Hz 4) 33 Hz
1
3
1
1)
2
2
2
3
1 1
3)
2 2
2

1) 10 T

--J- , - u
N?
1) = 2

59.

Time: 2.30 Hours

1 1
3
2)
2 2
2

77.

. v --
-

78. O16
8

q- v vu-P
vu-P --- ?

2) OH +

1) BeF2

4) 3.2 N

2) 2200 V 3) 440 V

sp3

-K-- nA E -/3) NH +

4) NF3

N.M. H2SO4 v pH = 104


v-Eo M v- NM h p
v t-L ?

95 250

2) 2.2 106 N

d- vq--t v-N d- d>


2200 V. 4 A. v-N d-

1000 x, -d-
100 x
d d ?
1) 220 V

94

1) 101 N
96

4) 104 N

. C u -- -N u-
--C?
PCl3 + Cl2
2) BiCl3 + H2O
BiOCl + 2HCl
1) PCl5

4) 4400 V

15.995 amu.

2) 102 N 3) 103 N

--

3) 2SO2 + O2

2SO3

4) H2 + I2

2HI

97 36

v _ STP l Jh -(M p = 1.0078 amu mn = 1.0087 amu)


E
-Lq q- --J-
1) 117.6 MeV
2) 127.6 MeV
1) 6.72 N.M.
2) 67.2 Mx
3) 240 MeV
4) 194 MeV
3)
67.2
N.M.
4) 0.672 Mx
79. - d vu-P h u v E = mc2
.
98
N

-j Nv-Eo
c2 N ?

v u-Ch p
8
10
1) 3 10 m/sec
2) 3 10 cm/ sec

3) 9 1020 cm /sec
4) 9 1016 m/sec
1)
2) v
80. -- * - _--i, E vu3) u
4) j- Nv
P u
99. C u x C
1) 2 v- -C
Na
NaOH
2) 4 v- --C
x y CH4
CaO
3) 4 v- _-C
1) N-- x
2) -- x
4) 2 v- _-C
3) v
4) O
1
4
81. He + 7N14 ? + H
CH3
1
2
.

1) O17
8
82

2) O16
8

3)

10

Ne20

4)

10

Ne21

100 CH3 C CH = CH2 IUPAC

. vEq-d- {x u?
1) 0

2) 1

3) 2

CH3

4) 3

1) 3 3 3

, , wjN-j 1 v
83. \
2) 1, 1, 1 wjN-j 3 v
1) C E-Eo LThC
3) 3, 3 jN-j 1 u
+
2) C LThC
4) 1, 1 jN-j 3 u
3) p LThC
4) D-
101. F xjx - C--i F
84. C g-v l t-E (Ge) El d N?
--E ----?
1) 0.72 eV
2) 0.785 eV
3) 1.1 eV

1) 10 ppm

4) 1.21 eV

2) 5 ppm 3) 3 ppm 4) 20 ppm

102

. N-NE h uC hC?
85. 10 M. n u o v J--
1) J-J
2) \Ky
PCl5 250C l h PCl5
PCl3 + Cl2
3)

4) D-
pf. --nA l v 0.1 PCl5,
.
103

C
?
0.2 Cl2, 0.2 PCl3 E LT -- u
1)
N

2)
j N-
--nA n ?
3)

4)
Tx-j wj-N-
1) 0.02
2) 0.4
3) 0.04 4) 0.025
.
104 j E h?
86. HCl v pH 5.4. E jv-
?
1) M d L-
2) M i L-
1) 3.98 106 M
2) 2.98 106 M
3) M CM L- 4) M Nj L-
3) 39.8 106 M
4) D-
105. v
v u l @N-- 50 EN3
87. \\ sp - Js-- p-~
Eo EN-x 99.99% h- C?
1) 25%

2) 50%

3) 75%

1) 100

4) 100%

88 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH IUPAC

1) 1

v-
2) N-
u-
4) D-
89. A, B - ux -
10, 40 .O. u. -- v EpAh
3) 1

1) 1:4

2) 4:1

3) 16:1

4) 1:16

2) 300

3) 500

106 6

v J-
JTh, E ?

1) 0.2 M

2) 0.2 N

500

3) 0.2 m

4) 200

v F
4) 0.02 m

107 27C

l CH4 RMS 300 cm/sec


g-v l RMS 3
x --C.

1) 270 K

2) 900 K

3) 2700 K 4) 270C

108

. C- u-C E C?
90. l = 2 N o - n ~uE Zx T
1) j 2) vj 3) > 4) M\x
\ y u (m) N-
109. jv- -- --v- --
1) 2
2) 3
3) 0
4) 5
u?
91. C- -i q C?
5R
3R
1) q- 2) jv- 3) xJ 4) xJ
1) cm-1
2) cm-1
36
4
92. v J K-~ --T - -n
7R
9R
1) jv
2) v p
3) cm-1
4) cm-1
144
400
3) p u-J-x 4) jFo
110. - u 25. E n-93. C- v N '3 EC
E 'N' ~u o Zx
+
+
+2
1) N

2) O

3) N2

4) NO

1) 13

2) 2

3) 7

4) 15

-- 22 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. PHYSICAL SCIENCES MODEL GRAND TEST


111

. C -Z-E C jV oC
1) Na+

112

2) Mg+2

4) O2

. q-- u J j q-- a ~-%Ah


?
1) Ca

113

3) Al+3

2) Sr

3) Ba

4) Mg

126

. - \oC ?
1) uv
2) d-
3) .- p-
4) -
127. - E x-yEo T-E L
n C?
1) CO2

. C t-E- xJ u J p-J-C?
1) NCl3

114.

2) HCl

1) COCl2

4) N2

4) Cl3CNO2

jv-E --p --E -n-C?


1) NO

2) NO2

3) PbO

4) O2

n -x, ---x E~-hi h


1) -_ h
2) -_ g
3) Lp
4) jFo
.
117 v-- -j ----C?
1) v y
2) vN- y
3) g-v
4) jFo
118. C- C pH N E C?
1) Et-
2) u-vd
3) v
4) h
119. d , , u- - - -
--?
1) L----jq
2) ---jq
3) M--jq
4) jFo
120. y- E-J sx C
1) wj - t-E
2) 3, 4, 5 wj v- L--E-j-
3) ya dJ x
4) ya Tx-
121. V --a- y-E --T
n C?
1) Cr2O3

2) MnO2

3) AuCl3 4) CuSO4

. C- C Nv ?
1) KCl

2) NH4Cl

3) KNO3

4)

jv-\
. - L -~ Bv vv
1) t-- 2) v- 3)
b 4) D-
124. - Cl2 h, N
p-. ?
1) p O2 u - x
2) u p HCl x
3) u p HOCl x
4) O2 u x
125. v- \-, 4
F o. F, \-
-
123

1)

,
4 1

4 1
3) ,
5 5

4) H2O

-x-G--E i x u
2) 457

3) 347

4) 574

129

116.

122

128.

1) 547

2) CHCl3

3) CaCl2
115.

3) H2

--u - t

2) Ca(OH)2 3) SO2

4 1
2) ,
1 4
1 4
4) ,
5 5

@ Nu N, -f

. _- -- j-
-- C?
1) --*-v
2) ~v--u-
3) l -
4) %u -
.
130 '---Jt- u-Eo C---E j h lA
1) -u v-z lA 2) -u lA
3) y- lA
4) v-- lA
131. '--- C-A - E-@-N vp E \-oC?
1) --v
2) xf
3) d--
4) u
132. u-- -K ~u --?
E vPo* Nu-h ?
1) 2) q 3) Mx
4) x
133. -u-- E- J--dE C---E
p u-
1) El- u-
2) - u-
3) n El-P u-
4) u-
134. 'u v-R- E --- -* n
Lp--E L u-v--R Et vC?
1) u, jN-u v
2) i-u v
3) --T v
4) N Cy-E- v
135. A ---Y -u- v- 4 x Lt -x o.
N-- J>-d L?
1) T h- d J>-d

2) NE- h- d J>-d

3) -E h- d J>-d

4) y h- d J>-d

136. 'E -p o n---i
%u, Nu ~u- C---E, u
-- L-T---E, -j v-h
p B-----E --- %u-
LT C E o--?
1)
2) -q
3) vd
4) J-

: J vA--C-.
-h: Ky vd u-/
NuCJ u-- a.
*-J-D: d 27
-j: ssa.ap.nic.in

--- o- -dx

-f >x @ Nu N (Ky)
Jq -J-f - , x d Jq q d
Kh (\-L vA-C- - ) - -h - C.
- -Jf--: 37
|: uq/ ddq/ u- jq b-d-
Hq/ H u-q (d-dq) u-
x---q @ x L.
xd Jq q: 181
|: d \/ (j-@)/
(-@) j vU, H---
| C-L.
: j N--xE d- 18 * 39
x u L.

--- - -d-u >-


uK (--) o- -d d
Kh --h -C. d N-...
o- -d v (3)
d u: 9
N-: >q 6, NZ 3
|-: NZ/ >q b-d- Hq L.
: 28 -q-- N--.
: yu y.
--h- *-J-D: d- 1
-j: www.nplindia.org

137

. 'vEq - v-J-*
Y-h ?
1) u
2) - d
3) Jd-
4) x -
138. Y jJ o uh ~
1) J-Q-- N-z--t jJ
2) E
g Fo u E
-g U-J- -
3) -- Eg--E
4) - - -N-
139. -p --o u -Eo E-l N-JEo -?
1)
2) v p
3) E
4) ----
140. Nc---YEo u- -* NuJn N-u-h 'Nd n-- - N -C-x?
1) Cl N
2) -T N
3) %Ah N 4) o @N--E N N
141. C- vAN-B ---- C?
1) x-x
2) -
3) Nq
4) u--h
142. %-- l-P-* NuJn % C Nun ?
1) 67
2) 1640 3) 1520 4) 100120
143. '-u Y vd E \
vu Lp-?
1) vv
2) pAh
3) c--h
4) u-v--R
.
144 ~ t--- v C?
1) ju --b 2) CM
3) c --
b
4) -- Lp
145. E--j L-, -- L--
Eo -?
1) v-h
2) K_--
3) J--p
4) El-
146. d j- v-- C J- ?
1) 25' 48'

2) 40' 25'

3) 20' 40'

4) 45' 25'

147.

E---K jq - ---C?
1) .- .-.--..
2) j F
3) E-
4) \
148. Nu-n - -n u- -----E
-- vD v%Ah
1)
2) uh
3) -n- N- 4) -
149. xv EC?
1) ~u
2) N
3) J-u
4) vo

150

. NuJn - vo--v- - p \ -N
\ h K~ ~ C?
1) ~u-t-
2) ---t-
3) v--
4) Ny--F-
151. --Eo - u E vo
1) -j-*a vo 2) u- vo
3) --J vo
4) K_-- vo
152. vd lA \ - 'u
v N C?
1) v-R
2) u-
3) -
4) E-C K
153. v-N -x --E O--EC,
'a-- -j-c-E vj --
lA C?
1) vd lA
2) y- lA
3) u lA
4) v-- lA
154. 'NuJn v--E j J-- o-
C
1) --
2) ju
3) NE-
4) G-*
155. 'NuJn J--p- K-~---E T v
l-- -C-h ~u
1) NE-
2) --
3) ju
4) jJ
156. -K n Nc--Y -q
-C-*-C, o Nu l--J E \oC
1) J N-
2) -K Nu N-
3) B Nu N 1986
4) y-K- N
157. N- 3.1416 *-*--?
1) \-- u
2) u-d
3) M-A
4) v-u v--
158. h u-- ~ EC?
1) jN-u --
2) Nu-n , n T-x L
3) u-- -C* L
4) u nE *, q-Eo L-T- L
159. NuJn h-Eo -J-, Nx--, ---J- y --
1) ~ --
2) vA-E-Cy --
3) Gl --
4) vu~ --
- , Kp, uv-
160. vO-u, u
1) & u-v
2) -q
3) & u-v
4) ~ t--

----
---- v--- vv

j----E q Ja -- u--K o-- v---


(v-E) vv- v--E
h -C.
uC: -q; x u: 19
N-: -Ed 1, o 6, f 3, Ed wj 2, j 2, vd
-E- 2, u- -- vv d 1, -E 2
|: -C N .
: --N J -.
*-J-D: d 31
-j: www.drdo.gov.in

414; 422; 433; 441; 453; 461; 472; 481;


492; 503; 511; 524; 531; 542; 553; 562;
571; 583; 594; 602; 613; 622; 633; 642;
653; 662; 672; 684; 692; 703; 712; 721;
731; 742; 753; 761; 771; 782; 793; 803;
811; 823; 832; 841; 852; 861; 873; 883;
893; 904; 913; 924; 931; 941; 951;
963; 972; 984; 992; 1003; 1013; 1024;
1031; 1042; 1053; 1063; 1073; 1081; 1091;
1102; 1114; 1123; 1134; 1144; 1151; 1164;
1174; 1184; 1194; 1202; 1211; 1224; 1233;
1241; 1253; 1263; 1272; 1284; 1293; 1302;
1312; 1321; 1334; 1343; 1352; 1361; 1371;
1382; 1394; 1404; 1412; 1424; 1431; 1443;
1451; 1464; 1472; 1481; 1493; 1504; 1512,
1523; 1532; 1542; 1551; 1561; 1572; 1581;
1594; 1602.

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E -X vtv P~ n -E-- -%- --C--*-C.)


--E-: -E-o -v--J-*- -.-. -u-q --- -v- d- 103- -v-o --- '0.

- 23 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 SGT MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160

Max. Marks: 80

1.

- --- v-G-* L ---\


(-n) j \ * \- v--hC?
1) -u-Mx
2) Mx--
3) --
4) u-Mx--^
2. vA--- Z-A *-J--J
u-?
1) Ml- 2) ~--v
3) LG 4) X
3. '100 J-v d- J--v- ~u v-v-y x
v-d \ vG*C?
1) ---N- (uMx) 2) Jt (j--)
3) -- (uMx) 4) C--- (uMx)
4. - --d Bh---- E >x -d
o N-*--d. ?
1) P-- O
2) - O
3) u- O
4) q-- O
5. v- A d uh ? -E
C?
1) uA _ ()
2) K_-- ()
3) v - T ()
4) E (L-jpq)
6. v D 7 GLx (700 x) JC?
1) 2011, d- 31
2) 2011, - 30
4) 2012, -J 31
3) 2011, - 31
7. n, -vh- C--- -C* C-- J-E
Jh-.
1) v u - >---
2) - - v d f
3) -H - yJ s-
4) - - vyL
8. 2011 -- v ~--u ?
1) 74.04%

2) 73.03%

3) 78.08%

4) 75.05%

9. 2011

v -J --u?
1) Lx J-- (-)
2) N- \ (-V)
3) u-Nv (Z-L)
4) j- q ()
10. ZL 2012 - Tq N ?
1) J - (-u)
2) NL-q (-J)
3) Nd-J - (-)
4) E Ob ()
11. a
1) -- L u-
2) --
3) \
4) O \
12. C-- J--EC C?
1) DOTS *q N ~ E-- C*C
2) -o-- n v u-
C.
3) -- h CqEo 24 Ey-h.
4) NAM - -J 1986 J-TC
13. CF -A
1) --- u-vA
2) A \ Z u--vA E--
3) --- p
4) - p
14. -j v B o
1) u
2) -J
3)
4)
15. .- ..E p n- ?
1) 1946
16.

2) 1948

3) 1964

4) 1958

---Eo ' L*-?


1) vU
2) x-
3) J{-x 4) x
17. C- J--EC.
1) GsL l 1757 J-TC
2) L- - -- - i
.u -- p J-
3) -n- 40 x y - 'E -
-B E -A G-*C
4) - - -- un- -v- Kb
18. C-- J--EC.
1) C - T- v-R v-R
2) t-D u-Eo v-G-*-- u
t--
3) R- 'G-c - Tx-- -C*C NL q
4) v \ N B i-uj p-jC
19. 'LJq N?
1) vU u
2) vU
3) x u
4) x
20. ..- .-.-.E NhJ.
1) Eq q u--
2) q u--
3) Eq o- u--
4) o- u--

Time: 2.30 Hours

21.

hs D L Nu p vA--C
N?
1) Y ~--u 30% \- o

2) B Y ~--u Y ~--u
\- o-p
3) Y, - ~--u uu; B--n Y,
~--u uu \- o
vx
4) jFo
22. y-vA v-N Nu--- -C-*
v-v- v-N Nu (--)E
u- vx EC?
1) u %u, A vv-- Nu-n-
-C*
2) j-h - -j Nu---- --A
Lp-
3) nE J---, -- NE--T-
4) y-, v, -v-- y u------
Lp-
23. NM Nu - Ey- u-v-- -C-E
C?
1) NM Nu -- Nu-n- NGo u-
- Lp-h
2) Nt-R Nu -- Nu-n---J ---i
u Eo--- Lp-h
3) Nt-R Nu -- Nun x jN-uEo
Jhh
4) Nu-n---J Eo %ux _ \ C
24. E--- - Jh --E 'J-
Nu-JnE -u K-- P~-.
Jn- -\---E Nu \ d vu-
Lp-* * L- C?
1) 1100
25.

2) 1800

3) 1098

4) 1010

Nu v-u J-C--E E C?
NuJn g ---Jh--y-G-%--Cl p-
2) Nun x Jn N-- C
3) Nu-n- N - C
4) Nun x B i-u- C
26. 2009, d- 8 v--vA v-G-* '~- u-v--E -C* C-- j- Eo
Jh.
1) uvEo
Z --C---- 2010,
d- 8 -o v-G-
2) 15 -q- E 7 x --- ~--u --E l-P-*C
3) u-v- Nu 300 , 3
-L
4) jFo
27. B -N-u v-R v2005 v Nu-n-
Ey- K~ -B ---C-* -J-E-C?
1) yp--L vo----
2) --- -C-* vo----
3) c-t-- vo v
4) Ah-E T_ N- L
28. v-N -- Nu---C-J '
J-q q u--~-*--p - v-AE
J>d ---L?
1) b-y- J>-d

2) --N jq J>-d

3) -q J>-d
4) d J>-d
29. Nu-\
d2009 -C-* h
u, E-- -
1) 6, 31
2) 7, 31 3) 7, 38 4) 6, 38
30. N --- L--K n -u--
P~ C '>x Nu-P-~ n (DIET)
C-?
1) u-t v-R1991 2) -- N1993
3) K N1964
4) B Nu-N-1986
31. B v-R -v 2005- E v-l n-
\x E ?
1) - un y - E Eo vx
'-- o Nu C-
2) v/ xd
/ --n- vD-- v
C-
3) x x cEo --E Nu Nh %---
C-
4) jFo
32. -B Nu-N---E - ---,
Nu-N-- o--d L vG N- C?
1) N-1882 2) J- N1929
3) d d1813
4) -q p1854
33. V \ J--~ C-q Jh?
1) 20
2) 20
1)

3)
4)

- 11
10
34. v --u
x x x p

juEo
?
1) iv M
2) v
3)
4) --M
35. 'B J- (NGC) Ey- N- E
C?
1) wj Ey-
2) u-- v u-v-
3) vA v --B- F 100 x
4) - n Eco x p
36. '- \ -v2005 v v-n- j
- B----E Lx-L?
1) - 2) . 5
3) . 10 4) . 50
37. Nu-N-- EJld , EKg u-v--R,
JN - ?
1) E- Nu
2) E- Nu
3) %vA Nu
4) jFo
38. B Nu-v--R -v2005 --p, u--~
u- Ey- n C?
1) NCTE
39. NCERT

2) SCERT

3) NUEPA

4) NCERT

~ v u--- Ey-- p
'vB Nu-n (RIE) \ C?
1) j-- 2) j o
3) -
4) i
40. C-- J-E Jh-.
1) Bt 1911
2) Bt 1931
3) - - N 1993 4) K N 1964
41. - ?
1) v
2) X--- h-y
3) %-C
4) B
42. u vv- -jC?
1) vv
2) v vv
3) vv
4) A- vv
43. Nl- > \ % -Eo --J*
** u-C?
1) - t u
2) -- Jv
3) X-- Jv
4) - t u
44. l u --N?
1) ----
2) ----
3) ---
4) ---
45. g C C --?
1) %Cl C
2) - C
3) C
4) -g-D` C
46. - Vj --~- LxJ - E
?
1) vp~
2) 3) y-h
4)
47. 'vTy Pa-t-- -x pC E
Ny- u--- u
1) t u
2) -~ --%A u
3) vy-~ --%A u
4) -u
48. '-u- - E ?
1) N- -- t--
2) - y- t--
3) N- h-- t--
4) N- y- t--
49. 'z -E -n
1) , t, ~-\
2) u- ~v, , c
3) d, , K
4) t, u, u
50. 'vy o T_-*C. h _-.
u u- L Pxd u h
1) vy o T_-*C F h- _.
2) vy o T_-*C h _.
3) vy o T_-* h- _-.
4) vy o T_-*C h _.
51. Lp- v--iC N?
1) uu 2) Nz 3) O~
4) g
52. ' -E v%A?
1) -
2) % 3) 4) -
53. L, Nh, E -E --
1)
2) 3)
4)
54. - E ' yE?
1)
2) u 3) -eu 4) eu
55. v- -- J N--j W vA- x
aC

1)

Lp
2) h-uu 3) -- 4)
'--Jv v * v?
1) Ng--
2) \-
3) vt--
4)
57. C--E ---.

G
1) - ~ t--- --
) L-
2) A-A
G)
3) -Nt t-V
) N-@-N--
4) - p-
) --u
5) x-Lx --%-g-t
) -----
) ~-u-
->) u vC
1) 1, 2, 3G, 4, 5>
2) 1G, 2, 3, 4, 5
3) 1, 2, 3, 4>, 5G
4) 1, 2, 3>, 4, 5G
58. u--J u pJhE*a -?
1) N- --%-gu
2) T -Jh
3) vC-V %g-Jh
4) ---Y
56.

59. I need ..... to cut this thread.


1) a scissor

2) scissors

3) scisors

4) a scisor

60. You: .... ?


Shopkeeper: It's costs 100 rupees.
1) How much this book?

2) What price is the book?

3) How much does this book cost?


4) How much do this book costs?
61. We can go .... horse or ... foot .... 'Tiffin Top'.
1) by, on, to

2) on, by, on

3) over, with, at

4) with, over, to

62. My father tells me ''Don't walk in the middle of the


road?''. Can be reported as
1) My father told me not to walk in the middle of the
road.
2) My father advises me not to walk in the middle of the
road.
3) My father advised me not to walk in the middle of the
road.
4) My father ordered me not to walk in the middle of the
road.
63. You want to know the bus fare to Guntur. How do you
ask in a polite way?
1) Please, tell the fare to Guntur.
2) How much is the fare to Guntur?
3) What is the fare to Guntur?
4) Could you tell me the bus fare to Guntur?
64. Find the odd one.
1) Please

2) Piece

3) Peace

4) Price

65. I am not sure, if I will be at home this evening. Which of


the following express the same idea?
1) I will not be at home this evening.
2) I won't be at home this evening.
3) I can't be at home this evening.
4) I may not be at home this evening.
66. We have got plenty of time so we .... hurry.
1) must

2) mustn't 3) needn't 4) need to

67. One can not live all alone, ....


1) can one? 2) can you?

3) can't we? 4) do you?

68. He slipped from the running train. Parts of speech of


underlined word.
1) Noun

2) Verb

3) Adjective

4) Pronoun

69. He is not as generous as me. Can be written in comparative degree as:


1) I am not more generous than him.
2) I am more generous than he.
3) I am more generous than him.
4) I am most generous than he.
70. How often ....... you go to Cinema?
1) will

2) do

3) are

4) were

71. Suneel's victory surprised every one (Change into


Passive voice)
1) Everyone was surprised by Suneel's victory.
2) Everyone were surprised with Suneel's victory.
3) Everyone surprised on Suneel's victory.
4) Everyone was surprised at Suneel's victory.
72. They watched ...... news on ..... television.
1) the, the

2) a, a

3) the, no article

4) No article, the

- 23 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 SGT MODEL GRAND TEST


(73-76): Read the paragraph and mark the answers.
The idea of evaluation was not a new one. The
Greeks had thought of it, so had Erasmus Darwin, the
grand father of Charles Darwin, and also the Frenchman,
Lamark. It is one thing to have an idea, we can all guess
and sometimes make a lucky guess. It is quite another
thing to produce a proof of the correctness of that idea.
Darwin thought he had that proof in his note books. He
saw that all animals had to struggle to survive. Those who
were best at surviving their environment passed on the
good qualities which helped them to their descendants.
This was called the ''survival of the fittest". For example in
a cold climates, those who have the warmest fur will live.
Darwin believed that this necessity for an animal to deal
with its environment explained the immense variety of
creatures.
73. At the time that Darwin arrived on the scene the idea
of evaluation
1) was an unheard of idea
2) had already been proved beyond doubt.
3) had been thought of but not proved
4) was not thought fit for exploration
74. "The survival of the fittest" means 1) The strong will survive while the weak will perish
2) The strong and the weak will live in peace
3) The strong will help the weak
4) The God will save the both
75. In cold climate 1) any animal can survive

2) no animal can survive

3) only animals with fur can survive


4) any animal without fur can also survive.
76. Darwin thought that the environment 1) has no effect on animals
2) has a lot of effect on animals
3) has a marginal effect on animals
4) has an effect on man but not on animals
77. 2 32

- u?

1) 7

2) 8

3) 9

4) 6

78. 8

C 20 V- -Lq Gu .480
12 C 15 V- Eo .- Gu L?
1) .200
2) .240 3) .450 4) .540
79. - uh 5/8 Eo j, 1/4
Eo q, NT-L 15 .O. -j v-. v--* h ? (.O.-)
1) 100

2) 110

3) 120

4) 130

j o- .12000. Eo x
y 25 T_* Nt, Nt ?
1) .8500 2) .9000 3) .9500 4) .10,000

81. 0.6 + 0.7 + 0. 8 N?

80.

1) 0.678

2) 0.7

3) 0.21

4) 2
3

82. 180

E F g- h l g _
-C?

1) 3
83. 3x = 270

2) 4

1) 2430

2) 30
a+b

84. xP = (xab)
1) 0

3) 5

3x+2

4) 6

N ?
3) 540

4) 272

b+c bc
c+a
)
. (xca)

. (x

2) 1

3) x

P=?

4) a + b + c

85.

-v Go N ?
-- \
2) \
3) -
4) 1, 3
86. 100 u ?
1)

1) 50.5
87.

2) 5.5

3) 505

4) 0.05

88.

Ot -*-v
1) D`---v 2) -v 3) %h 4) D-
6, 7, 8, 9, 12 T-*--p '2 a Ee
u C?

89.

-v g 14 .O., E ju (..-O.x)?

1) 502

2) 504

1) 196
90.

%h u
EpAh
1) 7 : 1

91.

93.

4) 100

.O. %h JC, j-u


2) 1 : 7

3) 7 : 2

4) 2 : 7

2) 84

3) 28

4) 144

vA --v C vA--E ---


NR G?
1) ---Cy--
2) -Cy--
3) u-
4) o-
ABC AB + BC = 10 .O, BC + CA = 12 .O,
CA + AB = 16 .O. vA d--
(-Ox)
1) 19

94.

3) 14

4) 506

C , p, h - 8, 6, 3 Ox.
C ju ? (.O.x)
1) 168

92.

2) 98
28

3) 500

2) 38

3) 57

4) 280

vA u E- -C C t?
1) e
2) v-
3) --h
4) D-

95.

96.

97.
98.
99.

u- * -- - %vA -
?
1)
2) L-d
3) J-M 4) Fo
-yf . j 1965 W 3 *
- *a -J-~ ya N-J-.
---N?
1) x-
2) \-K 3) --- 4) NE-IV
--q y -L j --x vv
1) 2) N- 3) - 4) jFo
jv--F--- vp- C?
1) MnO
2) E
3) -_
4) D-
- --O-- yE ? (jq)
1) 0.02

100.

2) 0.002

3) 0.0002

4) 0.2

, u o -
1) -- 2) - 3) - 4) D-
101. NMx-O- \ o uEo \
J-C?
1) \
2)
3) v\
4) jFo
102. yE --h --p -- E ?
1) --h-- 2) 3) -u 4) D-
103. wj v-Eo Nu-Cy-x- h -p--C?
1) xJ
2) jv-
3) jv-j q
4) jFo
104. o --x %d- N- -C?
1) 2) 3) y 4) o-
105. n h \ ---
?
1) - 2) v-E 3) L{ 4) y
106. o \ C-J ---E a
1) j
2) R-
3) vq
4) H
107. j-, , ~, h-C L-T v- uh
N
1) -
2) 3) x 4)
108. q-, s j j q , un---n -L--
ya --E-aN N?
1) h----R- u
2) u
3) - u
4) D-
109. ~ x t L--p vh B--L?
1) F -L
2) L -E-- -L
3) L-- - L
4) vp Gx -B--L
110. @g---E -- *o
1) v- 2) -vA 3) -J 4) D-
111. h - P-*- N-N C?
1) 2) G1
3)
4)
112. --, x C- n
1) ---n
2) y
3) \-
4) ---n
113. ---.
1) v-Vb
) b -
2)
G)
3) s
) --
4) vu
) -
1) 1-, 2-G, 3-, 4-
2) 1-G, 2-, 3-, 4-
3) 1-G, 2-, 3-, 4-
4) 1-, 2-, 3-G, 4-
114. Cj --n - o v
C?
1) --*- 2) jH-J 3) - 4) i
115. .
1) -Ep
)
2) u ---q
G) X
3) -- -
)
4) --v - ) ~ -J
1) 1-, 2--G, 3-, 4-
2) 1-, 2-, 3-, 4-G
3) 1-, 2-, 3-G, 4-
4) 1-, 2-G, 3-, 4-
116. .
1) x--d
) E
2)
G) -
3) -f
) C
4) x
) y v
1) 1-, 2-G, 3-, 4-
2) 1-G, 2-, 3-, 4-
3) 1-G, 2-, 3-, 4-
4) 1-G, 2-, 3-, 4-
117. v E v Cl?
1) -N-x
2) Vo J-v
3) v~
4) v-
118. - C (1665) ?
1) -h-
2) Vb
3) -j-
4) v--
119. 'y j n-
1) -E-G-
2) --- A
3)
4) @

120.

- -
?
1) y--E O u
J
2) -J v
3) -x J--y-h-
4) --
121. .
1) @-~ v -J ) _ -%-g-
2)
G) ->F
3) --- p u-v ) - --
4) v
) _- -
1) 1-, 2-G, 3-, 4-
2) 1-, 2-G, 3-, 4-
3) 1-, 2-, 3-G, 4-
4) 1-, 2-, 3-, 4-G
122. h -- --v --v- -*
Z---V ?
1) v
2) N-
3) N-
4) %g
123. .
1) \-
) X%-g----
2) -
G) v--h
3)
) --v--N
4) l
) ---{
5)
) --
1) 1-, 2-G, 3-, 4-, 5- 2) 1-G, 2-, 3-, 4-, 5-
3) 1-, 2-, 3-, 4-G, 5- 4) 1-, 2-, 3-G, 4-, 5-
124. C-- u--E -CE
1) L" u
2) x--K vy
3) u~ vy 4) yvu u-u-n
125. u-j uu A C-
J C?
1) x-
2) Z-A
3) - p
4) v-d
126. --A uh--, -- %
C
1) v-N \
2) P v
3) v-N NC
4) jA u
127. -- D--x v-v- ?
1) 25%
128.

2) 20%

3) 10%

4) 15%

v-v-- -----T s ---


1) 40%

2) 50%

3) 60%

4) 70%

129.

-J\---E -F-N?
1) f
2) G-f- 3) -* 4) 1, 2
130. PP--- --- E-- vA C?
1) @-E
2) %---
3) K
4) C
131. -, --- -- j-uE CC?
1) v
2)
3)
4)
132. -E -N?
1)
2)
3) -
4)
133. 'nn v- Lq sC?
1) u--
2) u--
3) u- 4) --
134. -A Nu--- --A- E NuJn
Nu-Jn--F, Nu-n--F C-E
J lA
1) vu~
2) d-%-u Ey- y
3) E-
4) ---\
135. '--A ~u-E pd--- Jh-.
1) u--, -, h u-- ---J--
2) - -- v-Jz-
3) u-- xE ---i d- ---
4) wl -- -C---
136. -- Eo u- N d \x
p---- ~uEo *-hC?
1) Ny--F-
2) v--
3) --T-
4) h-E-e
137. According to Nehru, English is .....
1) The window of the world 2) The roof of the world
3) The crown of the world

4) None of these

138. Passive skills are also known as 1) Dynamic skills

2) Receptive skills

3) Lively skills

4) Vibrant skills

139. When the hand writing is legible?


1) It is difficult to understand

2) It is not lawful

3) It is easy to understand

4) It is lawful

140. The oldest method of teaching a language is 1) Direct method


3) Reading method

2) Bilingual method

4) Grammar Translation method


141. Which of the following is a principle to grade
vocabulary?
1) Utility

2) Universality

3) Productivity

4) All the above

142. Asking the students to identify the rhyming words in


the poem comes under 1) motivation

2) appreciation

3) comprehension

4) none of these

143.

P~ ---- C- --
H
2) u-t
3)
4) vA--NA
144. N-- El-J- Nu--~ ux -E -C-*C?
1) - 2) - --t
3) c-t 4) NE-
145. - J--- v-u *aC ?
1) v
2) vEq
3) -qJ
4) dFx-
146. - -j N
1) E-- j -- T-L
2) -- j E-- T-L
3) x-- j -- T-L 4) jFo
147. '-- v **C ?
1) u-d 2) vt-h 3) -O 4) \- u
148. u-- nE N* \ C Nu-n
C-Lq -n u
1) u-C--n
2) u----n
3) -M-%--n
4) G-----n
149. Y l-A J--p- J-Q- Ey lA
1) U- lA
2) N lA
3) j
4) D-
150. - G-v-- -N-h pd--
-E CC?
1) ----c
2) Y j-J---
3) j-u---
4) NE---c
151. h-- E- N, A V-_
v--, q-- v---
-j lA
1) v-p
2) a--lA
3) J-v-t
4) -u--v--z
152. vu-o ----- --p- ----C
1) v Nc--Y
2) v-N Nc--Y
3) *d J-- d
4) D-
153. - - vu~ --- --*
n
1) - 2) v- 3) u- 4) jFo
154. C -- -i vo CC?
: --E Eo Jh* E U
U.
) - G) )
) v
1) %u 2) K_-- 3) -j-*a 4) D-
155. Y u-l N?
1) -- E -- ----
2) Jv, -R, , n-Y c --b
3) u--h- L d
4) u-v--R- - -a
156. NE- ~u pd--
1) l-- *
2) p- -\E J
3) -p -- Jh
4) L-- J
157. ---YE '~- u--Eo C-E
h lA C?
1) -u lA
2) v lA
3) a lA
4) E-- lA
158. '- \ EJt-*--? vo ~u C--E El-P-*C?
1) ju 2) NE- 3) c 4) --
159. '----G-o-y y Eo C-* y
NuJn B i-u-j u .
~uEo C-E p-a?
1) G-* 2) jJ
3) c 4) NE-
160. Nu-n- u -T u
1) A u
2) - u
3) --j u
4) vu u
1)

' - -@-x

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo ---E -X vtv P~ n -E-- -%- --C--*-C.)

--v- 24 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. BIOLOGY MODEL GRAND TEST


No.of Questions: 160
(1

* 40 Eo
-bd---J vo .)
41. vh A \ - -Lq ~-Eo
\ * \ a-E ---l n G-%Cl C N
1) --t v-
2) -
3) -- >-F-J
4) u *q
42. C --p-Ah - Et- x -J
dx J-E
1) @-- ---u s-A-C
2) {- _-C
3) s _-
4) - -
43. NuJn ~ tl H , n lH , H p, -D--
J N -o h-Eo u h-o. h %~-Y
-C-*C?
1) K_-- Y
2) y Y
3) -pAh Y
4) -Jo-t Y
44. Y-h ~ --v, Eo \
v, ho x J-QLho.
%~-Y C-J?
1) %~ -R Y
2) j--Y
3) --@- Y
4) -R Y
45. g-- - xE \j
J--- --E j--E --
v p -b-B J- n
C?

Max. Marks: 80

q y-, x, T- p-J*
@N Eo T- \ (@N Eo
--J*) -i-N?
1) -- q
2) J{-
3) Cy-J{-
4) --J{-
54. -- J- n-x (d); pq
p-J ~ t-@- -
1) ud-J-, v- x
2) v- -x, ud-J-
3) j-, ud-J-
4) PM-v, ud-J-
55. NuJn --fE *o \- F
JT. E Eo o - L
--- - -d, Eo V
y FE ~ t--Jz-E J-Q-L-ho.
NuJn @ E-E ---Eh-o-?
1) j-
2) PM-v, j-
3) v- -x, ud-J- 4) Fo
56. j -G u-N-- \ x
C?
1) --
2) Lx--
3) N
4) sJ
57. J -kx --- -L-T--C?
1) PMv 2) j
3) ud-J 4) j-
58. 'G- uC
1) -t
2) l t-
3) Gx
4) d
59. uC ----J 'T -M-- v
-?
1) ICMR
2) IARI
3) IISR
4) ICRISAT
1)
2) j- 3) ~
4) h-J
46. N% H- -C-* %~ P--
60. L-- V d x u
\-?
1) 2000
2) 20000
3) 200000
4) 200
1) - -yJ
2) Hs o
61. d \x EKb - Jh- ?
3) j. s-
4) .. yN--
1) v-\-
2) u\
47. d-- x ~ t-@- h-E
3)
4) O-- -j
L, E Et-L l-AE E--dC
62. -- p Eo El-J-C
1) a
2) f
1) Lb xd

2) -J
3) j. s-
4) M
3) E.R.
4) v--N-
48. u- %vA- u--K x- J-
63. -----E C @ C?
Y-h
1) --
2)
1) M
2) Hs o
3)
4) %---
3) M M
4) --N
64. %
49. '- N- -, - vAx N- 1) -", E--vA 2) ", E-vA
, Ah-AhE d- ----
3) -", E-vA 4) ", E--vA
N @ ~- -E--a?
.
65
~-- N- u---E o-
1)
2) --
1)
v-
2) -v-
3) v, vA-p-
4) y-v
3)

t
4)
zy Nu -
50. K_--- v-N v C?
66. -N -- Ey- C?
1) vA 2) A
3) v 4) u
1) q-L 2) \
3) d-
4) da
51. vu-pAh --- B-E \- K_--J67. h xo H \ C?
* Y-h ?
1) L
2) p--
1) J-d-
2) -
3)
N

4) -Lx
3)
4) - Lo-
68. FE -E --u --v J xo
52. K_--- C n * jn- --x -Dl
\
@ u L-
1) --p
2) E---x
1) \- E--h
2) \- E--h
3) v
4) q
3) L-
4) L- x p-
.
69

NLx

uE

, d--v-E t
53. -q &- JT, CyB
~ C?
1) O x
Eo v-J-* b -v- d --
2) Fo A- B
13; 22; 31; 44; 53; 61; 74; 81; 92; 103;
3) \
4) J \
112; 124; 131; 143; 152; 163; 172; 182;
70. - -E--C?
191; 203; 214; 221; 231; 243; 252; 264;
1) ----n
2) , -- -u-
273; 282; 293; 304; 312; 324; 331; 342;
3) o
4) J--g
353; 363; 373; 384; 394; 402; 413; 424;
432; 443; 451; 462; 473; 484; 491; 503;
71. Cy- xo s C?
512; 522; 534; 544; 552; 562; 573; 582;
1) t
2)
3) - 4)
592; 603; 611; 622; 634; 641; 654; 663;
72. L- - - -n Ey
672; 681; 693; 702; 714; 723; 733; 741;
?
753; 762; 772; 784; 793; 802; 814; 823;
831; 841; 854; 861; 871; 884; 892; 902;
1) v--
2) x
912; 922; 931; 943; 951; 964; 973; 982;
3) v
4)
993; 1001; 1013; 1021; 1034; 1044; 1051;
73.
u

-C* Go-iEo
1061; 1074; 1081; 1093; 1101; 1113; 1121;
Jh.
1133; 1142; 1152; 1164; 1173; 1183; 1193;
1) j tq
2) J-
1204; 1213; 1221; 1234; 1243; 1254; 1263;
1274; 1284; 1294; 1304; 1313; 1324; 1332;
3) -\-J
4) o--
1344; 1353; 1361; 1371; 1382; 1393; 1404;
74. \ --h -Eo v t C?
1414; 1422; 1432; 1441; 1453; 1462; 1473;
1) >s-Lx-
2) C-M-
1484; 1493; 1502; 1514; 1523; 1531; 1542;
3) ABA
4) q-
1551; 1561; 1572; 1583; 1591; 1603.

Time: 2.30 Hours


75

. -Eo
a \ C?
1)
2)
3) T
4) x- \
76. s-J- Nd -L-T-C
1) j- -H
2) l-tJ
3) j
4) ud-J
77. N- E- v- v C?
1) - t
2) \ v
3) p v
4) HCl v
78. - x - n-A-Eo v---a?
1) La- 2) p
3)
4) s
79. A y- J vC?
1) J----
2) iv
3) -vu
4) -
80. ---u----v -E --a A
j` u ?
81.

1) 400 nm

2) 500 nm

3) 700 nm

4) 600 nm

v F ?
1) 60

82

2) 70

3) 80

4) 96

. o- u ?
1) 1 .O.
2) 2 .O.
3) 1 N.O.
4) 2 N.O.
83. -q p---E -j N-N C?
1) G
2)
3)
4)
84. 'jd E E -h?
1)
2) v
3) v
4) -
85. @ E -J-hC?
1) d--
2) v
3) --
4) ---*-
86. v v N
1) - v-
2) A v-
3) g v-
4) pz v-
87. -@- u C?
1) v--, v -
2) , Ex
3) -v- --,
4) h,
88. -s T-L J g-v
1) 100120F
2) 102105F
3) 105 107F
4) 107109F
89. - - @g-- ~ t-@-,
x- y-v-v h p n
1) jv-x-J-x
2) vA-x
3) --x
4) v--E x
90. --t-- L-T -n
?
1)
2) p
3) p -
4) x
91. --- y-- C?
1) -J-A-h
2) p
3) t
4) --
92. -- hEo v--J u (-
Jp) J vC?
1) %-
2) t
3) %e--h-
4) h-
93. v-E nA N?
1) T- -v--L pAh
2) T- j-q pAh
3) T- q-- pAh
4) T- q-L p-Ah -
94. vUt, Q- h--n- -

1) h, b-, p
2) v --, h, p
3) b-, h, p
4) -, h, p
95. ~ N-b n
1) J
2) t-E
3) vA-
4) J x
96. *-F A, --E, @ Y %p-
L YC?
1) j-v@
2) -v
3) Lo@
4) --q

97

. N - u-n C v-N, CyB


NE--- C?
1) 2)
3) 4) -
98. u -- C A ?
1)
2) - E -
3) h --
4) - E h vC n
99. Eo h wjN-j p--C?
1) d
2) -
3) v
4) _
100. - - J g-v --E
\?
1) 2C

2) 20C

3) 100C

4) 200C

101

. - N- ()
t K--E --E E
-h?
1) y--
2) N-b un
3) --
4) @g--
102. '->, \ %-A u-- E Eo
?
1) @--u--
2) EKb u--
3) EJt u--
4) j-O
103. C %B NE----- Jh-.
1) x-- A
2) - A ~
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--v- 24 -d 2012

-- j---

DSC - 2012 S.A. BIOLOGY MODEL GRAND TEST


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413; 424; 433; 443; 454; 462; 471; 484;


493; 502; 514; 522; 533; 542; 554; 561;
573; 581; 591; 603; 612; 621; 634; 644;
653; 664; 672; 681; 693; 703; 712; 721;
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1322; 1333; 1344; 1352; 1364; 1374; 1381;
1394; 1402; 1414; 1423; 1434; 1442; 1454;
1464; 1474; 1483; 1494; 1503; 1514; 1523;
1533; 1542; 1554; 1561; 1572; 1584;
1593; 1604.

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--E- 25 -d 2012
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--E- 25 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPERS


- I
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--- - (III) -C-.

--C- 26 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPERS


- IV
--: 3 --
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--E: vA N * 5 vo p h 15 vo-
- . vA vo 10 \.
NI
1. jq o@ -C* -- B N,
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x C* G-%Cl J* N-J-.
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3. i) (Modem) N?DE .(3 .)
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2.

3.

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 26 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - I MAINS 2012 MODEL PAPER


8.

NN b dx - Nun C \ o.
(-h -\- -v-x-)

->q -NZ Jv v x
- N-u-Jn
A
B
C
D
E
F

9.

(150) (75) (200) (100) (50) (75)


77
69
82
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58
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63
72
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57

89
71
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55
78
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67
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64
69
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66
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INDUSTRY --Eo C3G2B2C7S1D5F3E5 , CREDIT Eo
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1) SANSKRIT

2) BRIGHT

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3) INVENTOR

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vo--v--Eo -N-----E --O- d--J\- -jd --O- -, --K~- -E-- --L ---F- (-N-III) -C-.

-- 27 -d 2012

-- j---

--q \-- d-
--K~ '

J I

---u-- -E--- -Z-v--y Zd -{- -N- (--q) --yu- -C- Ey-*-- - K~- E -C-*
'-E Ch-o. un- - DEo ---T-a. -v--y N -
--- - v- A -J----L.

--

Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

2
4
1
3
1
1
2
3
?
2
3
1
3
1
3
2
1
1
3
1
3
2
1
1
3
4
1
2
2
1
3
4
3
1
3
4
4
1
1
2
2
3
2
1
2
2
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1
2
3
1
2
3
4
2
3
1
4
2
3
1
3
2
3
1
4
2
4
4
3
1
3
1
2
4
1
2
4
4
1

1
3
1
4
3
3
1
3
4
2
3
1
3
3
4
1
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4
1
3
1
2
2
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3
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1
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3
3
1
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1
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2
3
2
1
2
4
4
3
4
1
2
1
1
4
2
2
3
2

Q.No. A B

2
4
2
1
3
?
1
4
2
2
1
4
2
2
4
2
4
2
4
1
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3
2
4
1
2
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3
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2
1
1
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2
2
1
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3
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3
3
2
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3
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1
1
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1
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2
1
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4
1
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1
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2
1
4
2
1
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3
1
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2
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1
4

4
3
2
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2
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3
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1
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4
2
1
1
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4
3
2
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1
4
1
2
1
3
3
4
3
2
1
2
2
3
1
1
4
1
1
2
3
3
1
3
4
2
4
4
3
1
3
1
3
2
3

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

2
4
3
4
4
1
3
2
4
1
4
3
4
2
2
1
2
3
4
3
3
2
4
4
1
4
4
3
2
2
4
2
1
3
1
1
2
4
2
4
2
3
4
3
4
1
2
1
3
4
4
1
2
3
1
2
3
3
4
1
1
2
3
3
2
1
3
4
1
3
4
1
1
2
3
2
2
4
4
4

2
1
4
4
2
4
3
1
3
3
4
2
4
2
4
1
4
1
4
3
4
4
3
3
4
1
3
4
1
2
4
1
3
2
4
1
3
1
4
1
3
2
4
3
4
1
2
1
4
3
1
2
3
1
2
3
3
4
2
4
4
2
2
2
1
2
2
3
4
1
3
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1
1
2
3
3
4
1
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2
4
1
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2
3
1
3
3
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2
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3
2
1
3
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1
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3
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2
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Q.No. A B
1.
2.
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3
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1
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2
2
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1

1
3
1
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3
3
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3
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2
3
1
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3
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1
?
4
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3
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2
2
3
3
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1
4
3
3
1
2
3
4
4
3
1
2
1
3
1
2
1
1
2
3
4
1
4
3
1
4
2
2
4
4
1
3
2
2
1
1
4
3
1
4
2
3
4
3
2
4
4
1
1
2
3
2
4
2

Q.No. A B

2
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2
1
3
?
1
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2
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2
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1
1
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3
2
3
1
3
3
2
4
3
4
4
3
2
1
4
1
2
4
1
3
3
1
1
4
2
1
3
4
4
1
2
4
1
3

4
3
2
?
3
2
4
2
4
2
3
4
4
2
4
3
1
2
2
4
3
3
4
2
1
2
4
2
1
1
4
4
3
2
3
4
4
2
1
4
2
3
4
2
3
1
1
3
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
4
2
3
1
4
3
4
1
3
3
2
2
1
4
1
3
1
1
4
2
1
2
2
1

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

2
4
4
3
3
1
1
4
2
3
1
2
1
2
4
4
3
1
3
2
4
3
2
3
4
3
4
1
4
2
3
3
4
4
4
1
2
2
1
1
3
1
1
3
4
3
4
4
1
3
4
4
3
1
1
2
4
3
2
4
3
2
1
2
4
1
1
2
1
2
3
4
2
4
3
4
2
2
4
3

2
3
4
3
3
1
1
4
2
3
4
1
1
2
2
2
3
4
4
3
3
1
3
3
1
2
1
2
2
3
4
3
4
2
2
1
3
1
4
2
1
4
1
2
1
2
3
2
2
3
3
4
3
4
1
2
4
2
1
2
4
4
2
1
3
1
2
2
1
3
3
4
2
1
4
2
1
4
3
4

2
1
4
3
3
1
1
4
2
3
3
4
1
4
3
4
3
2
3
1
4
4
3
3
3
2
1
1
2
2
4
2
2
4
3
4
3
3
2
1
2
1
3
3
4
2
4
1
1
3
4
3
1
1
3
4
2
4
3
3
4
2
2
1
3
4
1
3
4
1
2
1
3
2
2
1
2
1
4
3

4
3
4
3
3
1
1
4
2
3
3
4
4
2
4
4
2
1
2
1
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
2
4
2
3
1
2
3
2
1
2
1
4
1
3
2
2
1
1
1
4
3
1
2
3
1
2
3
4
3
1
4
4
3
4
3
2
1
3
1
2
1
3
3
1
2
4
2
1
3
2
4
4
3

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www.eenadupratibha.net

---E -X -vt-v -P~- n E-- -%- - '-- --C--*-C

1. The new chairman of Life Insurance


Corporation of India is:
1) T.V. Raghu Nath
2) D.K. Mehrotra
3) Snigdha Nandipati
4) Rahul Bhattacharya
5) None
2. India has signed Tax Information Exchange
Agreement
to
promote
economic
Cooperation and Joint investment aimed at
boosting bilateral trade that stands at 1.7
Billion Dollars with which of the following
countries:
1) Russia
2) Nepal
3) United States
4) Bahrain
5) Srilanka
3. Which of the following states has maximum
forest cover area in India as per the recent
India state of Forest report?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Bihar
3) Tamil Nadu
4) Orissa
5) Madhya Pradesh
4. Which of the following countries is expected
to become the 2nd largest producer of crude

3) Madhya
Pradesh
4) Tamil Nadu
5) None of these
13. Which country test
fired the nuclearcapable Hatf-VII or
Babur Cruise missile with a range of
700 km is:
1) Pakistan
2) Bangladesh
3) Iran
4) Iraq
5) Russia
14. On the Occasion of Environment Day, the
dairy which of the following has launched
environment-friendly
vans
named
'Kamadhenu' that will carry homogeized
toned milk in loose form to the remotest
places?
1) Vijaya Dairy
2) Jercy 3) Heritage
4) Mother Dairy
5) None of these
15. Which of the following trains was flagged off
on the occasion of the Environment Day
that will highlight the bio-diversity zones in

1) Raj Rajaratnam
2) Rajat Gupta
3) Anshu Jain
4) D.K. Joshi
5) Vikram Singh
24. Who is the new Chief Executive officer of
Deutsche Bank?
1) Anshu Jain
2) Bikram Singh
3) D.K. Joshi
4) V.S. Sampath
5) Prashanth Singh
25. Who will take charge as the new Navy Chief
of India in September 2012 after Nirmal
Verma?
1) Devendra Kumar Joshi 2) V.S. Sampath
3) Mohammad Ali
4) Chalapathi Verma
5) John Stalin

Who is the president of Myanmar?


steel in the world by 2015:
1) USA
2) Russia
3) China
4) India
5) Iraq
5. Which of the following state governments
has decided to re-impose property tax on
buildings including residential in the state:
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Maharashtra
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Haryana
5) Andhra Pradesh
6. Find the former Egypt president who has
been awarded life sentence, for killing hundreds of protestors 1) Hosni Mubarak
2) Mohammad Morsi
3) Al Thani
4) Bashar Al-Assad
5) None of these
7. In order to work on health and development
related issues Microsoft co-founder and cochairman of Bill and Melinda Gates
Foundation inked a Memorandum Of
Understanding (MoU) with which of the following states :
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Kerala
5) Karnataka
8. Who is the first Indian writer to win Ondaatje
Prize for his book - 'The sly Company of
People who Care' - which is about adventures of an Indian Journalist?
1) Chetan Bhagath
2) Sidney Sheldon
3) Shobha De
4) Rahul Bhattacharya
5) Jeffery Archer
9. The state which has created a new Limca
record by holding the largest guitar ensemble
of the country in which 5406 guitarists participated is :
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Goa
3) Assam
4) Tripura
5) Manipur
10. The senior politician of the Pakistan
People's Party who has been suspended
from Parliament over dual nationality is :
1) Asif Ali Zardari
2) Zillur Rahman
3) Rahman-E-Sher 4) Farhan Ali
5) Rehman Malik
11. The committee which has been set by the
government of India regarding the issues of
merging of Air India and Indian Airlines's
staff into Air India Ltd. is:
1) Airlines Committee
2) Air Indian Committee 3) Ajit Committee
4) Dharmadhikari Committee 5) None
12. The Indian state which stood second in
wheat procurement is :
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Haryana

26. The new Egypt President who


was elected in June 2012?
1) Bismilla Khan 2) Anshu Jain
3) Trinath Singh 4) Mohammad Morsi
5) Hosni Mubarak
27. Mehdi Hassan who expired
GENERAL AWARENESS
recently was related to the field the country?
2) Army 3) Acting
K.V. Gnana Kumar 1) Shooting
1) Science Express Biodiversity
4) Cricket
5) Music
Special
28. Chukkapalli Pitchaiah passed away recent2) Diversity exp
3) Indian Bio Express
ly is famous for 4) Bio express
5) None
1) Cricketer
2) Actor
16. Indian state which has become the first
3) Badminton Player
4) Philanthropist
Nirmal Rajya that is 100% open defecation
5) Singer
free is:
29. Elinor Ostrom, a Nobel Laureate, expired
1) West Bengal
2) Sikkim
recently is related to which of the following
3) Tripura
4) Assam
5) Bihar
fields?
17. The sportsperson who has won the French
1) Physics
2) Economics
Open Women's Singles Championship and
3) Chemistry
4) Peace Activist
completed a career record of win5) Medicine
ning all the Grand Slams is :
30. Dipankar Mukherjee who passed away
1) Victoria Azarenka
recently is a famous ____
2) Serena williams
1) Peace activist
2) Cricketer
3) Venus Williams
3) Actor
4) Singer
4) Maria Sharapova
5) None
5) Parliamentarian
18. Indian Cricketer who won Wisden India's
31. The famous cricketer who took oath as a
maiden Outstanding achievement award is:
Rajyasabha Member recently?
1) M.S.Dhoni
2) Sachin Tendulkar
1) M.S. Dhoni
2) Sachin Tendulkar
3) Rahul Dravid
4) V.V.S. Laxman
3) Kapil Dev
4) Bishen Singh Bedi
5) Yuvraj Singh
5) Mohammad Azharuddin
19. The 18th Chief Election Commissioner of
32. The BEML chief who was suspended by
India is:
Defence Ministry of India in connection with
1) Hameed Ansari
offering bribe to General V.K. Singh?
2) Anushka Sharma
1) Bikram Singh
2) Andy Harry
3) V.S. Sampath
3) Yograj Singh
4) VRS Natarajan
4) Sameer Dadlani
5) V Subramanyan
5) None of these
33. Who among the following has won Thailand
20. India has signed 11 MoU's regarding variOpen Grand Prix title after defeating
ous issues, which also includes Border
Thailand's Ratchankok Inthanon?
Area Development with ____
1) Saina Nehwal
1) Pakistan
2) Afganisthan
2) Narain Kartikeyan
3) Nepal
4) Mynamar
5) China
3) Jwala Gutta
21. India has signed an MoU on road trans4) Sania Mirza
portation, safety with which of the following
5) Ashwini
countries ?
34. The Famous Chess player who was
1) Pakistan
2) Afganisthan
crowned World Chess Champion in
3) Russia
4) Canada 5) Japan
Moscow?
22. 'State of emergency declared in Western
1) Anna zagi
2) Vera Vavilova
Myanmar' was the news recently. Who is
3) Vladimar ZigZag
4) Billy Bombard
the president of Myanmar?
5) Vishwanathan Anand
1) Thein Sein
2) Ahmed Abdualla
3) Bashar Ali
4) Zaheerul Rahman
KEY: 1-2; 2-4; 3-5; 4-4; 5-4; 6-1; 7-2; 8-4;
9-3; 10-5; 11-4; 12-2; 13-1; 14-4; 15-1; 16-2;
5) Kim Yong
17-4; 18-2; 19-3; 20-4; 21-4; 22-1; 23-2; 24-1;
23. The Indo-American, who was convicted of
25-1; 26-4; 27-5; 28-4; 29-2; 30-5; 31-2; 32-4;
insider trading?
33-1; 34-5.

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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--- 28 -d 2012

-- j---

--q -b-, -- -- -v--II --K~ '

---u-- -E--- -Z-v--y -Zd -{- -N- (--q) --yu- - -Ey*-- --K -v- --, -- -- -v- --II - K~-
E -C-* '-E Ch-o. un- - -DEo -T-a. -v--y N - --- - A -J----L.
-- -- -v- -II

-b-
Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

1
1
1
2
1
4
1
4
1
3
1
4
3
2
3
1
2
4
1
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
2
4
1
4
3
2
3
4
3
3
1
1
1
2
2
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
4
2
1
3
4
1
2
3
4
1
2
3
2
2
2
1
3
4
1
3
3
4
1
4
3
4
3
4
3
3
2
1

1
3
4
2
3
3
3
3
3
4
3
2
3
2
3
1
3
2
1
4
1
4
1
3
1
1
3
3
3
4
2
2
3
3
3
1
4
2
3
2
2
3
4
1
2
3
4
1
1
4
3
4
1
4
2
4
3
1
1
2
3
2
4
1
4
4
4
3
1
2
3
1
3
4
3
4
3
4
2
1

Q.No. A B

2
3
2
3
2
2
2
1
3
4
1
2
4
2
3
2
2
4
2
1
2
2
2
1
3
3
2
2
2
4
1
3
2
3
4
1
4
2
4
4
1
2
1
1
4
3
1
2
4
4
1
2
4
3
2
3
2
1
1
1
1
4
1
3
2
4
2
4
2
3
4
3
3
4
3
4
2
4
3
2

4
2
4
1
2
3
2
4
3
1
4
4
4
4
4
3
4
1
4
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
3
2
1
2
2
4
4
4
3
1
1
4
4
4
2
3
1
3
4
2
1
4
3
2
1
4
3
2
1
3
4
3
4
2
1
4
2
2
1
4
1
3
2
3
3
3
3
4
3
4
3
1
4
3

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

3
4
1
2
4
1
2
2
4
1
2
4
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
2
1
4
4
4
2
1
3
2
3
1
4
2
2
1
4
4
3
1
3
2
1
2
2
2
3
2
3
2
3
1
3
3
1
1
4
2
1
2
1
3
3
2
4
3
3
3
3
2
4
4
3
4
4
2
2
3
1
1
3
2

3
1
1
4
3
1
2
3
4
2
3
4
4
2
1
4
1
3
2
4
2
3
4
2
1
4
3
2
2
2
4
3
1
4
1
4
1
3
4
3
1
2
1
3
1
4
3
4
4
4
2
4
1
1
3
3
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
4
2
1
1
1
2
4
2
2
1
2
1
4
4
1
3
3

4
4
1
1
1
3
1
3
2
4
2
2
1
3
3
4
1
3
2
1
3
1
2
2
3
3
2
3
1
4
1
4
3
4
2
1
2
3
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
4
2
4
1
4
2
2
4
4
1
3
2
4
1
2
1
4
4
4
4
3
1
4
4
3
3
3
1
3
2
2
4
1
1
4

3
1
4
3
1
2
4
2
2
3
4
2
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
4
2
3
2
4
1
3
1
4
3
1
2
3
2
3
4
3
3
3
2
3
2
3
2
4
3
4
1
1
2
4
4
4
1
3
2
2
2
4
2
3
3
4
2
2
2
3
2
1
1
2
1
3
1
1
4
4
2
3
2
3

Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

2
1
2
1
2
4
4
1
1
2
3
4
2
2
1
4
1
1
2
2
3
4
1
4
4
3
4
3
4
4
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
2
4
1
4
1
2
2
1
1
1
1
2
1
1
1
3
1
3
1
1
3
1
1
2
1
1
3
4
3
4
3
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
4
2
2
1

4
3
2
3
3
4
4
4
3
4
3
4
2
2
3
3
4
1
2
4
4
1
3
1
3
4
2
1
2
3
2
2
1
2
1
3
2
3
1
4
1
?
1
2
1
3
3
4
3
3
3
3
2
4
4
3
1
1
3
3
3
3
3
4
2
3
2
2
3
3
3
1
3
2
3
3
3
3
3
3

Q.No. A B

1
3
3
1
2
1
2
4
3
1
2
2
1
2
1
1
1
2
?
2
3
3
4
4
3
2
3
2
4
1
3
4
2
2
1
3
1
4
2
4
2
2
2
2
2
2
1
2
2
1
2
1
2
2
4
2
2
1
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
3
2
1
1
2
2
2
2
1
2
2
2
4
2
4

4
4
3
2
1
3
3
4
?
4
4
3
3
3
4
3
4
3
1
1
1
2
1
1
4
2
3
3
2
4
2
4
3
1
2
1
4
1
1
2
2
2
4
4
4
4
4
3
1
4
1
1
4
4
4
2
4
1
4
4
4
4
4
4
3
4
4
3
4
3
4
4
2
4
4
3
4
4
4
4

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

3
3
1
1
1
1
1
2
4
1
4
4
1
1
1
3
1
4
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
1
2
1
2
1
1
3
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
3
1
2
1
1
1
2
4
2
3
1
3
1
2
4
4
2
2
3
3
1
2
1
3
2
1
3
2
1
4
4
3
1
2
1
3
4
2

4
3
3
4
3
4
3
3
1
3
3
4
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
2
3
4
4
3
3
3
3
4
3
3
3
1
3
1
3
3
1
3
3
4
3
3
3
1
2
1
1
1
4
3
1
4
3
2
2
1
3
4
3
1
2
4
4
2
4
1
3
1
3
4
2
2
4
4
1
1
3
4
3
1

2
2
4
2
2
1
2
2
4
?
4
3
4
2
2
1
2
2
2
2
3
1
1
2
4
4
2
2
2
2
2
1
3
2
3
3
2
2
2
4
2
3
3
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
4
1
2
1
2
4
1
2
4
1
2
3
3
4
2
1
2
4
3
1
1
3
1
4
2
4
2
1
3
3

4
4
4
1
4
3
3
4
4
4
4
3
4
4
4
2
4
2
4
4
2
4
4
3
4
4
2
?
2
1
2
4
4
3
4
4
4
4
1
3
3
4
3
1
2
1
1
1
4
3
4
2
1
3
3
1
3
2
4
2
4
3
1
1
3
3
2
2
4
3
4
2
3
4
2
3
4
1
1
2

---E -X -vt-v -P~- n -E-- -%- - '-- --C--*-C

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1. In a group of six
children, Q is taller
than P but not as tall
as L. M is taller than
N and O, but not as
tall as P. Who is the
shortest
among
them?
1) N
2) O
3) M
4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in
the word 'CLEANLINESS', each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as
they have in the English alphabet, in the
same sequence?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Five
4) Four
5) None of these
3. What will come in the place of the question
mark (?) in the following sequence?
CONSEQUENCES
NSEQUENC

ONSEQUENCE

EQUE

11. Which of the following means 'J is nephew


of M'?
A) M N J
B) M + T - J + N
C) M N J T
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Either B or C
5) None of these
12. Which of the following statements is not
necessary to answer the above question?
1) Only (i)
2) Only (ii)
3) Either (ii) or (iii)
4) Only (iii)
5) All are necessary
13. Pointing towards a girl, Divya says, 'She is

How the girl is related to Divya?

REASONING
1) SEQUE

2) EQUEN

3) SEQUENC

4) SEQUEN

S. Arun

5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1) Beetroot
2) Radish
3) Carrot
4) Potato
5) Cabbage
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1) See
2) Hear
3) Think
4) Smell
5) Taste
6. If 'see' means 'hear', 'hear' means 'feel', 'feel'
means 'smell' and 'smell' means 'see' then
what are ears used for?
1) hear
2) see
3) feel
4) smell
5) None of these
7. In a certain code language, the word 'IMAGINE' is written as 'ENIGAMI'. How will the
word 'FLOWERS' be written in that code?
1) RESWFOL
2) SREWOLF
3) SRFWOLE
4) WOLFSRE
5) None of these
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1) Rectangle
2) Triangle
3) Square
4) Polygon
5) Circle
9. In a certain code language the word 'SIMPLE' is written as 'LEMPSI'. How will the
word 'JUNGLE' be written in that code?
1) LENGJU
2) LEGNJU
3) LEJUGN
4) LENGUJ
5) None of these
10. How many meaningful English words can
be formed by using 2nd, 4th, 7th and 9th letters of the word 'WONDERFUL', each only
once, but in different sequence?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) None 5) More than three

Directions (Q. 11-15):


(i) P Q means P is father of Q.
(ii) P + Q means Q is sister of P.
(iii) P Q means Q is mother of P.
(iv) P Q means P is brother of Q.

daughter of only son of my grandfather'. How the girl is related to Divya?


1) Brother
2) Cousin
3) Aunt
4) Sister
5) None of these
14. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way and hence form a
Mohan
group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) 47
2) 27
3) 17
4) 37 5) 67
15. In a certain code language CONSUMER is
written as ERUMNSCO. How will TRIANGLE be written in that code language?
1) LENGIATR
2) ELNGIATR
3) LEGNIATR
4) LEGNAITR
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following
arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
PJ%5D$LO3#AQ4@UFTZ8K2
M&H
16. How many such consonants are there in the
above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
17. How many such numbers are there in the
above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
18. What should come in the place of questionmark (?) in the following series on the basis
of above arrangement?
JP5$DO
#3Q
@4F
?
1) Z8
2) T8
3) ZK
4) TZ
5) T8
19. Which of the following is fourth to right of
thirteenth from the right end?
1)
2) T
3) F
4) Z
5) None of these
20. If the order of first ten elements is reversed
which of the following will be twenty- first
from the right end?
1) D
2) L
3) $
4) O
5) None of these
Key
1-4; 2-3; 3-4; 4-5; 5-3; 6-3; 7-2; 8-5; 9-1; 10-1;
11-3; 12-3; 13-4; 14-2; 15-1; 16-3; 17-1; 18-5;
19-2; 20-3.

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on... www.eenadupratibha.net

-- 28 -d 2012

-- j---

--q \-- d- --K~ '


---u-- -E--- -Z-v--y -Zd -{- -N- (--q) --yu-
-C- -Ey-*-- - K~- E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un- -
-DEo ---T-a. -v--y N - --- - v- A -J----L.

\- -d-
---

--- d-
Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

3
2
1
3
1
3
2
1
1
3
1
2
4
4
2
1
1
2
2
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
2
1
4
1
3
4
1
3
1
2
2
1
2
4
2
2
2
3
2
3
2
2
3
1
2
1
4
3
3
4
2
1
3
4
2
4
1
3
4
1
2
1
3
1
2
3
4
3
2
4
1
4
3
4

2
4
3
3
4
4
3
1
4
3
1
3
1
4
3
3
1
3
4
2
3
4
4
3
4
2
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
3
2
3
1
2
3
1
3
1
2
3
4
3
1
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
3
2
1
2
2
2
3
1
1
2
1
4
4
1
1
2
1
1
1
2
1
3
4
1
3
1

Q.No. A B

2
4
1
4
1
2
4
2
1
3
2
2
4
1
1
2
3
1
2
2
1
2
1
3
1
2
3
3
2
4
2
3
2
4
2
1
3
2
1
1
3
2
3
3
1
3
1
4
3
4
2
3
1
4
2
2
3
4
1
2
1
4
3
2
4
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
3
2
2
1
2
3
4
4

4
4
2
2
3
1
1
3
4
4
3
3
4
2
3
4
2
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
3
1
1
3
4
1
3
4
3
4
2
2
1
2
3
3
2
2
1
2
2
2
1
2
4
3
2
4
2
4
1
4
1
1
3
1
3
2
1
2
4
1
3
2
4
4
1
2
3

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

4
4
1
3
3
4
3
2
2
3
3
4
3
3
3
4
3
1
2
3
1
3
1
4
1
4
4
2
4
2
3
4
3
1
4
2
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
2
3
4
1
3
4
3
1
4
3
3
2
4
4
3
1
1
4
2
1
2
3
2
1
3
1
3
3
2
3
1
2
3
4
1
3
2

3
2
3
2
2
4
2
4
2
2
1
3
2
4
1
3
3
2
1
4
2
4
1
2
3
1
4
4
4
1
4
1
4
4
1
3
4
3
2
1
1
2
4
3
1
2
4
2
4
1
4
3
1
3
1
1
4
1
3
4
1
2
3
1
4
2
1
3
2
1
1
4
2
2
1
3
3
2
4
3

3
1
2
4
3
1
3
2
4
3
2
1
2
4
2
4
4
3
4
1
3
2
3
4
3
3
3
2
4
4
3
4
1
1
4
4
3
4
4
4
3
4
2
1
4
2
4
2
4
1
4
2
1
4
3
2
4
1
3
4
2
3
4
4
1
3
3
4
2
2
3
1
2
1
4
1
2
4
2
4

1
3
2
1
4
2
3
3
3
2
3
2
3
3
2
4
3
4
1
2
2
1
3
4
2
1
3
1
4
2
1
4
3
4
2
4
3
2
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
1
1
1
1
2
4
4
1
3
4
3
2
3
4
2
4
2
2
3
2
4
3
2
1
4
2
3
1
2
4
1
2
2
3
1

Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

3
2
1
3
1
3
2
1
1
3
1
2
4
4
2
1
1
2
2
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
2
1
4
1
3
4
1
3
1
2
2
1
2
4
2
1
1
3
4
2
2
4
2
3
3
4
2

3
1
2
2
3
1
2
2
2
3
4
1
1
4
3
1
3
3
2
1
4
2
3
3
1
2

2
4
3
3
4
4
3
1
4
3
1
3
1
4
3
3
1
3
4
2
3
4
4
3
4
2
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
3
2
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
3
3
2
1
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
1
1
3
4
3
3
3
3
2
1
4
2
2
2
3
4
1
3
2
4
4
2
2
3
3
1

->q

----@

Q.No. A B

2
4
1
4
1
2
4
2
1
3
2
2
4
1
1
2
3
1
2
2
1
2
1
3
1
2
3
3
2
4
2
3
2
4
2
1
3
2
1
1
1
1
4
1
3
2
4
1
3
2
4
2
1
3
3
1
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
2
4
1
2
2
4
3
1
1
3
1
4
4
3
1

?
4
2
2
3
1
1
3
4
4
3
3
4
2
3
4
2
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
3
1
1
3
4
1
3
4
3
4
4
1
2
3
1
1
1
4
3
2
4
1
3
3
1
1
4
4
2
2
3
3
2
3
1
4
2
3
1
4
2
4
3
1
1
3
3
4
1

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

1
1
1
1
4
3
2
4
4
4
1
2
3
1
4
2
2
4
4
1
1
3
3
2
2
3
2
4
1
3
2
4
1
3
1
2
4
4
2
2
1
4
3
2
4
4
1
3
1
3
2
2
3
2
2
4
1
4
4
3
2
1
2
4
3
3
2
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
2
2
1
4
3
1

1
4
4
1
4
2
3
1
4
2
3
1
3
4
2
2
4
4
3
2
1
4
2
2
3
1
4
3
3
1
2
4
4
2
4
1
1
2
4

1
3
4
4
1
3
4
4
4
3
2
2
4
1
4
4
4
4
3
2
1
3
3
1
4
4
1
4
4
2
3
2
2
1
4
3
4
2
1
1

2
1
1
4
2
1
1
1
4
3
2
2
3
4
2
4
4
1
2
3
1
4
4
3
1
2
2
2
2
3
4
1
3
3
3
2
1
4
2
3
1
1
3
3
2
2
4
4
1
1
2
3
4
2
2
4
1
1
4
1
1
3
2
3
3
4
1
2
1
3
4
4
1
2
3
3
1
4
1
1

2
3
1
1
4
2
3
4
4
2
1
3
3
1
3
2
2
1
3

2
4
3
3
2
4
3
3
3
2
1
4
4
1
2
4
2
2
3
4
1
3
2
2
4
3
4
4
1
1
2
3
4
3
1
2
2
3
4
1
1
3
2
3
3
3
3
4
1
2
4
4
2
3
3
2
3
3
1
4

---E -X -vt-v -P~- n -E-- -%- - '-- --C--*-C

Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

3
2
1
3
1
3
2
1
1
3
1
2
4
4
2
1
1
2
2
1
4
2
1
4
2
1
2
1
4
1
3
4
1
3
1
2
2
1
2
4
3
1
2
2
4
2
4
3
1
3
1
3
4
3
2
4
1
2
3
3
1
4
3
4
2
1
2
4
4
1
3
3
2
4
1
2
3
4
3
1

2
4
3
3
4
4
3
1
4
3
1
3
1
4
3
3
1
3
4
2
3
4
4
3
4
2
2
4
3
2
4
3
4
3
2
3
1
2
3
1
1
2
4
3
4
2
2
3
1
1
4
2
3
4
1
2
1
3
1
4
3
3
3
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
1
4
3
4
1
3
3
4
4
1

Q.No. A B

2
4
1
4
1
2
4
2
1
3
2
2
4
1
1
2
3
1
2
2
1
2
1
3
1
2
3
3
2
4
2
3
2
4
2
1
3
2
1
1
4
2
1
1
3
1
4
4
1
3
4
1
2
2
3
1
1
3
2
4
1
3
3
3
2
4
2
1
1
3
1
3
4
2
4
2
4
3
4
1

4
4
2
2
3
1
1
3
4
4
3
3
4
2
3
4
2
4
2
3
4
1
4
2
1
4
2
4
3
3
4
3
1
1
3
4
1
3
4
3
4
4
4
2
1
4
2
3
2
1
2
3
4
3
2
4
4
3
3
2
1
2
4
3
3
1
3
2
2
3
1
2
3
4
4
1
3
3
1
4

81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.

j- --- --

3
2
1
1
1
3
4
1
3
2
3
4
3
2
1
2
3
1
1
2
2
3
4
3
1
2
2
4
2
3
3
2
4
3
2
1
1
4
2
2
4
1
3
2
4
4
4
1
1
4
2
4
1
4
3
1
2
3
2
1
2
2
2
3
3
2
3
1
4
3
1
1
2
4
3
4
2
4
4
4

2
1
3
4
4
2
4
1
1
4
2
1
4
3
3
2
4
4
2
3
1
4
2
2
2
3
1
3
4
4
2
4
2
1
3
1
3
1
2
1
4
2
3
4
1
1
3
2
4
1
3
2
3
3
3
4
2
1
2
4
2
2
2
3
2
4
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
4
3
4
4
4
1
1

3
2
1
4
4
2
3
4
3
1
2
1
3
3
2
4
4
1
3
2
1
4
3
4
2
4
1
2
2
2
4
3
2
4
1
4
3
4
1
2
1
4
2
2
1
1
4
3
1
3
4
3
1
3
3
3
2
3
1
3
2
3
4
2
1
4
1
2
1
1
1
4
4
1
4
2
3
2
2
2

2
3
1
1
1
4
2
4
3
3
1
3
1
2
4
2
4
2
1
2
3
1
4
3
2
2
4
1
2
1
3
4
3
1
1
4
2
2
3
1
4
3
2
1
2
4
2
3
3
2
3
4
3
3
3
2
2
3
2
4
1
4
4
4
3
1
2
1
3
1
1
1
4
1
3
1
4
1
2
4

A -K
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Paper-V, Section-I

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16
20
20
20
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M v- v-
1
1

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20
40
120
40
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10
1
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10
15
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15
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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 29 -d 2012
1. Which type of memory gets lost when you
switch off?
1) ROM
2) RAM
3) CACHE
4) Dynamic
5) Static
2. Which type of network would use phone
lines?
1) WAN
2) LAN
3) WWAN
4) Wireless
5) None of these
3. Speakers / Headphones are ____ devices.
1) Input
2) Input/ Output
3) Software
4) Storage
5) Output
4. A program for viewing web pages is called:
1) hardware
2) software
3) storage
4) browser
5) None of these
5. A computer cannot perform which of the
following functions?
1) Addition
2) Subtraction
3) Bake a cake
4) Division

-- j---
1) Esc
2) Shift
3) Control
4) Tab
5) Alt
18. The Softwares which are used in Banks
generally are:
1) Character Driven
2) Folder Driven
3) Menu Driven
4) Touch screens
5) None of these
19. Which of the following is a measurement of
speed of internet?
1) MB
2) Kbps
3) KB
4) TB
5) QPSI
20. When a computer is attacked by a virus it
cannot lead to:
1) Disk Crash
2) Motherboard Crash
3) Corruption of a program
4) Deletion of files
5) None of these
21. In page preview mode1) You can see all pages of your document

24. Files are organized


by storing them in:
1) Archives
2) Folders
3) Indexes
4) Lists
5) None of these
25. What
kind
of
resource is most
likely to be a shared common resource in a
computer network?
1) Printers
2) Speakers
3) Floppy drives
4) Keyboards
5) None of these
26. Saving is a process to:
1) Copy the document from memory to
storage medium
2) Bring change in the present status of the
document
3) Change the face or entire form
4) Develop the document by recording the

What is the full for m of W i-Fi?


5) None of these
6. CD's or DVD's are ____ type of devices.
1) Input
2) Output
3) Software
4) Storage
5) Input/output
7. In the URL 'www.dbsdynamic.blogspot.in'
what does the domain name extension '.in'
represent?
1) International
2) internet
3) intra net
4) India
5) None of these
8. Free of cost repair of the software bug available in internet is called:
1) Version
2) Ad-on 3) Tutorial
4) FAR
5) Patch
9. Which of the following is READ only disc?
1) DVD-R
2) DVD-ROM
3) DVD-RW
4) CD-R
5) None of these
10. Which of the following is an/ are advantages of LAN?
1) Sharing peripherals
2) Backing up your data
3) Saving all your data
4) Accessing the web
5) Automatic printing of data
11. Four of the following are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
1) Applications
2) Peripherals
3) Programs
4) Software
5) Operating system
12. Digital camera is a ____device.
1) Input
2) Output
3) Software
4) Storage device
5) Input/ output
13. The example of standard file format is:
1) JPEG (.jpg) 2) Bitmap (.bmp)
3) Word (.doc) 4) Text (.txt)
5) Excel (.xls)
14. Which of the following is the fastest
Memory?
1) Hard disk
2) DVD ROMs
3) Cache Memory
4) Static RAM
5) None of these
15. Which of the following is NOT a common
feature of software application?
1) Menus
2) Windows
3) Help
4) Search
5) None of these
16. The ability of an Operating system to run
more than one application at a time is
called:
1) Multitasking 2) Multi user computing
3) Time sharing
4) Programming language
5) None of these
17. While filling up an application form which of
the following keys is used to move the
cursor to the next box?

text with the use of keyboard


5) None of these
27. In word you can force a page
break by:
1) Positioning your cursor at the
COMPUTER AWARENESS
appropriate place and pressing the
F1 key
KVN Prashanth Kumar
2) You can only see the page
2) Using the Insert / section Break
you are currently working
3) By positioning your cursor at the appro3) You can only see pages that do not
priate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter
contain graphics
4) By changing the font size of your docu4) You can only see the title page of your
ment
document
5) None of these
5) None of these
28. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have:
22. What is the full form of EDI?
1) Compiler
2) Loader
1) Electronic Data Information
3) Operating System
4) Assembler
2) Electronic Disk Information
5) None of these
3) Electric Data information
29. The among of vertical space between lines
of text in a document is called :
4) Electronic Data Interchange
1) Double-space
2) Line spacing
5) None of these
3) Single space
4) Vertical spacing
23. How many different documents can be
opened at one time?
5) None of these
1) Not more than Three 2) Only One
30. Which of the following shortcut keys is used
to underline a word / line in a word docu3) As many as your computer memory will
ment
hold
1) Ctrl + L
2) Ctrl + U
3) Ctrl + K
4) No more than your taskbar can display
4) Alt + U
5) Tab + L
5) None of these

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IFGTB, P.B. No. 1061, Forest Campus,
R.S. Puram, Coimbatore - 641 002

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31. A software which has a capability of replicating itself and can be harmful to the computer is:
1) MS-Office
2) Win Zip
3) Virus
4) Windows Media Player
5) Notepad
32. What is the full form of Wi-Fi?
1) Wireless Front
2) Wired Front
3) Wireless Fidelity
4) Wired Fidelity
5) None of these
33. The process of transferring files from a
computer on the Internet to your computer
is called:
1) Downloading 2) Uploading
3) FTP
4) JPEG
5) Downsizing
34. What is the full form of EPROM?
1) Erasable Programmable Read-Only
Memory
2) Electronic Programmable Read-Only
Memory
3) Enterprise Programmable Read-Only
Memory
4) Extended Programmable Read-Only
Memory
5) Electrical Programmable Read-Only
Memory
35. CISC the abbreviation of:
1) Complex Instruction Set Code
2) Communication
Instruction
Set
Computing
3) Complex Instruction Signal Computing
4) Communication Instruction Signal Code
5) Complex Instruction Set Computing
36. In Word, the feature that automatically
detects common errors is called:
1) Auto Correct
2) Autograph
3) Spelling and Grammar
4) Go To
5) Thesaurus
KEY
1-2; 2-1; 3-5; 4-4; 5-3; 6-4; 7-4; 8-5;
9-2; 10-1; 11-2; 12-5; 13-4; 14-3; 15-2; 16-1;
17-4; 18-3; 19-2; 20-2; 21-1; 22-4; 23-3;
24-2; 25-1; 26-1; 27-3; 28-3; 29-2; 30-2;
31-3; 32-3; 33-2; 34-1; 35-5; 36-1.
(Writer- Director, DBS Bank Coaching Centre)

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--: 040-20042887
-j: www.cswhyd.org

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--v 3 -d 2012
APPROACHES, METHODS AND TECHNIQUES
In the process of teaching and learning careful selection of a method or approach is significant. A good teacher always in search of a
good method or approach for his/ her successful teaching. In fact the selection of a right
method or approach paves the way for efficient
learning.
There are variety of terms which are some
times used interchangeable in the same sense.
Method, approach and technique are the terms
that have created a lot of confusion in the minds
of teachers of language. It is worthwhile to
define these terms before the discussion of different methods, approaches and techniques
can be taken up.
METHOD: An over all procedure for an
orderly presentation of language material.
Concerned with "How to teach"?
Involves selection, grading, presentation and

-- j---
Limitations: Literal translation (word for
word translation) ruins the sense and some
times becomes ridiculous.
Natural order of language learning (LSRW) is
not followed. The teacher takes up reading
first - followed by writing.
No scope for the students to learn English
quickly, the mother tongue influence
becomes the hurdle.
Oral practice is neglected.
DIRECT METHOD
A language could best be taught by using it
actively in the class room.
- Franke
Characteristic features: Establishes a
direct bond between word, idea and experience.
Translation in every form is banished from
the class room.
Attaining oral fluency (speech training) is the

A
mid
way
approach between
G.T.-method and
Direct method.
Characteristic features: Mother
tongue equivalents
of English words are
told to the class.
Rules of grammar are not taught separately.
Word for word translation is not done by the
teacher. When the meaning of a word is difficult to explain, it is translated into mother
tongue.
The use of mother tongue is made only at the
initial stages. This practice is dropped as
soon as students develop sufficient vocabulary of the foreign language.
Sentence is the unit of teaching.
Advantages: Less expensive than direct

Pr oceeds fr om K nown to U nknown!

repetition of instructional material. e.g.: GTMethod, Direct Method, Bilingual Method.


APPROACH: It is axio matic.
Refers to the nature of language.
Needs no support to justify its effectiveness.
States a point of view or philosophy or an
assumption (Anthony). e.g.: Structural
approach, Communicative approach.
TECHNIQUE: Refers to a class room
device, a trick or strategy to achieve the objective of teaching.
It is implementational. e.g.: Using flash
cards, substitution tables, language games.

METHODS OF TEACHING ENGLISH


GT - METHOD: Also known as "Classical
Method/ Prussian Method". Foreign phraseology can be learnt through translation in this
method.
Characteristic features: Word-for word translation is the focus. Vocabulary is taught
through bilingual lists. Grammar is taught
deductively (Rules first - Examples next).
Structures of English are learnt by comparing and contrasting with that of mother
tongue. Priority is given to accuracy and
completeness of sentences.
Advantages: Establishes a bond between
foreign phraseology (new ideas) and mother
tongue (old ideas).
Proceeds from known to unknown.
Not required by the teacher to use sophisticated or extensive A.V. Aids.
Rapid expansion of vocabulary is possible.
Attains good standards in translation.
1. Oral fluency is the hall mark of ....
1) GT Method
2) Direct Method
3) Bilingual Method
4) Dr. West's New Method
2. "Imperative drills in the class room" - is the
chief tenet of 1) Direct Method
2) Reading Method
3) Prussian Method 4) TPR
3. The learner can not be confident in speech
in the target language when the teacher
seeks to adopt ...
1) GT Method
2) Direct Method
3) TPR
4) Bilingual Method
4. To make students speak and write fluently
and accurately in the target language is the
basic idea of ......
1) Bilingual Method 2) Direct Method
3) GT-Method
4) Reading Method
5. A Reaction to GT method is ....
1) TPR
2) Bilingual Method
3) Prussian Method 4) Direct Method
6. "Learning to read a language is by far the shortest road to speak and write" - Applies to -

method.
Not necessary to use costly aids.
Easy for the language teacher to
deal with a heterogenous class.

SA-ENGLISH (Methodology)

Limitations: Careless handling of


this method would end up as GT
method.

prime focus.
Vocabulary is taught by means of S. Rahamathulla May be suitable for adult learners.
objects/ natural context.
Students are likely to develop an undesir Grammar is taught inductively (examples
able habit of language mix ups that may last
first, rules - next)
long.
Unit of teaching is a sentence
Dr. WEST'S NEW METHOD: Learning to read
a language is by for the shortest road to speak
Extensive use of A.V. Aids
and write it.
- Dr. West
Advantages: Makes the pupils think in

This
method
is
also
known
as
Reading
English.
Method or Text Book Method.
Cramming of words is discouraged (memori Dr. M.P. West, the former director of educasation).
tion and principal of Training College in
An English atmosphere is created in the
Bengal in pre-Independent India was the
class room
propounder of this method.
Limitations: Concentrates on oral aspect of

Dr. West says "The bilingual child does not


language learning and ignores reading and
so much need to speak his second language
writing.
(English) but rather to read it".
Laborious method as it needs lot of preparaCharacteristic Features: A revolt against
tion by the teacher.
Direct Method.
Complete banishment of use of M.T. is not
As there are more chances of hearing incorpossible. According to Thomson & Wyatt we
rect English for the Indian Students, this
can not forbid the child to think in his mother
method therefore the envisages emphasis
tongue.
on Reading skill.
Expensive method as it needs lot of A.V.
It gives due importance to text books and
Aids.
readers.
BILINGUAL METHOD: Invented by professor C.J. Dodson of Wales University.
Mother tongue is used to activate the target
language by the teacher.
1) Dr. West's New Method 2) TPR
3) Direct Method
4) GT Method
7. The restricted use of M.T. by the teacher is
the principle of ....
1) GT Method
2) Prussian Method
3) Bilingual Method 4) Reading Method
8. Use of bilingual lists to teach vocabulary
prevails in .....
1) Reform Method
2) Prussian Method
3) Text Book Method
4) Total Physical Response
9. Natural way of learning the language is the
psychological principle of 1) Bilingual Method 2) Direct Method
3) Reading Method 4) GT Method
10. Literal translation ruins the sense and
some times becomes ridiculous in ......
1) GT Method
2) Bilingual Method
3) Reading Method
4) Total Physical Response
ANSWERS: 1-2; 2-4; 3-1; 4-1; 5-4; 6-1;
7-3; 8-2; 9-2; 10-1.

Permits the use of mother tongue wherever


necessary.
Dr. West laid emphasis on silent reading.
Advantages: Reading helps to make the
writing easy.
It helps to increase the vocabulary of the students.
This method is economical in terms of time
and money.
Limitations: Dr. Wests notion that ability to
read should be developed before developing
the ability to speak does not seem sound
because reading has some inner speech in it.
Emphasis on reading rather than speech is
against the psychological principle that we
always learn a new language by first speaking it.
TOTAL PHYSICAL RESPONSE: Total
Physical Response is established by James
Asher an experimental psychologist. Listening
comprehension plays a vital role in language
learning.
Characteristic Features: Learners learn
best by doing things.
Imperative drills (Commands) make the
learners to acquire the language.
This method believes in the fact that children
develop listening competence before they
gain speech and expression.
This method believes in the psychological
principle advocated by Jean Piaget who
holds that child acquires language through
motor movement.
Grammar is taught inductively.
Advantages: Practice in the target language
makes young children speak. Adhering to
instructions (following commands) paves the
way to acquire the target language.
Learning is made permanent as it is experienced.
It is more enjoyable and less stressful.
Limitations: The whole of language can not
be taught through commands.
It is difficult to teach reading and writing skills
through TPR.
Learning only commands makes the children
authoritative.

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Naval Construction Wing, Applied Mechanics

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Department, IIT, Delhi- 110011

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--v- 31 -d 2012
PROFIT & LOSS
price at which an article is purchased is
cost price of the article, and the price at which
the article is sold is called selling price.
Profit = Selling Price Cost Price
Loss = Cost Price Selling Price
To calculate profit/loss percent we have to
use the following formulae
Profit / loss
Profit / loss % = 100
Cost Price
Note: Profit or loss percent is always calculated on Cost Price unless it is required to
calculate on Selling Price.
e.g.: A man buys an umbrella for Rs.120 and
sells for Rs.150. Find his profit percent.
150 120
Sol:
Profit% = 100
120
30
100 = 25%
120
To calculate cost price or selling price, the
following formulae are to be used.

T he

-- j---
1. By selling an article for Rs.450, a man loses
25%. At what price he will sell in order to gain
25%?
Sol: S.P. = 450, Loss% = 25%,
100
100
C.P = 450 450 = 600
100 25
75
Now, C.P. = 600, P% = 25%
100 + 25
125
S.P. = 600 600 = Rs.750
100
100
Short cut:
450

S.P

450

S.P

75

125

= =
100 25

100 +25

450 125
S.P. = = Rs.750
75
2. The cost price of 18 articles is equal to the
selling price of 15 articles. Find the gain
percent.
Sol: C.P. of 18 = S.P. of 15
Let the selling price of one article be Re.1

= Rs.5
4. Two
successive
discounts 40% and
30% are equivalent
to a single discount
of Sol: We can use a
formula

xy

]
[ x + y + 100
40 30
40 30 + = 58
100
5. A man buys two articles for Rs.2100. He
sells one at a gain of 16% and other at a loss
of 12%. On the whole he neither gains nor
loses. What does the first article cost?
Sol: Let the cost price of first article be Rs.x
16% of x = 12% of (2100 x)
16x = 12 2100 12x
28x = 12 2100

What does the first article cost?


100
Cost Price = Selling Price OR
100 + Profit%
100
Cost Price = Selling Price
100 Loss%
100 + Profit%
Selling Price = Cost Price OR
100
100 Loss%
Selling Price = Cost Price
100
e.g: Raghu sells an article for Rs.14250 and
gains 14%. What is the cost price of that
article?
Sol: Selling Price = Rs.14250; Profit% = 14%
100
Cost Price = 14250 = 12500
100 + 14%
Short cut: Cost price is 100%, Profit =14%
therefore S.P. = 114%
If 114% =14250,
100
then 100% = 14250 = Rs. 12500.
114
DISCOUNTS
T he price at which the article is marked is the
marked price or displayed price or listed price
or labelled price or catalogue price or printed
price.
The discount is allowed on marked price.
Discount
Discount % = 100
Marked Price
Note: Discount percents are always calculated
on Marked Price.
When discount is deducted from the marked
price, the remainder becomes the selling price.
e.g: A dealer marked an article at Rs. 740 and
sells for Rs.629. Find the discount percent
he offered.
740 629
Sol: Discount % = 100
740
111
100 = 15%
740
The relation between Marked Price and Cost
Price can be expressed in the following formula.
100 + Profit%
Marked Price = Cost Price
100 Discount %
e.g: A shopkeeper marks an article at Rs.990.
He allows 12% discount on it and yet gains
21%. Find the rate at which he bought the
article.
Sol: M.P. = 990, Profit% = 21%,
Discount% = 12%
100 + 21%
990 = C.P
100 12%
88
C.P = 990 = Rs. 720
121

12 2100
x = = 900
28
6. A dishonest dealer professes to
sell his goods at 25% profit and
uses only 800 grams in place of a
kilogram weight. Find his net profQUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
it percent.
Sol: 25% profit means 250 grams
G.S.
Giridhar
S.P. of 15 articles = Rs.15
profit.
C.P. of 18 articles = Rs.15
By using 800 grams for a kilogram he gains
S.P. of 18 articles = Re.1 18 = Rs.18
200 grams
18 15
His net profit is 250 + 200 = 450 grams
Gain% =

100
=
20%
15
450
Shortcut: Profit / loss%
Profit% = 100 = 56.25%
800
No. of articles on C.P. No. of articles on S.P.
7. A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20% and B
= 100
No. of articles on Selling price
sells it to C at a gain of 25%. If C pays
1815
Rs.225 for it, what is the cost price of the
100 = +20%
bicycle for A?
15
(+is for Profit & for Loss)
Sol: Let the cost price of A be Rs.100, then the
3. A reduction of 20% in the price of oranges
selling price = Rs.120
enables a man to buy 5 oranges more for
Now, the cost price of B be Rs.120
Rs.100. Find the price of an orange before
125
reduction.
Selling price of B = 120 = Rs.150
100
Sol: With 20% money he buys 5 oranges, and
C.P. of C = Rs.150
with 100% money he buys 25 oranges.
But the cost price of C = Rs.225
before reduction he gets 20 oranges only
If the cost price of C is Rs.150, then the C.P.
100
Price per orange before reduction was
of A = Rs.100
20

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If the cost price of C is Rs.225, then the C.P


100 225
for A = = Rs.150
150
Short cut: Let the C.P. of A be Rs.x then
120% of 125% of x = 225
120
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1. The cost of 10 pens and 15 books is Rs. 525.
What is the cost of 8 pens and 12 books ?
A) Rs.650
B) Rs.540
C) Rs.420
D) Cannot be determined
E) None
2. A man buys 120 kgs rice for Rs. 4560. He
sells 80 kgs for Rs.42 per kg and the remaining at Rs.28 per kg. Find his overall
profit/loss%?
A) 2.63% loss
B) 1.28% profit
C) 4.8% profit
D) 2.4% loss
E) 1.75% profit
3. The cost price of 30 apples is same as selling price of 24 apples. Find the profit/ loss%
A) 30% B) 20%
C) 25%
D) Can't be determined
E) None of these
4. An article is marked at Rs.625 and 16%
discount is offered on it. How many such
articles can be bought for Rs.9450?
A) 16
B) 18
C) 24
D) 14
E) None of these
5. A trader charges his customer 23% more
than the cost price. If a customer paid
Rs. 7,011 for an article, then what was the
cost price of the article?
A) Rs. 5750
B) Rs. 6150
C) Rs. 5200
D) Rs. 5700 E) None of these
6. A dealer allows 10% discount on the list price
of a certain article and yet makes a profit of
25% on each article. Find the cost price of
the article when list price is Rs.875.
A) Rs.630
B) Rs.545
C) Rs.600
D) Rs.580
E) None of these
ANSWERS 1-C; 2-E; 3-C; 4-B; 5-D; 6-A.
(Writer - Director, RACE Institute, Hyderabad)

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3) 2.5 10

4) 2 10-13

-15

53.

- ~ -F-- NM
1) _-C
2) --C
3) T_ y C 4) C
54. Z x pH
1) 2 - 4

2) 3

3) 3.2

4) 1 - 2

55. N- x
1) HCl

2) H2SO4

3) CH3COOH

4) HNO3

N.M. 0.2 M b-L x v-E


56. C '- EtEo LT C
x-
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1) 1.42 A

2) 1.20 A

3) 1.54 A

4) 1.39 A

61. -
2) CO2
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4) H2O
62. C-- u-C -- o
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3) L-
4) p-
63. - %vA -y -x a-E
--T-h?
1) C-M 2) 3) v 4) --L
64. Cy o
1) C2H6 2) C2H2 3) C4H8 4) N2
65. CO2 h u-*--
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-?
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2) v
3) f v
4) -q-- v
66. Eq ?
1) 80%

2) 63%

67. %h jv--s
1) C2H4
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68.

3) 13%

4) 0%

2) C10H22
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u-N-E js Nx-- p-C


1) C2H6

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69. C A ---i _ C?
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2) CH3CONH2
4) CH3COCH3

70. q
1) -tE y jv
2) -tE jv
3) -tE y v-i
4) -tE p
--
1-2, 2-4, 3-4, 4-2, 5-4, 6-3, 7-2, 8-3, 9-4,10-2,
11-3, 12-1, 13-1, 14-3, 15-1, 16-4,17-4, 18-4,
19-2, 20-4, 21-1, 22-1, 23-1,24-4, 25-2, 26-4,
27-4, 28-1, 29-3, 30-1, 31-2, 32-4, 33-2, 34-3,
35-4, 36-1, 37-2, 38-2, 39-4, 40-3, 41-4,
42-3, 43-1, 44-4, 45-3, 46-1, 47-4, 48-1,
49-2, 50-4, 51-1, 52-1, 53-2, 54-4, 55-3,
56-3, 57-1, 58-1, 59-2, 60-1, 61-3, 62-2,
63-4, 64-3, 65-4, 66-4, 67-2, 68-3, 69-3, 70-1

www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 4 -d 2012
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--j-: www.iict.ac.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 5 -d 2012
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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 5 -d 2012

-- j---

Yakub Patan, Hanamkonda

American pronunciation it is pronounced.)

Q. If we have to write common


nouns then won't we have
to capitalise the first letter
of the word, even if we have
to start a sentence with a
common noun?

But 'r' is pronounced even in British English,


if it comes after a vowel and is followed by
another vowel.
e.g.: Forum - Here 'r' comes after the vowel 'o'
and is followed by another vowel 'u'. So 'r'
is pronounced here.

x -...

A: We have to capitalise the

In the word, 'Government', 'r' comes after a


vowel, and is followed by a consonant and not
by vowel. So it is silent.

Q. Gerund, Infinitive and present participle -

first letter of sentence, whatever the part of


speech the word beginning with that letter is.
Q. The letter has been got written by the MLA.
letter MLA
- Is this correct?

Q. In the school premises/ On the school


premises - Which one is correct?

A: Not wrong, but a very confusing construction. Writers and speakers of correct English
do not use such sentences. Use the Active
voice instead: The MLA has got the letter
written.

Q. Are the words eye, population, parliament,


water etc., common nouns or proper nouns.

--o

A: On the school premises - Correct.

A: They are all common nouns.


Q. Aspect - Explain the meaning in Telugu.
A: Aspect = 1)

~.

In this aspect, he is

bers = 1, 2, 3, 4
etc.,
They stood in the
consecutive order of
their classes =

B. Narasinga Rao,
Anakapalli.

To walk is good for health - Subject;


'to walk' - infinitive

-F u --T-a ---- N-J-.


A: i) ... ing form (going, coming, singing etc.,)
noun C gerund -C.
Subject of a sentence Object of verb/
objects of a preposition C noun
-C.
a) Walking is good for health. \ walking
subject of the sentence -o d

While drinking water... the deer saw a tiger!

I like to sing: 'to sing' - 'infinitive' - Object of


the verb, 'like'.
iii) A mere 'ing' form is a present participle.
While drinking water, the deer saw a tiger
Gerund, present participle, infinitive
sentence

-sEo d

-a.

Losing the job while making him sad, forced


him to commit suicide.

u -
N L-T-- , t--u p-
C.
\ losing - gerund, the subject of the sen-

tence.
Q. Is the letter 'r' silent, when it is followed by a
vowel and also if the letter 'r' comes after a
vowel. i.e., in the middle of a word
e.g.: Government -

A: The letter 'r' is not silent when it is followed


by a vowel. 'r' in British pronunciation is
silent when it follows a vowel and is followed
by a consonant, but not by a vowel.
Form - In this word 'r' comes after the vowel
'o', and is followed by the consonant 'm'. So 'r'
here is silent (Only in British pronunciation. In

gerund
b) I like walking - Here, 'walking' is the
object of the verb, like. So "walking
697
here is a gerund".
c) He goes for walking in the evenings
much better than his brother
- Here 'walking' is the object of the
=
preposition 'for'. So walking is a
2) Appearance =
M. SURESAN
gerund.
ii) Infinitive: To + 1st regular doing word - to go,
Q. Consecutive - Explain the meaning in Telugu
to sing, to walk etc. The infinitive like the
with an example.
gerund can also be used as the subject of
A:
Consecutive numsentence/ the object of a verb.

-x---

~/ N- ...
j/-j
E- B

-/ v a

making - present participle


to commit - Infinitive
Q. Having + V3

E ' E y
E n? ' E n?
A. Having + past participle (V3) - n
h.
Having finished his work, he went to bed.
(

E Jh y, Ev--.)

Having lost all his money, he was not able to


buy even clothes for himself.
(

Maybe India will win atleast ten medals!


Wahab: Maybe we
are late. We
might miss the
first ten minutes
of the movie.

(
-uu-?
E 10
EN-
----a.)
Vincent: Doesn't matter. We can follow Indian movies and
Indian serials very well, even if we miss
portions of them. Didn't Bharani tell you
that he might be joining us?

(y- B E-, Jx
, n --.
Lo hox F p-?)
Wahab: He did. But I doubt very much. He
might be quite busy with the arrangements for his sister's marriage.

(p. F -. x xL Rx
px BJ--- -a.)
Vincent: May the marriage go off very well! I
remember his telling me how difficult it was
for them to get a suitable bridegroom.

(Rx -- Pl. j Rx--


- d p
hC.)
Wahab: He wanted us to help him in making
arrangements for the wedding. We
should, shouldn't we?

(Rx px -o
L ?)
Vincent: We should, of course. But the day of
the weddings, happens to be the day of
inspection at the office as well. Boss told us
we should be at office.

(p-, uL. RxW,


E& V -C.

p -E p.)
Wahab: Yea. We may not leave office before
5. But the marriage is late in the evening.
So the inspection need not come in the
way.

( 5 C- Ox. Rx v l C d E& f .)

Rx --E J.
a) Yaswanth: This is my invitation to you to
my house warming function.

(
% v--E O y)

Subhakar: May your life in your new home be


very happy. May you build Many more
houses

(O % O @N
- -F, O JEo x d-E
~.)

C) Dayakar: Sir, today is my birth day.


Vincent: That's right. We can make it to the
wedding without difficulty.

(. sC Rx xa.)
Look at the following expressions from
the conversation above

(, --V d---V.)
Teacher: Many happy returns of the day and
may God bless
you with long life.
(

d--V F F, Eo
*-- Q-yC--F J.)

Maybe we are late


May the marriage go off well
We may not leave office before 5

--J Eo May - .
p J EoE --...
1) Maybe we are late - \ Maybe - -.
DE n Perhaps = .
Maybe India will win at least ten gold medals
in the Olympics (

L--q F C
yg--j -h-/ ---a.)
Venkat: Rani is not to be seen nowadays at
all. How is she so busy.

( u
E-- . BJ- ?)

Sravani: Maybe she is busy looking after the


construction of her house. (

x d-- BJ--- .)

b) Devnath: How much may the car cost?

5 You may not leave


office before five.

Formal situations
=
may not
prohibition

u-, E-
(--EC)
sx)
L----E . E-- u-
L--p.

a) Nelson: May I speak to my friend Komal in


your office, please? (

O -- o - x---a-?)

Nancy: You may not disturb the staff at work,


please sorry.
)

(~-N--... E o
s-CE O C-L----.

b) Sampath: Could you leave your footwear


out side please?

(O -~ N-

( K -a?)
Surendra: Maybe anything above Rs.10 Lakh.
10

( ~ - j a)
'May' - Q-q, --~
L---. "May the marriage go off well ''

Q. "Stealing a piece of cheese, a crow flew to


her nest to enjoy the tasty meals"
stealing
after stealing

T-L-* y E n? -p
E -?
N-J-.
A: After stealing a piece of cheese -
Correct.
Stealing a piece of cheese sentence

T-Lh
n B-,
J. (T-Lh
- Rx *---i -T-*C
!)
Adisankaracharyulu, Warangal

Q. Have you been awake/ awaken since yesterday - Which one is correct?
A: Have you been awake since yesterday? Correct.
Have you been awaken since yesterday? Wrong.
Have you been awakened? Correct. If you add, "since yesterday" here,
So it is wrong.

NtLo -j

Ev--?

Eo * NtLo j
Ev--? N- -!
Q. I have bought 'OXFORD ADVANCED
LEARNER'S DICTIONARY' recently but I
am weak at pronunciation and phonetics
i.e., understanding the symbols. Suggest
me a good book on phonetics.
Following words are given in the Dictionary.
Explain the pronunciation of it.
Article: /a: ti kL/
Savoir faire: /s

vwa: fe

-(-?)

Sampath: You may not enter the place with


your slippers on

(--p- O v-P---).

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

(r)

A: There are number of good CDs on pronunciation - use them. EFLU pronunciation CDs
are good.
Article = a: ik - a =

h?)
Madhav: Why?

s -d-- x h \----.)

k =

a: ik =

Savoir faire =
(American).
tions

; ti =
-

- (British English);
j pronuncia ' jx, C -N l. '
-- v Ap l.

--- 6 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - I


NO. of QUESTIONS: 150

MODEL GRAND TEST

1. 2011 - 10, 11 Dx Ml--xE l


Ey--* 17 \ q E N?
1) y-d u
2) --J \ v
3) GLf vGb , v- u-J
4) --- N ---
2. 2018 21 -yh v C C?
1) Z-L
2) tF
3) yb-x
4) X
3. V * 25 j
CJ -- ?
1) 2011 Ja 31
2) 2011 W 30
3) 2012 Ja 31
4) 2012 W 30
4. L--J W 2012 x
(-- x -) -
p ?
1) -
2) j--
3)
4) t--
5. 2012 v - Tq j N
1) J -, u
2) O NL-q, -J
3) Nd-J -, -
4) NL-q, -J
6. B -- vC- n
(-) jt- 2012 W
E-N---u?
1)
2)
3) @--f
4) v
7. 2012 N-f - Tq j -
ybx v -- - -- o.
Kx C o v x j ?
1) 16
2) 17
3) 18
4) 19
8. B n (---H) N-
- v 2011 --j
uC- --u Z
u?
1) v-v-
2) -Z
3) Pa
4) N--
9. 13 Z-A v Kb 'h x
--J-- -q- --u?
1) 2003 2) 2001 3) 1999 4) 1997
10. 'a u 500 G-2012 n \-o -B -F Eo?
1) 8 2) 10 3) 12 4) 14
11. K- v v-l-?
1) q
2) Eo
3)
4) v
12. v u u-~- E-N--u?
1) d L
2) \ O
3) F
4) >
13. u--u--NA --n j-N- (-) vu --J -
E-N---u?
1) N-x
2) J -
3) -M M
4) vGo pq
14. J-v- u () u-~ E-N--j--
1) v
2) C v
3) @ vAK
4) CM
15. j u-j N- '100 C
u v--Q- G2012 v
n C -J \ v--
?
1) NL --
2) J-N-L
3) dd vx 4)
16. jy x .3 *
?
1) .5 2) .6 3) .7 4) .4
17. ' ~ C--?
1) E---
2) C--
3) N-M-
4) q--

18. B qu-G-%Cl f u--Eo


- \ v-G-?
1) j o
2) j--
3)
4) -
19. u-C- 39 x -J-~- Rx *a
u- v, 2012 y NvA
-d .. E 'tq-E-q p u> a?
1) \-K
2) -
3) -G
4) v
20. v- -
u-~- Eo--u?
1) tF
2) b -
3) vq
4) -t
21. O-v- - -b-B -\-Eo
L--J -J v--?
1) j-
2) N--
3) o--
4) -
22. Z-A vA *JJ
u- ?
1)
2) ~--v
3) -t
4) u
23. '--- --- j-E{-
-d-u-q -
(----) f - u
v ?
1) --
2) -H
3) q u
4) ---
24. * L--q | C
j W v--J ?
1) J J
2) vA q
3)
4) h
25. 2012 10 j ju v- uvA f \ v-G-?
1)
2)
3) ----
4) N--o
26. 2012 j u-j *-
C v- -*-v N-
?
1) -v- E 2) vN
3) -- -
4) * -\
27. 'L u--K -J
(v) h jt- E-N--u?
1) x
2) .. t
3) .. |
4) ..
28. x- v-q-- (60 -q-
) V Ey--?
1) 2012 Ja 13
2) 2012 v 13
3) 2012 13
4) 2012 W 13
29. v % C-q ( C-)
-s sq u-j N-
v- u h---i 20 C
x G- v-n- EL-*--
1) Ct--
2) E--D
3) N
4) xK x
30. g- u-vA ?
1) u-p
2) ---
3) -p
4) -D d
31. -~--E
1) 2) 3) > 4) xJ
32. L uq (\ ) -\o
Y-h ?
1) a
2) NL y
3) d
4) sd G
33. ' Ep-hC?
1) \, x 2) x
3) -
4) D-
34. C-- N-N C?
1) L x
2) v x
3) L-L x
4) x-N x
35. C-- E x h-- hC?

MAX. MARKS: 150


TIME: 2.30 HOURS

1) \-Js x
2) v x
3) E--E x
4) L x
36. N-N- B-- y <-
u C--N--a?
1) N-N
2) N-N
3) N-N
4) N-N
37. C-- A \- y G n
1) 2) f 3) 4)
38. K--E A-*o
C?
1) - 2) N 3) \ 4) -d
39. - j C?
1) vq 2) -L 3) q 4) E
40. NNx, x a u-
C* j Jh-.
) N-N-G
1) <-
G) N-N-
2) J-J
) N-N-
3) \Ky
) N-N-
4) Jq
1) 3, G2, 1, 4 2) 2, G1, 4, 3
3) 2, G4, 1, 3 4) 3, G1, 2, 4
41. ---J u-d -v-Eo
p v-T-*C?
1) 1973 v 19
2) 1974 v 19
3) 1975 v 19
4) 1976 v 19
42. - jq v --Eo
1914 - Ey--?
1) v 2) -h 3) 4) Mx
43. '- N-K -O - C?
1) v-
2) x
3) uMx
4) -
44. 'v- Nu v Z C?
1) h--v-
2) -n
3) N--
4) -
45. -Z-E (-) --
1) x
2) o-qM
3) G-q
4) Lq
46. C-- Go oEo Jh-.
1) t q
2) h-J
3) u
4)
47. v- xf ~- Jh
C 'M C
1) v 2) 3) 4) Lx
48. v vy vd j -Eo
q- v-G-*C?
1) 1969 2) 1971 3) 1973 4) 1975
49. -v L
1) -O-
2) jv-O-
3) -O-
4) Md-O-
50. -Jo- l N?
1) v u d A--
2) N u d A--C
3) N d u A---o
4) v d u A---o
51. 'xd uJ v- C
1) Uo-
2) L{
3) -
4)
52. '--q E Eo -h?
1) > j q
2) > vi
3) > jv
4) > xj
53. C-- A h-EC C?
1)
2) LC-
3)
4) u-N-E
54. L J-- C?
1) -
2) @
3) v-L
4) - x
55. y l-Eo -\o Y-h
1) Fq-
2) q x
3) sd -d
4) -b- xN

56. C-- Nh E L?
1) j-Ku 2) -- 3) 4) 1, 2
57. C ux jC C?
1) j-K-u--N C-J-
2) N-h--N L-
3) N-h--N j-K-u u---
4) jFo
58. C-- yJ- -N Nh
v a-J- K --E j uC
?
1) -
2) x
3) -
4) -O
59. u-- ~ L- N j-Ku
1)
2)
3)
4) To v
60. C- -- u Z C?
1) v-v-
2) N--
3)
4) Pa---
61. N-h x -N -x
- E-hC?
1)
2) v
3) h -J
4) ~ -J
62. v-v- -
JC- hC?
1) 1, 2
2) 2, 3
3) 3, 4
4) 4, 5
63. - N?
1) - {- 2) \ {-
3) \ {- 4) D-
64. --- \- -- -o
v
1) u -
2) P-L v
3) Dy-p -N
4) Fo
65. Nh Ey N-- v u-
* v % u-- p
a?
1) 2008

2) 2006

3) 2004

4) 2002

66. y o uEo?
1) 828

2) 928

3) 1028

4) 1128

67. -J- v v %Ah


1) -- 2) u- 3) u 4)
68. p C f C?
1) N 2) -yA 3) G 4)
69. EL- C- ( A- ) - -
- - E v - L- j C?
1) T 2) 3) 4)
70. ' j - Jh C
1) -b
2) l
3) v-h u
4) -O-
71. '-%- J-T l U-A
u-~ -?
1) -Nv
2) u
3) -L-h Aq
4) l
72. -v-h N- J* L

1) -- A 2) A-
3) To
4) -
73. p v-iC?
1) v.. 78
2) v.. 78
3) v.. 68
4) v.. 68
74. 1504 v -Eo EJt-* V ?
1) v 2) -
3) x
4) v
75. - *a L --x
1) vGx
2)
3) a-U
4) v

--- 6 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012


76. 'd --- u-n-?
1) *h-- 2) -v-
3) N.. -\ 4) - @
77. --- 1848 Gx \q -d v-G-* -o - ?
1) f xx
2) f --L
3) NL
4) f |
78. 1932 ' J-
n?
1) H -\
2) Ub---
3) -t-D
4) N
79. C J-T - C?
1) -
2) j N-
3) D Jy p
4) --
80. ---E -j
v vA-EC
1) ->F 2) M
3) N--~ t 4) %-F
81. u - p
JTC?
1) 1946 d- 9 2) 1946 d- 9
3) 1946 - 9
4) 1946 - 9
82. B v 'g y
BtEo - C?
1) 2) < 3) - 4) o
83. ' h-N-y, O y-vu-N-h
E L-?
1) --- v
2) l x-
3) @ v-
4) --- u
84. B v u-~ ?
1) v-Dl uHb
2) - @
3) . ---u 4) --v Kb
85. dEo v---d -q
1) 1916

2) 1917

3) 1918

4) 1919

86. -t-D ~--v * - AJ-T*a V


1) 1915 -J 9
2) 1916 -J 9
3) 1917 -J 9
4) 1918 -J 9
87. D-@E 't E L-J -C-*
uh
1) v-
2) H -\
3) O-v- 4) x-
88. v-- C* E
1) j j
2) j
3) y- >- 4) j
89. D@ --- ' j u-
jq E L- v-
1) v v 2) - v
3)
4) O-v-
90. vq N a J- B
v C- vA-E- ?
1) -t-D, l x-
2) .G. %-F, . ----J
3) - v,
4) v v, H -\
91. C-- v EC C?
1) v 2) 3) E 4) --
92. v A NE --E d
?
1) 2) 1.3 x 3) 2 x 4) 2.3 x
93. N _- o v-C?
1)
2) v
3)
4) --
94. j-u A-*o v--L v C?
1) u 2) v-- M
3) ~-Dy
4) - E-
95. 't-@ E -C-* u-?
1) Ny 2) t 3) %lu 4)

PAPER - I

96. --- Eo Z -v-B-Eo LT


o?
1) 10

2) 7

3) 8

4) 9

97. --- u -j C?
1) -J 2) 3) %g 4) vt-v
98. %g C -v L
1) -yC
2) *-M-o
3) DN
4)
99. u% -~ d -q
x *aC?
1) 1972

2) 1974

3) 1976

4) 1978

100. --- -l
t G%Cl jC?
1) 1951 61

2) 1931 41

3) 1921 31

4) 1911 21

101. --- s j j q
vD%i C?
1) 0.03% 2) 0.05% 3) 0.07% 4) 0.33%

102. -- B \ Z C?
1) -n 2) u-v- 3) H 4) h v
103. o C f C?
1) x 2) A 3) 4)
104. W vd >x C?
1) E--
2) C--
3) -
4) _
105. 'u q Eo -h?
1) yb-x
2) x
3) -u
4) -
106. h-- C?
1) W 22 * - 22
2) Ja 21 * d- 22
3) d- 22 * - 22
4) - 23 * W 21
107. v- -Eo C- pAh
?
1) v>
2)
3) -J
4) ~--v
108. v- A *o -
C?
1) 2) 3) ~ -J 4) v
109. j, y v C
o C?
1) -- 2) -J 3) v> 4) x-
110. --- A h vd C?
1) G
2) -b
3) v--
4)
111. 2011 \ v C
-- o Z C?
1)
2) h v
3) -
4) -Z
112. v v- j
Jf %d-* N q-v (Cv-
* u--J ) p v-G?
1) 2011 d- 1 2) 2011 - 26
3) 2011 - 10 4) 2011 d- 24
113. 2011 \ v C -v (- .O. 1102) o Z
1) H
2) Pa
3) h v
4) -Z
114. v v p p--C?
1) u v, N u *a--p
2) v N, u- u *a--p
3) v u- _ *a--p
4) N v-, u- u *a--p
115. _-E \ t--Eo - --
p ?
1) vq 2) u 3) tF 4) x
116. yv N- vA ?
1) bK 2) - Y
3) - v 4) H -\
117. t G Eo u
* v-?

1) ~--v
2)
3) wdL
4) -J
118. u J-
v-N \
N jt ?
1) v v 2) l x
3) --- v 4) .. Kb
119. 1956 y p- Z C?
1) H
2) -
3) u-v-
4) h--v-
120. B u-- JnAE Z-A
NC-?
1) vDl M t 2) F @ f
3) cF j
4) N.N. TJ
121. -- --Z-A ?
1) q 2) --TJ --TJ
3) y-Lx -%-g 4) t --x
122. Z-A -N --E -Lq
F ox?
1) 18

2) 21

3) 25

4) 35

123. - L p
O vh o --
vAEu -h-o?
1) 15

2) 16

3) 17

4) 18

124. v-d u-Jh


?
1) M
2) A HH
3) o D
4) -
125. jd u--h u Eg--C
?
1) -o
2) u-vA
3) Z-A
4) x-
126. Z G- vh Eo --o?
1) 100

2) 52

3) 82

4) 61

127. 11 u- --B- n- Eo
N --?
1) 29

2) 19

3) 49

4) 39

128. --v-v-- u--vA u-C E -?


1) -J ----
2) v----
3) j.. ----f
4) vt---f
129. vh u--E v-N N
Eo?
1) 11

2) 10

3) 9

4) 6

130. E- Gx N- (--) L
jt ?
1) .. %-E
2) N---
3) ..
4) H h
131. -{ v-R- *-
Ch?
1) B G-%Cl L 2) v--vA
3) v-R
4) Z-A
132. Jn y v-JC
1) Jn
2) v-R
3) v vy 4) n
133. v-R Eo p p ?
1) 1947

2) 1950

3) 1951

4) 1952

134. 20 v u-v-Eo v-G-* v-vA


1) C D
2) --- v
3) --- Y 4) --
135. p-- (--)
p p ?
1) 1960

2) 1961

3) 1963

4) 1965

136. x- t LT Fq
-C?
1) .10 2) .100 3) .50 4) .500
137. C-- 'uq Eo -h?
1) G f
2) vd

3) f
4) q ->
138. o y -E C G-hC?
1) j q 2) vu~ 3) t 4) D-
139. 'v G-%Cl E-C (f ---
Jd) E-C- N-
n C?
1) --
2) xu
3) --
4) H--
140. 'vd q -- L n N?
1) -, xu- 2) xu-, H--
3) H--, - 4) , xu-
141. L v- L--J p Ey--?
1) v.. 776
2) v.. 776
3) v.. 393
4) v.. 393
142. ' vH dK j h - ?
1) .. yF
2) d
3) .N. --- 4) G x
143. L *v ' J-a-v
-C-* uh ?
1) d 2) l- F
3) -- \ 4) -
144. j- q Ey--- vv
(--) vu- \ C?
1) jH 2) No 3) u\ 4) uJ
145. , - -C* C J--EC
1) D -G J
2) J\ -
3) h J -
4) -G
146. ' \ E--hC?
1) - v
2) -
3) - E- 4) ~-Dy
147. Eo -C-E C?
1) G
2) M
3) t
4) u-u wj
148. v 700 x p- JC?
1) 2011 d- 30 2) 2011 d- 31
3) 2011 - 30 4) 2011 - 31
149. v C-q-Eo V
Eyh?
1) W 5
2) Vj 11
3) d- 16
4) Ja 21
150. ' N u C--?
1) ->F 2) _ -
3) J
4) xq j-
-( --- -v-o-v-Eo j------E RICE
--d-u- -E-- -%- --C-*-C.)

----

13; 21; 32; 44; 51; 62; 72; 83; 94; 101;
111; 124; 133; 142; 152; 161; 174; 182;
191; 203; 212; 222; 232; 241; 253; 264;
271; 283; 294; 304; 314; 324; 333; 341;
354; 363; 371; 382; 392; 402; 413; 422;
431; 444; 454; 462; 471; 483; 491; 502;
512; 521; 533; 541; 552; 564; 574; 581,
592; 603; 611; 622; 633; 644; 654; 663;
672; 681; 691; 702; 712, 721; 731; 742;
753; 764; 774; 783; 792; 801; 814; 821;
833; 842; 854; 861; 873; 882, 892, 903;
913, 922; 932; 943; 951; 964; 972; 983;
991; 1004; 1011; 1022; 1032; 1043; 1053;
1064; 1074; 1081; 1092; 1103; 1113; 1122;
1131; 1144; 1154; 1163; 1173; 1182; 1192;
1201; 1213; 1224; 1231; 1242; 1253;
1264; 1271; 1282; 1291; 1301; 1311;
1321; 1332; 1341; 1354; 1363; 1372;
1381; 1394; 1403; 1411; 1422; 1433; 1441;
1452; 1463; 1471; 1482; 1493; 1504.

II -- -@-x...

-- 7 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - II SECRETARIAL ABILITIES


No.of
Questions: 150
1.

10 +
25 + 121
1) 156

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

1)

N ?

2) 46

3) 16

4) 4

1) 1.35
2) 13.5

2 + 3

= a + b 3
2 3
1) 7
2) 21
a : b = 3 : 4, b : c = 8 :
1) 3 8 9
3) 3 6 9

3) 49.95

1) 3
28.

29.
4) 4
a:b:c
8 9
4 9

9
?
: :
2) 6 :
:
: :
4) 3 :
:
.1570 A, B uh - - o. A
.25, B .45 - -- - - o - y- J - *- a-
EpAh 2 : 3. A *a h ?
1) .600
2) .625
3) .628
4) -D-
x v - 6
x. x y J - EpAh 10 : 3.
vh v ?
1) 40 . 2) 42 . 3) 44 . 4) 48 .
-- 70% C Tx, 75% C Nun D x--. 10% C F
x--. C x?
2) 55%

3) 60%

30.

? : F
(i)

::

(ii)

1) E

(iii)

4
1) 1
18.

21.

4)

(i) (iv)

3
4

1
2) 2

34.

36.

37.

3) 8

38.

39.

40.

3) 28

2) 51%

25%.

3) 57%

4)

D-.
-

2)

3)

2)

3)

4)

2)

3)

3) 8

42.

2)

3)

4)

4) 9

44.

4) 9
45.
4) 53

3) 215

4) 257

3) DD

4) DF

24. AB, BC, ? , HE, PF, FG


25. BCD, DEF, FGH, HIJ, JKL, ?
3) NOP

4) KLM

-q Ja 1 -
q d 16 V -C?

3) 14

4) 15

2) 10

3) 12

4) 15

EE A, B uh L 30 Vx -. A EE v-G* 16 V y
CL x. N-T-L EE B \ 44 Vx
Jh . B \ h EE Eo Vx
--?
2) 40

3) 60

4) 70

- u- A, B j - 15, 20 ENx E- . j - J J*, 4


EN y A h u E- C?
1) 10 E. 20 .
2) 11 E. 45 .
3) 12 E. 30 .
4) 14 E. 40 .
uh v--* Eo 3 -
h, \- -Eo - 3 .O., 4
.O., 5 .O. - v--. v
47 EN-j v--* h
? (.O. x)
1) 2

46.

2) 13

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3) .120
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40%

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2) 3

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v Eh h EE l L
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?
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12 : 30
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2)
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5
1) 179
2)
60. BAD : CBE
1) GOOD 2)
61. LOM: NMK
1) RIH
2)

1) 23

vo-n n
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3) 69

69.

TEACHER = ?
3) 60

2) 50

Go-iEo Jh-.

45832735178935831352
Y

v - 3 x. ENx
v - 5 x.
vh ?
1) 12 . 2) 14 . 3) 16 . 4) 20 .

7
56. 8

57.

3) 20

1) 14
68.

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54. E = 5, TEA = 26
55.

3) 5

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2) 1, 2, 3 j-N
3) 3, 1 4 j-N 4) 1, 2, 4 j-N
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9 6 = ?

4)

d, q, -C* j -*vEo Jh-.

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(k, 5), (7, 7)


(Collinear)
k

2) 255

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2 3

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1)

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1) 217

7
2)
12

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35. tan0 tan1 tan3 tan4 ..... tan89 =

x6 64
=
x 2 x3 8

, , , ,

1
x
x

33. 5

Lt

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4) 0

(3, 4) v o %h u *
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20.

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13 15 16

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(x + 1)

41. 39

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17.

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x+
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2) 3 : 4
3) 4 : 5
4) 5 : 4
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A \?
1
1) 25%
2) 30%
3) 33 % 4) D-
3
10. uh hj 30% B *a Nt,
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1) .51 2) .25 3) .20 4) .30
(1115): j vu-o-Eo o.
11. - x-p- Eo LT C?
1) uK 2) u 3) 4) x
12. v xp Eo LT C?
1) 2)
3) d>
4) j-d
13. d xp Eo LT C?
1) t 2) 3) F
4) x
14. \ xp LT C
1) vEq-
2)
3) -u-
4) -A
15. x- xp -JE LT ?
1) t
2) o- 3) Lx--v 4) Nu

5
1)
9

8.

16.

2)

2) 5

1) 1

4) 135

b N ?
3) 7

27. 2x3 3x2 + 5

2025 = 45 2025 + 20.25 +

0.2025 N ?

1) 45%

Max. Marks: 150


Time: 2.30 Hours

MODEL GRAND TEST

1
2
3
2)
3)
4)
4
3
7
FRIEND
HUMJTK

J--

CANDLE h?

1) EDRIRL

2) ESJFME

3) FYOBOC

4) DEQJQM

J-- JOSEPH
GEORGE h?

FKOALD

E h,

1) CADMNO 2) CAKNIT 3) CAKNCA 4) JAKINS


80.

J-- air green F, green blue


F, blue sky F, skyE yellow F, yellow
water E, water pink F -h.
C.
1) blue

2) sky

3) yellow 4) pink

81. 36

C o --A j* , *
- 7, 11 ux o. -C
* J u - 1) 20, 24

2) 24, 20 3) 25, 21 4) 26, 22

82. "Meeta's Mother meets me many times"

uE - ~ v p u C?
1) Meeta

83.

2) Mother 3) Meets 4) Many

F I O
A J K
E M ?

1) P
3) S

2) R
4) V

u 23. \ u
p h ?

84. 11

1) 25

2) 28

3) 22

4) 24

-- 7 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - II SECRETARIAL ABILITIES


85.

u 75 -E
hC. u C?
1) 100

2) 150

L u

3) 300

4) 200

b ca acaba abac

86.

1) aacb
87.

75

2) cbcb

2) C

88. Hockey : India

3) D

::

4) bbca

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

2) India

97.

3) 22

2) 425

3) 137

2) 8

4 1

1) 2

2) -5

16

x=?
4) -2

C uh vE x d
ao. l uh xp \\
a---E -u ?
2
2)
7

3
3)
8

5
4)
8

uh .5000 p B 8%
f x y f Lx-L?
1) .1200
2) .1500
4) .500
3) .800
100. 24, 36, 48 TL Je u C?
99.

1) 6

2) 8

3) 12

4) 16

101. 3 4)
6)

(2, 3) G- L --Eo (5,


Ep-Ah N>hC?
1) 2 : 3 -
2) 3 : 2 u
3) 2 : 3 u
4) 3 : 2 -
102. D`---v d--, p 5 : 1 EpAh
o. E ju 216 .O.2 D`-v ? (.O. )
1) 16
2) 18
3) 24
4) -D
103. D`---v vA Eo 20% *
E j-u -- ?
(,

1) 40%
104.

4) 46%

2) 30%

3) 39% 4) 69%

1
1
1
vA- EpAh
:
:
E
2
3 4
d-- 82 .O. A *o
? (.O.-)
1) 9

106.

3) 44%

-v ju 69 % * E
- ?
1) 13%

105.

2) 42%

2) 10

3) 11

4) 12

- vA--E -
T_h E j-u _- -?
1) 36%

2) 40%

x N ?

2) 2

3) 3

4) 10

5
3)
4

10
4)
7

4) 4

2) 1225

20%

3) 7

4) 10

N ?
3) 980

4) 600

(114115): Go-i Eo Jh-.


114. 1) WHEAT

2) TRAIN

3) PROUD

4) DRIVER

115. 1) MONDAY

2) TUESDAY

3) THURSDAY

4) SATURDAY

116. Hong Kong : China :: Vatican : ....


1) Rome

2) Mexico

2) Canada

4) Christianity

117. 3897

999 = ?

1) 3883203

2) 3893103

3) 3639403
1) 8

4) 3791203

-v-

2) 9

384

3) 7

o ?
4) 10

u h 20
u _ -- ?
1) 12

120.

2) 28

3) 160

8.

4) 180

u h 33,
*o u C?
1) 9

2) 12

3) 15

15.

4) 18

C J-a--- CN, *a vo- j


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u-n-x --Jt- E--h-o. DE-x -x
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1948 ud-K d, 1986 --Jt dEo -C*C. o Nx C. J-nA \
R \- C. 1991 \ v Z
20 ~ C --Jt---o. ---Jt --u-n
-Et-- dEo p- u \ J\. -J h-o-- C
u? oC vo.
121. u-- E o C-- Jt u-n
EChC?

3) 60% 4) 64%

x-1
x+3
107. 8
= 2
1) 1

1) 98

119.

98. 8

5
1)
7

2) 6

113. 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + 49

T--

4) 12

3) 6

3) 3

- o _ O-- C?

1) 5

4) 113

3) 12

( )( ) ( )
1

7
2)
9

118. 3, 6, 12, 24, ....

u ... lE
u p-E--J 1) v u
2) ~ v u
3) h u
4) u
h t .21. h o-
(-x), d-- u .
E o- ?
1) .70
2) .30
4) -D-
3) 1 2
3x3 + 4x2 5x + k (x + 2) Th 10
hC. k N ?
x 2

2) 4

-----u Ja E N

112. n(A) = 12, n(B) = 18, n(A B) = 25


n(A B) = ?

4) 23

Ee u 7 L- 9, 12,
--C?

2
4)
3

1) x2 + 20x + 91 = 0 2) x2 2x + 91 = 0

v C. C, B \ Lx -\--\ .
B --?
1) J 2) Lx
3) h 4) El-J-
-q - 26 C-
-q Ja 14 - -C?
1) C2) v3) -- 4) -\
A, B, C, D, E uh -
Ea-o. B A J. B, C- D d.
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1) A
2) C
3) B
4) -\
40 C Nu-no --A V u,
4 n j C. u
*J * 14 n. V u
* ?
2) 27

4
3)
7

3) x2 + 20x 91 = 0 4) x2 2x 91 = 0

4) Australia

1) 8

111. 7 13

Cricket : ....

3) Sri lanka

1) 281

110. 0.7
7
1)
5

4) F

1) England

1) 18

123.

l Go-C?

Ee u 723 L- *a _---C?
1) 6

89. A
A
90.

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109.

3) abca

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E, D o. C; A, B u o.
F; E, A u o. E --j
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1) A

5 2 7 3 4
108.
8 3 9 5 7
5
7
1)
2)
8
9

1) 14
122.

2) 24

3) 34

4) 44

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1) 2) -- 3) x 4) Fo

v- 12 x
j Jt--oE L
n C?
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2)
3) -b-B Jt n
4) D-
124. --Jt- \- o v
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3) v-v-
4) h
125. u-- E 45- C-- Eo ElPhC?
1) Jt un E
2) --Jt- Jn
3) --Jt-- @
4) --Jt- Nu \
126. --Jt- E h L d
1) Ev--d
2) - n u PhC
3) s \- h
4) D-
127. --G -Jj Ny C?
1) uG- --- *\-o L-
2) d- -K h-o
3) OC h--p- v x
4) - -K h-o
128. 14 x o -LqC
1) --
2) --
3) o-- A-
4) ---
129. v- --Jt- E x ---o-E
y --o?
1) -J
2) - --
3) ---
4) Fo
130. J J- nA ?
1) t-- E---
2) --L-
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131. 'Fo-x Fox C N?
1) h
2)
3) B
4) uh
132. t--x E-- x
1) - knu _-C
2) --C
3) K- v--E J-a
4) N -
133. --Jt un -JE -C?
1) x
2) *--JE
3) vA--
4)
134. --Jt dEo p -C- ?
1) 1986
135.

2) 1950

3) 1990

4) 1989

-Jt u-n - aa?


1) d L
2) \ R \
3) B A fd
4) \-A
v---E -C-*- Y Nh
f J v- p--Lq - j-R -J O--L. vt-- v- Y Nu - vN-. u N-, N u,
u %Ah, -E -. N
N- Y t--- 1879 -v
\-o. Y vu- 'B----CE vA- . 1891 - 11 N -Jy- J-. Dx 12 --x t N- .
x vt- - L--.
v - ---v-- 'N --
n-. * y--v Nu-- G--
. -J h 53 N N
J-- N! 'N---JnE vA----
Y- 'B----CE vA -. 1879
N N- Y t--E v--* ju-L J. 1891 - 15 -Jy- N J-. --hE '--J --E -a.
u u-~ t 1891 Y vu- vn CEo EJt. --P- - Y vA
' -J -C-. N -Jy J--- --J j -%-gu --- o. -JE - j-R-
-. u y v- ju
J. v-- y -> t ---d.
vv- u . (-v-o-: 136 150)
136. J O--L-Eo E h?
1) -N
2) v--v-N
3) - j-R- 4) Fo
137. N N- Y t-E -J p
p?

1) 1879
138.
139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

1) 10
144.

145.

2) 1900

3) 1910 4) 1911

N -Jy--Eo p J--?
1) 1875 2) 1885 3) 1891 4) D-
O--L--E G-- --
1) v
2) D
3) v
4) y--v Nu--
-J - n C?
1) E-
2) --J
3)
4) D-
C-- j--Eo Jh-.
1) u-~ t N N J--
2) j -%g vn C d
3) -J -- hE --J --E
a
4) u-~ t -- hE -vA Ey-
a
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1) u-~ t
2) -O--L-
3) y--v Nu--
4) --J
N N -o t ox?
2) 11

3) 12

4) 13

P ?
1) -J
2) u-~ t
3) -J
4) ' vA --
-J J-* N N- u
1) 43

2) 53

3) 33

4) 63

(146 147): j u vEo Jh-:


146. 1)

-J vA -C
-J vA -
3) vA -J
4) -J vA- -
147. 1) o ~ t - N N- J--
2) o ~ t - J-- N N-
3) N N--- J-- o ~ t-
4) D-
148. -JE vt- L----E
1) Jh h-E
- 2) vt- E
3) N N- J-- -E
4) vA --E
149. j uEo Jh-.
1) Y u-~ t vA-
2) -J Y vA-
3) P Y N---JnE vA-
4) P Y vA-
150. j -%g -J ---- o?
1) -J
2) u-~ t
3) P
4) vt-
2)

--
1-4; 2-3; 3-4; 4-2; 5-2; 6-3; 7-2; 8-4; 9-4; 10-4;
11-4; 12-2; 13-4; 14-3; 15-3; 16-1; 17-3; 18-4;
19-2; 20-3; 21-3; 22-1; 23-3; 24-3; 25-1; 26-1;
27-4; 28-3; 29-3; 30-4; 31-3; 32-4; 33-2; 34-2;
35-3; 36-1; 37-2; 38-4; 39-4; 40-1; 41-2; 42-2;
43-3; 44-4; 45-2; 46-3; 47-2; 48-1; 49-2; 50-3;
51-3; 52-4; 53-3; 54-3; 55-3; 56-3; 57-2; 58-4;
59-2; 60-4; 61-3; 62-3; 63-4; 64-4; 65-4; 66-4;
67-3; 68-2; 69-3; 70-3; 71-4; 72-3; 73-3; 74-3;
75-2; 76-3; 77-1; 78-1; 79-3; 80-3; 81-3; 82-1;
83-2; 84-2; 85-3; 86-3; 87-4; 88-1; 89-3; 90-1;
91-4; 92-4; 93-3; 94-2; 95-3; 96-2; 97-4; 98-2;
99-1; 100-3; 101-3; 102-2; 103-3; 104-2; 105-4;
106-1; 107-3; 108-2; 109-1; 110-2; 111-2;
112-1; 113-2; 114-4; 115-1; 116-1; 117-2; 118-1;
119-3; 120-1; 121-2; 122-4; 123-3; 124-1; 125-4;
126-2; 127-3; 128-4; 129-1; 130-2; 131-3;
132-3; 133-1; 134-1; 135-2; 136-3; 137-1;
138-3; 139-4; 140-2; 141-3; 142-1; 143-3;
144-4; 145-2; 146-4; 147-1; 148-3; 149-4; 150-1.

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E -~ d--J\- jd -G-Vb- -N-g-l--f; --d -y----Y --C-)

--- 8 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - I GENERAL STUDIES


No.of
Questions: 150

1.

--2011 v - v-v-
?
1) 5%

2) 6%

3) 7%

4) 8%

2.

x- ---v j-E p
E-T--C?
1) 14 v 1912
2) 15 d 1912
3) 1 -J 1912
4) 4 -J 1912
3. L- v --L-J p Ey-- ?
1) v.. 776
2) v.. 776
3) v.. 1876
4) v.. 1901
4. A -q =
1) 9.3 1015 O.
2) 9.3 1015 .O.
15
3) 9.3 10 .O.
4) 9.3 1015 N.O.
5. u--u--NA 2011 - 12 --
pj -q \ Ey--*C?
1) x 2) 3) ~--v 4) v>
6. q- --- J Zx
u
1) 1
7.

2) 3

3) 2

4) 5

@N \ J* u--E o E \o?
1) 20

2) 21

3) 22

4) 24

8.

s-j-v-x hE N- vv-
?
1) ---u-- v
2) y-v
3) vu-pAh
4) N-
b v
9. 1970 x 50,000
C --?
1) x-
2) --
3) L-jpq
4) J
10. q -t-h T--p x v-
uh -. u N-J
v C?
1) u E
2) u E
3) u E
4) u -y--{ E
11. vj - EhC?
1) --S-
2) --u
3) n y Ah
4) ol
12. - -- Eo J---h?
1)
2)
3)
4)
13. ' y, - J- -
v - ?
1) {
2) Gq
3) u- -
4) t
14. N -J NPd v ?
1) 2.7

2) 2.95

3) 4.75

4) 5.52

15.

J- C?
1) ---x
2) E---h
3) Z C-
4) C-
16. M.K.S. l-A E v C?
1) u
2) j
3) 4) _
17. -E -E --
1) HCl

2) H2

3) N2

4) O2

18.

--u --v- p u -N?


1) A, J----
2) J----, F
3) s j j q, A
4) s j j q, J----
19. --2011 v v-v- Eo
x?
1) 7.62
20.

2) 8.46

3) 8.92

4) 9.46

o - \ --TC?
1) 4

21.

Max. Marks: 150


Time: 2.30 Hours

MODEL GRAND TEST

2) 5

3) 6

4) 7

- - -Jz-*
Gqq vE?
1)
2) Js
3) d-
4) vE- -

22.

D B-v -O J
u -v-B v-E 19
C --E --iC?
1) 11 Ja 2011
2) 10 Ja 2010
3) 12 Ja 2010
4) 9 v-J 2011
23. %
E- dEo p
C?
1) 2005

2) 2006

3) 2007

4) 2008

24.

n-Y Ey-- 'vq -


u vuN*a--?
1) t
2) Gq
3) {
4) j
25. -N x p y- -E
C-N?
1) y-
2) y-
3) -Pd y-
4) To y-
26. - Ep -Eo
\o?
1) O P-
2) -
3) v< P-
4) u P-
27. uv ()
x d--
--oE EC *aC?
1) 42

2) 40

3) 49

4) 44

28.

- v-
C?
1) O
2) u
3) v
4) Fo
29. CO2 %A C?
1) V %A
2) -N-
3) &
4) -t
30. y-v \ --C?
1) -vu
2) v
3) J----
4) i--v
31. - x @g-i -n -
p-C
1) h
2) -J-A-h
3) -u-n
4) -
32. v- v-yu J--
-C-*----?
1) -B-
2) -J-x
3) vU
4) x
33. 2011 -- oC?
1) 11

34.

3) 14

4) 15

G%Cl * (HDI) p v-d?


1) 1980

35.

2) 12

2) 1990

3) 2000

4) 2002

--- A \ o Z
C?
1) 2) N 3) \ 4) vA
36. --Lx *-* v C?
1) Lq
2) d
3) NM
4) C vq
37. h- - \-
Ba--L hE -?
1) pAh
2) NE-
3)
4) v-
38. p jy v v -
C?
1)
2) N--o
3) --y
4) j o
39. - -- -N {-
-E CC?
1) v-
2) y-B
3) Eo-o
4) - {-
40. -u (Amateur Radio)

1) O
2) Nh
3) u
4)
41. ux- J-d- uvx Eo T_
-nEo -?
1)
2) N-J

3)

v
d vH
42. ' E
Eo ?
1) v.. 300 v.. 300
2) v.. 500 v.. 300
3) v.. 300 v.. 500
4) v.. 500 v.. 500
43. u--u--NA v- v -C-*
C?
1) u\
2) -d
3) -v-Eq\
4) u
44. C- 'x-j-- EC C?
1)
2) v
3) vEq-d

4) D-
45. --- --- C-
Z C?
1)
2) u
3) -Z
4) h--v-
46. p \ %A -E CC?
1)
2) P
3) u
4) v< P-
47. Jd \j L Nh C?
1) { F v
2)
3) -
4) To-y s
48. v u v 1996 2000
u-- n B p-Ah
N-h x d--C?
4)

1) 3.12

2) 2.75

3) 3.15 4) 2.25

49.

K--h?
1) u u
2) Z v-y
3) Jy u 4) v Jn vA-y-
50. -H-E B -q
1) 1939

2) 1949

3) 1959

4) 1969

51.

vu-s E-- B---Lq u C?


x-- E-vA-
2) D`-- p-AhE
3) vu--x-E, --AE T_-
4) Fo
52. - h x *a - -N-
Z- -C*C?
1) v-v- g-
2) g- N--
3) v-v- N--
4) v-v-
53. Nu -\ -- --
1) - -
2) -
3) X-
4) Fo
54. - Gx- u-N-ho o
Z-E C--?
1) -
2) -Z
3) g-
4)
55. yE x C- C?
1) \
2) F
3) jv-
4) u
56. Weapons of Mass Destruction
p * Nh %- -- *aC?

60.

d l-Eo vA--C-* Y-Vc ?

2) F
3) uq
4) -M
61. u - x - x
o d-C?
1) 1833 d
2) 1909 d
3) 1919 d
4) 1935 d
62. u Jh* Eo?
1)

1) 18
63.

57.

2) 2002

3) 2003

4) 2004

-M -hd E --
EJt?
1) - 2) - jV
3) - u 4) - --J-
58. "Cyclone" vU *
sN*C. 'Cyclos' n N?
1)
2) d
3) v-
4) C
59. u-C Nu--t- N o
C?
1) -
2) xJ
3) q-
4)

3) 20

4) 22

1) 1.4%

2) 2.4%

3) 3.4%

4) 4.4%

64.

p % * Gs Eo -?

2) v
3)
4) p-
65. px v u-pAh - --
?
1)
2) -
3) ~ v
4) -{ v
66. B Nh Ey- n \ p
?
1)
2) *a
3)
4) uMx
67. -d
* s-N-*C?
1) -G
2) vU
3) 4) v
68. v -C F Eo-x -
L?
1)

1) 2

2) 3

3) 4
69.

1)

1) 2001

2) 19

v - - Nh-J*
C?

4) Eo-x-
-- v 4,387. v
-B u u ?

1) 9
70.

2) 11

3) 13

4) 15

'B \ N- p
n-?
1) 1992

2) 1993

3) 1994

4) 1998

71.

-J-- v ~
1) -u-Eo C-
2) --l
3) ----i u -d
4) Fo
72. , u N--i
C?
1) - -
2) N
3)
4) D-
73. -
-J- --J
ENj ?
1) N..
2) P--
3) E-
4) .. --
74. ' %y lA \- C?
1) -yu
2) Cy-C-u
3) J-g \ 4) J-N yu
75. --h--- J-e Eo V- x
Eo --C---L?
1) 20

2) 25

3) 30

4) 35

76.

'-oq u l N?
1) --z-- -C---E
E- -C-
2) --z--
-C---E J
E- -C-
3) -A j-uEo C*, -n-i
C-
4) jFo
77. v x C- C?
1) Uo- xj
2) L{ s-
3) Uo- vi
4) xj

--- 8 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - I


78.

'- -T- E E -h?


vC
2) -
3) P-L
4) y-
79. --- x, x, -O u B-v -?
1) 5400 .O.
2) 5600 .O.
3) 5700 .O.
4) 5800 .O.
80. 2011 -- v y C
o C?
1) 2) j o 3) - 4) Mx
81. 1957 - N q @E \
n-?
1) L-
2) y
3) -
4)
82. @ y% JE l-P*
vd?
1) d- _-
2) C _
3) - 4) u---A _-
83. u N C
C?
1) J 2) j 3) No 4)
84. -v Eo n-* -q C?
1) v.. 633
2) v.. 622
3) v.. 666
4) v.. 630
85. -L, O U -ux
i - p--?
1) -
2) -\ % -
3) 1, 2
4) D
86. A - -l-Eo vA--C-* Y-h
?
1) u
2) jq
3) q-
4) - d
87. v-- Ej -- C?
1) vN y
2) v y
3) g-v
4) Fo
88. pAh * *a x x
v nA ?
1) - n-A
2) yn-A
3) v- n-A
4) - n-A
89. 19802010 u -
v%A-i N-h x -C
?
1) 1,43,039
2) 1,23,039
3) 1,13,039
4) 1,03,039
90. B Nh Ey- N-Eo v vA-L -q- -C-*C?
1)

1) 2009
91.

2) 2008

3) 2007

4) 2010

--- p-- C?
1)
2) -h
3) v
4) j--
92. C- ---C- EC?
1) u- -u-~-E o--
2) u p- o--
3) vA---LE E-vA-
4) J{ -b -C-
93. -- Jn un -E CC?
1) d---K Jn un
2) u- Jn un
3) Nv Jn un
4) G-%Cl C Jn un
94. Jn u-n vy v \-
C?
1) d---K
2) u-
3) Nv
4) jFo
95. %g Cj L-*- v-d >x
EJth-o?
1) _
2) ----
3)
4) %g
96. Pa N~- x Gl -o
N?
1) , Kx
2) , \- o
3) J,
4) J, Kx

GENERAL STUDIES

97.

--z-Eo -C-*C?
-L
2) ---
3) jE
4) E
98. u v %Ah C?
1) u
2) --
3) q u-v-
4)
99. - N h Ey- d
q -C-?
1)

1) 2006 2) 2005

3) 2007

4) 2008

100.

\ t---E uA-- Z
TJ- u- h-o?
1) ^
2) u-v-
3)
4) Bh-
101. Nu---\-- E --T-h?
1) J-fx
2) j
3) vq-tx
4) jFo
102. - J-- -h?
1) d O
2) Ot-
3) O \
4)
103. Jt-- N- \-J-* Y--h
?
1) uK
2) - d
3) Fq-
4) y-
104. - -n - vd
Z
C?
1) H
2)
3) h--v-
4)
105. -- Dy--p h- y--P-
C?
1) -v-TJ
2) -P-
3) -d
4) j-
106. j p - \- Nh-J* o
v C?
1) - v
2) \ -N
3) p-B v
4) J v
107. -- N- Eo -N- -q- \-?
1) 1951

2) 2001

3) 1901 4) 1921

108.

h-E-uy E-Eo L- Y-h ?


1) Fq-
2) --f
3) u
4) - d
109. ya -i F pH N?
1) 0

110.

2) 5.5

3) 2

4) 7

s ----n s --
?

1) 2

2) 3

3) 4

4) 5

111.

M\ \- \ u-Q--
LT --E --C?
1) Cy-Eo LT
2) vA-Eo LT
3) --Eo LT
4) s -- Fq %h
112. --- -N - x
-C v-N----o?
1) 180 NL-x
2) 150 NL-x
3) 200 NL-x
4) 225 NL-x
113. 2011 -- v v - - -?
1) 16.7% 2) 17.5% 3) 21.6% 4) 18.4%

114.

-o N N- L
uh u

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

115.

jd u--h -O-
1) 58 x E 2) 60 x E
3) 62 x E 4) 65 x E
116. v h --- B- -- Eo
ho n C?
1) SBI

117.

2) CSO

3) NIRD

4) RBI

h- -A, C---j NC
C?
1) j q
2) d
q
3) - Jb
4) Ky q
118. N --\ t--Eo

EJt?
1) vG 2) tF
3) u
4) -J
119. v-v-- A
\ {- -u >x C?
1) *h
2)
3) --
4) o
120. j- n- ?
1) --
2) zy--
3) -O-
4) ---l
121. l UA -J-- J-TC?
1) E-\
2) -
3) v
4) - -
122. --- --h j -
u v-G-?
1) x
2)
3) E--Dl t-- 4) D-
123. E Eo -h?
1) H2O
2) N2
3) CO2
4) NO2
124. Nv?
1) , L-, p
2) L{ L-, L{ u-N-
3) , -o, p
4) L{ s-,
125. -u- C?
1) u 2) - 3) O 4) d
126. @N --
1)
2) p
3)
4) \
127. -E N vC C?
1) v-
2) j-
3) zy -
4)
128. %-E u
1) 4
2) 4
3) 13 4) 8
129. \ _ * G-%Cl
C?
1) \ - --C
2) zy t --
3) \ - %Cl -C
4) x G-%Cl
130. q -C* C-- jC
1) -- %Cl hC
2) Nh -- vhC
3) x y yE --E p--C
4) L-- hC
131. \ -- E-C -n-C?
1) >s--Lx
2) C-M
3) j-j-E
4) --j- x
132. t x '-- NLx-
uC hC?
1) d- d-
2) Z-
3) x-
4) q-L
133. K- - -y J -nC?
1) h 2) L 3) j 4) tx
134. t p-Ah - --?
1) --t
2) vq
3) x-
4) j-q
135. L ux j x P
N?
1) -jx
2) J-v-jx
3) -
4) c-
136. Eo o-?
1) 30
137.

2) 31

3) 32

4) 33

l H- p l H-
v- J N- lA C?
1) N-
2) ~-- N-
3) 1, 2
4) Cy N*aAh
138. -@-N- , Y vu-pAh
, nAE ?
1) jT Cy--
2) jT-

3)

CyB jT ~- 4) jT-
px --pAh
1) v-J *
2) W * d
3) d * -
4) - * Ja
140. -q LT ~ t-@N C?
1) j
2) ud-J
3) PM-v
4) v-
141. C- ~ t -- Jh-.
1) , y
2) vx, NNx
3) y,
4) , xJ
142. h a uC C?
1) --
2) Jq
3) F-N
4) \Ky
143. iv-v
1) v
2) v
3) v u
4) -v- u
144. -n \- -?
1)
2) ---
3) *\ T
4) p u
145. x-G- u-i --C?
1) L{
2)
3) -
4) xJ
146. P x, xx , \--
vp- E-h, uCE -?
1) y--\
2) xv
3) -
4) t
147. v vy Md-v Jj
NQ vu~ d---
--AE*aC?
139.

1) 51

2) 49

3) 52

4) 55

148.

v-v-- %Cl- C- o
>x C?
1) p -J
2) %g
3)
4) -f
149. 2011 -- v vA 1000
C -- C Y o?
1) 972

2) 960

3) 936

4) 940

150.

vh -o-- L- N
u~ ?
1) y _
2)
3)
4) o

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo j------E -K


--d-u- -E-- -%- --C-*-C.)

----

13; 21; 32; 41; 53; 63; 72; 82; 91; 102;
111; 121; 134; 144; 153; 163; 171; 183;
192; 202; 214; 221; 231; 243; 252; 264;
271; 281; 293; 304; 311; 323; 334; 342;
353; 364; 374; 381; 394; 404; 412; 421;
433; 443; 454; 463; 472; 484; 494; 502;
514; 524; 534; 542; 551; 563; 571; 582;
592; 603; 614; 624; 632; 644; 652; 664;
674; 681; 693; 702; 714; 722; 733; 744;
753; 764; 774; 783; 793; 804; 813; 824;
834; 842; 852; 861; 874; 881; 891; 901;
913; 921; 933; 942; 953; 962; 971; 982;
992; 1003; 1014; 1022; 1034; 1044; 1054;
1061; 1074; 1084; 1094; 1103; 1111;
1123; 1132; 1141; 1153; 1162; 1172;
1183; 1194; 1201; 1211; 1222; 1233;
1242; 1251; 1262; 1274; 1281; 1292;
1301; 1314; 1324; 1334; 1344; 1353;
1362; 1371; 1382; 1392; 1401; 1414;
1423; 1433; 1442; 1452; 1464; 1471;
1484; 1494; 1501.

II -- -@-x...

- 9 -d 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - II


No.of
Questions: 150

1) 3

2) 42

2. 3, 2

3.

N- uh ?

3) 39

2) x2 - x - 6 = 0

3) x2 + x + 6 = 0

4) x2 - x + 6 = 0

2) 1
3) 2
(x - 1)(x - 2)(x - 3)

84
1)
x
25

4) 3

Lt

x 3

2) -1

3) 0

1) 5(a + 4)

5 (3 6) (12 -3)
X-

. , , ,
G L --Eo
~ Ep-Ah N->-hC?
1) 3 : 1

2) 1 : 3

3) 12 : 3

4) 2 : 1

6 tan 15o + tan 75o = ?

1) 2

2) 3

3) 4

7 13 23 12 18 26 19 14

. , , , , , ,
1) 26

2) 18

u ?

3) 28

2) 10 : 3

4) 19

3) 11 : 4

2) 250

4) 14 : 5

3) 350

abcde
2)
5

4) 450

3) 5(a+b+c+d+e) 4) a+4

(2833):
28 1) (6 14) 2)
29 1) 13
2)
2)
30 1) 350
31 1) CXA
2)
32. 1) LIO
2)
33. 1) CCESRO
3) TERCICK

Go-i Eo Jh-.
,
(4, 10) 3) (8, 18) 4) (9,

.
.
.
.

11
130
LOA
DEI

3)
3)
3)
3)
2)
4)

xy
4)
2

3) 2xy - x

15
4)
518
4)
IPA
4)
POU
4)
SCEHS
NETNSI

22)

17
738
JQA
BAE

. C-- Eo vo?
j-- 31 Ja 2001
NN vA- \u--
N o.
4%
16%
-vA - \u-- = 2.1 ~.
-
34. \ \u-- o vA 8%
42%

C?
%
12 - 18%
--
1) -
2) -
-G
3)
4) -p-
35. V -vA -G, -vA -- \u-- u
?
1) 20,000
2) 40,000
4) -p-
3) 10,000
36. vA- x 3 V Eo
vA a?
1) 62,500 2) 48,000 3) 66,000 4) 42,000
37. 1, 2, 3, 5, 9, 12, 21, ?
(34-36):

1) 14

2) 13

3) 10
10

. C *
\.
5

4) 9

uA--

3
3

1) 1

2
2

2) 2

3) 5

4) 6

11

. F h, -N- E- x ~--Eo?
1) 26
2) 8
3) 7
4) O-
12. -G-o-i-C --C?

1)
1

2)

3)
10

12

13 2

12

10

16

13

10

24

4)

vo-n l -Lq Eo \.
1) 5

2) 11

3) 13

14

. j v -a.
) G) f ) >b ) )
1) , G, , ,
2) , G, , ,
3) , G, , ,
4) G, , , ,
15. J-- + , , ,
+ 4 + 11 5 55 = ?
1) 11
2) 79
3) 91
4) D-
16. u l 162. l u *o
u d l u C?
1) 9
17

2) 15

4
5 10 8

15 17 33 27

3) 18

4) 21

5 10 8 4
2)
17 33 27 15

4 5
8 10
3)
15 17 27 33

10 8
5
4
4)
33 27 17 15

, ,

, ,

,
,

, ,
, ,

18 58428

u 11- -Ez- T----


n-- ---Lq- Ee N ?

1) 0
19

2) 2

3) 3

4) 8

. u l 1440. ...
Eo o?
1) 2

2) 3

3) 4

12

4) 6

20 1752

Ee u L g _ C?
1) 6

2) 10

21 219 18

1) 54

216 18
2) 72

2 3
22 ,
7 14
5
1)
2)
14
2 (2 2)
23
(2 2) 2

3) 12

4) 18

=?
3) 7218

4) 7830

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MODEL GRAND TEST

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3
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4) JQDKB

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APPSC GROUP - IV 2012 PAPER - II


92

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1) 1 : 2
99

2) 2 : 3

3) 3 : 4

4) 4 : 5

1) 10
100

101

2) 100

3) 1000

4) 10000

. J-- EXAMINATION 56149512965


*h, GOVERNMENT h?
1) 7645954552

2) 7654694562

3) 7645965426

4) 7654964526

. J-- HORSE 71417184 h,


MONKEY E h?
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2) 12141310424

3) 12151411325

4) 12151210424

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61

h ?

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D-

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----: 13; 21; 33; 42; 54; 63; 72; 83; 91; 101;
112; 124; 133; 141; 154; 163; 173; 183; 191;
203; 211; 223; 234; 243; 253; 264; 273; 284;
293; 303; 313; 322; 332; 344; 353; 361; 372;
381; 392; 401; 414; 422; 434; 442; 454; 464;
474; 483; 492; 502; 512; 521; 532; 543; 551;
563; 572; 584; 594; 603; 611; 622; 632; 643;
652; 662; 673; 683; 694; 704; 713; 723; 731;
744; 752; 761; 773; 784; 791; 803; 811; 821;
834; 844; 851; 863; 872; 884; 894; 904; 914;
921; 932; 943; 953; 963; 974; 981; 993; 1001;
1012; 1021; 1033; 1043; 1054; 1063; 1073; 1084;
1091; 1102; 1112; 1121; 1134; 1142; 1152; 1161;
1174; 1183; 1194; 1204; 1214; 1222; 1232; 1241;
1253; 1261; 1274; 1282; 1293; 1302; 1314; 1321;
1332; 1344; 1353; 1363; 1371; 1381; 1394; 1402;
1413; 1423; 1432; 1442; 1452; 1463; 1473; 1484;
1492; 1504.

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E -~ d--J\- jd -G-Vb- -N-g-l--f; --d -y----Y --C-)

--C 1 -V-j 2012


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N-N- ---x-E -d- --Tbu-- >F --u- -q --E -Ey-*-- --- d- K~


E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un- -
- -D-Eo ---T-a. -v-y N
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Q.No. A B
4
1
3
2
2
1
2
2
4
1
1
2
4
2
4
1
2
2
3
3
4
3
3
1
4
3
3
3
2
1
3
4
3
3
1
2
1
3
3
2
2
2
3
1
2
2
4
2
1
4
3
3
2
2
1
1
4
3
1
3
3
3
3
4
1
1
1
2
3
1
3
1&3
3
2
4

4 3 3
1 3 2
1 3 3
1 4 3
3 1 2
3 1 2
3 1 1
1 2 3
3 3 3
2 1 1
2 3 1
3 1&3 3
2 3 4
4 2 1
2 4 3
2 1 3
3 1 2
2 1 3
1 2 2
2 4 4
1 3 4
1 2 2
3 2 3
2 2 1
4 3 2
2 4 1
4 3 1
1 2 2
3 2 3
1 2 2
4 3 3
1 2 3
3 3 3
2 3 4
2 2 1
1 2 1
2 1 1
2 3 2
4 3 3
1 1 1
1 1 3
2 3 1&3
4 4 3
2 1 2
4 3 4
1 3 1
2 2 1
2 3 1
3 2 2
3 4 4
4 4 3
3 2 2
3 3 2
1 1 2
4 2 3
3 1 4
3 1 3
3 2 2
2 3 2
2 2 2
3 4 3
2 1 4
3 1 3
3 1 3
2 3 1
2 3 2
1 3 1
3 1 3
3 3 3
1 2 2
1 2 2
3 3 2
4 2 3
1 4 1
3 2 2

Q.No. A B
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

1 3 2
1 2 3
1 3 2
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2
4
2
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2
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5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

-- j---

www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 1 -V-j 2012

-- j---
Y. Ramesh Babu,
Nagar Kurnool

Q:

t-x -v--i-N -E admissions are open/


opened -C -jC?

A: Admissions
are
open/
Admissions
are
on/
Admissions open/
Admissions (are) in progress - All are correct.
Q: Prepositions

J --E h-
---- ? Phrasal verbs
h-----E i o-- -.
A:
grammar h-- i
J--C.
Prepositions N x aN.
v . English C--Dl, x-Dl, -Dl ----.
Phrasal verbs -, - h. Tx %- !
x C-N (News papers,
Magazines, Stories N) h.
K. Sitaramaiah, Bhimavaram
Q: Explain whether the following sentences are
correct or not.

v-o v p-.
Pradeep Chourasia, Kazipet
Q: Explain whether the following sentences
correct are not.
How many minutes is left for the completion
of your class?
A: Correct
All of them are his students/ All of them are
the students of him.
A: All of them are his students.
All of them are students of his. - Both are
correct.
She is getting her braid done/ twisted by her
mother.
A: She has her braid done by her mother Correct. (is getting - wrong here)
Q: I have bought 'Oxford Advanced Lerner's
Dictionary of Current English'. But I have a
doubt, whether it is an original one or not.
How to know?
A: If the author is As Hornby and if the book
has the words, "Oxford University Press", It
is original.

Q: Stair/
Floor/
Balcony - Clarify.
A: Stair: Not used in
the singular. Always
used in the plural,
as, 'stairs' =
= a set of
steps
between two floors
in a building.

-j

(x )

A: I passed the exam in 2011 (2011

(-h)

Balcony: A platform with a short wall at the end


of it, and built on the upstairs, outside the
walls of a building =
balcony.
Q: Multi storied building/ A building which has
three floors - Explain the difference.

u. 2012 -q, fall (Autumn =


- ) August, September x
\ o Nu --E l o.

O h
d, d- -Ja C

Q: 'The curse of the Baskervilles' - Explain in


Telugu and explain why 'the' is written
before the word 'Baskervilles', as it is noun?

A: Multistoreyed building = Any building with


more than on storey.

A: 'The' should be used before a family name

( \

h-o ---).
A building which has three floors =

h ---.
A building which has three floors is also a
multi storeyed building (Floor =
=
storey)

(/ -). -
x, x !
N English J* p--E
The + / , plural -.
The Baskervilles = Baskerville x.
The Richards = Members of the Richard
family
Q: Explain the meaning in Telugu.

'Judge not lest you be judged'


Since when has he been working here?

( \ p * E h-o?)

-x--- 693

A: Correct
Milk is rotten/ Milk has become bad

A: The milk has turned sour/ curdled correct expression.

number

of

1) Getting somebody's attention =


to cause interest.

different

J %d

. /

eg: The child engaged my attention =


-a--

.
eg: I engaged a porter to carry my luggage =

- ME -a--o.
3) A part of a machine getting fixed with another part =

v v Eo
d--.

eg: The clutch in a car/ bike engages the vehicle with the engine.
clutch,
engine

(/ j
---Eo T-L-hC.)

4) Be engaged in/ on something = be busy with


something =

E .

eg: She is engaged in a conversation with her


friend =
friend

x--C.

5) To have a marriage fixed.


eg: She is engaged to him =

- Rx

Ea--iC.
Q. Explain in Telugu
Don't expose that pickle to moisture.
A:

-- , --E-y.

Judge but not you will be judged.


A: The sentence is not correct. The correct
sentence is 'Judge not lest you be judged'
= Don't express your opinion about others others may express their opinion about you
as well =

- J* uu -l.
J* - uu h.

Born to win
A:

--E d-x vA v-o-


N --JE, He/ she is born to win
.

Ten members died following the accident.


A: Following the accident =

v
/ -C--C ---.

He pays life with.


A: He pays life with

Eo
Explain in English.

A: Drop the money in the hundi.

M. SURESAN

He pays with life =

Q: 'I am a 2011 pass out. I am willing


to pursue higher studies in the US
for the fall of 2012' - Explain the
meaning in Telugu.

\ N -E -i -\.

A: Merifit House
Stapleton
We ran into Sir Henry himself.

( d-o )
-H-.

E-ho

A: Sir Henry

E -- --o/
--u = Ran into

Q: I have a visiting visa to US/ to the US Which is correct?


A: To the US - correct

It was a gala af fair, wasn't it?


Krishna: Hi, weren't you there at the function
yesterday? It was a gala affair, wasn't it?
(

Eo {- y o? C
-, p C !)

%dE J{-*C.
2) To have somebody to do a job =

Rayan Pataudi, Warangal


Q:

Q: Explain the meaning of 'Engage' with


examples.
a

A: Both are correct.

NJ)

A: 'Engage' has
meanings.

Q. Sonia Gandhi's son/ Son of Sonia


Gandhi - Which is correct?

The hound of the Baskervilles.


A:
The Stapletons of Merifit house.

Arjun: I was, of course, but how could you


know? (

E -o. F --y-
-L-?)

Krishna: Because I
was there too, but
could not meet you
because I left a few
minutes after the
party has started.
(

Eo - J-TC. C F pL.
% _-J-*a '*o -?
E -. E -. o
BRx, Sx B---- o. --x-
\- (Kd --o v--E)
_ od.)
At a stone's throw = Very near = _.
Krishna: Did you? (B--x?)
Arjun: Do you think I am a fool? Just then
some one was going that way and I put him
on to him. (

L-N--\ --E
-o? p j -o. E x -d.)

\ o
d. F, Kd
vi Cl EN- -\ * Rx--. x
Eo -----.)

Arjun: We have another party next week. It


could be a much grander affair than yesterday's. You know who is giving it. It's going
to be his birthday bash. (

a-
Kd C. Eo E C p
-a. F C J-h-o. C
d--V .)
Bash = A grand party

Krishna: Too many parties these days! They


could be very tiring and you could be left
with no time to attend to your personal matters. (

u Kd \u. C K
N_ C. uh- N-- - .)

Arjun: Something happened yesterday. I must


tell you. Mrinal came to me and said, 'Could
you do me a small favour?'. I asked him
what it was. He said, 'Could you take me
home on your car and bring me back?' He
was talking as though his place was just a
stone's throw from the venue of the party!
Spoken English

How could you know? =


'Could'

y ----L?
LT - F,
-x E --J .
--- p was
able to/ were able to .
Note: Could past present
. Present/ Future possibility (uu
N/ --a)-E L--hC-.
a) It could be a much grander party = C p Kd a (Possibility)
b) They could be very tiring = C N
L-T--a/ N L-T - C
(p present)
Srinivas: When do you expect them here?

(x \ p -a----o-?)
Venu: They could be here any moment
Possibility -

(Rx-

Look at the following sentences from the


conversation above.
1) How could you know?

\ ~--j -a
u)

Inspector: How about taking the minister's


son into custody, sir?
sir)

(vA ---E --

2) ... but could not meet you because I left a


few minutes...
3) It could be a much grander party than yesterday's.

B-,

S.P: What are you talking? We could be playing with fire

4) They could be very tiring

(y
x---o? C
Ep - --a

5) could you do me a small favour?

Present)

--J Eo 'could --
. u-iC, 'could' is the past
form of 'can' - j LT ,
n u .

Pratibha:
start?

Pranab: What games could you play at


school?

(\x --L---N?)
(
Eo LE),
(F d-iC
)
v
n C sentence .

Prasanna: I could play quite a few games


but my
favourite was hockey
hockey

Shall

we

(----?)

Kruthi: The sky is overcast. It could rain any


moment.

( %--iC. ~-o-
{ a)
May , Could :
He may go there =

-\- xa/ -

.
He could go there =

-\- x -
C (R --L-TC )

- - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 -V-j 2012

-- j---
-- 2011

- G-%Cl 2011



'- vA --, F
Eo J---? LE -
d vA Gf G-%Cl - Jg-*C
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%d-h LaC
n.
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v - n
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: 62.3 x
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C o v L v:
1) Mx (1.6 x); 2) -aJ (12.4 ~);
3) - (10 ~)
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1) \ (6.07 ~)
2) N (10 ~)
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1) ~-D- (64 )
2) ---, --u (2 -~-)
3) v-- L (3 ~)

--v \
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vL
v:
1) Mx (11,297),
- (9,259),
3) -aJ (2,598)
\ --v
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1) -- v (17), 2) N (52),
3) \ (86)
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1) - (46); 2) v-- L
(698); 3) ~-D- (2013).
Y, EpAh: 1000 C -- o
Y u
Y, EpAh: 940
Y, EpAh --C o Z:
1) (1085);
2) N-- (995);

-- ~- -- --C?











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1) u (877);
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\ Y, EpAh o v--L
2) -- v (25.92%)
v: 1) u (618);
3) H (25.7%)
2) v-- (775); 3) - (818).
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~--u N
v:
x j-
= 100
1) v-- L (55.50)
h
2) , u (53.54)
~--u : 74.04%
3) -aJ (27.7)
~--u : 82.1%
%Cl- \ o Z:
Y ~--u : 65.4%
1) - (0.47)
u-C ~--u o Z:
2) (4.8)
1) (93.9); 2) N (91.8);
3) (8.1)
3) vA (87.7).

%Cl-
u-C ~--u o v-L-- v:
\ o v1) ~-D- (92.2);
2) (87.7);
L v:
3) -aJ (86.5).
1) ~-D- (6.23),
\ ~--u o Z:
2) (6.68),
1) H (63.8); 2) --- -v- (66.9);
3) - (17.10)
3) -n (67.0).
--v: - O-- E-
\ ~--u o v--L v:
h / h
1) v-- L (77.6);
--v: 382
2) - (86.2);
3) Mx (86.3).
--v \ o Z:
vO, d : 68.84, 31.16
1) H (1102); 2) Pa (1029);
u-C vO o Z:
3) (859)
1) -- -v- (89.96);









s-E-- v u-v v-G-*


q: 1967
s-v-Eo dl -q: 1972
N v--* D: 16 v

1966


-Eq u---K j- -dx

1976

v-v- M -O -Eq u--K

E-v- vu x Ja
v-R: E-N v-R
-- E- uj E-N-*
N --- N (1991)
.. yN N -
N--Eo v-* -q: 2000
- u-C -- j -q: 1971 (24.8%)
u-C - -jC: 1921 (48.1%)

(----) j- -d d Kh
--h -C. d N-...
j- -dx: d u: 16
N-: >q, N,Z -@/ J--@.
|-: >q/ N/Z --N/Z iv---@/
--o-@/ j jq/ -Eq jq
q L.
u-K o: d u: 3
|-: -A q- | L.
: j N--xE d- 18 *

33 -q- u L.
: K~ y.
--h- *-J-D: d 9
Director,
*-:
A.P. Forensic Science Laboratory,
Red Hills, Hyderabad - 500 004

---j-: www:apstatepolice.org

Nv - p

A------E Nv - p
(O---) o-- d Kh --h
-C. d N-....
o-- v G
d u: 39
N-: j J---q xdq 3, Ed 1,
N- -- 3, -Z-E -E 9, d 23.

--q -v II, IV ---j- --- -v- -d-, --Eo - -- -K~- --- - -jq x
- --...

2) H (88.70);
3) (85.92)
\ vO o Z:
1) (37.83);
2) N (48.49);
3) N-- (51.55).
u-C d o Z:
1) (62.17); 2) N (51.51);
3) N-- (48.45).
\ d o Z:
1) - -v- (10.04);
2) H (11.30);
3) (14.08).
C o >x:
1) (-Z);
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--j-: www.vssc.gov.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 10 -V-j 2012

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---j-: www.dvc.gov.in

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Prof. S. Kesvan,
*-:
Institute of Mathematical Sciences,
C.I.T. Campus, Tarmani,
Chennai-600 113

---j-:

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EAMCET, ICET - 2012


MOCK
COUNSELLING

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--v 13 V-j 2012

-- j---

DIETCET-2012 MODEL GRAND TEST


--h -\:
--: -E-N--

--h -v-o-: 100

100

--* -d-u-
1

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1) E- Nu-n- Ja* v- E y
2) Nu-n
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2. v-N - Nu-n- @ Nu-N--v u-v E h?
1) v Nu u-v
2) L-\ v-
3) N--a- 4) Nuv
3. Nu-n x -> -C u-v-i SUPW (Mx - v-d
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1) y-K- N
2) B Nu N1986
3) -l f N
4) -K Nu N-
4. -u-- -
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1) p -E -h
2) NuJn Lx--v- u T--N-
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3) NuJn -u-E -- y-*,
E- _- *-h
4) -A C * Nu-JnE -h
5. Nu-\ d2009 v Nu -q v-N - F Eo V E-L?
1) 180

2) 200

3) 210 4) 220

--- ---b

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2) j
3) --
4)
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2)
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4) d-x-
10. 'v - v E Eo -h?
1) v>
2) u
3) u
4) -J

--Tx-

11 His father works ..... an estate (Choose the


right preposition)
1) at
2) on
3) in
4) by
12. It's beautiful sunny weather

120

(Choose the right option that describes the


underlined words)
1) adjective, adverb 2) adjective, noun
3) adverb, adjective 4) adjective, adjective
13. If I were the Education Minister, ...........
(Choose the correct option that suits the
blank)
1) I will abolish grammar teaching
2) I will have abolish grammar teaching
3) I would have abolish grammar teaching
4) I would abolish grammar teaching
14. Find out the correct statement.
1) I look forward to seeing you
2) I look forward to see you
3) I look forward seeing you
4) All are wrong statements
(15-17): Read the following passage and
choose the correct options for the
Questions.
English became the medium of instruction
in most subjects from the fourth standard. I
found myself completely at sea. Geometry was
a new subject in which I was not particularly
strong and the English medium made it still
more difficult for me. The teacher taught the
subject very well, but I could not follow him.
However with much effort when I reached the
thirteenth proposition of Euclied, the utter simplicity of the subject was suddenly revealed to
me. A subject which only required a pure and
simple use of one's reasoning powers could not
be difficult. Ever since that time geometry has
been both easy and interesting for me.
Sanskrit, however, proved a harder task. In
geometry there was nothing to memorize,
where as in Sanskrit, I thought everything had
to be learnt by heart
(From An Autobiography by M.K. Gandhi)
15. At sea means ... (Choose the right option)
1) sailing on the sea 2) in perfect control
3) baffled

4) to float on water

16. The author was not confident in ....


1) Geometry

2) Euclid

3) Proposition

4) English

17. Trace out the correct statement


1) English became the medium of instruction in some subjects
2) Geometry was new which rely on the use
of reasoning
3) Geometry was harder as it needed memorization
4) Simplicity of the subject revealed in fourteenth proposition
18. I have got ..... cold and ..... sore throat
(Choose the right articles from the options
to fill in the blanks)
1) no article, no article

2) a, the

3) a, a

4) a, no article

19. Let's have a party,


....
(Select the right
question tag for the
above statement)
1) shall we?

2) haven't we?

3) have we

4) Shan't we?

20. Match the following.


1. Blemish

- a) weak

2. Magnificent

- b) everlasting

3. Immortal

- c) a mark

4. Feeble

- d) Splendid

1) 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d

2) 1-b 2-c 3-d 4-a

3) 1-c 2-d 3-b 4-a

4) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b

21

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1) +
2) +
3) +
4) +
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4) - L -
23. Y Jh
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2) -v %g- Y
3) -v t Y
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4) -
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EAMCET-2012

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Regional Director (SR),
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EVK Sampath Building, 2nd Floor,
College Road, Chennai, Tamil Nadu - 600006

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--C- 15 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012

PAPER - II
MAX. MARKS: 150
TIME: 2.30 HOURS

MODEL GRAND TEST

v Jv

20.

1.

-- V ---
vu - C-?
1)
2) -JgI
3) NI
4) -NII
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6. q u - 'x-Jg -- V
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4)
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1) X-
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3)
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E CC?
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1) 25
18.

19.

2) 30

3) 35

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2) --A
3)
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21. 'u- -Cl-Y - -- C Nv v?
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3) -
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2) Ng---
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4) x-
23. 'x -E N- n?
1) V
2)
3) O
4) jE-
24. ---x ' --h N-
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2) %-p---
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4) o -
28. Ng-- j --t -A h --y--- J-E \o
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1)
2) u--q
3) Aq
4) --Aq
29. o-\ --P~ NC-* Ng-- ?
1) v-t-II
2) --t-I
3) v-t-I
4) --t-III
30. 'N % G----j --- J
n N?
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3) T- --u
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31. (--) C-- (-)
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1) -
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3) l
4) x-x
32. -B j v---v uEo Eo
--- N->-?
1) 75
33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

4) 40

K-- >x \u _ dj J
'vyJ q -E CC?
1) l2) jg
3) j 4) j
j vA Nu, ~ -- vdC?
1) y--
2) -F-
3) C--
4) -C

38.

39.

2) 76

3) 77

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

1) 1898
46.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

58.

59.

2) 1950

3) 1951

61.

62.

63.

2) 3

3) 4

65.

66.

67.

68.

70.

71.

73.

2) 1958

3) 1959

4) 1960

E j-- u-E >x u?


1) 13

2) 14

3) 15

4) 16

--q, -j-- d- ---J--, -G- -u-, ---j- -K~-, --Eo - -- -K~- --- - -jq x ---...

2) 1961

3) 1963

4) 1964

2) 201

3) 202

4) 203

2) 1984

3) 1989

4) 1994

'v -- t %g---u
v-E C--?
1) -v
2) xJ
3) A-A 4) x
'-t - d-* -L--f
p *-?
1) 1900

2) 1905

3) 1909

4) 1919

74. 1922

75.

j-- --E J--y Eo


l - j-- vy J
Eo CC?
1) f j-
2) n
3) ~- Ny-y-u
4) x-v- s-
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1) y-Lx -%-g
2) .xu. -H-
3) >f %g-Jh
4) E-G-

- L-

4) 5

u-Ed Kd TJ- p
pC?

4) 1908

.-.--- u--vA h
Z-A ?
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2) ----
3)
4) F @--f
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v?
1) C--
2) j--
3) v-
4) -
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Hx n -C-*C?
1) 1983

72.

3) 1906

- 'N %Eo p-- 39


N N- J--* uh?
1) -J O--L
2) v- y
3) o ~ t---
4) P-V -u
- v V '- J--~
C ?
1) 1968 W 10
2) 1968 Vj 10
4) 1968 v 10
3) 1968 d 10
'j v u--E -y -*C?
1) E s-
2) G.N. s-f
3) E --o
4) E -
v-v-- Z-A - p -l ?
1) 1973 - 10 2) 1973 d- 10
4) 1973 - 10
3) 1973 - 8
1983 --- C-* Hx n--?
1) 200

69.

2) 1905

'N-v Eo Ey-*-*C?
1) -- -
2) -Y
3) -y-N-h
4) Jz u
-- v -- l- vv ----- v?
1)
2) x--N
3)
4) a-
'dL v u-E-d \- -v-?
1) -
2) N--o
3)
4) x
u .>. u- Ny-N-u-
p pjC?
1) 1960

64.

4) 1902
4) 1952

v Z g y- -M v u-Jz?
1) dG --u
2) vA- --- -u
3) -Jh
4) o Ny-
" -- L - \
JTC?
1)
2) x--N
3) -o
4)
v J-v-N p pjC?
1) 1904

60.

76.

1) 1956
56.

3) 1901

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Kd --J-*C?
1) d Kd
2) vN ov
3) y- -Kd
4) --
h-j - 'F l
h *-*C?
1) ->-F--
2) t---
3) ~ t--t
4) ---t
1929 v---- vA--E -yN
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1) - 2) x 3) - 4) -
194648 u d X- J--
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. DE L- J-- x--E
v-P | ?
1) ----yN -
2) O-vyN -
3) --y--yN -
4)
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1) - ---
2) -J v
3) --pu
4) uA s-
\ J-T -- v T_- -%g-u 'v-o G--E-a?
1) 1921 -
2) 1921
3) 1921 x
4) 1921 -
-- J-v ---J Y _E, j
--Rx u?
1) --C- o uA- u
2) -- u
3) < u
4) o xJ u-v
u .>. v Kd - Eox
- Eo--u?
1) 2

55.

2) 1900

57.

'vN -ov KdE p n-?


1) 1949

47.

4) 78

C- j --EC
1) O--x P- u--
2) P- --u-
3) --h ---T
4) v-N -J
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vEo, t--YEo *-*C?
1)
2)
3) - _--N
4) u
vA - --J , 30
, vA 30 - * -Eo
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3) v--
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2) M
3) l M-
4) - M

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2) vGx
3) q
4) *a-
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2) O Oo
3) T
4) d
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3) u---t
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j-- L v--Eo q
n-?

yv -- u-Eo u
y-vA \ y o
u Et y -C--E -- v vA--Ch, Eo v Kd u- p -C-*C?
1) 1937

2) 1938

3) 1939

4) 1940

www.eenadupratibha.net

- --C- 15 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012


77.

78.

79.

80.
81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.
88.

89.

90.

-- u -u- -u 383
* 299 T_C?
1) 1946 - 13
2) 1947 -J 10
4) 1947 d- 1
3) 1947 d- 1
uEo ' v-yu u
GJg*C?
1) d
2) M
3) 4) ..
C-- J-E .
1) n u ..
2) - u J q
3) -i u -b-
4) Bv-i u G
' Eqx u-E o?
1) 7
2) 8
3) 11 4)
Z-A v d u-- lAE
u * y-J-?
1) - 2) x 3) 4) Z-L
C Z p- j vEo Jh-.
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2) , , G,
3) , , G,
4) , G, ,
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2) N-
3) O N
4) .. N-
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2) x-
3) Z-A
4) u -
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2) x-
3) u O-~ -C-
4) u -
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2) v-P
3) u
4) u- Bt
\- v-*, Lp-E u
1) 2) x 3) -J 4) u
u- 81 u - y
Ja xV?
1) 161 ()
2) 162 (G)
3) 163 (G)
4) 164 (G)
d N-- E ,
d CM -Eo -?
1) -
2) J{--J
3) v-G-
4)
u- -E E-
u-E-y-_Eo - -C?
1) 18

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

2) 19

3) 20

4) 21

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1) b--
2) h--
3) v--E
4) --
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1) El-P E-
2) v-N \
3) v-N N
4) 1, 2
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C E ?
1) u- E- 2) -- E-
3) E-
4) v-N N
Nu v-N \ p -E ** N?
1) y-- N
2) --o N
3) --
4) J tJh N
- V * x *aC?
1) 26 -J 2000
2) 26 -J 2001
3) 26 -J 2002
4) 26 -J 2003
'v v-- uu -
* v-?
1) 2) Z-L 3) 4) tF
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2) y-- N
3) \-J N-
4) -y N
v NCh, Z -E --N--L o EC
1) d
2) - h--j j q o
3) --j j q o 4) d u

PAPER - II

99.

C-- u vA-Ah x-
d y p-C
1) -vZ L
2) Eqx
3) vy
4) Jn
100. v N- * E a-aE L- E-
1) 292
101.

2) 282

3) 272

4) 262

1)
2)

-
v-v-
3) -n
4)
122. v
p f u
u?
1) 40

2) 45

3)

3) 50

\-J N-- p p ?
1) 1977

2) 1980

3) 1983

4) 1987

102.

t G-- h E
Eg--C
1) Z-A
2) u-n-
3) x-
4) v--vA
103. Eo Eq-x Nd u-~- uJC?
1) p
2) v--vA
3) Z-A
4) vA
104. Eq E v L v
1) - E- D 2) -
3) Mx
4) -aJ
105. \-L Z--A E-- --Z-A?
1) y-Lx -%-g
2) d t --x
3) N.N. TJ
4) G.. d
106. -Z-A E O
1) O
2) p-Eq O
3) q-u O
4) yL-j O
107. v @--u- Eg- C- J
C?
1) v--vA
2) p
3) Z-A
4) x-
108. x-- - J \
u -J *aC?
1) v--vA
2) x-
3) Z-A
4) p
109. jd -A E--Jh, v-d -
y-J* N- -d C
1) C- %-\-
2) v-u-
3) p M -
4) v-jq
110. u-- N?
1) P~ Bv-
2) P~ -P-~ a
3) P~ Bv- T_-
4) P~
111. l Eq--L v
1) -B
2) -j J
3) J
4) -
112. y-- N -B n x
E vu *aC?
1) -B NA
2) >x -
3) v -B
4) J-
113. -N-E ?
1) _ u p
2) P~
3) yy
4) yy d
114. -B -- Eo V---J ---yL?
1) 20
115.

2) 15

3) 30

4) 10

-- v u?
v-E x 2) f x
3) -j
4) v --h
116. o v v L-
xE N-E p h?
1) 10 ~ 2) 20 ~ 3) 5 ~ 4) ~
117. v-v-- -B Eo- N-- J \-J-C?
1) >x d
2) Z Eo- CJ
3) -B NA
4) Eq- d
118. -{ C
1) C- u
2) C- -_
3) E -C-* hy
4) P~ EL---- Bp
119. Eq N Eq- p-- ---C?
1) - 2) uMx 3) j-- 4)
120. -> G-%Cl - v-N E
1) v
2) >x
3) 4) x
121. vu--i --B- o
Z?
1)

C-u (Dominant Caste) l-Eo vA-C-*C?


1) -yN -
2) . --yN
3) .--. -L-
4) .. XE
124. TADA dEo p l ?

123.

1) 1985
125.

2) 1990

3) 1995

4) 2000

vA v --B p- L Je
C u -a?
1) 30

2) 21

3) 22

4) 19

126.

v --B n Eo
?
1) n
2) >x -d Eg--h
3) p Eg--h
4) 21
127. u-E - -B un J* \-o?
1) 3

128.

2) 21

3) 9

4) 8

2) 9

3) 10

4) 11

129.

Jn, -> v-R- G C


h?
1) Z G
2) v G
3) t G
4) Pd G
130. < v-K >.. x
E-N-*C?
1) dq
2) L
3)
4) |
131. -- TJ-- u h?
1) 3

132.

2) 5

3) 7

4) 9

v-v- uf , N- p
p-C?
1) 2000

2) 2001

3) 2002

4) 2003

133.

N Ky u-x N-F-AE, --yEo


T---E p- N
1) N
2) B v N
3) N
4) J N
134. 'E---
1) v-G-v E- 2) v-G-v -
3) v-G-v y
4) v-E-g lA
135. u-n-- Eo C-- E *--E C
1) v-jq
2) Z-jq
3) -{
4) q-{- v
136. K v-v--
1) Eo vR y a d
2) Eo
3) a d
4) Eo * a
137. t Qt vu vA--AhE l -E
o Kd
1)
2)
b 3) 4)
138. v vA--L L" y
u-- J-n-AE NC-E L E-
1) 352(4)
2) 352(3)
3) 352(2) 4) 352(1)
139. wju- q p u -
1) 32

2) 42

3) 52

1) 255

2) 265

3) 275

4) 285

149.

vh -u-h Eo d nE
vy E h-o?
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C- u
4) -- nA u
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1) - v Et- 2) - Kd l
3) - C-
4) - v--
146. B u L jt ?
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3) v-d v u-Jh
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147. v Z -- ---E
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148. u- C-- v v vy
Z- vx K hC?
145.

4) 55

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' N?
1) v-yEo ---i-C
2) -t-h v-yEo a
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4) D-
150. -viu- E -C-*C?
1) -C
2) x L
3) C 4) %g-C
-( --- -v-o-v-Eo j------E RICE
-P~- n -E-- -%- --C-*-C.)

----

1-3; 2-2; 3-1; 4-3; 5-4; 6-2; 7-4; 8-1; 9-3; 10-2;
11-4; 12-1; 13-4; 14-3; 15-4; 16-1; 17-3; 18-4;
19-2; 20-4; 21-1; 22-3; 23-2; 24-4; 25-3; 26-2;
27-1; 28-2; 29-4; 30-3; 31-2; 32-3; 33-4; 34-1;
35-4; 36-3; 37-1; 38-3; 39-2; 40-4; 41-2; 42-4;
43-3; 44-1; 45-3; 46-1; 47-1; 48-4; 49-3; 50-1;
51-3; 52-2; 53-3; 54-3; 55-3; 56-2; 57-4; 58-1;
59-3; 60-2; 61-2; 62-1; 63-4; 64-3; 65-2; 66-3;
67-4; 68-3; 69-1; 70-3; 71-4; 72-2; 73-1; 74-3;
75-3; 763; 774; 781; 793; 804; 813; 822;
834; 841; 853; 861; 873; 884; 892; 904;
913; 921; 93-3; 944; 953; 962; 971; 984;
992; 1001; 1013; 1022; 1034; 1041; 1053;
1064; 1074; 1083; 1093; 1102; 1113;
1121; 1133; 1142; 1151; 1161; 1174;
1183; 1191; 1204; 1213; 1222; 1234;
1243; 1252; 1261; 1273; 128-1; 1293;
1302; 1312; 1324; 1333; 1341; 1352;
1364; 1371; 1382; 1392; 1404; 1411;
1423; 1431; 1443; 1454; 1463; 1472;
148-3; 1492; 1502.

-III - -@-x
j-d 30 q- -v--K-

140.

--v
1) TJ- x E N
2) - E %l J-- Ey-
3) - E -- J-- Ey-
4) 1, 2
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2) -- nA
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--h- *-J-D: d 16
*-: The Registrar (Administration),
Andhra Pradesh High Court, Hyderabad

2)

E-Jld u

--j-:

http://hc.ap.nic.in

-- 16 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012

PAPER - III
MAX. MARKS: 150
TIME: 2.30 HOURS

MODEL GRAND TEST


1.

2.

3.

4.

v-R-- ~u o, -E Ei vu G-*C?
1) -> u
2) -E---
3) Jn %Cl
4) y--
C-- JE
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3) y- x .-. -y
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Nv Jn u-n ~-
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2) vy, wj
3) vy v v-
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1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

5.

v-R u wj Gx
o v-R
1)
2)
3) E-NC
4) jFo
6. - -{ v-R- u vu
C
1) u-, -
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3) vu~ o x ----
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1) 1999
14.

15.

17.

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2) 2.8%

3) 2.9%

2) NTPC

3) BHEL

1) 1.64%

2) 3.28% 3) 4.92%

29.

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42.

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v -u
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ju Ku v- n

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2) 5
3) 6
4) 7
(GAP)
2) 1982 3) 1985 4) 1987

46.

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vd Z C?
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3) g-
4) u-v-
200111 -l-E %Cl

1) 21.54% 2) 17%
32. 2011
1) 1000:933
3) 1000:940
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1)
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3) 17.64%

47.

4) 15.54%

\ v L EpAh
2) 1000:935
4) 1000:950

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35.

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37.

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4) IOCL

18.

vu N u ~u?
1) nK--, -A u
2) %Cl --
3) --- -T-
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19. C-- j
1) M1 -* vu
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4) jFo
20. 1991 J-v-N N- u
1) J-v- j-Eq- 6 - T_-
2) v-y-E Jy J-v- 5 -
T_-
3) MRTP J-CE E-C-
4) jFo
21. J-v- pAh < h p
-q
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2) 2000
3) 2001
2009 14
2020

28.

4) 1.8%

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-C-?
1) J-v-N N, 1948
2) J--v-N N, 1956
3) J-v-N d, 1951
4) NQ d, 1963
C-- '-o EC
1) SAIL

27.

4) 2002

u uq p * -x
*aC?
1) 1 v 2004
2) 1 v 2005
4) 1 v 2007
3) 1 v 2006
201112 -b '-d u -
- v---d. 201213 -b DEo
@ ?
1) 2.1%

16.

2) 2000

xu N E -C-*C?
1) vu~ o \--
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4) 200001
3) 19992000
u- \-- u-i u
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3) u -K un
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39.

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3) 41%

4) 43%

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vu
Jy u vu kx -,
vuy - -hC. C-- O
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>x
2) M2 = M1 + ->-x o j -GL { + -q- J--y -J-NA ->x
3) M3 = M2 + -q y J--y -J-NA ->x + -q
4) L1 = M2 + d- l o Eo--
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v v u-i-N
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50. Fq u F-- p h?
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2) 8.4%

3) 7.4%

62.

63.

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65.

66.

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67.

68.

69.

4) 8.2%

vu N n Ways and Means


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1) 1996

61.

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49.

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54. 2010 d u - NM--i-C?
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3) 18%, 22%, 60%
4) 19.2%, 25.7%, 55.1%
-{ vR Z %Cl-
(201112 Jn y v) ?
1) 7.68%

2) 8.19%

3) 8.93%

4) 8.33%

-- 16 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012


79. 2009

3)
52,030 9.3%
86. 2010 11

80.

87.

81.

Z --J-vu C- o
vO -J () ?
1) .693.80
2) .793.80
4) .493.80
3) .593.80
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h?
1) pAh lA
2) lA
3) NE- lA
4) pAh, lA
200111 u-- v-v- %Cl-

1) 8.1%
82. 2011

2) 9.1%

3) 10.1%

4) 11.1%

\ v Z -
~u ?

1) 72.56
83. 2011 12

84.

85.

2) 73.56

3) 74.56

4) 75.56

Z %Cl- \-
jC?
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1) \- C
2) \- C
3) - C
4) p
201112 Jn -q- Z -J ,
%Cl-
1) .39,597; 10.4%
2) .42,005; 11.2%

DIETCET- 2012 KEY

--C -Ey-*-- -j-- 2012 K~-


E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un-
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vy N - --- - v- A
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Q.No. A B

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

2
1
1
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1
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51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
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75.
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78.
79.
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81.
82.
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(---E -vQ -vt-v -P~- n E-- -%- - '- --C-*-C.)


-v-o-v, x- ---.. www.eenadupratibha.net

PAPER - III

.
;
4) .42,710; 5.8%
B - u-,
E - ?
1) 16%

2) 14.5%

3) 20.5%

4) 19.5%

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112. Z 201112 -q--E u
-* Nhg ? (~ dx)
1) 80.29

3) 24.2

4) 25.2

Z x -~ v >x C?
1) o
2) X-
3) -C--
4)
105. v- x v-d J d?
1) -\
2) -t-D
3) uB-
4) Ub--
106. vy u- p--- Gq
hC?
1) -
2) Nh-
3) Nu-a h
4) Fo
107. v f K --?
1) u u
2) vO u
3) u
4) jFo
108. u- --A \ h -a Nh
nN?
1) u u
2) vB vO u
3) - u
4) f

2) 70.60

3) 60.67

4) 74.43

113.

vv u- \- --j
-- C?
1) y
2)
3) ,
4) _
114. 200506
Z u- ho
o j u
1) 70.23 ~
2) 72.23 ~
3) 74.18 ~
4) 78.18 ~
115. v-v-- *o j -J - Eo
dx?
1) 0.44

2) 1.41

3) 2.66

4) 1.20

116.

o v n o >x C?
1) o
2) ----
3)
4) _
117. Z h Nh-g
?
1) 69.2%

118.

4) 7.1%

Jn y - v vh -x
-J
1) .46,000
2) .55,000
4) .65,000
3) .60,000
- -{ v-R (200712) -E Eo
NL-x E -- Lp--E N-?
1) 55

109.

4) 135

B----E -C* J--EC


1) vy * \ h hC
2) wj * \ h hC
3) * \ h hC
4) jFo
201112 Jn y - v -- %Cl ?

1) 6.3%
95. 2011 12

96.

2) 133

2) 64.3%

3) 65.9%

4) 54.1%

v-v- Je J-NA d p *
-x *aC?
1) 1973

2) 1974

3) 1975

900

f o
jFo
132. Gu - x *a D
1) 1 -J 2011
2) 1 - 2011
4) 1 d- 2011
3) 2 b- 2011
133. B u- H -E -C*
jC
I. 2000 * x C.
II. 2008 * vEo E- B--o.
1) I
2) II
3) I, II
4) D-
134. v d v u- G-%Cl n
(CRIDA) \ C?
1) uMx
2) -
3) j--
4) o
135. B --x Z
4)

1) 14%

1) 1,00,615
3) 1,54,321

4) 1976

121.

v-v-- Eo dx N o j-
o- jE -h?
1) 0 1

122.

2) 1,66,789
4) 1,45,963

2) 1 2

1) 16,150; 4,266
3) 17,150; 4,366

4) 3 4

2) 1,04,66,330
4) 1,04,66,450

-- - t- \ C?
-
2) N--o
-v
4) y
v-v- J-v-N p-h
* N ?

1) 690.8

2) 248.5

3) 283.9

4) 273.8

125.

vh K E C *o
Jv- Je d- J-NA ?
1) .25 ~
2) .2 x
3) .3 x
4) .5 x
126. ' f Gq J-v--
JhhC?
1) ~ t
2) *o
3) v-
4) jFo
127. x v n o Z vy n
C?
1)
2) f
3) vq
4) -----
128. 200910 v-v- o ud-K u

1) 15500

129.

2) 16800

3) 17400
4) 18300
(APWALTA)

v-v- F, N, x d
q * x C?

1) 2000
130. 2011 12

2) 2001

3) 2002

4) 2003

Jn y v Z h
xf u
1) 179 ~
2) 169 ~
3) 159 ~
4) 189 ~
131. v-v-- v u-n -C*
jC
1) - - 44,579
2) 1965 C - -
C
3) - J-C 400 *

2) 16,150; 5,266
4) 17,150; 4,266

v-y-wj- yuE --
-
2) j
J-
4) Fo
140. ~ u jy v-G-* V
1) 2 d- 1956
2) 2 d- 1976
4) 2 d- 1986
3) 2 d- 1966
141. b \ E -C-*C?
1) @ -A Nc
2) ju Nc
3) u- v
4) C--
142. Z v-y-E L - --J E
un C?
1)
3)

1) APSWAN
3) MANATV
143.

1)
3)
124. 2011 12

4) 25%

139.

Z h E N
(dx)
1) 1,04,66,327
3) 1,04,66,350

123.

3) 2 3

3) 20%

%g-o -C* jC
I. Z vU- f -
II. Z wj-J-*
1) I
2) II
3) I, II 4) -D-
137. j - Jh-.
-. j
1. \-
2. -
-G. u
3. O--
. t-
4. j--
-. f- \
5. N-u
1) --4, G-1, -5, --2
2) --1, G-4, -2, --5
4) --1, G-5, -3, --2
3) --4, G-1, -2, --5
Z o d,
138. 2011 Ja 31
L- qa-@ u ?

119.

\-- u ~u
1) -> u C
2) --- T
3) N-E --
4) jFo
120. Z - u-v- Eo
- N ?

2) 15%

136.

2) SAPNET
4) JKC

@--D -b-B N--v v-i q


1) 2006

2) 2007

3) 2008

4) 2009

144.

v vy -, K - u
uuEo -?
1) Z v
2) CM Lx-
3) Gq-
4) F l
145. u- %d u ' - C?
1) hv
2) uv
3) -Z
4) v-v-
146. Z u--- \- -J{-ho >x
C?
1) *h
2) j--
3) -f
4) N--o
147. 2011 -- v n o
Z
C?
1) Pa
2) -Z
3) H
4) v-v-
148. v-v-- E v u ?
1) 29,600
3) 27,800

149.

2) 28,510
4) 36,420

N \ t--Eo o vR
n-?

1) 4
150. 2011

2) 5

3) 6

4) 7

\ v vv h
?

1) 9,13,47,736
3) 8,64,56,533

2) 8,46,65,533
4) 8,46,56,335

(---- - -*-)
(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E RICE
P~ n - -jd -.-X-E- --C--)

--q -v II I
--- -v- -d - -@x..

-- 17 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012

PAPER - I
MAX. MARKS: 150
TIME: 2.30 HOURS

MODEL GRAND TEST


1

. v C-q-Eo V Ey--h?
1) W 5
2) Vj 11
3) 31
4) 10
2. --- v y \-
h?
1) Jb-L >x
2) t--Qt
3) u-v-
4) F-TJ
3. 14 x x x v- --- pN
1) vx
2) N-Nx
3) y -n
4)
4. E - E hC?
1) -v
2) --
3) G-v
4) u
5. Nv - -J~ v \ C?
1) X-J-
2) t--
3) A----
4)
6. --- - - x
*a C?
1) u-
2) -vU-
3) h
4) -
7. - J Nh-J* C?
1) v
2) Z-L
3) ~ -J
4)
(8 12):

C *v %h @ v--x, vA
Y-*-q E, D`---v ju E- *h-o. *vEo J-Q-L* vo- -Ly.
A D
B

X
Y
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8.

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1) A

9.

2) B

3) C

4) D

@ vx -j-u -E--j-, Y*-q


E-- vA-Eu -C
1) X

10.

2) Y

3) Z

4) D

ju E- --J- @ vx JE
*C
1) Y

2) Z

3) X

4) A

11. 'B'

*C
1) ju E- E @ vx
2) Y-*-q E--j @ vx
3) ju E, Y-*-q E E @
vx
4) @ v-x, Y-*-q E- E ju
E
12. 'C' vA-Eu -C?
1) @ v--x
2) ju E--
3) Y*q E--- --v- ----J
4) ju, Y*q E--
13. Nu-\ d p * - x *aC?
1) 1 -J 2010
2) 15 d 2011
4) 1 v 2010
3) 2 d- 2011
14. Nh-- v--E -j --
Jn-N?
1) x, J- n- 2) x, J- n-

-E-o- -v--J-*- -v-II -III ----


1-3; 2-3; 3-4; 4-3; 5-3; 6-4; 7-3; 8-4; 9-4; 10-1;
11-4; 12-4; 13-2; 14-2; 15-4; 16-3; 17-3; 18-1;
19-4; 20-4; 21-2; 22-2; 23-2; 24-3; 25-3; 26-2;
27-2; 28-4; 29-3; 30-2; 31-3; 32-3; 33-1; 34-2;
35-3; 36-4; 37-2; 38-4; 39-2; 40-1; 41-3; 42-3;
43-1; 44-1; 45-3; 46-3; 47-2; 48-1; 49-3; 50-1;
51-1; 52-2; 53-3; 54-2; 55-4; 56-2; 57-1; 58-1;
59-2; 60-1; 61-2; 62-3; 63-3; 64-2; 65-3; 66-2;
67-3; 68-3; 69-3; 70-3; 71-4; 72-2; 73-4; 74-2;
75-2; 76-4; 77-4; 78-2; 79-1; 80-4; 81-4; 82-4;
83-1; 84-2; 85-4; 86-2; 87-2; 88-2; 89-1; 90-4;
91-1; 92-1; 93-1; 94-3; 95-3; 96-4; 97-1; 98-3;
99-2; 100-1; 101-3; 102-1; 103-2; 104-3; 105-1;
106-4; 107-4; 108-1; 109-4; 110-2; 111-3; 112-2;
113-3; 114-3; 115-2; 116-2; 117-3; 118-3; 119-4;
120-1; 121-1; 122-1; 123-1; 124-4; 125-4; 126-4;
127-2; 128-3; 129-3; 130-1; 131-4; 132-2; 133-3;
134-3; 135-1; 136-3; 137-3; 138-1; 139-4; 140-3;
141-1; 142-1; 143-3; 144-3; 145-4; 146-1; 147-1;
148-1; 149-1; 150-2.

3) , J- n-
4) , J- n-
. g --E
N?
1) b
2) jx-N
3) Ju-
4) -
16. E v
1) vu-P Euy
2) h Euy
3) & vu- Euy
4) vu- Euy
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3) q- 4) jv-
E- l --
18.
*?
1) - 2) _x
3) vG-x 4) -
19. 41, 14, 53, 35, 73, ?
15

1) 72

2) 27

3) 37

4) 13

20

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vuEo Nh-J-* v-Jh
1) s
2) -
3) -
4) -U
21. 1922 31 n-* y Kd
un u-~, u-Jz
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2) -J, B- v
3) B- v, ---- J
4) *h-- , B- v
22. N t-n C?
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4) o
23. '- y--E n- ?
1) .>.
2) --- A
3) -
4) --%g
24. '- - KtE -p- n- ?
1) 1938

2) 1939

3) 1940

4) 1942

25

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1) - v--f
2) - ---
3) _ -%-g-
4) --pu
26. v j u-Eo v-G- ?
1) d dG --u
2) -f
3) u .>.
4) --pu
27. G-u J--p (Hypothesis) E -C*C?
1) Ny d
2) --
3) To--y Np
4) -
28. ~y- x o L CC?
1) \ % 2) S
3) v% 4) vt
29. l--Eo y-J-* v vU V
?
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2) -v-
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4) v.. 1570
3) v.. 1470
31. --- v-u -J v o
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2) J--
3) V
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1)
2) -t M >o
3) u t 4) t s
33. + B-, , ^ -,
v--, , < , > T- C-- C
u?
1) (9+5)

^ (2 < 4) > 2

3) 9 + 5 (2 < 4) 12

2) 9

^ 5 + 2 4 > 12

4) 9 5 2 (4 < 12)

34 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, ?

1) 36
35

2) 100

3) 80

3)
4)


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u-~
38. -J
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39. -t-D v-G-* h vA C?
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4)
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2)
b v
3) v
4) Ld v
42. @ u--vA o-p p
?
1) v --
2) -yN u
3) --- u-
4) -Jh
43. wfq
1) v, L-- p--

2) u -
3) C g-v
4) C
44. vh --v - .
15 x --v - 1/3
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1) 35 .
2) 40 . 3) 45 . 4) 26 .
45. y v 'uvC \-?
1) p -
2) Pa -
3) P-L y-
4) Nu y-
46. 2011 -- v v-v- ?
1) 7.62 x
2) 8.46 x
3) 9.76 x
4) 16.67 x
47. - u Bvi p
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1) 2004 - 26
2) 2001 -J 26
4) 2000 -J 26
3) 1999 d- 29
48. V 'B Nh C -h?
1) -J 26
2) d- 29
4) Vj 11
3) W 5
49. K t-d- LT o vC C?
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2) vC
3) j- vC
4) j--
50. h f--d- %vA- Ey --E
--Eo --T-h?
1) jv
2) v
3) j s- 4) s-
51. B O N-Eo -p- -C- ?
1) 1988

3) 2006

4) 2010

u --- -N-*
v%A j-K-ux C y
pf?
1) -
2) -
3) -
4) -u-
53. 1999 d- 29 -N-*
Z BEo v, h-d L-T-*C?
1) v-v-
2) -
3) N--
4)
54. v u E-C -J* 19962000
u-- -v%A j-K-u, p-
x h (-u)
dC?

4) 64

. --- -Eo Z vG?


1) h--
2) Bh-
3) Pa-- -
4) N--
36. -G- Bt--E j N p-
o u~?
1) y
2) vU
3) E-V 4) p
37. vA-et ' x j j <-- f
C u--h ?
1) -Jh
2) F

2) 1976

52 1980 2010

1) 12%
55

1) 135
56

2) 16%

3) 21%

4) 25%

. o jq 35%, Tx 50%, ,
D 70% \ C*C. vA d-d
Je \ 50 , *a h
\Eo?
2) 120

3) 180

4) 150

. v-v-- j q Ey C- o
v? 1) N-o
2) K--
3) x
4) --

57

. --- pAh, C p A l
J-v C?
1) Y J-v
2) --\ J-v
3) J-v
4) ---j q
58. - E, - E,
E, F E, FE N\ E
Lh, d ---E Eo L?
1) F
2)
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4)
59. - 12:20 C.
x EN- x ?
1) 100

2) 110

3) 120

4) 130

60

. 25 J-TC. %
a hEo --, B
T_-* -\.

61

. uh h C 4 .O. v-*,
j AJT 6 .O. v. Sx --j
AJT 12 .O. v-*, -j AJT 6 .O.
v. *- -J -j AJT 3
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vh Eo -O-x o?

1) 33

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1) 15

3) 20

2) 12

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4) 26

4) 13

62

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1)
2) u-v-
3) N--
4) \
63. 2011 -- v -- h -
v-v- ?
1) 5
64 2011

2) 7

31

3) 13

4) 8

v h

?
GL-x
2) 16 GL-x
3) 7 GL-x
4) 12 GL-x
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66. -- h -R Nh-g - -N---aE Jh-?
1) 5

1) 59%
67

2) 68%

3) 46%

4) 33%

. p-E--J Eo x LT
C?
1) q-
2) xJ
3) p 4) jv-
68. v-v- Z ho D E
-C-*C?
1) E- %- * Nu
2) E- -- .-.>. {x
3) Eu Nu J --J *
x
4) E- -- Jn
69. -- 2013 Ko A-u-N-y-o
C?
1) -
2) x-
3) -
4) -
70. 2012, 31 31 x x o
Fb q l-uC?
1) J
2) >d 3) uF- 4) LG
71. 2012, W vU x-- J-T Eo- x
L*,
v---vA u- y-J-*
u-v Kd C- ?
1) -@-- v--
2) v
3) E-T-- v--
4) --E -
72. - - ' u d -C*C. Gx --E -C-*C?
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2) x-
3) j
4) \
73. v- u-C o v C?
1) u-
2) o
3) -Q-g
4) -
74. ~ -J- -Q-g *a -x
-h?
1)
2) dp
3) d
4)
75. v- - v Cl-* Nq u v C?
1) ~ v
2)
b -
3) -J
4) u

-- 17 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012


76

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1) C-L
2)
3) s j j q
4) --L
77. - P- u E--E v uq
h?
1) J _, -y, d
2) J _, -y, h-J
3) -y, h-J, d, x
4) -y, hJ, *, x
78. - * - N-- C?
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2) s -j q
3) jv j q
4) p j q
79. --E --- ud-J
C?
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2) j -G
3) -x v-
4) x Z-
80. u u EpAh 9:5; u h
224. uN?
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2) 150, 74
4) 200, 24
3) 144, 80
81. Pa B 30 * 40 h, ~
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C?
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3) g--
4) -Q-g
82. *vx - *vA- ?
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83. %g---- J --L-?
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4) x--Dl "Mb
84. v- JE u-C- C?
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85. v- A-l . v -R
Nh-g DE ?
1) 25.5%
2) 33.3% 3) 21.4% 4) 16.3%
86. --- \ J-v u-C-
vD-%--i J-v-N v
1) - Ux J-v-N v
2) j --h - J-v-N
v
3) --- J-v-N v
4) jFo
87. x EJt-* -P (Monolithic) --
-?
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88. v< --- l Jn-Lx
-x u i -
C?
1)
2) Qt 3) 4)
89. \- C- B- s-A -?
1)
2) v--
3)
4) -J-A-h
E --E ?
90. -d
1) 2) - 3) p 4)
91. \ -a . -
1) -a AE v--N-h
2) -a AE --h h
3) -a AE -h
4) A-F AE -
92. y J-v-N--G-%Cl vu Jn x
dEo -q- -C-?
1) 2002

2) 2004

3) 2005

4) 2006

93

. f j E Eo -h?
1) d
2) Eo
3) --
4) -- Ah
94. * -L j
ho-p E jV
1) --C
2) _-C
3)
4) -- NhJhC
95. C K Jh .
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1) FUJ

96

97

2) ETJ

3) EUJ

. UNITED
STATES a?

4) EUL

YQKXHF

1) WXDXIV

2) WWBXHT

3) WWCXHU

4) WWCWHT

. NG-o-i Eo Jh-.
1) -
2) - 3) J-d

4)

PAPER - I

98

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1) d v
2) d-v--J
3) d -Jf
4) v-J v
99. v-v- h -R Nh-g -
Nhg ?
1) 23%

2) 33%

3) 28%

4) 18%

100

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1) 10

2) 12

3) 15

4) 18

112

. C- Eo 'x-_ ?
1) Nu h
2) -N-u h
3) t Nu h
4) Nu h
113. K-~ 70 C Nu-n -I
Bh-g--u. 60 C -II Bhg--u. 15 C x
u. x h 270
C Nu-n Bh-g--u. h Nu-n
u ?
1) 600
114

2) 580

3) 560

4) 540

. C- u u-i _ -E
CC?
1) Lj o
2) Gu-N-
3)
4) v-j
115. v p-Ah u-C o
-C?
1) LG
2) j
3) D -G
4) q
116. L yE ?
1) 760 O/
2) 1120 .O./
3) 330 .O./
4) 330 O/.
117. E-\ -* -C?

1)
2)

l-
-
v
3) -
l
4) - l
118. Z-L-- E -Qg f -
-h?
1) f-
2) \-
3) q
4)
119. C u-v-Eo J u C?
285, 253, 221, 189, ?
1) 136

2) 174

3) 163

4) 157

. vA-et -o-- WuJd f 2012


-j v ---h?
1) 2) -v-
3) Kb
4) ---
121. vy -x NT-L-- ---u
Cy-E--j N --p- p---
N?
1) -- N
2) -x N
3) \ N
4) X%g N
122. B N h Ey- dEo p
C?
120

1) 2004

2) 2005

3) 2006

4) 2009

123 2012

B o ---
--o?
1) x
2) Cu
3) ---
4) vD
124. 2011 d- 19 v- v f
h u-~- u- y-J-?
1) @-- x
2) XE--
3) M
4) - -
125. 99 B jq v --- vE
t--- -J 3 \ v-G-?
1) --y 2) Mx
3) o 4) o
126. -N- -C* C- jC
1) h v h-- u --C
2) h x h-- u --C
3) h v, x h-- u _-C
4) h x h-- u _-C.
127. R 46 C o --A o n
o. *J * n ?
1) 35

2) 34

3) 37

4) 33

128

. - -- --z-
E-N-* N C?
1) O-- x
2) -\
3) -- x
4) --
129. v v C- C?
1) j
2) u-
3)
4) -- u
130. C- j --x a uC?
1) j-
2)
3) -
4) -y
131. 12 V v- hC.
30 V hC?
1) -
2) --
3) v-
4) E-
132. 25 C Jt-- 8 V- . 1,000 Lxh,
30 C Jt-- 10 V- yL?
1) . 1,200
2) . 1,300
3) . 1,500
4) . 1,600
133. (?) n-- ---Lq- u
Jh.
? 1
1) 10

2) 13

3) 12

4) 15

134

2
5 3

. C- -
x---C?
1) V-p
2) p
3) d p
4) p
135. D@ 1932 d- 20 E uA-- j - E---D~ v-G-?
1) u-v- O vGx --
2) D--Jy -- x-
3) q- --f u- f
4) --h ---i
136. t --T - C?
1) y vi
2) y -j
3) - -j 4) jFo

137 2

. @ pZ Eo -F j-q- lh v-d K--C?

1) 122

2) 142

3) 132

4) 112

138

. N-h- -\-- ,Z >x -B


nx 13 Jn hEo -*C?
1) . 20 x
2) . 21 x
3) . 22 x
4) . 23 x
139. yY -n u-o To-V - ~-E
L--J CTy-- v-T-*C. DE
~u JC ? (.O.-)
1) 4000
140

2) 5000

3) 3500

4) 2000

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1) 1000

2) 1038

3) 1028

4) 2028

141

. Z-L--E v q v C
EE vCl?
1) jvx
2) >
3) T 4) v-L
142. A, B, C, D, E -- -uh- - --J
- --h-o. D, A ----o-. E, -B E
--Jh-o-. A, B - --u C --o-. --
-J- --u- --o -uh --?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

143

. v- u-C g-v -j @->


v C?
1) LG
2)
3) >d 4) J-v
144. v- jvx u-C- pAh
C?
1) *M
2) h - N-q
3) j
4) D -G
145. 2011 \ v v-v-- u-C
Y, EpAh o >x C?
1) E--
2) t
3) K--
4) X-
146. To-V -v-- _o v-v- Y-h?
1) B--f
2) q
3) N Y
4)
147. -x G-E N-N
1) B

2) C

3) D

4) E

148

. C--- j-E \ v-G?


1) u\
2) uMx
3) uJ
4)
149. v - g yu Bt-Eo
-C-?
1)
2) v 3) <
4) vA
150. v- E -C?
1) %g
2) -J
3) o
4) -g-"
-( --- -v-o-v-Eo j------E -K ---
--d-u- -E-- -%- --C-*-C.)

----

1-2; 2-2; 3-1; 4-1; 5-3; 6-2; 7-3; 8-4; 9-3; 10-3;
11-4; 12-3; 13-4; 14-1; 15-2; 16-2; 17-2; 18-2;
19-3; 20-3; 21-4; 22-4; 23-1; 24-4; 25-1; 26-3;
27-1; 28-3; 29-4; 30-1; 31-1; 32-4; 33-3; 34-4;
35-3; 36-1; 37-3; 38-2; 39-2; 40-1; 41-4; 42-4;
43-1; 44-1; 45-2; 46-2; 47-2; 48-2; 49-4; 50-2;
51-1; 52-3; 53-4; 54-1; 55-1; 56-1; 57-1; 58-4;
59-2; 60-3; 61-4; 62-1; 63-2; 64-3; 65-1; 66-1;
67-4; 68-2; 69-3; 70-2; 71-4; 72-4; 73-4; 74-1;
75-1; 76-4; 77-2; 78-2; 79-2; 80-3; 81-2; 82-1;
83-3; 84-4; 85-1; 86-3; 87-3; 88-4; 89-1; 90-1;
91-2; 92-3; 93-3; 94-1; 95-3; 96-3; 97-2; 98-3;
99-1; 100-1; 101-4; 102-2; 103-2; 104-3; 105-3;
106-1; 107-2; 108-3; 109-4; 110-4; 111-1; 112-2;
113-1; 114-4; 115-3; 116-4; 117-4; 118-3; 119-4;
120-1; 121-1; 122-2; 123-2; 124-2; 125-1; 126-2;
127-1; 128-3; 129-3; 130-3; 131-2; 132-3; 133-2;
134-2; 135-3; 136-1; 137-1; 138-4; 139-2; 140-3;
141-2; 142-3; 143-1; 144-1; 145-1; 146-1; 147-3;
148-1; 149-1; 150-2.

--q -v II II
--- -v- -d - -@x..

- -- 18 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012

PAPER - II
MAX. MARKS: 150
TIME: 2.30 HOURS

MODEL GRAND TEST


1.

v-- L P-LEo \ \o?


1) --
2) -
3) -x
4) X--h
2. --- C- C?
1) R
2) v%
3) \ %
4) j*
3. 'N--q- G -JC?
1)
2) --u
3) y-t
4) -Jg
4. 'N
1) --C-A
2) -C-J
3) vA
4) v-l
5. -Eo J - ?
1) -N
2) -O-v -Jg
3) -Jg
4) -Jg
6. %--c- L--J --?
1) -Jg
2) cX -Jg
3) -O-v -Jg
4) X-
7. X-y-B- ?
1) Ng---
2) %-p---
3) ~y-
4) x-
8. l---E -J- yg-?
1) --
2) O-----h
3) L- J
4) ---
9. l-n l ju- v v C?
1) -
2) -Lx
3) u--
4) X-y
10. *v---yN h ?
1) ~y-
2) ---
3) Ng---
4) vA-
11. Ng- C v---E -
-hC?
1) Npx
2) p
3) -
4) --A
12. -Lx -- -JN?
1) Ng---
2) x-
3) %-p---
4) -u
13. \o, o -- \ o?
1) \
2) -
3) -v
4) -Lx
14. -vt -- \ o?
1) -x
2) vA--
3) --
4) -
15. v %-V G J*, v %-y-- 108 P-- EJt-*C ?
1) l--x
2) N--C-u
3) N--C-u
4) N--C-u
16. o- -- - ---d - -v *a v- C?
1) AhL
2) --
3) v~-
4) -
17. ---v--Eo (--v) EJt-*C ?
1) -----v
2) N--C-u
3) t-V
4) --
18. v-G- v - ?
1) y-
2) N- x-- u
3) \-J
4) Nu--
19. t--- E h J -
EJt--iC?
1) v-V
2) v--N
3) --A--
4) v--
20. --x 1500 *v-- % ox L
--C?
1) v-G-
2) v Jv
3) -- 4) t--
21. X- J n- N?
1) -- -f 2) v- ---f
3) ---f
4) --TJ
22. o -L --?
1) --TJ
2) --
3) p--u
4) ---
23. -- n-Eo Jz-* M
J
1) l
2) E
3) u--E-
4) N--

24

44

. Jh l p J-TC?
1) 1756

2) 1757

3) 1758

4) 1759

25

. jyK N-Eo J \ v-d?


1) --
2) --
3) v v
4) h \x
26. u- - --?
1) .. v
2) X-
3) --
4) l---u
27. 1857 A-- -s v d-
A--- -Ah-*--?
1) <-
2) x--Dl My
3) -t qK
4) --
28. N---JnE vA- n-*--?
1) T tJh
2) -h - -u
3) O--L
4) -A --o
29. L -- J-v **?
1) O--L
2) - p-
3) --o
4) oJ %-g-
30. j---- E -- -A --o
vEq-- E ?
1) E -
2) -
3) - -
4) - -
31. Dl x--- N- --?
1) J--x u---
2) to
3) - p-
4) *--Jh ~ t---
32. '-Lx - ?
1) T tJh
2) l -
3) o ~ t--- 4) - -- J
33. L vA C?
1) v--vA
2) y--CE
3) --x- E
4) u-
34. B v ---E u-~
* L uh ---u.
u-~ -* -q
1) 1886

35

3) 1891

4) 1896

. %g vA- p n-?
1) 1902

36

2) 1888
2) 1904

3) 1900

4) 1897

. G v- v u-- p -?
1) ---J v-
2) --pu
3) J--y-h--
4) oJ %g-
37. G v- *-M-o *a--p J
x --?
1) oJ %g-
2) -
3) x ---
4) -x u
38. v n* M u-Jz
?
1) --pu
2) -x J--y-h--
3) oJ %g-
4) G.. t
39. -- R u v vAg
-E --p ?
1) N--
2) L
3) N--o
4) -
40. Nx p J-TC?
1) 192022
2) 192224
3) 192426
4) 191921
41. -J v - -s 'v-J G *aC?
1) j N v-
2) -- u
3) u
4) E-- u
42. v j, u- u-- -y
-*--?
1) -J v-
2) J--y-h--
3) .>.
4) --pu
43. p u-v--E v JE d--
EN-?
1) -Jh
2) o-N-h o
3) -x J--y-h--
4) -p-u

. v L
j -- \
p?
1) E-v
2) a-
3) -v
4) N--
45. vG J ju - C -o L
-B - ?
1) E M-
2) * -"L--
3) --
4) l
46. j-- u-n-?
1) --- -
2) E -\
3) -
4) --
47. >-D lAE p v-d?
1) 1861
48

1) 1860
49

3) 1885

4) 1887

2) 1885

3) 1879

4) 1881

2) 1888

3) 1890

4) 1892

. X%-g--v E-Eo -q-


pp?
1) 1901

52

2) 1857

. j--- u---Eo p n?
1) 1885

51

3) 1865 4) 1868

. E u v-G-v-Eo ----J p
uh--J?
1) 1883

50

2) 1863

. j-- E -- -q-
n-?

2) 1902

3) 1904

4) 1906

. t-E Ny-N-u--Eo p n?
1) 1919

2) 1918

3) 1915

4) 1916

53

. E v - L -- \
J?
1) -
2) K--
3) T-
4) j--
54. j-- u -- u p
J-TC?
1) 1928
55

2) 1938

3) 1927

67

. X- - p J-TC?
1) 1937

1) 1981
75

1) 1919

2) 1925

3) 1930

1) 1969
76.

4) 1938

1) 1922

2) 1925

3) 1927

77.

78.

4) 1930

59

. j-- u v-y --
p-Eo p -a-C?
1) 1947 - 11
2) 1947 18
3) 1947 25
4) 1947 29
60. vy vA-E-C j-- -
EN---u?
1) ..
2) .-. F{
3) . -v
4) ..
61. j---- u E C- * p
Nh CC?
1) 1948 d- 10
2) 1948 d- 17
4) 1948 d 22
3) 1948 d- 13
62. j--- Z v uvA ?
1) - Bn
2) - ---
3) ----f
4) _ -%-g-
63. -x ---?
1) s-- j-K
2) M
3) --- -
4) P @y
64. v v J\ v u-Jz ?
1) --pu
2) u-A --s-
3) G.. t
4) u-- -y--
65. v - v -- \
J?
1) N--
2) *-M-o
3) -
4) x
66. v Ny-N-u--Eo p p--?
1) 1920

2) 1926

3) 1929

4) 1932

---- -v-o-- --q -v - II - III ---j- -K~-, -G--u; - -jq x ---...

4) 1932

2) 1980

3) 1982

4) 1983

. j v u p -jC?

4) 1942

. E 1932 \-- - u- NE E-N-?


1) \--
2) - \--
3) ju \--
4) F--- N-
57. v- E d-Eo u-E-d dL---f
--?
1) -v
2)
3) L
4) N--
58. h---- ---t
n
p
n?

3) 1935

. d X- vu v Z p
E- D~ v-G-?
1) 1952 d- 2
2) 1952 d- 12
3) 1952 d- 19
4) 1952 - 21
69. v
Z p p-C?
1) 1953 d- 1
2) 1953 d- 13
3) 1953 - 1
4) 1953 - 15
70. v Z *J u-vA ?
1) -J v
2) - --f
3) F @--f
4) u-- -y--
71. l--- p p J-TC?
1) 1956 -J 14
2) 1956 -J 26
4) 1956 v-J 20
3) 1956 v-J 18
72. v-v- Z L u-vA ?
1) - --f
2) F @--f
3) _ -%-g-
4) ----f
73. j - u p *aC?
1) 196869
2) 196566
4) 197273
3) 197071
74. -- KdE p n?

. j-- u v p p-C?

56

2) 1934

68

79.

80.

1) 3
81.

82.

83.

84.

2) 1970

3) 1974

4) 1972

C- u NPd ~--C?
1) v- x A-l u
2) %, % ~- t-
3) u, -v Nv
4) jFo
1955 -C-* p %-u dEo
p h-o?
1) uf , uf u-
E d
2) \ J--~ d
3) uf , uf vu \
d
4) uf , v G-%Cl d
--- ---J " u -
--d -y -p--C?
1) vy d 1909
2) vy d 1919
3) vy d 1935
4) vy d 1947
u--E 243 A v- E -C-*C?
1) v --B p
2) v-
3) -B Eo-
4) --B C--
>x J-- Eo d N- ?
2) 5

3) 6

4) 7

vh v-vA -L -> u
J- C----- vA ?
1)
2) Lx--b _
3) Q
4) o
vU Z-E CC?
1) t, Qt
2) -
3) vA
4) -
1946 p u- v-y-E
u~- E-N-jC ?
1) -t-D
2) t M->o
3) --- v
4) v v
\ N- u-~-E EN-E
p N- u- ?
1) v--vA (u-~)
2) - p, u- -u-~
3) -, u-- x v vA-~ -
4)

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 18 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012


85.

uf , uf u- E-
dEo p -C-?
1) 1955

2) 1976

105.

3) 1989 4) 1993

86. The Indian Constitution Corner Stone of a Nation

v - ?
1) v Nx d
2) ..
3) --- u-
4) Eoq
87. B --- -- N--
q p ?
1) 1993
88.

89.

1) 16.2%
90.

92.

93.

94.

3) 1976 4) 1999

2) 18.47% 3) 24.45% 4) 33.33%

u--E N --- n
J* \-C?
1) IX

91.

2) 1953

Z Eo- N--- N *
Th?
1) Z -o
2) -- vu Bt-j Z -o
3) v Eo- N-
4) x- vu Bt-j Z-A
-- h - p--u _
?

2) IX-A

3) IX-B

4) XII

v-d u J
u -s -E pd --C?
1) Ny Nq 2) -- A
3) --
4) -J
vh v vA---L TJ- ~,
-B- -vA ?
1) j- -f
2) j
3) v-
4) N-- -
u - d -o-x J-yx ----E \-C?
1) 77 u - d 1995
2) 76 u - d 1994
3) 81 u - d 2000
4) 85 u - d
u--E v- Z N LE
p l J*
\C?
1) 269

2) 169

3) 270

96.

1) 1993

2) 1996

1) 1976
102.

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

p u---_ J u--E o
v Nu--n- n*, Ey---
\ Lp-hC?
1) 25

104.

3) 1996 4) 2006

v TJ---G-%Cl o -{ v-R
TJ- -v--R-- v-G-?
1) 1

103.

2) 1986

2) 28

3) 29

4) 30

N- vu-A--*C?
G..
2) -- A
3) v-F
4) --
1)

4) 16 (4)

1) 5.6%

2) 8.2%

3) 12.2%

4) 16.2%

107.

u-- v-N N- u
d y a?
1) 44 - 1978 2) 42 - 1976
3) 24 - 1971 4) 7 - 1956
108. uf - G- a?
1) 5 u
2) 6 u
3) 8 u
4) 10 u
109. v uf , J u-o-A
-C* vAy E -h?
1) ~
2) - G-%Cl
3) -> u --J- C--
4) TJ---G-%Cl vAy
110. -P v- xE o v- uf ,
uf , ----_ Jn, Nu
v--- J--~--E \--C?
1) 45
111.

2) 46

3) 40

4) 43

u-- E v- uf ,
uf -J ---- -v-A-C- -
nx J-y-x Lp--E \-C?
1) 335

2) 338

3) 330

4) 332

113.

114.

115.

v-G-* (Sabala)
J v- l-P-*C?
1) yv
2) (Adolescent) L-
3) - (Infant) P-
4) E-u -B---
uf , u- E- d
v C-- Eo J---h?
1) uf - -C-*
uh d--J ---
2) uf ---JE --
-
3) uf uf uhE
j A--E -n- A-E -

4) jFo
- u-C uf -- o
Z C?
1) u-v-
2)
3) Bh-
4)
TJ- - \- G-%Cl u
(TRIFED) v-v-y -q-
n*C?

3)

u
C\, * v-h
V-j--p
4) V - -* vh- p--p, -n uEo p---p
122. u--u--NA DE \ C
v--*C?
1) 1945 - 10
2) 1948 - 10
3) 1950 - 10
4) 1975 - 10
123. u v- --- n C--,
N- \-C?
1) 243 K 2) 243 G
124.

1) 1975
116.

117.

118.

2) 1982

3) 1985

4) 1987

\ - G- C?
1) Z G
2) v G
3) t G
4) Fo
v--Z u ----i C- N-
E - J-TC?
1) -J u
2) vG u
3) u
4) vy d 1935
x- o v-- --J* B
vu o j -E -C*
u- Bt v Z G--E j
d hC?
1) 249

119. 73

2) 250

3) 256

4) 356

u - d * N--
--C- Z
1) -
2) N
3) -
4) Fo
120. 248 v- E -J-* \-C?
1) Z G
2) t G
3) -Pd C 4) Fo
121. C - v-d u--JhE N
* -T--a?
1) u C\--E p---p
2) -* v-h V-j--p

3) 243 W 4) 243 ZG

u--E o v- uf
Ey-*-hC?
1) 5

2) 366 (24)

3) 16 (4)

4) 366 (25)

125.

u- u-~-E N * -T-h?
1) u--- E u--
2) x- - xE u--
3) Z-A
4) Eo- N- - --Z-A
126. u J- E-N-* N
u-~ ?
1) --- v 2) .. Kb
3) G.. -\
4) l x-
127. v-v- N LE ---J
q- p ?
1) 1957

112. 2010 11

97.

--- v, Zx N-i
C vy u ?
1) " Ky-
2) - t-E-Z- Ky
3) v Ky-
4) - u Ky
98. v-v-- u-C J-- o >x
C?
1)
2)
3) ----
4) *h
99. d v N E-C E -C*C?
1) H J-y-x
2) vO-- (o _) El--
3) x- nA-- u--
4) x -x J-y--x
100. -J u * v-*
C?
1) yvu u-u-n
2) u--O~
3) v-N \
4) Fo
101. p--u _ ~ v--vA 15
v -Eo -q- v-G-?

3) 16 (3)

-- v ----E h
uf ?

4) 352

3) 1999 4) 2003

2) 16 (2)

106. 2001

95. 73

u - d p * -x
*aC?
1) 1 v 1992
2) 24 v 1993
3) 1 -J 1993
4) 2 d- 1992
v-v- Z uf , uf
N-- -q- n-?

PAPER - II

u--E v- ->-, Nu--


--- _---J vy u-x
Jyx -Lp---E \-C?
1) 16 (1)

2) 1956

3) 1953 4) 1985

128.

C Z u-- vA-Eu
?
1) v-v- , N--
2) -n,
3) H, Pa
4) v-v- , Pa
129. u- x- u -|-
\ v- C?
1) 79

2) 80

3) 101

4) 102

130.

Z-A Eo-x _-E -?


1) -- Eo-j u
2) u-- Eo-j u
3) Mx, -aJ N---- Eo-j u
4) Z N----L Eo-j u
131. --B- d - o vv v--J-, >x v--J-, >x
G-%Cl L dEo p -C-?
1) 1959
132.

1) 2001
133.

2) 1964

3) 1975 4) 1986

Z-A Eo-- -C* jp-Ah


vAE-u - -- v
J--- B--?
2) 1991

3) 2006 4) 1971

Z u-n-- N u-~--?
1) X%g
2) ..
3) ..
4) M
134. u J- u v-E
G--Jg-*C ?
1) .. F{
2) G.. -\
3) d --x
4) _
135. --- ---J Cy--- N-Eo
v---d d C?
1) vy d 1909
2) vy d 1919
3) vy d 1935
4) vy d 1947
136. ----E u-Eo C vA---
vG vy C--J- p C?
1) j N-
2) vq -
3) G- -
4) d
137. Z u- n-- y u
ZEo p --E E-N-*-C
1) N-
2) N-
3) .N.. N
4) N-
138. --G-%Cl -Eo p v-G- ?
1) 26 -J 1950
2) 2 d- 1951
3) 2 d- 1953
4) 2 d- 1952
139. -{ v-R --G-%Cl
Eo vG?
1)
2)
3)
4)
140. C- --B- n- u
Lp--E *-* N C?

1)

.. y N
>.N.. N
3) N
4) y-- N
141. Z --- h --Eo
p h?
1) N-- p
2) N L u-~
3) Z -o
4) h - --E Ox
142. 243 I v- E -C-*C?
1) v- p
2) Z Jn N-
3) --B- J-y-x
4) --B Jn -
143. v-v- - -B- dEo p
C?
2)

1) 1959

2) 1964

3) 1986 4) 1994

144.

Z N- B- n-xE un -- p -- ?
1) 10 ~
2) 15 ~
3) 20 ~
4) 1
145. --B- u-n p
-E *-* N C?
1) y-- N
2) N
3) .. N
4) .. y N
146. u-- E C v- t t %-AE p -E \-C?
1) 44

2) 45

3) 47

4) 48 A

147.

C--J -JE ---i Eo- -- (Father of Communal Electorate)


\?
1) f- N
2) f
b
3) f Jp
4) q-f
148. N - - u
J Eo- Ey?
1) G -
2) vq -
3) j N-
4) j-O-
149. --B- n C--, N J*
u--E u- \o?
1) 7

2) 11

3) 12

4) 5

150.

--B- n o- NC C-
Lp-h?
1) x-
2) Z --
3) Z-A
4) ----
-( --- -v-o-v-Eo -j-----E
-K --- du- -E--- --C--.)

----

13; 22; 31; 44; 51; 63; 73; 82; 91; 102;
112; 121; 132; 144; 152; 164; 173; 182;
194; 202; 211; 224; 232; 243; 252; 261;
274; 283; 291; 303; 312; 323; 334; 343;
351; 364; 372; 382; 391; 402; 411; 423;
434; 441; 451; 462; 473; 484; 491; 504;
511; 522; 533; 542; 554; 562; 574; 583;
594; 602; 612; 624; 634; 641; 654; 662;
671; 683; 691; 702; 714; 722; 731; 743;
754; 76-4; 77-2; 78-3; 79-2; 80-4; 81-4; 82-1;
83-3; 84-4; 85-3; 86-1; 87-1; 88-4; 89-2; 90-2;
91-4; 92-3; 93-1; 94-2; 95-2; 96-4; 97-1; 98-4;
99-3; 100-4; 101-4; 102-3; 103-4; 104-3; 105-4;
106-2; 107-2; 108-1; 109-3; 110-2; 111-3; 112-2;
113-4; 114-4; 115-4; 116-2; 117-4; 118-1; 119-4;
120-3; 121-4; 122-2; 123-3; 124-4; 125-2; 126-4;
127-1; 128-4; 129-4; 130-4; 131-4; 132-4; 133-4;
134-1; 135-2; 136-4; 137-1; 138-4; 139-1; 140-1;
141-4; 142-2; 143-4; 144-3; 145-2; 146-1; 147-1;
148-1; 149-2; 150-2.

--q -v II III
--- -v- -d - -@x...

- 19 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012

PAPER - III
MAX. MARKS: 150
TIME: 2.30 HOURS

MODEL GRAND TEST


1. 2011

-- v --- Y, -
EpAh ? (vA 1000 C -- Y
u)
1) 972

2.

2) 940

3) 934

4) 927

1) 1995

2) 1992

3) 1998 4) 2002

v -b p q u-C
-C. --C h - ?
1) 25%

2) 28%

3) 14%

- v h -u pAh (NL- ox) ?


1) 250.4

2) 224.6

3) 240.6

-- v v - --
?

7.

2) 16.4%

3) 18.5%

-- v -- --v vA
-O-- ?
1) 324

2) 342

3) 368

28.

4) 382

n B p-Ah u-, -
?
1) 18.6%

2) 24.4%

3) 18.8%

4) 14.4%

10. 2011
11.

27.

2) 17.64% 3) 23.87% 4) 14.87%

8. 2011

9.

26.

4) 2.4%

---u p-Ah v-n- o


-ZC?
1) h--v-
2)
3) u
4) u-v-
2011 -- v 200111 u
%Cl- ?
1) 21.54%

25.

4) 234.5

5. 2011

1) 17.6%

24.

4) 21%

4. 201112

-- v up o Z ?
1)
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3) - 4) N
vh - v E h Jtx
u--- ?
1) 58%

12. 2011
1) 14

2) 64%

3) 68%

2) 15

29.

4) 62%
30.

-- oC?
3) 11

4) 8

13. 2011

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

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j vEo Jh-.
1) h--v- , H, -Z, Pa
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vv-
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31.

32.

33.

34.

35.
36.

37.

20.

38.

39.

2) 5

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2) 33%

3) 22%

40.

4) 8

--- ---J-vu Eg----E


C?
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3) v-u * Z - u- vu

4) j-O-
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2) v-R (196166)
3) v-R (198085)
4) v-R (197479)
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2) - t p--
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f (NABARD) u v N?
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Ey-h-o?
1) - -
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3) B vO C
4) Cv
h C- -a C?
1) %-
2) p-
3) vy
4) j-O-
1991 u F- -- J-TC?
1) 18%

4) 8

N o--JE j J---h?
1) d \
2) , dx u
3) * dx
4) * C xx u
21. v-- C- Nh-J-* Z N?
1) , u
2) - v , t--Qt
3) -n, -
4) N--, v-v-

-{ v-R %Cl- EKg ~uEo


C--N-*C?
1) 1

23.

-h u- n--Y -A
q *aC?

3. 2012 13

6.

22.

4) 15.5%

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1) xu N
2) - N
3) N
4) j-O-
--- ---J C--J B--
\- -C-*C
1) - >
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3) B-- N
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41.

42.

43.

44.

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q
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q
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3) Z j q o
4) o
~ -A, Ey, dJx Ey,
vu v C-- -s-- o
Eo *.
1) v u -A 2) -b-B vuy
3) -b-B vu-EC -A
4) -b-B -A
1977 J-v-N N Eo vq--*C?
1) wj E-x

59.

60.

1) 10%

61.

v-y- E-x
--A n-
4) *o--, J-v--
45. ---
v u N-
EyC?
1) v u
2) - -Kq u
3) Jy u
4) d u
46. 'd x ...?
1) Jn--%Cl vu-s _
2)

E-u-T--- vu-s
p --u vu-s _
4) vA-v-u-s--- vu-s -
47. vB
vO u p
vG?
1) d- 1972
2) d- 1982
4) d- 1978
3) d- 1975
48. >x n vO J-v-N---- vq-
- Fq?
1) .-..
2) .--..
3) ..-G..
4) ...
49. 12 Jn jt- ENj--?
1) .---
2) .. v
3) N \
4) ..
50. -- --- ' N--
-q-Eo \?

63.

64.

65.

66.

3)

1) 1901

2) 1921

3) 1947

d- F % l-Eo vA--C-*
Jnh?
1) o Nn
2) -vp-
3) .-. q
4) y - d
52. 2011 \ v u-C --v
o Z ?
1) Pa
2) H
3) v-v-
4) N--
53. vh --- B -
-q- Eo J---h-o?

54.

55.

1) 19992000

2) 2004-05

3) 2009-10

4) 2012-13

- J--h-j E-N-* N?
1) N
2) N
3) - N
4) K N
.-.-.. dEo p C?
1) 1969

56. 200809

2) 1970

3) 1971

67.

68.
69.

70.

4) 1951

51.

71.

(SEBI)

73.

74.

4) 1972

75.

2) 12%

3) 8%

4) 14%

E p n?
2) 1984

3) 1988

4) 1982

u- j o -E *-*
N?
1) v-Jh
2)
3) .. V
4) h
'G-%-Cl N---- C E
\-o-
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3) >-N T_q
4) n E
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2) u -- G-%Cl -hC
3) u -- T_-hC
4) Jn un v-q T_-hC
ya u v, d q E-x,
\x, --N E-x -E
Jh.
1) -b-B un
2) Jn --
3) vu --
4) vB -
%Cl -- -Jn--h -C-*-N?
1) x -\q
2) --xu. d-
3) --
4) -o -Nn-
%Cl L-Eo - vO
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1) vO d
2) u u
3) vO u
4) j- -j
A \ P-- -j Z C?
1) -Z
2)
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NCh?
1) o- 2)
3) N 4) J-
n Q--pAh (@) ...
1) Q Jn u---
2) NQ u -
3) -_ u
4) Jn n
v n (--) p n-?
1) 1951

72.

v v NQ u

yN?
1) j 2) u 3) x 4) D -G
57. ---- E v< u C?
1) v u
2) d u
3) Jy u
4) - u
58. C-- -* vu?
2) M2 vu
1) M1 vu
3) M3 vu
4) M4 vu

1) 1980
62.

2)
3)

vu-s x ---?
n _ 2) -
v-- 4) - - -
201213 v -b -j NC o
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1)
3)

2) 1952

3) 1947

4) 1966

--- B---Eo --E


--T-ho l- N?
1) pAh, lA
2) pAh, C lA
3) , u C lA
4) pAh, , u C lA
G-%Cl *- E ?
1) @ v
2) ~--u , - -q-
3) P---
4)
j-h
1) pAh - %d u B-- + ~
o
2) pAh - %d u B-- + x
3) pAh - %d u B-- *dE v Lx-
4) pAh - %d u B-- *dE v Lx- +
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2) j -h - *--dE
.
3) u| - j-h o .
4) E Jn vq (-----xu) BJ
(Leisure) C.

- 19 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012


76 2011
1) 7 62
3) 8 16

-- v v-v- ?
. x
2) 8.46 x
. x
4) 8.78 x
77. 2012 d- 1 * 19 J -b-B
j-Jq -q C C?
1) N--o
2) j--
3) j o
4)
78. v-x vA v-d
-h?
1) d G.. -\ vd
2) C--- vd
3) @--- vd
4) ---- vd
79. 2011 -- v h - vv- ?
1) 5%
2) 7%
3) 12% 4) 9.5%
80. -\ E-C E -C-*C?
1) Jvu
2) NQ vu~ d--
3) u- o
4) o
81. 201112 -- Nh- n (Fiscal)
B pAh (GDP) ?
1) 8.6%
2) 3.8%
3) 5.7%
4) 6.4%
82. --- n-* d qa
(Exchange) C?
1) d qa (BSE)
2) B d qa (NSE)
3) d qa (KSE)
4) Mx d qa (DSE)
83. 2011 -- v -- h -
vO ?
1) 68.8%
2) 72.2%
3) 78.6%
4) 74.3%
84. p-Ah -- n ?
1) 1

2) 4

3) 6

4) 2

85

. v-v- h -R Nh-g - ?
1) 21.3%
2) 23.2%
3) 33.3% 4) 22.3%
86. Z h Eo?
1) 44579
87

2) 24676

3) 28862

4) 56430

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1) 4465

2) 2949

3) 3546

4) 2475

88 2011 12
(GSDP)

Jn y v v-v- n Z
pAh
?
1) .4,07,949 x
2) .56,646 x
3) .86,764 x
4) .90,974 x
89. vh v v-v- -J
?
1) .71,540
2) .41,320
3) .31,360
4) .21,540
90. v-v-- vh E--ho u- \, j- -
1) 330; 106
2) 245; 102
3) 540; 107
4) 602; 301
91. v-v- vy vh ho Jv-N d-- G-%Cl N-Eo 2010
-C-. C -E -C?
1) 201011
2) 201112
3) 201015
4) 201020
92. v-v- -C* v vy Eo
vu Jn x (SEZ) -C*C?
1) 72
93

2) 114

3) 144

4) 162

. v-v- v-G* -c -
h Eo v-d d?
1) 44

2) 68

3) 72

4) 84

94

. v-v---E h B --
? (-O--x)
1) 4,730
2) 740 3) 9,330 4) 8,640
95. v-v-- v-v-y D E-
l Z vy DE *o
-Eo?
1) 6

96

2) 8

3) 21

4) 14

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Technology) --x v-v-
?
1) 13.9%
2) 18.2%
4) 17.2%
3) 16.3%
97. v-R (200405 v) v-v--
Jvu C- v E--ho-E \C?
1) 15.8%
2) 27.5%
. --

PAPER - III

3) 25 3%

.
4) 28.5%
-{ v-R -E Z %Cl-
Eg. u-,
JvN, -
1) 6%, 10.5%, 11.5% 2) 8%, 11.5%, 12.4%
3) 7%, 12.5%, 11.3% 4) 9%, 13.5%, 10.5%
99. 201112 -q--E 200405 n v
Z- n - ?
1) 44.6%
2) 55.1%
3) 19.2%
4) 25.7%
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C?
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2) , E- * a
3) ju
4) q u
101. v-v- Z -Eo C
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102. X u- N?
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j -Eq---
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3) d
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103. '15 v vA p v-G- ?
98 12
10%

1) 1987

2) 1985 3) 1986

4) 1983

104

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\ * v-G-?
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3) Pa -J
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108. v-v-- -{ v-R vu
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112. Je J-NA d p * x
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2) 1973 -J
3) 1974 -J
4) 1975 -J
113. v-v-- B u- H -Eo
p vG?
1) 2000 K
2) 2000 H
3) 2001 K
4) 2001 H
114. vB '-\ v \ C?
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115. E - --E -x v-d?
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116. v-v-- u-C J-v-N--- C
v?
1) -
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3) --
4) -
117. v-v- L -- n (APIIC)
v-G-* -q C?
1) 1974

2) 1973

3) 1972

4) 1971

118 2000 2001


(

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1) 1.25

2) 1.20

3) 1.35

4) 1.45

119

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c
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124

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125. v-v-
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126

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3) 19

4) 11

. - b v- p v-G-?

1) 2004

2) 2005 3) 2006

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131. @
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vG?
1) 2011 v
2) 2011 d
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Mains Paper
Paper -I
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---j- --- -v- -d-, --Eo - -- -K~- --- - -jq x


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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 22 -V-j 2012


APPSC GROUP-II

-- j---

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K~- -E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un-
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Q.No. A B

Q.No. A B

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

2
2
2
2
2
2
1
2
1
1
1
2
2
3
2
4
4
4
2
2
2
1
4
3
2
1
1
4
1
4
2
4
3
4
1
1
4
4
2
1
4
3
3
3
2
1
2
1
1
3
4
2
1
1
4
1
4
1
4
1
3
1
2
2
1
2
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
4

3
4
2
2
3
1
2
1
1
3
3
4
1
2
2
2
1
1
4
1
2
3
2
3
4
3
1
2
2
3
3
1
2
2
1
2
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
4
2
3
2
3
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
2
1
3
2
2
2
2
2
2
1
2
1
1
1
2
2
3
2

76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

2
3
2
3
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
2
1
3
3
4
2
2
3
1
2
1
1
3
3
4
1
2
2
2
1
1
4
1
2
3
2
3
4
3
1
2
2
3
3
4
3
3
1
1
3
2
3
2
2
1
4
2
2
3
2
1
2
2
4
2
3
2
4
4
1
4
2
1

4
4
4
2
2
2
1
4
3
2
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
3
3
1
1
3
2
3
2
2
1
4
2
2
3
2
1
2
2
4
2
3
2
4
4
1
4
2
1
2
4
3
4
1
1
4
4
2
1
4
3
3
3
2
1
2
1
1
3
4
2
1
1
4
1
4
1
4
1

2
4
3
4
1
1
4
4
2
1
4
3
3
3
2
1
2
1
1
3
4
2
1
1
4
1
4
1
4
1
3
4
3
3
1
1
3
2
3
2
2
1
4
2
2
3
2
1
2
2
4
2
3
2
4
4
1
4
2
1
3
4
2
2
3
1
2
1
1
3
3
4
1
2
2

3
1
2
2
1
2
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
4
2
3
2
3
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
2
1
3
3
4
2
2
3
1
2
1
1
3
3
4
1
2
2
2
1
1
4
1
2
3
2
3
4
3
1
2
2
3
3
4
3
3
1
1
3
2
3
2
2
1
4
2
2

2
1
1
4
1
2
3
2
3
4
3
1
2
2
3
2
2
2
2
2
2
1
2
1
1
1
2
2
3
2
4
4
4
2
2
2
1
4
3
2
1
1
4
1
4
3
1
2
2
1
2
2
1
4
2
3
2
3
1
4
2
3
2
3
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
2
1
3

3
2
1
2
2
4
2
3
2
4
4
1
4
2
1
2
4
3
4
1
1
4
4
2
1
4
3
3
3
2
1
2
1
1
3
4
2
1
1
4
1
4
1
4
1
2
2
2
2
2
2
1
2
1
1
1
2
2
3
2
4
4
4
2
2
2
1
4
3
2
1
1
4
1
4

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RICE

-v-o-v, ' x- ---: www.eenadupratibha.net

B. Adiseshaiah, G. Yerragudi
Q. What is the difference
between "had to" and
"was to"? i.e., I had to ask
money; I was to ask money.
A: I had to ask for money ('ask
money' is incorrect) = 1) I
needed money very much;
Some one forced me to ask
for money.
I was to asked for money = somebody
ordered me to ask for money.
G. Venkata Rao, K.P. Puram
Q. "A knowledge is superior to money".
knowledge
Consonantal
sound
article "A"

-E

hC d

. C

In a poem of Junior
Inter English text
Book named "A
Spider and a Fly"
By Don Marquis,
The letter 'I' is used
as small (i), like this
no where else. The
poem has not been
Punctuated. - What is the reason?
A: It is 'poetic license' = The freedom a poet
enjoys in matters of penetration, and on
quiet a few occasions in matters of grammar
as well. So long as they can make their
meaning clear, they are free to change
whatever they like. The use of 'i' in the poem
is an example, perhaps he used it for some
effect.

adding a prefix (eg. 'un+' as in unfit,) or a


suffix, (eg: 'ly-' as in slowly)
An example of etymology: The word 'farmer'
comes from 'farm' which in the beginning had
the meaning of 'rent'- later it came to mean, a
piece of agricultural land, and 'farmer' came to
have the meaning, a person who paid rent
for the land he cultivated or a person
who owned a farms. This perhaps is the meaning of etymological derivation.

()

Knowledge once acquir ed is never lost!


O Countable nouns
--o N-J-.
v
A: Knowledge - Uncountable d, --
DE 'a' . (usage)
v, knowledge of ( N L
) E --p a knowledge of
something .

K. Chandu, Sirisilla

abstract noun,
A, An

She has a good/ sound/ deep etc. knowledge


of the subject.
knowledge
a/ an

E c n --p
.

knowledge is power
Knowledge once acquired is never lost.
A. Ramanaiah, Pulivenduala
Q: Mr. A asked Mr. B to come/ go/ move to Hyd
- Which is correct?
A: i) Mr. A asked Mr B to come to Hyderabad Correct.
ii) Mr. A asked me to go over to Hyderabad. (Mr.
A to Mr. B go - over here) - Correct
iii) The meaning is different: Mr. A asked Mr. B
to change his residence to Hyderabad.
Q: As for as the punctuation marks concerned:

Q: There is a Bus

Question tag
. Subject
C?

-x--- 695

A: There is a bus, isn't there? - There,


Q: In order to enrich the written
English structures are more useit
sentences,
ful. Are there any exclusive books
question tags
verb
there/
on structures other than Horn By?
M. SURESAN
it
Eg: It was her
A: The study of structures, in my
property, wasn't it?
opinion, does not necessarily help us to
there/ it
sentences
'enrich' our written English. What is more
subject,
verb
important is practising speaking and writing
as much as possible. However, if you still
There is a bus
- Subject: bus.
are interested the books you can follow are:
1) English structure by AS Horn By - Oxford
It is a useful book - Subject: book.
Publishing
House,
Q: The book given to him, the man seen near
2) Contemporary English Grammar and
the school
Composition by David Green - Orient
Longmans LTD.
A: The book given to him, the man seen near
Q: What is etymological derivation? Which
the school phrases. Sentences
book would be referred to know about it?
Phrases
verb
Phrase is a
A: Etymological Derivation: I do not know
exactly what this means. However,
group of words without a verb.
Etymology means the study of the origin of
words. Derivation is forming a new word by

vu

y
--v- -hC.

N-
--
C.

vu
y a

O p x C E -C* u? N-J-.
N

x N

x E .

He might help us get it!


Ashray: May I borrow your
book for a few days? It can
be very useful for me for
the coming interview. I will
certainly return it promptly.
(
interview

Cl V O h
B--a. a
C -----. *a O -E AJT ah.)

Amrutha: Why not? I may not be in town for the


coming four days, and you can have it during the time. May I have it back on Friday?
(

-y? a V x
---a. V O Eo
--a. Eo AJT v- B-a?)

Ashray: Oh, certainly and thank you very


much. Where may we get the book? I like to
have a copy of it for myself. (
thanks.

p.
h \ a? Eo
-\---C.)

Amrutha: May be it is available in Knowledge


Book Centre. But I am not sure. I bought
this in a book store in Kurnool, and there
too, I found only this copy. You might find it
in Chennai or in Hyderabad. (

C b
x --a. F, t .
DEo ox h- o.
\ -\ C. j o F,
j-- F --a.)

Ashray: I thought I might get a copy of it in


Vizag when I went there last week, but I was
disappointed. (

j Rx--p
\--i -----E -o. F,
E -jC.)

Amrutha: Wait. I remember now. My cousin is


in Chennai. He might help us get it. (
cousin

.
j o o.
h-*aC.
N- a.)

(present)

F, N-u

(future)

Dhanush: When may he be here?

F:
( \-

p- --a?)
Kiran: He may be on the way. We may see him
here in a few minutes.

(J- -a.
Cl ~x \ o -a)
Sukumar: When may you start?

(O-p -l--a?)
Sowrabh: May be in ten minutes (10

EN-x

-a)
Look at the following sentences from the
conversation above:
1) May I borrow your book?
2) I may not be in town for the coming few days
3) May I have it back on friday?
4) Where may We get the book?
5) You might find it in Chennai
6) I thought I might get a copy of it
7) He might help us
Let's study the uses of may and might

'may'

-Eo -El...
I may not be in town =

C 'May' o
-.
N- may not
(be) = ----a/--a .
Priyanka: What are the
chances of his success?

( N---- N?)
Anusha: He may not be
successful

( N- ---a)
Charith: Where may we
find him at this time of the
day?

x ---a.

( -
-\ --a)

1) 'May'
expresses
probability

Harindra: You may find him at office or at some


client's place
Office
Clients

--a/ -a
n . May,

(
F
_F -a)
D first use of 'May'. N a..

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 23 -V-j 2012


APPSC GROUP-II - II '

--C- -Ey-*-- -v II II K~-


E -C-* '- E Ch-o. un- --
- -D-Eo ---T-a. -v-y
N - --- - v- A -J----L.
Q.No. A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

2 1 1
1 2 3
4 4
4 3 2
2 1 4
2 2 3
1 2 3
4 2 3
2 1 1
4 3 1
1 3 4
3 1 3
2 2 2
3 1&2 4
1 4 4
1 4 2
4 3 1
2 1 1
3 1 2
3 2&3 3
4 4
1 2 1
1 1 3
3 3 4
1 1 3
2 2 1&2
1 3 4
1 4 4
2 3 2
3 2 3
3 3 2
2 2 1
3 4 4
2 3 4
3 2 2
3 1 2
3 1 1
1 2 4
1 4 2
4 3 4
3 3 1
2 3 3
4 4 2
2 2 3
3 2 1
3 2 1
1 3 4
4 1 2
4 4 3
4 3 3
2 4 4
2 2 1
1 3 1
2 1 3
3 4 1
4 1 2
3 3 1
3 4 1
4 1 2
3 2 3
3 3 1
2 2 2
4 3
3 2 3
2 3 1
1 4 2
1 3 2
2 1 2
4 1 1
3 4 3
3 3 3
3 2 1
4 4 2
2 2 1&2
2 3 4

3
2
4
3
2
1
1
2
4
3
3
3
4
2
2
2
3
1
4
3
4
2
3
1
4
1
3
4
1
2
1
2

3
1
2
2
2
1
3
3
1
2
1&2
4
4
3
1
1
2&3
4
2
1
3
1
2
3
4
3
2
1
3
4
2
4
3
3
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
4

Q.No. A B
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

2
3
1
4
3
4
2
3
1
4
1
3
4
1
2
1
3
4
2
4
3
3
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
4
2
1
1
2
3

1
3
4
3
1&2
4
4
2
3
1
2

3
1
2
2
2
1
3
3
1
2
1&2
4
4
3
1
1
2&3
4
2
1
3
1
2
3
4
3
2

3
1
4
4
4
2
2
1
2
3
4
3
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
2
2
1
4
2
4
1
3
2
3
1
1
4
2
3
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
1
1
2
3
1
3
4
2
4
3
3
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
4
2
1
1
2
3

1
3
4
3
1&2
4
4
2
3

4
3
1
1
2&3
4
2
1
3
1
2
3
4
3
2
3
2
4
3
2
1
1
2
4
3
3
3
4
2
2
2
3
1
4
3
4
2
3
1
4
1
3
4
1
2
3
2
3
2
3
4
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
2
3
3
1
4
4
4
2
2
1
2
3
4
3
3
4
3

2
1
1
2
3

1
3
4
3
1&2
4
4
2
3
3
2
3
2
3
4
3
1
1
4
3
2
4
2
3
3
1
4
4
4
2
2
1
2
3
4
3
3
4
3
2
1
4
4
2
2
1
4
2
4
1
3
2
3
1
1
4
2
3
3
4
1
1
3
1
2
1
1
2
3

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 23 -V-j 2012

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Q.No. A B

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
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20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

2
4
1
3
3
1
3
2
4
3
2
1
3
3

3
1
3
3
4
4
3
1
2
3
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
1
4
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
1
4
2
3
1
4
3
1
2
4
3
2
4
2
3
4
2
2
3
1
3
1
3
2
4
2
3
1
2
4
4
2
1
1
2
4
1
3
3
1
3
2
4
3
2
1
3
3

76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.

1
3
1
3
2
4
2
3
1
2
4
4
2
1
1
3
1
3
3
4
4
3
1
2
3
2
1
2
1
2
4
2
1
4
2
4
4
1
4
3
2
1
4
2
3
2
1
1
1
4
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
1
3
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
4
3
1
4
3
3
2
4

4
3
1
1
1
3
3
1
1
2
2
4
1
4
3
2
1
1
1
4
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
1
3
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
4
3
1
4
3
3
2
4
2
3
3
4
1
4
4
4
2
4
2
2
4
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
3
2
2
3
1
3
1
4
3
4

2
3
3
4
1
4
4
4
2
4
2
2
4
2
3
1
2
4
2
1
3
2
3
3
1
3
1
4
3
4
2
1
1
1
4
2
1
4
1
4
2
2
1
3
4
3
2
4
1
4
2
1
4
3
1
4
3
3
2
4
3
1
3
3
4
4
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1
2
3
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1
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1
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1
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3
1
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3
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1
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1
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1
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4
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4
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4
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2
a

=
2

.O.
-N ..
1
= ju h
3

a = 10
OPA

BC = 20
122

ABC -

( )

vA.
d ju

1
= AB AC
2
1
= 12 16 = 96
2

.O2
vA-- d ..= j-u h

-N \ ju
1
= N d-- - h
2
1 4a 13
=
2

.O2
---:2
2. D`- --v- d--E
l = 3x, b = 2x (.O.)
\ ju =
\--E -E a

9000
= = 1800 ..O.
5
2h(l + b) = 1800
2 12 (3x + 2x) = 1800
120 x = 1800
x = 15
D`- --v- d .. = l.b.h
= 72 15 15
= 3x 2x 12

. -

---:4

l = 100 O.
b = 80

= 96 15

= 2 10 13

= 260

.O.3

d
vA *

10
OA2 = OP2 + AP2 = 122 +
2
= 144 + 25 = 169
OA = 13

= 16200

O.
h = 1.5 O. --o d- h
.. = l b h = 100 80 1.5
= 80 150 O3

= 1440
5.

.O3

---: 3

2r1h1 = 2r2h2

h *
r1

h2

h2

r2

r2

h1

h1

r1

22

()
r1

r2

. h *

. h *,

O. -o u-a 2.8 O.
o -v. E * u
Je h --J- (.O.-)

1) 162

2) 145

3) 165

4) 154

-
1-2; 2-4; 3-1; 4-3; 5-1; 6-2; 7-2; 8-4; 9-2;
10-2; 11-3; 12-4.

(-- - ->-x --- --p----


--d)
- v h
v ..

= 42

.O.

1
= r2h
3
1
22
= r2 42
3
7
3
= 44 r2

28

l2 = r2 + h2 d

.O.
vuEo JTh C --
%d--- d
44r2 = 49 16 11

---: 4
.O. u o h
x -N--* y JT F d =
h .O. -.
1
5
1
ul =
= .O.
2
10
4

9. 7

4
\\ --J- =
r3
3
4
22 1
1
1
= .O.3
3
7
4
4
4
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4
22 1
1
1
77
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3
7
4
4
4
4
J-T F .. = r2h
22
7
7
77
= h = h. .O.3
7
2
2
2
J\-- v *
x -T*
v -J- = x ..

h1

r12

r2

h2

r2

r1

r1

=
=
2
r2

r1 = r2

1
1
V1 : V2 = r12 h1 : r22h2
3
3
= r12h1 : r22h2 = h1 : h2 (... r1 = r2)
7

4) 14 7

12 25

h = 12 5 .O.

--: 1
6

282 = 82 + h2 i.e., h2 = 784 - 64 = 720

10.

= r12h1 : r22h2

11
r2 = 49 16 = 49 4
44
r = 14

.O.

l2 = r2 + h2 = 142 + 422 = 1960

l = 1960 = 1410 .O. ---:

12

. Je h u = - v
= 2.8 O.
Je h
2.8
ul = 1.4 O.
25 O.
Je h
h = 25 O.
Je h
--J- = r2h
22
= 1.4 1.4 25 = 154 O.3
7
---: 4

77
77
=h=
2
4
h = 0.5

V1 : V2 = r12h1 : r22h2
V1

4) 0.12

2) 14 5

3) 14 10

7
1
r = 704

=8

= i.e. =

--
=
V

22
7

3) 0.02

1) 14 3

r 28 = 704

202

i.e., AB2 + AC2 = BC2

2) 0.2

. D`- ---- 49 .O. 16


.O. 11 .O. Eo J-T* 42
.O. ho - v h
E - h ? (.O.-)

3520
5

-,

162

11

rl = = 704

AB = 12, AC = 16,

1
= a2 12 = 400
3
4a2 = 400 a2 = 100

FC.
u
o 294
x \h

7/2
7/2
h -E
F
d
u-l, - h -- --Jt--d -X-E-- --C?
--- .
1) 0.25 .O. 2) 0.50 .O.
u-l, - h N Ep-Ah
3) 0.75 .O. 4) 0.05 .O.
.
10. 4 .O. u o h -E
u-l h - ----
F E.
.
J o 300 - x h,

2) 14860 3) 16820 4) 16200

1) 15200

-E F-d 0.8 .O JTC.


\ ul (.O.--)
?

--:2

r1l1 = r2l2

l2
i.e. =
r2
l1
r1

22
22

2 2 0.8 = 300 4
r3
7

-q d- ---J-- , G- -u, - --j- -K~-; - - -jq x- ---...

100r3

i.e.

u-l, - h N----
.
--: 2
a
8. - v \- ju =
-

.O. ---: 2
h * h u = 4 .O.,
ul = 2 .O.
o 300 --
x h --p -JT Fd = 0.8 .O.; ul =
r .O. -.
J\-- v * h v
x x --T-- F --J- =
300 x ..

()

8
2
r3 = =
1000
10
11.

= 0.8

7
8

10

r = 0.2 .O.

---: 2
D`- -J- - = 49 16 11 .O.3

www.eenadupratibha.net

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--- 25 -V-j 2012

-- j---

AP SET - 2012 PAPER - III MODEL GRAND TEST


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- 26 -V-j 2012

-- j---

AP SET - 2012 PAPER - I MODEL GRAND TEST


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- 26 -V-j 2012

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AP SET - 2012 PAPER - II MODEL GRAND TEST


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--j-: www.jntuh.ac.in

--v- 27 -V-j 2012

-- j---

NUMBER SYSTEM & SIMPLIFICATIONS


Digits: 0 to 9 are the digits.
Number: By using digits we write numbers.
Classification of Numbers:
Even Numbers
Numbers which are divisible by 2
eg: 2, 4, 6, 8, ...
Odd Numbers
Numbers which are not divisible by 2
eg: 1, 3, 5, 7, ...
Natural Numbers
All counting numbers
N = {1, 2, 3, ...}
n(n+1)
Sum of first 'n' natural numbers is
2
Sum of squares of first 'n' natural numbers is
n(n + 1)(2n + 1)

6
Sum of cubes of first 'n' natural numbers is
2

[ ]
n(n + 1)
2

common factors. eg: 4, 7 and 9 are co-prime to


each other.
Some important Identities:
1) (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab
2) (a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2ab
3) (a + b)(a - b) = a2 - b2
4) (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3a2b + 3ab2
5) (a - b)3 = a3 - b3 - 3a2b + 3ab2
6) a3 + b3 = (a + b) (a2 - ab + b2)
7) a3 - b3 = (a - b) (a2 + ab + b2)
8) (a+b+c)2 = a2 + b2 +c2 + 2ab +2bc + 2ac
9) a3 + b3 + c3 - 3abc
= (a + b + c) (a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - bc - ac)
1.23 1.23 - 0.77 0.77
eg: = ?
1.23 0.77
A) 0.46 B) 1
C) 2
D) 2.03 E) None
Sol: a2 - b2 = (a + b)(a - b)
a2 - b2
= a + b
a-b
1.23 1.23 0.77 0.77
= 1.23 + 0.77 = 2
1.23 0.77

2. 60% of 25% of

of ? = 630
A) 5200
B) 5060
C) 4500
D) 4880
E) None of these
5
Sol: 60% of 25% of
6 of ? = 630
60
25 5
?
100 100 6
= 630
100 100
6
? = 630
= 5040
60
25
5
Hence answer is (E)
3. One-seventh of a number is 51. What will be
64% of that number?
A) 219.38

B) 235.41

D) 218.36

E) None of these

7 x

Sol:

Hence answer is (C)

= 57

C) 255.36

x = 399

5 6

Irrational Numbers: Can't be written in p/q


form, where q 0.

e.g.:
2 , 5 , 3 + 7 ,
Composite Numbers: Numbers having more
than two factors. eg: 4, 6, 8, 9, 10 ... etc
Prime Numbers: Numbers having only two
factors or Numbers divisible by one and the
number itself. eg: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ... etc
Some points about prime numbers
2 is the only even prime number
'1' is neither a prime nor composite number. It is a unitary.
There are 25 prime numbers upto 100.
Twin prime numbers: The difference between
two prime numbers is 2.
eg: (3, 5), (5, 7), (11, 13) etc
Co-prime numbers: Numbers not having any
1. 384 +116 4 12 = ?
B) 732

D) 1200

C) 10.4

E) None of these

2
6
3
2. of of of 7920 = ?
5
11
4
A) 1186

B) 1236

D) 1296

E) None of these

C) 1396

3. 16.45 2.8 + 4.5 1.6 = ?


A) 53.26

B) 51.46

D) 4926

E) None of these

C) 63.36

4. 5128 + 3893 - 2194 = ? 1282


B) 8156
C) 8109
E) None of these

5. 1575 25 9 = ?
A) 567

B) 14

C) 49

D) 7

E) None

6. Difference between the digits of a two digit


number is 5 and the digit in the unit's place
is six times the digit in the ten's place. What
is the number?
A) 61

B) 64

C) 16

4. When 3888 is divided by the


square of a number and the

The numerator of a fraction is written in the


following form
2
2x
Two-third of a number = x =
3
3
3
3x
Three-fourth of a number = x =
4
4
30
3x
30% of a number = x =
100
10
2
25% of of one-fourth of a number
3
2
1
25
=x
3
4
100
3
4
5
eg.-1: of of of 490 = ?
5
8
7
A) 115 B) 108 C) 116 D) 105 E) None
3
4
5
of 490
Sol:
7 of
5 of 8
3
4
5


7 5 8 490 = 105
Hence answer is (D)

D) 14

E) None

7. 80% of a number is equal to three fifth of


another number. What is the ratio between

answer so obtained is multiplied by

A) 2 : 3

B) 4 : 3

D) 5 : 7

E) None of these

C) 1 : 2

25
A)
117

23
B)
116

23
D)
117

E) None of these

25
C)
119

9. If (92)2 is added to the square of a number,


the answer so obtained is 10768. What is
the number?
A) 46

B) 2304

D) 2116

E) None of these

C) 48

C) 72

D) 80

E) None

Answers: 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) E
8) A 9) E 10) D

EXPLANATIONS
6. Let the ten's digit is 'x'

A) 324

B) 36

C) 144

D) 18

E) None of these

Sol: Let the number 'x'


3888


2
x

21 = 252

3888

x2 =

21 = 324
252
x =
324 = 18

Hence answer is (D)


5. If (16)3 is subtracted from the square of a
number, the answer so obtained is 3825.
What is the number?
A) 89

B) 69

D) 59

E) None of these

C) 49

Sol: Let the number be x

x2 - 163 = 3825 x = 89
Hence answer is (A)

x + 5 = 6x x = 1
Units place digit is 1 + 5 = 6

eg: 56 52 = 56 + 2 = 58
2.

am
n
a

eg:

2 = 37

am - n

37

-2

= 35

3. (am) =

amn
2

eg:

(73)

=7

32

4. (ab)m = am bm
3
3
3
eg: (3 4) = 3 4
1
5. a-m = m

6. m a = a m 1

eg: 7 9 = 9 7

7. a0 = 1
eg: 60 = 1
eg: 6411 644 = (8)?
6411
Sol:
= 8?
644

64114 = 8 ?

(82)7 = 8 ?

814 = 8 ?

? = 14
All simplification questions are to be solved
based on BODMAS rule only.
B - Bracket
O - Of
D - Division
M - Multiplication
A - Addition
S - Subtraction
eg: (74 786) ? = 1211.75
A) 42

B) 36

C) 56

D) 54

E) None of these
Sol: (74 786) ? = 1211.75
74 786
= 1211.75
?
74 786
? = = 48
1211.75
Hence answer is (E)
2. (3675 75) (7480 80) = ?
A) 4581.5
B) 4852.9
C) 4651.5
D) 4321.8
E) None of these
Sol: (3675 75) (7480 80)
3675
7480
= 4581.5
75
80
Hence answer is (A).

3
80
3
80% x = y x = y
5
100
5

x 3
100
3
= =
y 5
80
4
x:y=3:4
9. Let the number be x
2

x +

922

= 3825 x = 48

10. Let the first even number be 'x'

x+x+2+x+4+x+6+x+8

10. Sum of five consecutive even numbers is


380. What is the biggest number?
B) 74

252. What is the number?

Required number is 16
7. Let the first and second number be x and y.

28 5 - 15 6
8.
=?

72 + 256 + (13)2

A) 76

21, the final answer so obtained is

Unit's place digit = x + 5

the first and second numbers?

A) 1500

A) 8913
D) 8297

64
399 = 255.36
100
Hence answer is (C)

To solve the equations based on


G.S.GIRIDHAR
numbers, the number is written in
algebraic form. For example let the number
be x.

am an = am+n

1
1
eg: 4-3 =
=
43
64

64% of 399 =

Quantitative Aptitude

1.

All counting numbers are 'Natural'!


Sum of first 'n' odd numbers = n2
Sum of first 'n' even numbers = n(n + 1)
Whole Numbers
0 and all natural numbers
W = {0, 1, 2, 3, ...}
Integers: Natural numbers, zero and negative
of natural numbers
I = {..., 3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3 ...}
Rational Numbers: These are of the form of
p/q, where q 0.
1 5
, , 0, -4 etc
Q =

Laws of Indices

= 380
5
x = 72
Numbers are 72, 74, 76, 78 and 80
Biggest number is 80
380
Shortcut: Middle number = = 76
5
Numbers are 72, 74, 76, 78 and 80
Biggest number is 80.

For SBI (Associate Banks), IBPS (Rural Banks) Clerks Material, Bit bank, Online exams click on...

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 29 -V-j 2012

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--C- 29 -V-j 2012

-- j---

T. Sankara Rao, Machilipatnam


Q: Translate the following
into English.


O ~u- o-
L.

A: You should grow to great


heights/ rise to eminence
with well-defined goals.


-o v- v.

A: The acclaim I had got was just so, so/


limited.


Fo NtLo vu- E---.

A: We were keen on seeing that you had a


good life.


%---- n .

A: Understand my agony/ concern.




--h NE x--Lx--.

A: I was deeply anguished/ agonized on


hearing the news of the death.


- N- E--C.

A: My heart was filled with sorrow.





Tx x---p j -- - --Lq!

A: You have to read (English) extensively, if


you want to speak fluently.


* @N C--E ---f.

vA 8 - Ev --hC.

A: I feel very sleepy even at 8 O'clock.

A: They will all make you stand apart.




p -, - C.

A: She is always dynamic and sprightly.




Rx vt- --o.

C F .

A: It's sheer misunderstanding on your part.

A--L Dl x-- --.

A: The more he was cajoled, the more he

A: The wedding band is playing

D. Rama Chandran,
Malkajgiri
Q: When do we use
the auxiliary in an
interrogative sentence, begins with
when, where, how,
etc.?
A: Immediately after the 'wh' word, that is,
when, where, why, etc, e.g.: When did he
come here? Where has he gone? Why will
he pay the money? How may he help you?
etc.
Q: When is a comma/ exclamatory mark used
in a sentence beginning with 'Oh'?
A: When it is used to express surprise, 'Oh' is
followed by an exclamation. e.g.: Oh! How
tall the building is!. When it is used on other
occasions, 'Oh' is followed by a comma.
e.g.: Oh, I missed the function.

Don't live in imagination...!




-x--- 696

A: We should celebrate the wedding grandly.




- -t- v-Jz-.

A: They displayed creativity in the celebration.




<- -h --C .

A: I am not going to keep quiet/ tolerate if you


annoy me frequently.


-? L-\---?

refused to speak.


*-J CT--a.

A: Finally he gave in on his own.




M. SURESAN

u Lp-.

A: Have some avocation.

A: Will you acquiesce or be startled?




Q: Explain the difference among the


below words - below, under,
beneath, underneath, bottom and
down.

d-- Rx L.

C uu u.

j o J-T -\--o.

A: I glittered at the mega event in Chennai.

A: We are a happy couple.

A: Under: The usual way to say that


one thing is at a lower level than
another, especially when it is immediately bellow another. Four bodies
lay under the collapsed wall.

Underneath: Almost the same as 'under' but


used when something is above, and is hiding
or covering something else. 'The book was

When may I see you again, sir?


Sreya: May
Ma'am?

(
a ?)

come

in,

-L

1) May I come in, Ma'am?

Sowbhagya: Do. What is the


matter?
(

Look at the following sentences from the


conversation above:

N?)
Sreya: The sky is cloudy and
it may start raining any moment. The signs
are there may be a down pour. May I leave
a little earlier today, Ma'am? (

s t--o. ~-o- {
a. - J ---o.
Cl x-a-?)

Sowbhagya: You may, but make sure that you


finish the work at least by Monday next.
Where is Murthy? Let him at least stay till
the closing time.

(x. F, a -
-j E Jh L. Jh \?
j *J -E p.)

Sreya: He has gone out on office work,


Ma'am. He may be back in fifteen minutes.
(

E O - x. a.)

Sowbhagya: He may be good at work, but


once he goes out on any work, he takes his
own time to return. (

E ua. F, E O -h v AJT
d .)

Sreya: Ma'am, tomorrow is my wedding


anniversary. I am going to be on leave.
(

Rx-V. -o.)

Sowbhagya: May you have many happy


returns of the day. Wish you all happiness.
Bye. (

F Rx V Sx Sx -E --o. y - -E -o. Rx.)

2) .... it may start raining any moment.


3) You may.
4) He may be good at work, ...
5) May you have many happy returns of the
day.

--J 'May' -- Eo-E -o. p J--Eo-E l:


1) May I come in? - -L a?
\ 'May' - asking for formal
permission. Formal lA v C.
--- j-C--- C x v-Jh
B. j x C-x, Sir/ Madam E C-, -j *a--p a-E p
N formal. x x, friends
informal .
formal permission
j-C
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(Question form ) .
Bhargav: May I have a few minutes of your
time, sir?

( O x---a-)

Bhagavan: You may, but what's it about?

(x--a. F, E J*?)
Bhargav: About the irregular workers, sir.

(E -J-E Jt- J*).


(-E-y).
'May' Question form - A
E -x formal -AEyE
.
Bhagavan: Go ahead

Santhan: I'll make the call immediately after


going to my seat, sir.

seat

x-

phone

h)

(?
-a.

Question form
formal
Statement


--
---E,
--
y--E -.
'Can'

Question
form
---E
. N- Statement form
y-E . 'May'
formal sx --T-L.
L---x, J-n, o- A
-E, y-E \- 'Can' L.
%d -E OE
Conversation -TL.
Sreenu: When may I see you again, sir? (Sx
NtLo p -----?)
Prahlad: The day after (tomorrow). You may
give a ring before you come
phone

(x. a-

Below: Used when something is at a much


lower level than another, and not immediately
under it. There is a window below the roof =
There is something between the roof and the
window. The books are under the news paper
= The news paper is just above the books.
Bottom: The lowest portion of something. The
bottom of the glass = At the lowest portion of
the glass. There was a fly at the bottom of the
glass.
Down: To/ at a lower level. He sat down. She
got down from the bus.
Jyothi Bhargavi, Mukundapur
Q: Explain which of the following sentences is
correct.
His fame/ famousness had spread far and
wide.
A: His fame has spread far and wide
(Famousness: No such word in English)
The fan has fallen to the ground/ on the
ground.
A: The fan has fallen on the ground.
Once there was a person by name/ named
Schwamm.
A: Both - By name/ named- are correct.
However, "..... a person Schwamm by
name" is better than, ".... a person by name
Schwamm"
She could use to do her homework.

Sanjai: Why, you may make the call from


here. Use this phone here.
phone
phone

Ny\
--T-.)
N- 'May'

underneath her pillow = The pillow was just


above the book, and was covering or hiding
the book.

).

Kumar: May I know your name, please? Are


you also a candidate
for the interview?

(O
---a?
O interview
un?)

Chandra: Yes, I am. I


am Chandra.

(.
v.)
JEo -- a...

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

A: Wrong. You say either, "she could do home


work" or "she used to do homework", the
meanings are, however, different.
She could do homework = She had the
ability to do homework.
She used to do homework = She did homework regularly.
If you went to a nearby town where you didn't have relatives then what would you do?
A: 'Then' in the sentence is wrong. If you omit
it, the sentence is correct.
Schwamm froze/ was froze.
A: Schwamm froze - correct.
Q:

vy f-x vO-Jh h-y K


C. Translate into English.

A: The government has issued orders confirming those orders.


Sriharsha Tripathi, Kothagudem
Q: Sohrab fought with Rustum/ Sohrab fought
Rustum - Which one is correct?
A: Sohrab fought against Rustum - Correct.
You fight somebody: This is used when you
are fighting for something in a court of law.
Q: They went to the movie along with their children/ with their children - Which one is
Correct
A: Both are correct.
Q: Translate into English.


F . y -J-j C-J--.

A: You have no fear. You can face anybody.




- xp -D-, Jp-.
AJ-.

A: I had taken care of him since he was ten,


and put him in school, but he turned against
me.

A: Don't live in imagination, work hard.

x . d- E.

-- 3 -V-j 2012

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http://apicet.nic.in
http://apeamcet.nic.in

EAMCET - 2012
MOCK
COUNSELLING

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1.
2.
3.
4.
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8.
9.
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11.
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15.
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75.

4
3
4
1
3
3
1
1
2
1
1
1
1
4
1
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3
1
2
2
1
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2
2
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1
3
3
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2
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1
3
3
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1
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4
1
1
3
1
1
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2
2
1
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4
2
3
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1
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4
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1
3
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1
1
2
1
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1
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1
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76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
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1
1
3
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-- j---
1. What is e-commerce?
1) Buying and selling of international goods
2) Buying and selling of products and services over the internet
3) Buying and selling of products having to
do with computers
4) Buying and selling of products and services not found in stores
5) Buying and selling of electronic goods.
2. The term user Interface refers to :
1) What the user sees on the screen and
how they can interact with it
2) How the operating system responds to
the user commands
3) The means by which the user interacts
with the peripheral devices on the
computer
4) All of these
5) None of these
3. Which of the following is not an input device?
1) Keyboard
2) Joystick
3) Monitor
4) Microphone

failure
4) All of these
5) None of these
14. Which of the following
statements is FALSE
concerning file
names?
1) Files
may
share the same name or the same
extension but not both
2) Every file in the same folder must have a
unique name
3) File extension is another name for file
type
4) The file extension comes before the dot
(.) followed by the file name
5) None of these
15. Verification of a login name and password
is known as:
1) authorization
2) accessibility
3) authentication 4) logging in
5) None

3) Output device
4) Solid-state storage device
5) None of these
26. Computer programs are written in a highlevel programming language; however, the
human readable version of a program is
called........
1) cache
2) instruction set
3) source code
4) word size
5) None of these
27. The software tools that enable a user to
interact with a computer for specific
purposes are known as

What is a backup?
5) None of these
4. An error is also known as :
1) Debug
2) Bug
3) Cursor
4) Icon
5) None of these
5. Archive is :
1) Back-up Storage 2) Forward Operation
3) Primary Storage
4) Name of famous processor
5) None of these
6. Which media has the ability to have
data/information written on them by users
more than once
1) CD-R disks
2) CD-RW disks
3) Zip disks
4) Opti disks
5) Both CD-RW and Zip disks
7. BCC in regard to emails, stands for :
1) Best Client Copy
2) Better Communication Copy
3) Best Computer Copy
4) Better Client Copy
5) None of these
8. A(n) .................. contains text as well as
information about the text
1) browser language 2) machine language
3) protocol language 4) markup language
5) annotated language
9. A pictorial representation that uses predefined symbols to describe either the logic of
the computer program or the data flow and
processing steps of a system is referred as :
1) Flow chart
2) Algorithm
3) Program
4) Protocol
5) None of these
10. A ........ is the term used when a search
engine returns a web page that matches
the search criteria
1) Blog
2) Hit
3) Link
4) View
5) None of these
11. URL stands for ........
1) Universal Research List
2) Universal Resource List
3) Uniform Resource Locator
4) Uniform Research Locator
5) None of these
12. The most frequently used instructions of a
computer program are likely to be fetched
from:
1) the hard disk
2) cache memory
3) RAM
4) registers
5) None of these
13. What is a backup?
1) Restoring the information backup
2) An exact copy of a system's information
3) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or

1) Hardware
2) Networked Software
3) Shareware
4) Applications
5) None of these
28. A ......... is a set of rules.
1) resource locator
2) domain
COMPUTER AWARENESS
3) hypertext
4) URL
16. Every computer has a(n) ........; KVN Prashanth Kumar 5) protocol
many also have .........
29. The ......... file format is a method of encod1) Operating System; a client system
ing pictures on a computer.
2) Operating system; instruction sets
1) HTML
2) JPEG
3) FTP
3) Application programs; an operating
4) URL
5) DOC
system
30. The shortcut key for finding a word or a part
4) Application programs; a client system
of the word in MS word is :
5) Operating system; application programs
1) Ctrl + M
2) Ctrl + S
17. Which term identifies a specific computer
3) Alt + M
4) Alt + K
on the web and the main page of the entire
5) Ctrl + F
site
31. Storage that retains its data after the power
1) URL
2) Website Address
is turned off is referred to as
3) Hyperlink
4) Domain name
1) Volatile storage
5) None of these
2) Non-volatile storage
18. The altering of data so that it is not usable
3) Sequential Storage
unless the changes are undone is ......
4) Direct storage
5) None of these
1) Bio metrics
2) Compression
32. HTML stands for:
3) Encryption
4) Ergonomics
1) Hyper Text Mark-Up language
5) None of these
2) High Technology Mobile Language
19. ......... means that the data contained in a
3) Hyper Text Mobile Language
database is accurate and reliable.
4) High Technology Mark-up Language
1) Data redundancy 2) Data Integrity
5) None of these
3) Data Reliability
4) Data consistency
33. Which ports connect special types of
5) None
musical instruments to sound cards ?
20. Device that take a picture of an object and
1) BUS
2) CPU
3) USB
convert it into a computerized image :
4) MIDI
5) MINI
1) Hard drive
2) Scanner
34. Antivirus is an example of which of the
3) Printer
4) Modem 5) Cable
following?
21. Which of the following is not a search
1) An operating system
engine?
2) A business software 3) A security utility
1) Bing
2) Baidu
3) Yahoo
4) An office suite
5) None
4) Safari
5) Ask
35. A computer checks the ......... of user
22. Which of the following window allows
names and passwords for a match before
entering values and formulas in the Excel ?
granting access.
1) Title bar
2) Menu Bar
1) Website
2) Network
3) Formula Bar
4) Standard Tool Bar
5) None of these
3) Backup file
4) Database
23. Which of the following helps to store infor5) None of these
mation in the computer?
36. Restarting a computer that is already on is
1) Disk Drive
2) Keyboard
referred to as:
3) Monitor
4) Printer
1) shutting down
2) cold booting
5) None of these
3) warm booting
4) logging off
5) None of these
24. A computer virus normally attaches itself to
another computer program known as :
KEY: 1-2; 2-1; 3-3; 4-2; 5-1; 6-2; 7-5; 8-4;
1) Target program
2) Host program
9-1; 10-2; 11-3; 12-2; 13-4; 14-4; 15-3;
3) Bluetooth
16-5; 17-1; 18-3; 19-2; 20-2; 21-4; 22-3;
23-1; 24-5; 25-2; 26-3; 27-4; 28-5; 29-2;
4) Front door program
5) Trojan horse
30-5; 31-2; 32-1; 33-4; 34-3; 35-4; 36-3.
25. A DVD is an example of a(n)
1) Hard disk

2) Optical disk

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www.eenadupratibha.net

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http://eenadupratibhainfo.blogspot.in/

5 -V-j 2012

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5 -V-j 2012

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--v- 6 -V-j 2012

-- j---
ing statements.

Language Elements
1. Choose the flawed structure in the

following.
a) An obvious irritated voice answered the
telephone.
b) Trespass into this property is not allowed.
c) It was in 1947 when India got its
independence.
d) I went to market for buying apples.
2. COMMANDO

The plural form of the above noun is ...


a) commandos
b) commandoes
c) commanders
d) commandeer
3. The candidate elected by the voters
promised to put a chicken in every pot.

Name the kind of phrase found in the


underlined part.
a) infinitive phrase
b) gerund phrase
c) prepositional phrase d) participial phrase
4. A person living permanently in a certain place

a) The expression 'had better' is used like


a modal auxiliary.
b) 'Should' is used to suggest something.
c) The auxiliary 'dare' is not used in negative and interrogative sentences.
d) Obligations in the past are shown
through the form 'had to'.
16. I __________ (not, tell) ever a lie even in
my childhood.

Fill in the blank with the correct verb form.


a) did not tell
b) never told
c) had not told
d) haven't told
17. The days are short, for it is December.

The above sentence consists of a/an


________.
a) Alternative Conjunction
b) Illative Conjunction
c) Adversative Conjunction
d) Cumulative Conjunction

b) is one of relief
that Macduff did
not kill her.
c) shows that he
did not really
love his wife.
d) expresses
anger at the
doctor for failing
to cure her.
26. The entire poem 'The Road Not Taken'
illustrates _______.
a) simile
b) metaphor
c) personification
d) ballad
27. We passed the school, where children
_________.
Fill in the blank with the missing word of

Because I Could Not Stop for Death.


a) strove

b) recess

c) play

d) pass
28. Where the Mind Is without Fear is one of
the ___________ poems found in Gitanjali

Ambition's debt is paid!


Pick the right one-word substitute.
a) native
b) occupant
c) domicile
d) inhabitant
5. A run-on sentence is _________.
Find the best filler.
a) a collection of sentence fragments.
b) two or more complete sentences written
as though they were one sentence.
c) two main clauses that lack a subject.
d) a coordinating conjunction without a
comma.
6. A spider spins ________ than a caterpillar.

Choose the right degree of the adjective.


a) complexer
b) more complexly
c) most complexly
d) more complex
7. I barely know you, _________?

Add the right question tag.


a) do I?
c) amn't I?
8. We lack resources.

b) don't I?
d) aren't I?

Cull out the proper voice change version.


a) Resources are lacked.
b) Resources are lacked in us.
c) Resources are lacking with us.
d) Voice change is not feasible.
9. He said, '' I'm sorry I am late.''
a) He apologized for being late.
b) He tendered his apology for being late.
c) He said that he was sorry that he was
late.
d) He regrets for being late.
10. After lunch, let's go out for a coffee.

Identify the part of speech.


a) adverb
b) preposition
c) adjective
d) verb
11. The 1960s were ________ time of student
rebellion.

Opt suitable article, if necessary.


b) an

c) the

d) zero article

Choose the best choice.


a) Simple Sentence
b) Compound Sentence
c) Complex Sentence
13. I found her weeping.

b) Priya is an intelligent, creative, helpful


boss.
c) Don't shout!
d) Was it Thoreau who said, ''Simplify, simplify''.
19. Which of the following is most correct in

case of Note Taking?


a) Taking notes is a way to listen actively.
b) Taking notes is a way to write actively.
c) Taking notes is a way to read actively.
d) Taking notes is a way to speak actively.
20. Etiquette experts say you are communicat-

ing yourself in the letters you write. Which


of the following characteristics is not considered mirrored in your letter writing?

Report the sentence.

a) a
12. Run!

written by Viswakavi.
a) 301 b) 130 c) 103
d) 310
29. In which of the following
poems does the imagery - a bird,
a flower, a laugh, a star, a tear, a
ENGLISH (S.A. Content)
string appear?
a)
Bangle
Sellers
18. Which of the following senb)
A
Spring
Morning
Dr.E.
Ram
Bhaskar
Raju
tences is properly punctuated?
c) The Swing d) Palanquin Bearers
a) Those who can, do; those who can't,
30. When was Bob arrested in the story
complain.

a) appearance
b) wealth
c) taste
d) character
21. A Curriculum Vitae should include a personal profile/statement or objective.

What is the right inference?


a) True
b) False
c) Perhaps
d) Insufficient information
22. / /
Choose the best answer as applicable to
the phonetic symbol.
a) shoe
b) should
c) moon
d) puppy
23. If I had money, I spent it.
Settle on the type of the conditional.
a) Past Real Conditional
b) Past Unreal Conditional
c) Present Unreal Conditional
d) Future Unreal Conditional

Literature
d) None

Label the underlined part.


a) Gerund
b) Present Participle
c) Object Complement
d) Participle
14. Hey! What a good idea!

Choose the best alternative.


a) Calling attention.
b) Expressing agreement.
c) Expressing surprise.
d) Expressing pleasure.
15. Point out the untrue among the follow-

24. "When beggars die, there are no comets


seen.
The heavens themselves blaze forth the
deaths of princes."
Which of the characters given below
says these lines?
a) Marcus Brutus
b) Portia
c) Calpurnia
d) Caesar
25. Macbeth's reaction to the news of Lady
Macbeth's death __________
a) reveals his sense of fatalism.

After Twenty Years?


a) in the climax
b) in the falling action
c) in the exposition d) in the rising action
31. What country is the novel's setting in
respect of Animal Farm?
a) Russia
b) England
c) Germany
d) France
32. ''Death is a great price to pay for a red
rose...'' is an extract of the short-story titled

The Nightingale and the Rose.


What does the above sentence signify in
terms of figures of speech?
a) Personification
b) Assonance
c) Alliteration
d) Metaphor
33. ''My thoughts on former pleasures ran;''
Trace the source of the above poetic line.
a) The Road Not Taken
b) The Cloud
c) Anecdote for Fathers
d) The Swing
34. Shelley's The Cloud was published in the
1820 Collection____________.
a) Prometheus Unbound
b) The Revolt of Islam
c) The Triumph of Life
d) The Necessity of Atheism
35. The rhyme scheme of the poem A Spring
Morning is .......
a) ababbcc
b) ababcc
c) abcabca
d) abaabcc
36. The poem _________________ shows the
conflict between carnality and spirituality,
sensuality versus sanctity and the ultimate
victory of values over vanity.

Supply the title of the poem.


a) Daybreak
b) The Nation's Strength
c) The Cloud
d) Upagupta
37. The poet drives home the reflection 'The
reality behind a hypocrite in society' mirrors in the poem ___________.
a) The Nation's Strength b) Mother's Day
c) Where the Mind Is without Fear
d) An Elegy on the Death of a Mad Dog
38. Identify the life span of the poet who
authored the poem 'The Swing'.
a) 1850-1894
b) 1874-1963
c) 1861-1941
d) 1770- 1850
39. ''Ambition's debt is paid.''

Mark out the literary work.


a) Macbeth
b) Julius Caesar
c) Hamlet
d) Tempest
40. Name Sarojini Naidu's last collection of
poems.
a) The Broken Wing
b) The Golden Threshold
c) The Bird of Time
d) The Temple
Key: 1-a; 2-a; 3-d; 4-c; 5-b; 6-b; 7-a; 8-d;
9-a; 10-b; 11-a; 12-a; 13-b; 14-a; 15-c;
16-b; 17-b; 18-d; 19-a; 20-b; 21-c; 22-d;
23-a; 24-c; 25-a; 26-b; 27-a; 28-c; 29-d;
30-b; 31-b; 32-b; 33-c; 34-a; 35-a; 36-d;
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APPSC GROUP - II - 2012


GENERAL STUDIES
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3) 16, 2012
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4) -

PAPER - I

MODEL GRAND TEST


18.

MAX. MARKS: 150


TIME: 2.30 HOURS

h--v- h Hx n u ?
1) 433

2) 423

3) 413

4) 403

19.

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- -E 7 V-j 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP - II - 2012

PAPER - I

GENERAL STUDIES MODEL GRAND TEST


78.

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J-TC? E u-~ ?
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82.

85.

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84.

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83.

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j- vC
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4)1600, 2000

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11-3, 12-2, 13-2, 14-4, 15-1, 16-1, 17-3, 18-4,
19-2, 20-3, 21-4, 22-3, 23-2, 24-1, 25-2,
26-1, 27-3, 28-4, 29-1, 30-1, 31-2, 32-3,
33-1, 34-4, 35-2, 36-3, 37-1, 38-4, 39-3,
40-3, 41-3, 42-1, 43-2, 44-4, 45-4, 46-4,
47-2, 48-2, 49-1, 50-3, 51-3, 52-1, 53-2,
54-2, 55-4, 56-4, 57-4, 58-2, 59-1, 60-3,
61-3, 62-3, 63-4, 64-1, 65-3, 66-2, 67-4,
68-1, 69-3, 70-2, 71-1, 72-1, 73-4, 74-3,
75-1, 76-2, 77-1, 78-2, 79-3, 80-4, 81-3,
82-2, 83-4, 84-3, 85-1, 86-1, 87-4, 88-2,
89-2, 90-3, 91-4, 92-1, 93-1, 94-4, 95-3,
96-2, 97-4, 98-3, 99-2, 100-1, 101-1, 102-2,
103-3, 104-4, 105-2, 106-3, 107-4, 108-1,
109-1, 110-4, 111-3, 112-2, 113-2, 114-4,
115-1, 116-1, 117-3, 118-4, 119-2, 120-3,
121-4, 122-3, 123-2, 124-1, 125-2, 126-1,
127-3, 128-4, 129-1, 130-1, 131-2, 132-3,
133-1, 134-4, 135-2, 136-3, 137-1, 138-4,
139-3, 140-3, 141-3, 142-1, 143-2, 144-4,
145-4, 146-4, 147-2, 148-2, 149-1, 150-3.

EAMCET - 2012

1:4 :?

2) 100

1) 125

2) 6
30

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5, 11, 19, 29, , 55


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143.

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119.

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100.

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--C- 8 -V-j 2012

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C --? --V --- 10:30 II--

--C- 8 -V-j 2012

-- j---

Afreen Sultana, Janagaon


Q: "The meeting is round the
corner" - Explain the meaning in Telugu.
A: Round the corner = Very
near/ very shortly =

_--

/ y-.

I saw a tree which was laden with apples Complex.


I saw a tree and it was laden with apples Compound.
ii) He gave me a pen and a book
A: He gave me a pen in addition to a book Simple

Q: "Man is a social animal" Can we change the above sentence into


complex and compound sentences?

While he gave me a pen, he gave me a book


too - Complex.

A: The sentence (simple) is quite clear.


Changing it into complex and compound
sentences can only cause confusion, and
the meaning will not be clear. This is an
example of studying grammar for the sake
of grammar and not for the improvement of
our speech/ writing.

A: On my meeting him, he gave me a book Simple.

eg: i) Man is an animal that lives in a society (complex)

Whatever Senapathi
may do he can
never rise to the status
of
Ramu
(Present).
ii)

O E -L
(Jail) * o
- B--a,
F Ba = You had sent your man and got me

iii) I met him and he gave me a book

When I met him, he gave me a book Complex.


Senapathi, Bhimavaram.
Q: Explain whether the following translations
are correct or not.
i)

-A n --

come out of the jail. How can I repay you.


A: You sent your man in,/ to jail and got me out
(of it). I don't know how I can repay your
debt/ you.
iii)

=
Since when has been practising as a layer
here.

p * - E h-o

A: Since when has he been practising as a


lawyer?

I don't at all like his buying...


iv)

ii) Man is an animal and he lives in society (compound)


Q: He has given me money as well as his bike/
He has given me money and his bike Which is correct?
A: Both are correct.
Q: Can we change the bellow sentences into
simple, complex and compound? Explain.
i) I saw a tree which was laden with apples.
A: Yes. They can be.

-x--- 694
= This Senapathi cann't
reach this Ramu's level though
whatever he does.

Palace
v d , -
Eo - v ,
E -- t-
= I will never agree his buying
the palace because if he buys it,
then not only he to face problems
but also our daughter who is to
marry him.

M. SURESAN
A: Whatever he might do Senapathi
could never rise to the status of Ramu
A: I don't at all
(Past).

( v)

like his buying

How could I, when you couldn't sir?


Bharat: Could you follow what he said? As for
myself I could not understand him at all.

( pEo O n --L-?
p-O n ---.)
Sundar: How could I, when you could not, sir?

(O n ------p, n
--L----?)
Bharat: All that I was
able to make out was
that he would soon go
abroad and could
meet a number of our
classmates
there.

( p--x
n -LT y N-- x-oE, \
u- --CE ---a-E.)
Sundar: Any way I am happy that he has given
you the book we need. Could you give it to
me after you are done with it?

(-i
--i h a. C. O Jh- y -J
h?)

Bharat: Certainly I will. But then do return it by


the weekend so that we could give it back to
him the next week.

(p-. Eo
y Sx AJT aL,
- Eo a AJT aN.)

Sundar: Could I keep it for the week-end too,


sir? I'm not as fast as you are at reading.

( Eo a?
O y --.)
Bharat: Ok then. But be sure to return it by the
coming Tuesday the latest.

(. a
---Ej Eo y.)
J Eo Could -
...

1) Could is the past form of can - it expresses


the ability somebody had in the past.
Important: The difference between 'Could'
and 'was/ were able to': could statements
means having the ability to do something, but
not stating whether someone actually 'did'
what they were able to.

-n uEo LT v
'Could' = LT -. LU
C 'Could' L---. LU, '
-E "was/ were able to" .

He could do it =

--L-- (

Ajay: Could you


please
step
aside? You are
in my way.

(h
f--p--?

f
o)

Bhanu: Could you


please wait a
moment? I am
trying to go out
too.

1) Could you follow what he said?

Could I keep the book for the weekend? =

--L-

Now look at the following expressions from


the conversation.

3) How could I, when you couldn't sir?


4) He could meet a number of our classmates
there.

Sentences

'Could' is the past form of

can.

- (E, C) h
? (Very polite form of request)
Vinod: Yes, what do you want? (F L?)
Vikram: Excuse me, could I use your phone?
phone

(--- O

Vinod: By all means,

5) Could you give it to me?


6) Could I keep it for the weekend too?

sentence 'could'
uy uJn-E (Very polite
request) --T- , Present (vh
x---o-p)
Ananth: So you know my uncle well. What can
I do for you?

( F u
--o-. - --- F?)

Asray: You know the local MP very well. Could


you put in a word to him about a job in his
company for me?
MP

(O nE

A: Showing or explaining a new product, idea,


a piece of work, to a group of people with the
help of pictures, figures and statistics in the
form of slides. (Computer
slides

h N-Eo, -KE, p- %-E N-J-.)

@, vU q

2) I could not understand him at all.

He was able to do =

T. Siva, Nandikotkur
Q: What are the appropriate Question tags for
following statements.
I am informed of his arrival, ...
A: aren't I ?
I haven't intimated of her departure, ....
A: have I?
Don't stop singing, ....
A: will you?
Soldiers must obey orders, ....
A: mustn't they?
He dares me to fight, ....
A: doesn't he?
There used to be some trees in this field, ....
A: weren't there?
That's the postman, ....
A: isn't it?
Let's go now, ...
A: shall we?
You needn't spend money, ....
A: need you?
Q: Power Point Presentation - Explain .

-. --- -F u J*
p---E.)
A very polite request ( u--y
u-n)

(---
\ ~ .
x v-o- o)
Could -, Present Asking
for permission in a very polite manner.
u- -A -.

L-)

the palace/ site because it is dangerous/ not


safe for him or the girl going to marry him.

--a?)
go ahead (p-,

)
Student: Tomorrow we have a function at
home, sir could I come a little late?

(, x { C.
u a?
Teacher: Of course, but get a letter from your
dad about it.

(, F O o _ * E -C*
h B-.)
These are important uses of 'COULD'.
Practise

OE

..

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

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OU, Hyderabad B .150 E
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-j: www.oucde.ac.in

--- 9 -V-j 2012

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Q.No. A B

Q.No. A B

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
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3
3
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4
4
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4
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1
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4
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1
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3
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4
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1
4
4
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2
1
1
1
2
1
2
4
4
1
4
3
3
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
1
3
2
4
1
?
4
3
4
4
4
3

4
1
2
1
1
1
2
1
2
4
4
1
4
3
3
4
1
2
3
1
2
4
1
3
2
4
1
?
4
3
3
3
1
2
4
4
1
1
2
1
4
1
1
1
4
1
4
1
1
2
3
1
4
1
2
4
3
1
4
4
1
1
2
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1
4
2
4
1
4
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3
3
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1

76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
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83.
84.
85.
86.
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1
4
4
1
3
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1
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1
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1
1
4
2
4
1
4
1
3
3
4
1
2
2
3
4
2
4
1
3
2
3
1
4
1
1
4
1
3
1
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3
3
1
4
1
1
1
1
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4
3
1
3
4
4
1
2
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
1
4

2
2
3
4
2
4
1
3
2
3
1
4
1
1
4
1
3
1
?
3
3
1
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1
1
1
1
4
4
3
1
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1
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2
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1
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1
1
4
4
4
4
3

1
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3
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1
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1
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4
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2
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-j: www.angrau.net

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C: Airmen Selection Centre,
48 Mansfield Road,
Ambala Cantt (Haryana).

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 10 -W- 2012


Sonam Agnihothri, Kazipet
Q. He is unable to sleep/ He is
unable to go to bed - Which
one is correct?
A. Both are correct with different
meanings.
He is unable to go to bed = He
is not able to lie down on bed - Perhaps he has
a lot of work still to do.
He is unable to sleep = He is on bed, but he
is not getting sleep for some reason.
Q. She has decorated the house very
beautifully. Are the above underlined words
"adverbs?"
A. Yes
Q. Don't be here - Is this correct? If it correct
then shouldn't we say "I didn't be at home
yesterday".
A. Correct. 'I didn't be here,' is wrong, because,
in the sentence "Don't be here" the verb is,
Do be = be (Just as, do sit = sit, do go = go,
etc.,) and its past form is 'was' and not did.

-- j---

ment of the earlier principal = After the earlier


principal retired, he became the principal.

gone to temple with


Priya.

V. Krishna Mohan, Vardannapet

K. Nageswara Rao
& M. Anjaneyulu,
Molagavalli, Karnool

Q. Explain whether the following change of


speech correct or not.
His decision surprises me (AV)
I am surprised by/ with/ at his decision (PV)
A. I am surprised at his decision - Correct.
Her rude behaviour vexed me (AV)
I was vexed by her rude behaviour (PV)
A. I was vexed at/ with her rude behaviour.
This book interested me (AV)
I was Interested by this book (PV)
A. I was interested in this book - Correct.
Q. Translate the following into English.

d-- Ch E Nu .

Q. I think so, I believe


so, I afraid so -

n -.
A. I think so

Regular present action)

Whenever he wants to go a little earlier, I let


him go =

--o
I believe so =

t
) = ----E (EC) --o.
I am afraid so (I afraid so

P. Abhishek Raj, Karimnagar


Q. We "may have to", "Would have to"

usage

A. There is nothing we can't achieve with


perserverance.
Contract
Raju

A. We may have to go =

A. When Raju wants to go on a contract Job

Would have to: Past form of 'have/ has to' and

E O
l--o.

J --

.
xLq -a.
x s Lx-Lq

They may have to pay =

-.

M ost B eautiful P lace I have ever seen!


So the correct form of the sentence is: "I
wasn't at home yesterday"
Q. 'Yesterday', 'today', 'tomorrow', 'morning',
'night' - Are all these common nouns? And
also Explain whether the first letters of the
above words should be in capital.
A. Yes, they are all common nouns. They are
not capitalised if the words do not come at
the beginning of a sentence.
Q. The Police arrested him following the incident - Explain the meaning of the above
underlined word with example.
A. Following = Soon after and because of.
He took over as principal, following the retireNirupama: Can you cook? If you can, how
well, and what items? What is your speciality?

(O --?
--? --? O vu-
?)

Champaka: I can. I can manage a day's cooking, as I have been able to, today. My
knowledge of cooking is limited to the daily
meal. My mother can cook a wide range of
dishes and she does
cook them, when the
mood takes her. She
hasn't cooked for some
time now because of
her ill health.

(
--. V J -, V --L-T--N. -Y Jc W
- J-N. t -o-p --,
hC . u d
p .)

Nirupama: Why couldn't you learn more?

(- \ a--- - -?)
Champaka: I haven't felt the need. We have
very few guests. Even if there are we eat
out. What about you? How well can you
cook?

( E---.
a A- \. j
*a, h. O -? O
--?)

Nirupama: Not bad. I find real pleasure in


cooking. My mother, like your mother
could cook very well. I think I take after
her. Even when she was old she was able
to cook.

( h. --
. t, O t
--L-C. L a---

'will have to'.

-x--- 690

He told me I would have to go =


xLq h-E (p) o.
"If I wanted the book, I would have to
wait" he told me =

Q. Explain the meaning in Telugu.

Why couldn't you lear n mor e?


Champaka: I wish to learn making Biryani.
Can you show me how to do it?

(
GuF a---E J.
h -h?)

Nirupama: Why not? Could you visit me


tomorrow? I'll show you the recipe and the
making of Biryani.

( Jp-?
O h? E x, Eo
h)

Champaka: I will. Time I returned home. My


husband will be home in a short while.

(h. --p Rx LqC.


Clx - -h -- --ah-.)

Nirupama: Thank you for your visit. Hope it


wouldn't be your last visit.
thanks.
Look at the following sentences:
1) Can you cook?
2) I can, as I have been able to, today.
3) My mother can cook, and she does cook.
4) How well can you cook?
5) Can you show me how to do it?

(*a
*JJ -E J)

p Functional English 'can' .


1) Can = , j - h = be
able to
Can you cook =

O --?
(O D x-

Kabir: Can you speak Hindi?

--?)
Saibaba: I can, but not so well.

(x---,

It is the most beautiful place I have ever seen


=

C E-- u - i v .
He is the cleverest guy I've ever seen =
p--- u L-j .

h why are you telling him not to go.

,
E

* Lq
'O x --E _-
-. p-N t- E M. SURESAN () E o.
Q. "I let him go" ' -E xO t t pC.
Eh E n ! DE Past
N--Fo t p v BE RxC.
tense -.
A. Your mother has told my mother that
A. I let him go = -sEo d n
because he is too shy to stay at your place
a.
he may say something or the other. Your
i) E x-E-h (C future
mother has told my mother all this and has

. O --L-C.
C .)

pj h x--,
x-E-h.
ii) x-Ea (Past) - He told me he wanted
to go, and I let him go = x--o,
x-Ea C 'let' past tense.
Q. Customarily N?
A. Customarily = Usually = -
Q. "I have never seen" & "I have ever seen"
u -.
A. I have never seen = - p .
I have ever seen - C sentence -
hC, C sentence .

F )
Sunanda: Can you sing?

G. Sambasiva Rao, Sattenapalli


He is the Solomon (the wisest man) of the
age.
A.

l u N.
King Solomon: The Bible p N
V.
My father knew me to be Industrious.
A.

d- ----E/ % ---E
o ().

Could, was able:


Could is the past tense of 'can'
Could = able to do something in the past.
She could sing well =

--L-C.

(O --?)
Supriya: Me, I can not (I can't) (, )
Can --i, n o
"be able to" / "Have the ability to"

a) Indira: In my childhood I could run very fast


=

The baby can walk now = The baby is able to


walk now =

Indira: I was able to run the distance


between school and home in ten minutes.

Gf p -----C.

a) Pranav: I can see him coming, can you?

( - - -- - o, y?)
Sankar: Oh, Yes. I am able to (, ---o)

u J-hL--Eo.

Yamuna: I could too, but never had I need to


run =

J--h--L---o. F,
- p .

(--, u Eo 10 ENx J-hL)


N Can, Could v-N --.

b) Ramana: Don't worry. I can get the


money.

(*A-. - - s -)
(-?
-)
Can , Be able to , ~ t C.
Can , j L n u.
Be able = --LT, .
a) He can sing =
- - . v- h- - o?L
- .
Prakash: Can you? I doubt.

He is able to sing -

-----o.
--o E
n a.
b) They can understand what you say =

y pC x n
- -- . (y p
-- o, x Eo
n ---o?
- )
? C clear L
They are able to understand what you say =

y pC x n ---LT, --o .

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

p-- u 1550 S
p-- u 1550 T N --
(x\) d Kh --h -C.
O 130 d- v-v-- .
|-: 40 \- j vU L.
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L. 18 * 28 x u L.
-j J>-Z- *-J-D: W 26
- j : www.corpbank.com

- d f

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|-: - d- uq, >q, NZ
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L. --d N--E d- 60
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-j J>-Z-- *-J-D: W 30
-d d- -j --h- *-J-D: Vj 9
-j: www.joincoastguard.org

--- 11 -W- 2012

-- j---

A.P. POLICE CONSTABLES MODEL GRAND TEST


-v-o-: 200

-h -\-: 200

1.

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Ey--?
1) -
2) ---v
3) E-\
4)
2. p -J- C %- Et-x A
E* j d C?
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2) -
3) -O
4) \-
3. ---Eo L-* L yv x -?
1) t K
2) t F
3) --Dl
4) ---N
4. x -C-A M x
- Mx h Jh-?
1) s
2) ---N
3) x Dl "Mb
4) t H x
5. x x ju p--E U--J-* K
y ?
1) ---
2) --
3) @--I
4) @--II
6. xi l (178084) C
TC?
1) v
2) X d
3) -
4) D-
7. vG jv ( vA-EC) ?
1) kx
2) dq
3) NL
4) f E
8. vy u CM l-AE v--d?
1) {
2) s
3) L
4) dq
9. J{- *v- v---E C
v-Jh ?
1) s
2) -U
3) -
4) -
10. 1857 A-- N C, J-
\ --*--
1) A Fq ~ t-
2) -- v
3) My t-x A--
4) - y
11. 'vn n () n*?
1) y--v Nu-- 2) -\
3) v-
4) t -
12. R- \ % 'G-c -
x--- --C*?
1) NL q
2) x NL\q
3) q x
4) q vq
13. Kd u-j j v
1) v
2) -x J--y-h--
3) Jz u
4) oE v-tu
14. u J-l Z --x-/ p
uv u--E -y *?
1) - u
2) . v
3) t
4) l
15. Nu-NEo -C-*C
1) D@
2) -.v
3) . v
4) ---- J
16. -- J-v- ---i '
-N-* -q C?
1) 1942

2) 1943

3) 1944

t H x Mx h- vu ~ C n-* u C?
1) -Z vu
2) L u
3) N--- vu
4) \ u
18. vG J uA- 'uh- u-v u
-d-E Eg--* v - (1940)
\ J-TC?
1) - 2) -- 3) j 4)
19. 'j-- d v p n- ?
1) 1936

2) 1937

3) 1938

27. Hill : Mountain :: Stream : ......


1) River

4) 1939

1) Ring

2) 8

3) 6

4) 5

1) 1

3) 9

4) 12

1) 3

2) 6

3) 8

4) 9

2) 95

3) 120

4) 150

3) 8

4) 16

25. 1, 2, 6, 24, ?
1) 60

26. 6 : 18 :: 4 : ....
1) 2

2) 6

4) E

4) Ball
50. 12 18 30

1) bacde
32.

3) LHD

4) LJC

1) 18

2) cdabe

51.

3) dacab

4) decdb

2) GIRXVEP

3) GJRYVEP
1) 39

2) 412

BAT

3) 44

4) 46

J-- 256 you are good, 637 we


are bad, 358 - good and bad and
* C?
1) 2

2) 5

3) 8

4) 3

* 15 .O. h j v-*
-- AJT 10 .O. v. \ *
~ 5 .O. v-* *- p C 10
.O. v--. * C
o?
1) p
2) -
3) h
4) ~
36. y, h, -C* C-
j *v C?
3)

4)

37.

j-E-

1
2

7 4

---j--

---i--

j--- ---i- j-E-- -*- -u --C?


1) 3
38.

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

C v 4 y 1 o
Eo o?
421214211244412212144214212124142124146
1) 2

2) 3

3) 4

4) 5

39. 9

* 54 o ux 9 T---, 3
T---E uEo?
1) 8
2) 6
3) 5
4) O-
40. 31 C Nu-no --A j *
, * - 7 , 11 ux o.
C * J u -
1) 20, 24
2) 24, 20 3) 25, 21 4) 26, 22
41. E NtC V E- RxC.
- v E- -C.
V ?
1) -
2) E-
3) C-
4) --
42. J-- ; + ; ;
+ C- C u?
1) 52 4 + 5 8 2 = 36
2) 43 7 5 + 4 8 = 25
3) 36 4 12 + 5 3 = 420
4) 36 12 6 3 + 4 = 60
43.

-- uh _-o. vA
uh NT-L---J -- h, --
h --- Eo?
1) 12

44.

2) 15

3) 30

4) 36

10

56

90

20

vo- h n u
1) 0
45.

2) 3

3) 5

4) 7

-C --*- 4 -uA-- u -\.


3

5
1
1) 1

4
2) 2

4
5

2
2

3) 3

4) 6

46.

GoiEo Jh-.
1) o
2) L-u--
47. Go-iEo Jh-.

48.

2) 11

3) 15

3)

3) 9

4) 6

2) BCD

3) CDE

4) DEF

3) 79

4) 69

52. 9, 19, 40, ..., 146


1) 72

2) 85

Eq

v-v-- u-C B- o >x


1) x
2)
3) p---J
4) X-
54. 'To-- i E--E v Cl CC?
1) i
2) >q
3) T
4) A-
55. The store house of Best Meteorological coal in India"

E _ EE -h?
J 2) - 3) a 4) -
56. v-v-- \ ( -N Ja )
-v-Eo - v-G-?
1) N--
2) N--o
3) -
4) A-A
57. '-- -E v Cl?
1) ---y -
2) -vt -
3)
4) D-
58. - F--- v-d Cj EJt- ?
1) o
2) -v
3) @ 4) u
59. A-l -N-u vd
1) -
2) -b---
3) --
v
4) P--v
60. \ --\ t--Eo --
Z EJt-?
1) Pa tF
2) N- u u-v-
3) vG Pa---
4) uH
61. Eo - -j C?
1) -j 2) x-- 3) 4) v-
62. vu p-Ah v n o
Z
1) \ 2) 3) -Z 4) h--v-
63. F--- v-d 'F @--f
E G--Jg-h?
1) E--
2) -b---
3) Xj
4) L-*-
64. --- 42 j Jy C?
1) Xj -b---
2) y
3) -G-
4) G.. q
65. Nhg Ku C -o
Z
1) --- -v-
2) u-v-
3) N
4) u
66. D-- N Z u --C?
1) v-v- g-
2) v-v- -Z
3) v-v- N--
4) v-v-
67. - p-Ah v n o
Z
1) g-
2) v-v-
3) -n 4)
68. -- u-% -~ v >x
C?
1) t 2) C-- 3) - 4) N--o
69. "Eco Friendly Port" E Eo -h?
1) x
2)
3) -
4) y
70. --- --NE E -h?
1) uM
2) E- *
3) N- d u 4) jFo
71. EPZ (q-d v-
) C?
1) *
2) x
3) Ux
4) D-
72. x q >x u C?
1) Pa -J %g
2) p -J Pa -J
3) %g
4) v
1)

35.

2)

2) 12

53.

4) GNFJKER

33. Z = 52, ACT = 48

1)

36 18 27

Go-iEo Jh-.
1) ABC

J-- CORNER GSVRIV h


CENTRAL N h?
1) DFOUSBM

34.

16 32 40

2) KTC

31. abc _ d _ bc _ d _ b _ cda

1) 10

2) 7

2) B

3) D

2) QBKJA 3) LPRTU 4) JQDKB

1) KJA

23. 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, ?


24. 66, 36, 18, ?

1) A

30. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ....

X --1937 J u J-TC?
v - 2) v--
3) - --
4)
21.
E vA u
l h -- E- x ~--Eo?
1) 26
2) 11
3) 13
4) O

4) Avalanche

2) Sphere 3) Circle

1) XVRPA

1)

1) 10

x C?

3) Glacier

29. LOGIC : BHFNK :: CLERK : ....

20.

22.

2) Canal

28. Line : Square :: Arc : .....

4) 1945

17.

--: 3 --

4)

4) 16

N - D. J ,
N. D --?
1) -
2) -
3) -x
4) v
49. A, B, C, D, E 5 x - o. B
-j A C. E C C --j- A -j-
C. D B -j C. u o

73. Blood ...... red


1) was
2) are
3) is
4) were
74. Anand ...... Chess for 20 years
1) is playing
2) has been playing
3) have been playing
4) was playing
75. They ...... a new car yesterday
1) buy
2) buys
3) will buy 4) bought
76. One who collects coins1) Philatalist
2) Numismatist
3) Collector
4) Coinist

77. One who knows many languages 1) Versatile


2) Omniscient 3) Linguist 4) Genius
78. I gave you ...... one rupee note.
1) a
2) an
3) the
4) No article
79. They have ..... car
1) an
2) the
3) a
4) No article
80. Raju is good ...... English
1) in
2) at
3) of
4) for
81. Sita is looking ...... the window
1) off
2) down 3) at
4) over
82. If I invite her, she ..... it
1) accept
2) accepted
3) will accept
4) would accept
83. If it had n't rained, they ..... here.
1) come
2) have come
3) had come
4) could have come
84. You are coming, ...... ?
1) aren't you
2) are you
3) don't you
4) do you
85. I am a student, .......?
1) amn't I

2) aren't I

3) don't I

4) do I

(86 & 87): Find out the correctly spelt word.


86. 1) Technic

2) Que

3) Parlament

4) Leopard

87. 1) Literature

2) Baloon

3) Calander

4) assassinetion

(88 & 89): Find out the same meaning word.


88. Confess
1) know

2) reject 3) tell 4) admit

89. Admire
1) Praise

2) Accept

3) Reject

4) Collect

(90 - 92): Pick out the opposite in meaning to the given


word.
90. Bold
1) Weak

2) Silent

3) Timid

4) Active

91. Psudo
1) Extra

2) Bogus

3) Close

4) Genuine

92. Placate
1) Pity

2) Irritate 3) Encourage

4) Appease

G-8 - \ J-TC?
1)
2) vq 3) x
4) -J
94. 2012 -q--E t-N- C
v ?

93. 2012

1) 5

2) 7

3) 9

4) 11

95. 2012 13

-b "MGNREGS" --E -Eo -x


-?
1) . 34000
2) . 33000
4) . 28000
3) . 30000
96. vh v v, - -vA ?
1) .
2) . -
3) G.
4) .
97. - Eo Z x Hx Eo- J-?
1) 4

98.

2) 6

3) 3

4) 5

B -J 7 - a?
1) 44

99.

2) 55

3) 33

4) 66

- Eo Zx j-d- p -E
x- Eg--*C?
1) 4

100.

2) 2

3) 3

4) 5

vh o -{ v-R x C?
1) 11

2) 12

3) 13

4) 10

101.

C-J Go-i--?
1) .-. vt
2) .j.
3) N..
4) --
102. -H- . s- o -o?
1) 20

103.

2) 21

3) 22

4) 23

u- Jh-* o
o?
1) 16

2) 17

3) 18

4) 15

104.

- -- v --_-NE
* - C?
1) u
2) vq
3) -J
4) vG
105. Kd C-- C?
1) v() 2) 3) 4) b
106. - \- o ?
1) 2) M
3) jo 4) -
107. Q - v C?
1) q
2) Eo 3) >x 4) yNt
108.
vh
-C

uvo?
1) 4

2) 5

3) 3

4) 2

--- 11 -W- 2012

-- j---

A.P. POLICE CONSTABLES MODEL GRAND TEST


109.

B---Eo C?
.--..
2) .-..
3) v-R
4) .-..
110. - 100 -q- kh BU
C?
1) \ %
2) M 3) K
4) D
111. 2012 -q--E \ f C h
E C?
1) C Jdd
2) C q
3) C u
4)
112. c f -A ?
1) 2 ~
2) 5 ~
3) 10 ~
4) 2.5 ~
113. 2012 L-q v \ --o?
1) o
2) H> 3) 4) x_
114. 2014 ' v-- Ey-
1) 2) j 3) ~ J 4) -
115. 2011 J-T v v oC?
1) 10

2) 11

3) 12

4) 9

116.

H v u- \ C?
1) j--
2) v
3)
4) uMx
117. 2011 \ oC?
1) 16

118.

2) 14

3) 17

4) 15

x- (v--J-) ?
1) Ca

2) Mg

3) Na 4) K

119.

- \-- C?
J-Jp-
2) EG
3) E- 4)
120. v h-- @N-- ?
1) 120 V
2) 100 V
3) 80 V
4) 140 V
121. vA-n-- --- t C?
1) v-d
2) v- d-
3) Z-
4) q--
122. v
1) - 2) --
3)
4)
123. -- j?
1) q 2) vq
3) j
4) -L
124. -- x P-*- N-N?
1) L x
2) E-
3) j-x-N
4) \-Js x
125. x uC ---E -C-*C?
1) t
2)
3) @g- 4) x
126. u-C s-C @N C?
1) v
2) E
3)
4)
127. u-- C-q
1) v 5
2) 5
4) Vj 15
3) W 5
128. K -
1)

1) 10%

2) 8%

3) 4%

4) 2%

142.

1)
136.

2)

3)

4)

73

---E x V Eo --
ph?
1) 22

2) 24

3) 44

4) 48

l *J V -EC ?
-
2) -
3) --
4) v-
138. %h u-lEo d h E ju
--C?
1)

1) 100%

2) 200%

3) 300%

4) 400%

54

N ?
1) 67,000 2) 70,000
3) 76,500 4) 77,200
140. u 296 Th, 75. u
37 Th ?
1) 1

141.

2) 2

3) 8

117.

3)

4)

\-

4)

99

..-.

6.46 Go- N ?
646

99

2)

143. 100 + 50 2
1) 300

3) 150

1) 16

2) 20

4) 200

3) 30

4) 40

145. 10

u 7. vA u
p h ?

1) 1

640

2) 75

2) 19

3) 82

12

3) 800

4) 1000

h- Nt 20% hC.
F E d Nt ?
1) 40%

151.

2) 500

2) 100%

3) 120%

4) 140%

uJ l 5 d o uh 1
d *- a. C
\- ?
1) 15%

152. 4 3.5 : 2 5
1) 2:1

1
2
2) 16
6 % 3) 16
3%

153. 5 8 15

, ,

1) 18

3) 7:5

4) 7:10

- ?
2) 24

3) 20

154. A : B = 3 : 4; B : C = 8 : 9
1) 1:3

4) 20%

EpAh C?
2) 4:1

2) 3:2

3) 2:3

4) 21
A:C

4) 1:2

155. A

. 21000 d-- u v-G. - y B . 36000 d-


u- . -q y J *a
Eo - --o. B y u- ?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
156. 36 C EE 18 Vx --. 27
C EE Eo--Vx --?
1) 12
157.

2) 18

3) 22

4) 24

uh EE 5 Vx --.
- EE 3 Vx --.
\ Eo Vx --?
1) 6

2) 7

3) 7

%h ju
220 ..O., E
l vEo EJth v ju ?
1) 49 ..O.
3) 140 ..O.
167. 50 5 0.5 N
168.

4) 8

j - u 5,
10; 30 x E-. 3 j -J Jh
u - E-C?
1
1
2) 2 . 3) 3 . 4) 3 .
1) 2 .
2
2
159. uh 600 O. Eo 5 EN-x vh,
(Km/hr) ?
2) 7.2

3) 8.4

4) 10

160. 240

O. -j j T o E-E 24 x
C. j 650 O. -j x--
- -C?
1) 65 .
2) 89 . 3) 100 . 4) 150 .
161. Gu -@ .62, -
.72. OE Ep-Ah L p Nv-Eo
-@ .64.50 p t-a?
1) 3:1

2) 3:2

3) 4:3

4) 5:3

uh t --f h 6 x
d-C. 4 x --E -
C?
1) 12 x 2) 14 x 3) 16 x 4) 18 x
163. D`---v - 20% T_* -p 10%
* h p- D`---v ju
?
1) 12%
164.

2) 80%

3) 88%

4) 110%

-v ju 69% J-T E
--C?
1) 69%

2) 13%

3) 39%

2) 125.0

194.
2) 70
4)

..O.
150 ..O.

4) 30%

- - --o -v -j--u, a --N --o vA


juE --. - vA h ?

195.

3) 12.50

4) 1.250

2) 17%

3) 21%

{ J- y v--q E--C?
1) u j
2) u- uA---C-
3) u n-E \-j
E--a
4) u o E---a
170. v- ?
1) -
2) u-N-E
3)
4) t
171. u u C C C?
1) v-\
2) --
3) -
4) D--
172. - t N?
2) O3

3) O

4) X

173.

B v C?
1) f
2)
3) v
4) -
174. c- f v ?
1) ---
2) --g-N
3) -x
4) .. ---f
175. --- jy C?
1) ~ u
2) u jy
3) ~ u jy
4) h jy
176. '-- E vEo -h?
1)
2) %-pA
3) v
4) -
177. u J- *o?
1) 2) L
3) %g->
4)
178. --- --J b- v---d
q?
1) 1860

2) 1855

3) 1850

4) 1869

x- --- h ---E
--E-h?
1) p
2) Z-A
3) --Z-A
4) v-vA
180. vu Gx v----?
1) u-
2) -
3) --
4) D-
181. h--\ u - y -T- ?
2) 42

3) 44

4) Yellow

2) 333

3) 4444

4) 55555

---j--, x-Vd L-T--, -B--


* -*v C?
1)

2)

3)

197.

4)

1)
198.

4) 45

2)

3)

- .
x u ?

1) 0

2) 30

6:30

3) 15

4)

E.
4) 60

199.

--A-- - -- --V?
1) ---
2) -B-
3) R-
4) N----
200. u \ 20% N 120. u
\ 120% N ?
1) 120

2) 720

3) 600

4) 500

KEY
11; 23; 33; 42; 54; 63; 74; 81; 91; 102;
114; 121; 133; 144; 151; 162; 173; 181;
193; 202; 211; 222; 232; 243; 253; 263;
271; 283; 294; 304; 313; 322; 334; 343;
353; 364; 372; 383; 394; 403; 412; 421;
432; 443; 451; 462; 472; 481; 491; 503;
512; 524; 534; 543; 551; 562; 572; 582;
593; 601; 612; 622; 633; 642; 652; 663;
672; 684; 693; 704; 712; 721; 733; 742;
754; 762; 773; 781; 793; 802; 813; 823;
834; 841; 852; 864; 871; 884; 891; 903;
914; 922; 934; 941; 952; 964; 974; 981;
993;

179.

1) 39

3) Red

4) 25%

169.

1) O2

2) Violet

Go-iC C?
1) 22

196.

u-J h--j - 30%


C- h. 10% T_- v-h
?
1) 13%

Go-iC C?
1) Green

182.

158. A, B, C

1) 3.6

4) 4a

1) 1250

4) 84

u h 22. u 5 x
u 6 x . l u ?
1) 10
2) 12
3) 15
4) \-
147. * 4 x \. J
- u EpAh 7:9. *
?
1) 16 x
2) 18 x 3) 28 x 4) D-
2
148.
7 % N .2800 h
N ?
1) . 9,800
2) . 9,80,000
3) . 10,00,000
4) . 12,00,000
149. NuJn 33% \ h Bh-g---.
- 125 \ *a, 40 \
-j K~ h \ Eo?
1) 300

2) a

3) 2a

146.

150.

166.

64640
640

3)
1000
100

144. 12, 22, 32 42, 52, 62, 72

165. a

4) 11

v u l

2) 117

162.

137.

139. 112

1) 1

1)

129.

T ~?
1)
2) Lx
3) Gs
4)
130. -- E -E?
1) -
2) -
3) -- v
4) N
131. v A- -j q
1) j
2) p- 3) 4) -J-
132. --- A-l v?
1) -
2)
3) %-pA 4) v
133. v-Z u-vA?
1) . F @--f
2) _ -%-g-
3) -J v
4) - @-u
134. v-v-- - C uo
Z?
1) u-v-
2) -n
3) g-
4) Pa
135. *-- -J Jx-* -j
u --E -u ?

1)

... ?

1)

1002;

101-4;

102-3:

103-2;

104-1;

105-2; 106-2; 107-3; 108-3; 109-2; 110-2; 111-1;


112-2; 113-3; 114-3; 115-1; 116-4; 117-4; 118-2; 119-3;
120-1; 121-2; 122-3; 123-4; 124-4; 125-2; 126-3;
127-3; 128-4; 129-3; 130-3; 131-1; 132-3; 133-3;
134-4; 135-1; 136-3; 137-3; 138-3; 139-2; 140-1;
141-2; 142-4; 143-4; 144-2; 145-4; 146-2; 147-4;
148-2; 149-2; 150-4; 151-3; 152-2; 153-2; 154-3;
155-3; 156-4; 157-3; 158-3; 159-2; 160-2; 161-1;
162-4; 163-3; 164-4; 165-3; 166-3; 167-2; 168-2;

Z-A O ?
1) 3 x
2) 4 x 3) 6 x 4) D-
183. -P v- p--- ?
1) u
2) p 3) -J
4) M
184. vA--C- p
Z?
1) u-v-
2) -Z
3) v-v-
4) g-
185. L u-C- C?
1) jv-
2) q-
3) s--j--j q
4) L
186. Mp-@ C- C?
1) -O
2)
3) u 4) --L
187. - --E C?
1) v 2) x 3) vd 4) d
188. l u ?
1) 18 ux
2) 20 ux
3) 22 ux
4) 24 ux

169-2; 170-1; 171-4; 172-2; 173-2; 174-1; 175-1;

189.

--- v o-->- E--Jq


(-) -o-- -v- d vU
vv- v--E --h -C.
x u: 284 ( 60, - 60, N
60, 40, N-- >-F-J 32, -vd --q >-F-J 32)
|: NZ, >q, u--q -bd-
Bhg.
-h: -j * - -a.
*-J-D: W 25
-j: www.jntuk.edu.in

42

06

06

70

06

08

06

1) 80

12
2) 100

3) 150

4) 130

3) 30

4) 38

190. 46 40 35 31, ... 26

, , ,

1) 22
191. 72519

2) 28

9999 = ?

1) 725117481

2) 674217481

3) 685126481

4) 696217481

192. 42.5

O. -j fE 85 .O. -j Eo
*o \- Ah-J--a?
1) 30
2) 40
3) 60
4) D
193. C Eph x C lC?
1) 7:15

2) 15:23

3) 17:25

176-3; 177-4; 178-1; 179-2; 180-2; 181-3; 182-4;


183-2; 184-3; 185-1; 186-2; 187-1; 188-4; 189-3;
190-2; 191-1; 192-4; 193-4; 194-2; 195-3; 196-1;
197-1; 198-3; 199-2; 200-2.

( vo--vEo j--E
~ d J\ E- % -C-*C)

--, -

4) 21:29

-q -v II, IV -G- -u, ---j- -K~-; -v I ---q ---J-- x ---...

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 12 -W- 2012

-- j---

-
--Jo- Y-h 1630 Jo-
L--q EJt-. DEo --T* h
, uEo; d, K-~R L u- -a. v-\, Jo- \ \x; '4 -
.
Jo- v: Jo- L-q 10 Jo-
\ N- '9 v--\ N-- ---. d n Jo- N- u
= (n1) v \ N- u .
Jo- F---: v \ L Jo \ --T* ---L A--\
- F- . Jo- L--q----L -F 0.1 N.-O. 0.01 .O.
F (L.C.) =

-?
: h * v--\ K (MSR)
= 3.2 .O.
--N-ho Jo- N (VCD) = 5
F (L.C.) = 0.01 .O.
h = MSR + (VCD L.C.)
= 3.2 + (5 0.01) = 3.25 .O.
u: Jo- L--q --T* -
- L-*--p v \ K 4.6
.O., --N Jo- N '6 C.
Jo- F--- 0.1 N.O.; u
0.02 .O. l-\ ?
: h --* v \ K
(MSR) = 4.6 .O.
-N Jo- N (VCD) = 6
F (L.C.) = 0.1 N.O. = 0.01 .O.
= 0.02 .O.

d = PSR + (HSR

L.C.) -C.

u: -\ N 200 ,
'5 x AJ-T--p
- 5 N.O. C-x o
v\ F
?
: h * -\
N- (N) = 200
- C-L (x) = 5 -N.-O.
AJ-T x u (n) = 5
x
5
v-- (P) =
= = 1 -N.-O.
n
5
F

P
1
(L.C.) = =
N
200

10

N.v. p L. LRP *a--p HRP


a 10 N.v. p T_-L.
Eo- v --T* 1 N.v.
n vu--PE \--E v
= HRP l vu-P + P v.
\ 'P' C HRP l -Lq vu-P
0.01 (Y X)
P = v.
YZ
\ X = ZRP; Y = HRP; Z = LRP

NN v

-x - ---h ?
1

v \ N (MSD)
h Jo- N- (VSD)

= -C.
N

Jo- L-q u- --

1. u : - u h
- p Jo- \-E u N v - \--E u N- - N- - h- o--x Jo- L-- q u .
2. u : Jo- \- E u-N, v \-E u-N-- --N- -j- Eo -u . p - t C. - -*
\- C. Eo
\-- v--\--E j N --N-ho Jo- N (VCD)E
Jh-L.
--- VCD = 5
= VCD L.C. = 5 0.01 .O.
= + 0.05 .O.
- = 0.05 .O. -C.
Jo- L-q -E-* 1.26
.O. -J-* K = 1.26 0.05
= 1.21 .O. -C.
u : Jo- uN, v-\--E u-N-- --N, E -j Eo -u .
- \-*
\ C.
-: VCD = 6 = 6 0.01
= 0.06 .O.
- = +0.06 .O. -C.
Jo- L-q -E-* 1.26 .O.
-J-* K = 1.26 + 0.06 = 1.32
.O. -C.
h - uEo Eg--: Jo L--q --T* h -
uEo \--E --T v =
v \ K + [ --N-ho Jo-
N F ]
h = (MSR + (VCD L.C.)) -C.
u: Jo- \ '20 Jo- \
N---o. v--\ O 1 .O.
20 ---- N->- . Jo- F-
- \.
: h * 1 v \
1
K (S) =
= 0.05 .O.
20
Jo- N- u (N) = 20
S
0.05
F = = 0.0025 .O.
N
20
u: Jo- L--q Jo- u-N-
v \j 3.2 .O., 3.3 .O. u
C. Jo- \j N --NhC. F 0.01 .O. h
-v--y --u- -v-- --u-

-v---

\---

--- x----:

u , v

u -Eo -T* v y-y--Eo (G) El-J--a. v 3.


1) n-i -o ---h
J-N-Aj ---. Nh-
5 vU N--. N* C %h-
-C. 2) ---h ,
, J- j -j ---.
3) ---h-- -\ _-E -- C.
T l; l/T2 = n-u -C.
-x : ---h '2
x Eo -x . DE
1 O 100 .-O. C.
u: 70 .O. -o u 33.6
x 20 - hC. E - 80
.O. h E h---Eo -\?
: h: l1 = 70 .O.
33.6
T1 = = 1.68 x
20
l2 = 80 .O. T2 = ?
l
v: v-
= n
T2

l1
l2

=
2
2
T1

T2

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80

(1.68)

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70

= 1.8 x
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: h * l1 = 100 .O.,
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v:

l1
l2
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=
=
2
2
T12

T22

l2 = 25 .O.

-q, -j- -
---j- -K~-, ---J--, -G u-

x ---

= 0.005 -N.-O. 0.0005 .-O.


u: v\E -T*
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K 1.5 N.O. -\ K
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Eo, o B uEo, *o- uEo
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uEo 0.01 N.O. 0.001 .O. u: v\ x uEo
-a. DE -\, -\
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\ K 48 C. F 0.01
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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 12 -W- 2012

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Registrar,
*-:
ANGRAU, Administrative Building,
Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500 030

--j-:

www.angrau.net

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 13 -W- 20-12

-- j---

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OAB - vA. (... OAB = 90)
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www.apulvisakha.org

J - x ---
www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 13 -W- 2012

-- j---

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--E- 16 -W- 2012

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A.P. POLICE CONSTABLES MODEL GRAND TEST


-v-o-: 200
1.
2.
3.

4.
5.

6.
7.

8.

9.

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34. ~ ---- E A---Lx * -u
p uv v Ey--*C?
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3) ->E
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3) --- 4) .v
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2) N h---Dl
3) M
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28.

1) 1917

2) 1918

3) 1919

4) 1926

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3) v -
4) D-
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39.

41. Padma is a wise girl, .......?


1) does Padma
2) doesn't she
3) isn't Padma
4) isn't she
42. I like oranges, ........ ?
1) amn't I 2) aren't I 3) don't I
4) doesn't I
43. He is fond ..... sweets.
1) for
2) of
3) off
4) about
44. We were searching ........ jobs at that time.
1) of
2) to
3) for
4) from
45. Killing of one's mother
1) Mariticide
2) Matricide
3) Parricide
4) Infanticide
46. Govt by the Mob
1) Theocracy
2) Anarchy
3) Plutocracy
4) Mobocracy
47. My friend got ....... first rank last year.
1) a
2) an
3) the
4) No article
48. Alok met ..... European at club yesterday.
1) a
2) an
3) the
4) No article
49. Find out the correctly spelt word.
1) Commitee
2) Foregin
3) Pronunciation
4) Vaccume
50. 1) Attendence
2) Calender
3) Grammer
4) Nill
51. 1) Assassination
2) Milionire
3) Ommission
4) Beautifull
Identify the Passive Sentences for the given Active
Sentences.
52. Ramya is writing a novel.
1) A novel is written by Ramya.
2) Ramya wrote a novel.
3) A novel is being written by Ramya.
4) A novel was being written by her.
53. I sing songs regularly.
1) Songs is sung by me regularly.
2) Songs were sung by me.
3) Songs are sang by me regularly.
4) Songs are sung by me regularly.
54. If you ....... hard, you will get good marks.
1) worked
2) work
3) works
4) will work
Choose the same meaning word

55. Abandon
1) shorten 2) forsake
3) continue
4) ban
56. Blame
1) Grace 2) Puzzle
3) Abuse
4) Acquire
57. Defer
1) end
2) chief
3) trick
4) postpone
Choose the opposite meaning word.
58. Fertile
1) rigid
2) barren 3) associate 4) rational
59. concise
1) extended
2) lengthy
3) protracted
4) elongate
60. Affirmation
1) Denial
2) Refusal
3) Opposition
4) Obstruction
61.

77.

..
..

2) 27

3) 24

78.

79.

80.

4) 25
?

62.

81.

1)

2)

63.

3)

4)

6
2

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1) 4
64.

65.

2) 3

3) 2

4) 5

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1) h 2) ~ 3) -
4) D-
J--- REASON = 5, BELIEVED = 7
GOVERNMENT = ?
1) 6

2) 8

3) 9

4) 10

66 - 68:

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1) 1213 V
2) 1012 V
3) 1416 V
4) 310 V
91. -- uC u j?
1) j-j-
2) --j-
3) s-j-
4) jFo
92. Jd- t \- N--j a uC?
1)
2) v
3) -j-
4) q
93. C- -J
1) Cl
2) N
3) 4) \
94. J--
- x j - - - - -?
1) v
2) vd
3) y
4) Z
95. N-N h E- h-- --C?

1) 2
98.
99.

2) B2

3) B3

4) B12

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3) 17

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97.

v N p. y d-p p F . v
36 x 5 q-
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3)

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(36 4) 8 4
=
4 + 8 2 + 16 1
1) 0

2)

...
...

1) Soap 2) Honey 3) Orange


82. mnonopqopqrs .......
1) mnopq 2) oqrst
3) pqrst
83. a - bbc - aab - cca - bbcc
1) bacb
2) acba
3) abba
84. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, .....
1) Y66B 2) Y44B
3) Y88B
85. AZ, CY, FU, -1) IR
2) IV
3) JQ
86.
1) 33
2) 43
3) 53

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n C * 49 n o.
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1) 64
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3) 66
4) D-
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3) - 4) D-
J- - 37 Which class J 583
caste and class caste \ ?
1) 3
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3) 8
4) 5 8
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E, soap E ink E, ink honey E honey E
orange E -h. h E -?

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3) d\
4) MdO-
104. -u- ?
1) O 2) u
3) j 4) q-
1)

--E- 16 -W- 2012

-- j---

A.P. POLICE CONSTABLES MODEL GRAND TEST


( + 462 + 463 +
Ez T-?

105. 461
1) 3
106.

2) 10

C- C

3) 11

4) 13

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37 Th ?
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1) 48

75.

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4) 11

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2) 24

3) 16
4) 12
108.
48 60 72 108 140
38 50 62 98, 130
1) 11115 2) 15110 3) 15120
4) 15210
109.

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1)

5
9

7 8
11 15

11
17

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5 8
9 15

7
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17 11 15 9
110. 213 16 = 3408
1) 0.3408 2) 3.408 3)
1
1

111. 37
2
8
3)

11

11

114.

N?

a+b+c

4)

p
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3) 2

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2) -100

4) 120

2) 4

3) 5

4) 6

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9
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3
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9

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1
1)
289

119.

289
2)
290

290
3)
289

4) 289

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q- v - 5
x. 6 -q- y
ox?

1) 12
2) 14
3) 18
4) 20
120. 2
62 500.
4%
1) 56 700 2) 57 600 3) 58 800
4) 60 000
121. A
B
25 %
B
A
1) 20 % 2) 75 %
3) 80 %
4) 96 %
122.
100
15

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T_ vh d ?
,
,
,
,

\-j
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h- .
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1) 15%
123.

2
11
2) 12 % 3) 17 %
3
17
6

1
4) 17 %
4
20%

uJ - h-- E
--- - Eo h-
tL?

1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
124. A : B = 8 : 15, B : C = 5 : 8, C : D = 4 : 5,
A:D
1) 2:7
2) 4:15
3) 8:15
4) 15:4
125. A
3500
5
B
2:3
B
1)
7500
2)
8000
3)
8500
4)
9000
20
B, A
25%
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B

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d-- u vG.
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3) 16

4) 15

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EE -- .150 a.
A ?
1) .30 2) .60 3) .70
4) .75
128. A, B j u 20, 30
EN-x E-. j -J Jh
- u E-C?
1) 12 E. 2) 15 E. 3) 25 E.
4) 50 E.
129. NuJnE * -- 3

4) 46 %

2) 150

3) 225

4) 250

-v Eo h E ju
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1) C
2) -C
1
3) -C
4) d---C
4
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E ju ?

1) 10 3 cm2
3) 20 cm2
138.

4) 17
16

3) 44%

136.

11 *J

u ?

2) 42 %

--v- C 3 O. E
20 .O. 30 .O. po Eo
x -a?
1) 100

3) 100

1) 9

1) 40 %
135.

4) 7

41 - 21+ 19
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1) 3
115.

3) 500

2) 2

x
x
113. - = 4
5
6
1) -120

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1.6 21.3
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4) 340.8

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2) 400

a
b
c
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4
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1
1)

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?
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130. q \ - h 54 .O.
vhC. C d- x
45 .O. vhC. d -C?
1) 9 E. 2) 10 E. 3) 12 E.
4) 20 E.
131. 110 O. -j j 60 .O.
v-h uA- C 6 .O.
J-o E-E - C?
1) 5 . 2) 6 .
3) 7 .
4) 10 .
1 % x .
132. f-- 10% * 12
2
1250 \ f LxLq h ?
1) .45,000
2) .50,000
3) .60,000
4) .65,000
133. .15000 v
- ,f - - f h x f
u .96. -f -C ?
1) 8 %
2) 10 %
3) 12 %
4) Ey-*-
134. D`---v , p 20 % * E
ju p --C?

2) 10 6 cm2
4) 30 cm2

%h ul 75 % * E d--
--C?

1) 25%
139.

2) 50%

3) 75%

4) 100%
225:256

-v j-u u EpAh
d--- u EpAh ?

1) 225:256

2) 15:16 3) 256:225 4) 16:15

140.

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1) v--vA
2) u---vA
3) Z-A
4) -o
141. v-N \- l C- -J C?
1) x-
2) v-d
3) Z-A
4) v--vA
142. C- --Z--AE N * p C -J C?
1) v-d 2) Z-A 3) x- 4) u-
143. u % D h-uC?
1) 26 -J 1950
2) 26 - 1949
3) 15 d 1947
4) 9 - 1946
144. v-v- * u-- -C u
?
1) 18.

2) 24

3) 26

4) 31

145.

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- Z-A NC--a?
1) C 2) x 3) x
4) -x
146. 2011 \ v ~--u
?
1) 76.04% 2) 74.04% 3) 84.04% 4) 86.04%
147. 2011

\ v Z
-- \- o >x?
1) -f 2) 3) X-
4) K--
148. Ny-- v --- Eox --?
1) 4
149.

2) 6

3) 5

4) 3

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2) -
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2) -Z
3) g-
4)
151. - f v hC?
1) 2)
3) j
4) Ljpq
152. -b-B J J- - v - C?
1) u 2) F 3) h
4) o
153. -t--- Z * u-
Eou?
1) 2) u 3)
4) H
154. 2014 Q-- L- v \ -?
1) u
2) 3) j
4) J
155. 'O CC?
1) 2) jF
3) u 4) pE

156.

--o f
p
*
v h-o?
1) 1955
3) 1956

2) 1954
4) 1957

157.

C GoiC?
1)
2)
3) v-v- 4) -aJ
158. v - %u Z-E CC?
1)
2) 3) u 4) t Qt
159. To5 Z v-T- ?
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3) 4) N--
160. v- \ ---o ?
1) -J 2) j
3) u
4) v>
161. 2011 \ v \
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1)
2) \
3)
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162. ---J "4G" - v-G-*
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1) -
2) uMx
3) j--
4) -
163. 'z N ZE -C-*C?
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2)
3)
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164. vt ?
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2) Ny- ~
3) N Ny- ~ 4) -v
165. ' - E v?
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4) l
166. j p?
1) -
2) -
3) -
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167. d NE- h E @ N?
1)
2)
3) *-
4) <
168. L-- x - -h?
1) E E-----E
2) N --- NvA
3) FE Ey --E
4) - A--E Ox p--E
169. C- C?
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170. A \ s-C C?
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1) v-N \
2) d--l-i \
3) -> \
4) jFo
172. u-- E -P v-
u * y-J-?
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4) -J
173. u J- L - \ J-TC?
1)
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3)
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174. u - L--J \-oC?
1) . G.-.---\
2) -t-D
3) --- v
4) ..
175. --- 14 u- B V?
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2) 10 v 1968
3) 19 Vj 1969
4) 20 v 1970
176. --B- N v---d -q?
1) 1948

2) 1959

3) 1951

4) 1952

177.

-- u-C- n-o Z ?
1) h--v-
2) u-v-
3) -Z
4) N--
178. - Kd B Lp
-C- -J C?
1) x-
2) Z-A
3) Eo-
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179. Ny - ?
1) jv- j q
2) jv j q
3) jv- -j q
4) jv j q
180. C-- -\ n?
1) d 2) T 3) h 4) d
181. J SYSTEM SYSMET h
NEARER E h?
1) NEARER
3) AENRER
182.

183.

2) RERNEA
4) EANRER

Go-iC C?
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1)

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3) 10
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184. 1

185. 1.12.91

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3) 26.12.91
186.

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187.

2) 24.12.91
4) 31.12.91

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3) 75

4) 70

jx p- Lq-C?
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4)

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188. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ........


1) KJA
2) KTC
3) LHD
4) LJC
189. A, CD, GHI, ......., UVWXY
1) LMNO 2) MNO
3) NOPQ
4) MNOP
190. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, --1) K-12 2) L-12
3) M-12
4)
191.
1) Apple 2) Mango 3) Potato 4) Orange
192.
7:5

D-

Go-iC C?

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1) 36
193.

2) 50

3) 60

4) 120

j - 10 O. v-h E
(Km/hr) ?

1) 27.7 Km/hr
3) 60 Km/hr
194. 217 818 193

2) 36 Km/hr
4) 72 Km/hr

h x n u

C?
1) 0
195.

2) 1

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1

1) 180
196.

3) 7
10:25

3) 195
2) 192
2

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1)
197.

1) 7
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3)

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1) 60
200.

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3) 110

4) 50

*-- -J Jxh -j p-
u h 9 ----E -u ?
1)

2)

3)

4)

KEY
1 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 5 4 6 2 7 2 8 3 9 3 10
11 4 12 1 13 4 14 2 15 1 16 3 17 1 18
19 3 20 1 21 4 22 4 23 2 24 3 25 3 26
27 4 28 1 29 2 30 3 31 1 32 3 33 4 34
35 4 36 4 37 4 38 3 39 3 40 3 41 4 42
43 2 44 3 45 2 46 4 47 3 48 1 49 3 50
51 1 52 3 53 4 54 2 55 2 56 3 57 4 58
59 4 60 1 61 1 62 4 63 2 64 2 65 3 66
67 4 68 2 69 3 70 2 71 3 72 1 73 1 74
75 3 76 3 77 3 78 1 79 4 80 4 81 4 82
83 2 84 3 85 4 86 1 87 2 88 1 89 4 90
91 3 92 2 93 2 94 1 95 4 96 3 97 3 98
99 1 100 3 101 3 102 3 103 2 104 1 105
106 1 107 1 108 2 109 4 110 3 111 1 112
113 4 114 4 115 3 116 2 117 4 118 3 119
120 2 121 3 122 3 123 3 124 2 125 4 126
127 2 128 1 129 3 130 2 131 2 132 2 133
134 3 135 3 136 3 137 4 138 3 139 2 140
141 3 142 3 143 2 144 1 145 3 146 2 147
148 3 149 2 150 2; 151 4 152 2 153 3 154
155 1 156 2 157 4 158 4 159 1 160 3 161
162 1 163 1 164 1 165 4 166 3 167 4 168
169 3 170 1 171 2 172 1 173 4 174 4 175
176 2 177 1 178 3 179 4 180 4 181 3 182
183 2 184 2 185 2 186 3 187 4 188 4 189
190 2 191 3 192 2 193 2 194 4 195 4 196
197 3 198 4 199 3 200 3.

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1;
2;
2;
2;
3;
2;
2;
1;
1;
3;
1;
1;
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3;
4;
3;
1;
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1;
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--C 17 -W- 2012

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- J-QL.
1. nho vu Jn x -,
3. v - -J 10 -v-- --My
vA- .
9 * v-T* C-* N-Eo 2. B vO C ,
J* u .
v J* u .
2011 -T vo:
3. nE v-y- C- -- 1. a- , x, vU, M, p
u -B un E-B-
E--- N-uh j h- v
Nx--.
Jn J-nA - nA E p-a. 2011 -T vo
G-%Cl -o Jn u-n d--
G-%Cl C j h- 1. v-y NN vy wj
yu --j ----o.
x J J-n-x d \x, u-T,
NN -- ---- Nx--.
Lx --j v -C.
j----E @--D -b-B NG%Cl C p v--E
v vy, wj -yuj O --? ? Nj O
-G-v--Eo -.
Gv -.
2. vy ho v vy
2. 'p j - N- -- -

- --Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---:

v-> ~--u Z -uN


P~ G- (RMSA) J* N-Jh, ~u,
N, v J-Q-L-.
3. --B- v ~u h v-yuEo xC v vA-Eu v-y
Cn- p ---. NN
nx p-j - u-n E
~u, N- J-*--. * --- N-J-.
u-n - u--j --- --o J---
J--h l L.

Eo
1

. v-v- - ho J-h- - NN
Jn -j v.
2. v-v-- u- -o -,
pL-.
3. v-v- 'F--- un -c
J v-u; %g, -J
.
4. G-%Cl v-d v-v-- --
5. - Nu , p-L-
6. v-v- u- vy N,
un p
7. v-v- L -
8. vv-
- vO v - o @
N- , v -d -j a-Bu-- v
9. v-v- NN vy - -,
u--~- -, J E
10. v-v- SHG , iv-j-q
n
11. - B un v-v-
o J-y-x, N-vD-- x.
12. v-v- u nA-- -uX,
vO u.
13. v-v- --- o -
-Lq j-u
14. vv-- J-v-N-- -L
, J-\ _
15. Jn \-- v-v-- j v,
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---H 13,156 o--x


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( 12,042, q--Ky-- 1,114) d
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: 18 * 30 x u L.
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u---E L.
*-J-D: Vj 16 K~: - 16
-j: www.rrbsecunderabad.nic.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 17 -W- 2012

-- j---

Adisankarachar yulu,
Bhimaaram
Q. While India would make the
Orbiter and Rover, Russia
would contribute the Lander
- Explain the meaning of the
above underlined word as
well as translate into Telugu.
A. Here meaning of 'while' = at the same time
as

(p)
Orbiter and Rover (Satellites x)
h, ( -) u, Lander C*C.

Q. He gave me the pen and the book/ as well


as the book/ the book as well - Which one is
correct?
A. All are correct.
Q. The accused who was sentenced to two
years' imprisonment. - Is it necessary to use
apostrophe here?
A. .... two years' imprisonment - Correct. The

A. Persuade
its merits

(a-p) some one (-J-j) of


(E * J*)
Persuade some one of the merits (x/
*E) of something = E * J-j ap.
Anthati Penchalaiah, Rajampet.
Q. All of the sights of the hill and the plain fly as
thick as driving rain as thick as
Adjective

DE n N-J*, \

-T- L--.
A. Train - , , J
{ - - -h-- (Rush).
As thick as = - .

- correct. (Offer is
not followed by
with, by or to)
Q. She prepared so
delicious
food
that every one
should praise her
- Is this correct.
A. The correct sentence: She prepared such
delicious food that every one praised her (A
single past event of the past -

a--o)

Would praise her: A regular past action = A


regular past event =

a---x.

Sneha Pallavi, Mulugu

A. Ramanaiah, Rajampet

Q. In one of the previous lessons (No. 191) you


have written the following sentence:
"Promod told Vinod that Vinod's college and
home was far off to get any information" Here "to get any piece of information"
should be written. Explain.

Q. i) To err is human, To forgive is divine


ii) I went to forest to live in
iii) She is too young to join the college.
Above underlined words are considered as
phrases - What type of parts of speech are they
belong to?

It will be G ood to S top S moking!


apostrophe is necessary (You may write
also "a two-year imprisonment").
Q. He is appaled at the suggestion - Explain
the meaning of underlined word.
A. Appaled = Very shocked

(Cvs )

Q. "Post-lunch press conference" - Explain


meaning in Telugu.
A.

uo y- vA Nx .
Post (y-) $ Pre ()

Q. "Persuade someone of the merits of" Explain the meaning in Telugu.


Gokul: How much will be the cost of the flat
you're building?

A. A phrase is a group of words without a verb.


e.g.: In the evening, walking down
691
the road, a number of boys etc.
To go, to sing, to walk - these are, to
A. You can say 'information' or 'a
+ base form of the verb/ to+V1/
piece of information, what you
to+1st Doing Word - such word comshould not say is: an information.
M. SURESAN
binations are called infinitives.
Q. Don't show your answers to othInfinitives are not verbs. Since they
ers even if you are offered with/ by/ to a
are groups of words without a verb,
chocolate or biscuits - Which usage is corthey are phrases.
rect?
In to err is human, to forgive is divine - 'To
err' and 'to forgive' are both infinitives. In the
A. ... even if you are offered a chocolate/ biscuit

-x---

Can I use your phone?

(O o -x- \E K ?)
Badri: No idea as yet. It
will take some time
for me before I can
give a rough idea.
We're in the initial
stages of the building
you know.

(
*a -- . -b--
p-E h -i- -C. v o !)

Gokul: Can I see the plan? Can I have your


calculator too, please?

(x- -a. -N- h -O u-Lu-- h?)

Badri: Oh, certainly. Here you are. In the mean


time can I have your card, so I may have
your phone number?

(p-. -C
O -N->- f h, O -- --
----E.)

Gokul: By all means. Here's the card.


According to my calculations the cost of
each flat can be around Rs. 60 Lakh.

(p, C-- f. \ v, -x
\ .60 ~-- a.)

Badri: Yea, that's for the present. It can go up


depending on the availability and changes
in the prices of cement and sand.

(.
C -vh- x v.
, J -N--,
p d a.)

Gokul: Depends on the kind of interiors you


wish to have too, doesn't it?

( O
- -x -- ---E d
C .)

Badri: It does, of course. Can I have an idea


when you can pay the advance for the
booking?

(. O- --E

?) Permission.

yq p Lx-h --?)
Gokul: Not more than a week. Bye then.

( -. h-J.)
Look at the following expressions..
1) It will take some time before I can give a
rough idea
2) Can I see the plan?
3) Can I have your card?
4) .... the cost of each flat can be around
Rs. 60 lakh
5) If can go up
6) Can I have an idea when you can pay the

advance
We have seen some uses of 'can' in the last
lesson:

uh -n uEo --C.
2) It expresses what is possible

C u----C --- -N---Eo --C.


lesson can pastform
could Eo . p can
o J-Eo -- l:
1) Can I see the plan?
'Can' here is used in the question form.
(permission)

vox can -A
--E .

a) Subba Rao: Can I use your phone


(Please)?

(O -a.)
()

Kishore: Please do

b) Deepika: Can I attend the celebrations too?


If so how can I have a ticket?

( --
a?/ ? h \

2) Question form
'can'
ty =

a) Permission b) Request.
p
-o - - possibilij --a n:
The cost of each flat can be Rs.60 lakh.

Darsika: I'm afraid you


can't
(cannot).
They are only for a
small circle of
friends

vA -x- .60 ~ --a


(Possibility - u.)

(y ---

- *o Nv
%-E v.) No permission.
!
Can - permission --Th.
Question form :

a) Rahamatulla: Can't we walk the distance?


We have to wait along time for the bus and
the auto may cost us a lot.
Bus
Auto

(
--?
- L.
\ a a.)

Nazeer: It can be very tiring - walking such a


distance

( -- --x --
---a.)
It can be tiring - - L_a possibil-

3) Can I have your calculator too, please?

(O u-Lu---- J h?)
\, can, question Request (u-n) (permission ) --C.
Can I have your card?
(O visiting card h?)
a) Nataraj: Can you lend me your book for a
few days?

1) It expresses a person's ability

sentence, 'to err is human...', 'To err', and 'to


forgive' are both infinitives used as nouns. In
'To err', and 'to forgive', 'err' and 'forgive' cannot
be separated from 'to', without 'to' they are not
any part of speech. Same is the case with 'to
live', and 'to join'.
Q. In intermediate Jr. English Text book "a fly
and A spider" is a poem by Don Marquie. It
has not been punctuated, reason is not
known. As an English teacher, If any student
rise this doubt? How do I answer?
A. A poet has the freedom to write in any way
they like, if they can convey proper meaning.
They write in such special ways for producing the effect they want.
Q. Toward, towards differentiate them with contextual usage.
A. Towards (British) = Toward (American)
Q. Suggestion, advice - Give some examples.
A. Suggestion is just giving a hint, and not so
strong as advice.
(Advice =
Suggestion =
a) "Stop smoking. It is bad for health" - Advice
b) "Try to stop smoking."
Suggestion
"It will be good to stop smoking."
Q. Is it right to mark with "?" at the end of polite
suggestion?
e.g.: Shall we go temple?
A. At the end of a suggestion, there should be
a question mark.
Shall we go the temple? - Correct

(can, question O h Cl--V- h? u-n Request.)


Niranjan:Oh, by all means . But can you

ity.
b) Kamalakanth: Suppose we discuss the
matter with Sreedhar

( N X-

Jah.)
Tanmai: Don't breathe a word about it to him.
That can be dangerous.

( N
-- - -l.
v --y--a. (Possibility)
O can o
- - . J-Eo aJ.

return it the day after tomorrow?

(E-u--. F O Eo x AJT-y--? 'can' in question - for a request)


b) Mahima: Can't you help me finish my
record? (Record
'can't' (can not) in the question
form for request)

Jh - --

Sahithi: Oh sure, if only you can help me do


this sum.

(p-. F \
N h.)
Can o -- x p---
--N: 1) ability (n u '- n)

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

E- u 1636 S
E- u 1636 T
N -- / x\ d Kh -h -C. O v-v-- 112
d --.
|: j vU. 20 * 28 u.
: H-- -xu- F 173
\ C-*--J yu Ey--h.
-j J>-Z-: W 19 --* Vj 3
-j: www.unionbankofindia.co.in

--- 18 -W- 2012

- --M -Ed--q 2012 '


--C- -Ey-*- - --M Ed- -K~- E- --C* '- E -Ch-o. un
-- -D-Eo -T---a. -vy N - --v- --A-
-J----L.

A -K
1-B; 2-A; 3-A; 4-D; 5-C; 6-D; 7-A; 8-B; 9-D; 10-A;
11-C; 12-A; 13-B; 14-C; 15-D; 16-A; 17-; 18-B; 19-C;
20-C; 21-A; 22-C; 23-C; 24-D; 25-B; 26-D; 27-B;
28-C; 29-D; 30-B; 31-B; 32-C; 33-D; 34-A; 35-B; 36-C;
37-D; 38-A; 39-C; 40-B; 41-B; 42-A; 43-D; 44-C; 45-D;
46-A; 47-A; 48-B; 49-C; 50-B; 51-D; 52-A; 53-C; 54-C;
55-B; 56-D; 57-A; 58-A; 59-C; 60-B; 61-D; 62-C; 63-B;
64-A; 65-D; 66-A; 67-C; 68-B; 69-D; 70-D; 71-A; 72-C;
73-B; 74-B; 75-D; 76-B; 77-D; 78-C; 79-B; 80-A; 81-D;
82-C; 83-A; 84-B; 85-D; 86-C; 87-B; 88-A; 89-D; 90-B;
91-A; 92-C; 93-D; 94-C; 95-C; 96-A; 97-D; 98-C; 99-D;
100-A; 101-C; 102-D; 103-B; 104-A; 105-C; 106-D;
107-B; 108-C; 109-D; 110-B; 111-B; 112-D; 113-C;
114-D; 115-B; 116-C; 117-A; 118-D; 119-B; 120-C;
121-D; 122-A; 123-B; 124-C; 125-A; 126-D; 127-C;
128-D; 129-B; 130-A; 131-A; 132-B; 133-B; 134-A;
135-B; 136-D; 137-A; 138-D; 139-B; 140-C; 141-B;
142-A; 143-C; 144-B; 145-C; 146-D; 147-A; 148-D;
149-A; 150-B; 151-D; 152-A; 153-B; 154-C; 155-D;
156-A; 157-C; 158-D; 159-B; 160-A; 161-C; 162-C;
163-D; 164-A; 165-B; 166-B; 167-A; 168-D; 169-A;
170-B; 171-D; 172-B; 173-C; 174-D; 175-C; 176-A;
177-B; 178-A; 179-D; 180-B; 181-B; 182-A; 183-D;
184-A; 185-C; 186-D; 187-A; 188-B; 189-C; 190-A;
191-D; 192-A; 193-A; 194-C; 195-D; 196-A; 197-C;
198-B; 199-D; 200-B.

B -K
1-A; 2-B; 3-B; 4-A; 5-B; 6-D; 7-A; 8-D; 9-B; 10-C; 11-B;
12-A; 13-C; 14-B; 15-C; 16-D; 17-A; 18-D; 19-A; 20-B;
21-D; 22-A; 23-B; 24-C; 25-D; 26-A; 27-C; 28-D;
29-B; 30-A; 31-C; 32-C; 33-D; 34-A; 35-B; 36-B; 37-A;
38-D; 39-A; 40-B; 41-B; 42-D; 43-A; 44-C; 45-C; 46-B;
47-D; 48-A; 49-A; 50-C; 51-B; 52-D; 53-C; 54-B; 55-A;
56-D; 57-A; 58-C; 59-B; 60-D; 61-D; 62-A; 63-C;
64-B; 65-B; 66-A; 67-C; 68-C; 69-D; 70-B; 71-D; 72-B;
73-C; 74-D; 75-B; 76-B; 77-C; 78-D; 79-A; 80-B; 81-C;
82-D; 83-A; 84-C; 85-B; 86-B; 87-A; 88-D; 89-C; 90-D;
91-A; 92-A; 93-B; 94-C; 95-A; 96-C; 97-D; 98-B; 99-A;
100-C; 101-D; 102-B; 103-C; 104-D; 105-B; 106-B;
107-D; 108-C; 109-D; 110-B; 111-C; 112-A; 113-D;
114-B; 115-C; 116-D; 117-A; 118-B; 119-C; 120-A;
121-D; 122-C; 123-D; 124-B; 125-A; 126-B; 127-A;
128-A; 129-D; 130-C; 131-D; 132-A; 133-B; 134-D;
135-A; 136-C; 137-A; 138-B; 139-C; 140-D; 141-A;
142-; 143-B; 144-C; 145-C; 146-D; 147-B; 148-C;
149-D; 150-C; 151-A; 152-B; 153-A; 154-D; 155-B;
156-B; 157-A; 158-D; 159-A; 160-C; 161-D; 162-A;
163-B; 164-C; 165-A; 166-D; 167-A; 168-A; 169-C;
170-D; 171-A; 172-C; 173-B; 174-D; 175-B; 176-D;
177-B; 178-D; 179-C; 180-B; 181-A; 182-D; 183-C;
184-A; 185-B; 186-D; 187-C; 188-B; 189-A; 190-D;
191-B; 192-A; 193-C; 194-D; 195-C; 196-C; 197-A;
198-D; 199-C; 200-D.

C -K
1-A; 2-C; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B; 6-D; 7-B; 8-C; 9-D; 10-B;
11-B; 12-C; 13-D; 14-A; 15-B; 16-C; 17-D; 18-A; 19-C;
20-B; 21-B; 22-A; 23-D; 24-C; 25-D; 26-A; 27-A; 28-B;
29-C; 30-A; 31-B; 32-B; 33-A; 34-B; 35-D; 36-A; 37-D;
38-B; 39-C; 40-B; 41-A; 42-C; 43-B; 44-C; 45-D; 46-A;
47-D; 48-A; 49-B; 50-D; 51-A; 52-B; 53-C; 54-D; 55-A;
56-C; 57-D; 58-B; 59-A; 60-C; 61-C; 62-D; 63-A; 64B; 65-B; 66-A; 67-D; 68-A; 69-B; 70-A; 71-C; 72-D; 73B; 74-A; 75-C; 76-D; 77-B; 78-C; 79-D; 80-B; 81-B; 82D; 83-C; 84-D; 85-B; 86-C; 87-A; 88-D; 89-B; 90-C; 91D; 92-A; 93-B; 94-C; 95-A; 96-D; 97-C; 98-D; 99-B;
100-A; 101-B; 102-A; 103-A; 104-D; 105-C; 106-D;
107-A; 108-B; 109-D; 110-A; 111-C; 112-A; 113-B; 114C; 115-D; 116-A; 117-; 118-B; 119-C; 120-C; 121-B;
122-D; 123-A; 124-C; 125-C; 126-B; 127-D; 128-A;
129-A; 130-C; 131-B; 132-D; 133-C; 134-B; 135-A;
136-D; 137-A; 138-C; 139-B; 140-D; 141-D; 142-A;
143-C; 144-B; 145-B; 146-D; 147-B; 148-D; 149-C;
150-B; 151-A; 152-D; 153-C; 154-A; 155-B; 156-D;
157-C; 158-B; 159-A; 160-D; 161-B; 162-A; 163-C;
164-D; 165-C; 166-C; 167-A; 168-D; 169-C; 170-D;
171-A; 172-A; 173-C; 174-D; 175-A; 176-C; 177-B;
178-D; 179-B; 180-D; 181-B; 182-C; 183-D; 184-C;
185-A; 186-B; 187-A; 188-D; 189-B; 190-B; 191-A;
192-D; 193-A; 194-C; 195-D; 196-A; 197-B; 198-C;
199-A; 200-D.

j- -{- --. --- 26.

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D -K
1-A; 2-C; 3-D; 4-B; 5-A; 6-C; 7-D; 8-B; 9-C; 10-D; 11-A;
12-B; 13-D; 14-C; 15-D; 16-B; 17-C; 18-A; 19-D; 20-B;
21-C; 22-D; 23-A; 24-B; 25-C; 26-A; 27-D; 28-C; 29-D;
30-B; 31-A; 32-B; 33-D; 34-A; 35-C; 36-C; 37-B; 38-D;
39-A; 40-A; 41-C; 42-B; 43-D; 44-C; 45-B; 46-A; 47-D;
48-A; 49-C; 50-B; 51-D; 52-D; 53-A; 54-C; 55-B; 56-B;
57-A; 58-B; 59-B; 60-A; 61-B; 62-D; 63-A; 64-D; 65-B;
66-C; 67-B; 68-A; 69-C; 70-B; 71-C; 72-D; 73-A; 74-D;
75-A; 76-B; 77-D; 78-A; 79-B; 80-C; 81-D; 82-A; 83-C;
84-D; 85-B; 86-A; 87-C; 88-C; 89-D; 90-A; 91-B; 92-B;
93-A; 94-D; 95-A; 96-B; 97-D; 98-B; 99-C; 100-D; 101-C;
102-A; 103-B; 104-A; 105-D; 106-B; 107-B; 108-A;
109-D; 110-A; 111-C; 112-D; 113-A; 114-B; 115-C; 116-A;
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131-B; 132-A; 133-D; 134-C; 135-A; 136-B; 137-D;
138-C; 139-B; 140-A; 141-D; 142-B; 143-A; 144-C;
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152-B; 153-A; 154-A; 155-D; 156-C; 157-D; 158-A;
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166-D; 167-A; 168-; 169-B; 170-C; 171-C; 172-A;
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187-C; 188-D; 189-A; 190-C; 191-B; 192-B; 193-A;
194-D; 195-C; 196-D; 197-A; 198-A; 199-B; 200-C.

E -K
1-D; 2-B; 3-C; 4-D; 5-C; 6-A; 7-B; 8-A; 9-D; 10-B; 11-B;
12-A; 13-D; 14-A; 15-C; 16-D; 17-A; 18-B; 19-C; 20-A;
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75-D; 76-A; 77-D; 78-A; 79-B; 80-D; 81-A; 82-B; 83-C;
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102-D; 103-C; 104-B; 105-A; 106-D; 107-C; 108-A;
109-B; 110-D; 111-C; 112-B; 113-A; 114-D; 115-B; 116-A;
117-C; 118-D; 119-C; 120-C; 121-A; 122-D; 123-C;
124-D; 125-B; 126-D; 127-A; 128-C; 129-C; 130-B;
131-D; 132-A; 133-A; 134-C; 135-B; 136-D; 137-C;
138-B; 139-A; 140-D; 141-A; 142-C; 143-B; 144-D;
145-D; 146-A; 147-C; 148-B; 149-B; 150-A; 151-C;
152-D; 153-B; 154-A; 155-C; 156-D; 157-B; 158-C;
159-D; 160-A; 161-B; 162-D; 163-C; 164-D; 165-B;
166-C; 167-A; 168-D; 169-B; 170-C; 171-D; 172-A;
173-B; 174-C; 175-A; 176-D; 177-C; 178-D; 179-B;
180-A; 181-B; 182-A; 183-A; 184-D; 185-C; 186-D;
187-A; 188-B; 189-D; 190-A; 191-C; 192-A; 193-B;
194-C; 195-D; 196-A; 197-; 198-B; 199-C; 200-C.

F -K
1-A; 2-C; 3-B; 4-D; 5-D; 6-A; 7-C; 8-B; 9-B; 10-B; 11-D;
12-A; 13-C; 14-C; 15-B; 16-D; 17-A; 18-A; 19-C; 20-B;
21-D; 22-C; 23-B; 24-A; 25-D; 26-A; 27-B; 28-B; 29-A;
30-B; 31-D; 32-A; 33-D; 34-B; 35-C; 36-B; 37-A; 38-C;
39-B; 40-C; 41-D; 42-A; 43-D; 44-A; 45-B; 46-D; 47-A;
48-B; 49-C; 50-D; 51-A; 52-C; 53-D; 54-B; 55-A; 56-C;
57-C; 58-D; 59-A; 60-B; 61-B; 62-A; 63-D; 64-A; 65-B;
66-B; 67-A; 68-A; 69-D; 70-C; 71-D; 72-A; 73-B; 74-D;
75-A; 76-C; 77-A; 78-B; 79-C; 80-D; 81-A; 82-; 83-B;
84-C; 85-C; 86-A; 87-C; 88-D; 89-B; 90-A; 91-C; 92-D;
93-B; 94-C; 95-D; 96-B; 97-B; 98-D; 99-C; 100-D; 101-B;
102-C; 103-A; 104-D; 105-B; 106-C; 107-D; 108-A;
109-B; 110-C; 111-A; 112-D; 113-C; 114-D; 115-B; 116-A;
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152-A; 153-D; 154-C; 155-A; 156-B; 157-D; 158-C;
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166-C; 167-C; 168-A; 169-D; 170-C; 171-D; 172-B;
173-B; 174-A; 175-D; 176-C; 177-D; 178-A; 179-A;
180-B; 181-C; 182-A; 183-C; 184-C; 185-D; 186-B;
187-D; 188-B; 189-C; 190-D; 191-B; 192-B; 193-C;
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1; 2; 3; 4; 5G; 6;

www.eenadupratibha.net

--E- 2 -W- 2012

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POLICE CONSTABLES

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-- 20 -W- 2012

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- 21 -W- 2012

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ARTICLES
The words 'a'/ 'an'/ and 'the' are called
Articles. 'A' or 'An' is called the Indefinite Article.
'The' is called the Definite Article. These belong
to the family of 'Determiners' (my, that, those,
your etc.) Determiners come at the beginning of
noun phrases.
ARTICLES

Indefinite Article

Definite Article

'a/ an'
Refers to
something
general
in meaning 'any'

'the'
To indicate a
particular
object or person
It may limit to
denote 'only'

words begin with the vowel sound.


The indefinite article 'a' is used before a word
beginning with a consonant sound.
eg: a boy, a member of Parliament,
a window.
Some words like university, European, uniform, one rupee note takes the indefinite article
'a' before them as they start with consonant
sound even though they are written with vowel
letter initially. (See Table-1 for uses of Indefinite
Article - a/ an.)
DEFINITE ARTICLE
The definite article 'The' is used before a
noun which is specified that is definitely named
or stated irrespective of whether the noun in

This is a way to do it
(a = one of several
ways)
(See Table - 2 for uses
of the Definite Article)
1. This is ......... 5 year
old child (Choose
the right article to fill
in the blank)
1) a
3) the
2. ..... Sun rises in the east
option to fill in the blank)
1) the
3) an

Omission of Articles
2) an
4) No article
(Select the right
2) a
4) No article

I or der ed for a cup of tea!


INDEFINITE ARTICLE

List of Names That Do And Do not Require 'The'

As a general principle the indefinite article is used before a singular


countable noun. The indefinite article
'an' is used before words beginning
with vowel sounds.
eg: an arm, an ink pot, an evening,
question is countable or uncountable
an office, an employee, an
S. Rahamathulla
singular or plural.
orange, an ass, an engineer, an
It may limit the meaning to 'only'
onion, an MP, an RP, an X
eg: This is the way to do it
Some times 'an' is used before words begin(The = The only way)
ning mute 'h'.
eg: an hour, an honest man, an heir
Table - 2
In these words the letter 'h' is silent and

ENGLISH

USES OF DEFINITE ARTICLE

Table -1
USES OF INDEFINITE ARTICLE - A/ AN
Nature/ Type of Use

Examples

To describe people or
to denote nationality,
a position

He is a doctor
She is a beautiful woman
He is an Indian/He is Indian
He is a socialist

In the sense of one

I bought a book.
He came with an umbrella.
I will be here for an hour or
two.

Before a singular
countable noun which
is used to represent
a class

A cow is a useful
animal
(A cow = all cows)
A child needs love
(A child - All children)

To indicate price,
speed etc.

He drove the bus at fifty


kilometres an hour.
He bought the apples at
thirty rupees a dozen.

In exclamations

What a beautiful sight!


How brilliant an idea!

In certain similes
and metaphors

Tom eat like a horse


(Simile)
Love is a rose (Metaphor)

To refer to a single
item (a specific quantity)
of an uncountable
noun

a piece/ sheet of paper


a cup of tea/coffee
a bag of rice
a bottle of water
a loaf of bread
an item of news
a piece of wood
a bar of soap
a piece of advice
a tube of tooth paste
a tin of paint

In phrases with verb + I would like to have


indefinite article + noun a book/ a bath/ a drink/ a
rest/ a ride/ a walk/ a swim
with illnesses

In some phrases

I have got a cold


and a sore throat
I have a bad toothache
I have a headache
(But I have (the) flu/(the)
measles)
to
to
to
to

give an answer
give a warning
make a good guess at
have an opinion

To denote a person or He is not a Shakespeare.


thing having the same
qualities as the person He is a Hitler
or thing having the
name in question.

Nature/ Type of Use

Examples

Before a singular
noun representing a
whole class

The fox is cunning animal


(all foxes are cunning)
The teacher should have a
better place in our society
(All the teachers...)

With Adjectives used


as nouns

With superlatives

With ordinals

In comparative
constructions

The rich and the poor, the


week, the blind, the old
The living and the dead, the
British, the French
She is the cleverest girl in
the class.
He is the most prominent
politician.
The second row
The eighth day
The second chapter (or)
chapter two.
Ordinals in dates/ persons
are spoken with 'the' but
written without 'the'
Spoken
Written
July the fifth - 5th July
- Henry Henry the
Eighth
VIII
He is the cleverer of the
two.
The higher you go, the
cooler it become.
The more, the merrier, the
better

In "of'' phrases after


indefinite pronouns
(most, all, many)

Most/ all/ many/ of the students (in this class) passed


the examination.

When a person is
referred to by a title

The
The
The
The

With the names of


News papers/ Holy
Books/
Express
Trains/ Hotels

The Hindu, The Hindustan


Times, The Washington
Post, The Readers' Digest
(But "Punch" - The Nigerian
News paper)
The Ramayana,
The Rajadhani Express,
The Bhagavadgita,
The Taj Hotel, The Quran,
The Bible

When object or group


of objects is unique or
considered to be
unique/ unique thing

The earth, the sky, the


equator, the sun, the moon,
the stars, the almighty

Before the names of


musical instruments

The Violin
The Guitar
The Sitar

Prime Minister of India


President of America
Secretary of State
Queen of England

Name

without 'the'

Continents
Asia, Australia
and countries India, Russia,
Canada

Delhi, London,
Andhra Pradesh,
Tamilnadu

States,
Provinces,
Cities

Empires
Dynasties,
Names of
Historical
Events

______

All bodies of
water except
Lakes
________

Mountain
Ranges

Mount Everest,
Mount Blank,
Mount
Kilmanjaro
(These names
refer
to
one
mountain)

Deserts,
Forests
Streets
Roads

________
and James Street,
Downing Street,
Safdarjung Road,
Race
Course
Road

Buildings,
Towers

Universities

Names
Parties

The USA
The UK
The
People's
Republic of China,
The Netherlands
The City of Delhi,
The City of London,
The
State
of
Andhra Pradesh,
The Hague
The
Mouryan
dynasty,
The
Roman Empire,
The First World
War,
The
French
Revolution

of

Holidays and
Festivals

The
Atlantic
Ocean, The Dead
Sea, The English
Channel,
The
Suez Canal, The
Ganges,
The
Nile, The Bay of
Bengal, The Gulf
of Mexico
The Himalayas
The Rockies
The Alps
(Ranges)

The Sahara,
The Thar, The
Black Forest

_______

Buckingham
Palace
(Official London
Residence
and Office of the
British Monarch)

The Rashtrapati
Bhavan,
The
White
House,
The Red Fort,
The Tajmahal,
The Eiffel Tower

Oxford

(If an 'of' Phrase


Follows 'the' is
used)
The University of
Oxford,
The University of
Michigan

University,
Harvard
University,
Osmania
University

________

Holi, Diwali,
Christmas,
Ramzan,
New Year,
Good Friday

Examples

Before Uncountable
concrete nouns
In general statements

Milk is good for health


Money is honey
Liberty,

Equality and
Fraternity were the guiding principles of French
Revolution
I play tennis
He is studying history/
grammar

Before Uncountable
abstract nouns (concepts, areas
of study, games etc)

I) Mother and child,

In certain phrases

Man and wife,


day and night
II) By boat/ bike/ rail/ train/
sea/ air/ car
III) On duty/ watch/ strike/
guard/ half-pay

With 'The'

The Great Lakes


Salt Lake, Lake
Geneva (These The Finger Lakes
names denote
only one Lake)

Lakes

Type of use

The Community
Party,
The
Labour Party,
The Democratic
Party
The Christmas
Holiday(s)
The
Pongal
Holiday(s)

I think mother hasn't come

Before Father/
Mother/ Uncle

yet.
Baby is crying

Lead is very heavy (not the

Before the names


of substances if
they are used in
a general sense

lead)
Bread is made from flour
(Not the bread)

Before News
Headlines, Notices,
Telegrams
Instructions

Woman found dead in car.


Beware of dogs.
Wire reply immediately.
Pull door/Push door

Before places of
assembly (Church,
school,
Market,
Chapel,
College,
Hospital,
Court)
When these places
are referred to in
connection with their
primary purpose
Names of the meals
(lunch, dinner, breakfast and supper. Do
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general purpose)

I go to Church (to pray)


I go to school (to study)

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She was late for breakfast

yesterday.
I did not invite him to

dinner.

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The dinner will be held at the Grand Hotel.

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1) A tiger is a ferocious animal
2) The tiger is a ferocious animal
3) Tigers are ferocious animals
4) All are correct
4. ...... Water in the fridge is very cold (Select
the right option)
1) the 2) a
3) an
4) No article
5. Study the following Telegraphic messages.
Find out the correct message
1) The Exam. Postponed. Book a ticket
2) Exam. Postponed. Book ticket
3) An exam. Postponed. Book the ticket
4) All are incorrect messages
6. I ordered for ........ cup of tea.
1) the
2) a
3) an
4) No article
7. Manjula and Sruthi play ...... guitar well
1) the
2) an
3) a
4) No article
8. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) He is studying the history
2) He is studying an history
3) He is studying a history
4) He is studying history
Answers
1-1; 2-1; 3-4; 4-1; 5-2; 6-2; 7-1; 8-4.

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V: Indian Institute of Management, Indore
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*-J-D: Vj 20
-j: www.iimidr.ac.in

y- x

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q q- | L.
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N- a.
*-J-D: Vj 12
-j: www.osmania.ac.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 24 -W- 2012

-- j---

B. Raghu, Hyderabad
Q. "A shooter is a person who
shoots a gun" - Explain the
meaning.
A. A shooter is a person who
shoots a gun 'A shooter is a person who
shoots with a gun' - Right =

C J-.

- a .
Ashok Singhal, Warangal
Q. The Bofors issue rocked "Parliament" - I
have seen this sentence in a newspaper.
Here the definite article "The" is not written
before the word "Parliament". - Explain.
A. The Parliament is correct, but in journalism
(Newspaper language) a/an and the are
sometimes omitted.
Q. This is the answer of the question/ to the

-u-i/ p-j -v v
C-T B -v---- E dC.
P. Abhishek raj, Kothapalli, KMR
Q. There, over there, right there.

O u

N?
A. There = Over there =

\,
*a \.
Q. "For time being" - n N?
Right there =

A. For the time being


= for the present =

vh--E.

For the time being I am not going anywhere


=

vh--E -\- x .
Q. ' US - --- o. E --E C C jC?

I have been to the


US =
US

Rx
a.
Q. vh j- o-E --E I am in HYD
?I am at HYD
? N-J-.
A. I am in Hyderabad - Correct. ('In' is used
before big and important places. 'At' is used
before small places - At Mangalagiri, at
Kesireddypalli etc.) M.K.Rao, Visakhapatnam
Q. Explain the meaning in Telugu.

A.

i) I was in US for 6 months

I like to think I'm broad-minded

N % -E --
d / d---.

ii) I have been to US for 6 months.


A. i) I was in the US for six months =

I can only think/ suppose/ assume (That) it


was a mistake.

I like to think I'm br oad minded!


A. I can only think = I can only suppose = I can only assume that it
was a mistake =

question - Which one is correct?


A. This is the answer to the question - Correct.
Q. I will answer to the/ of the question - Which
one is correct?
A. I will answer the question - Correct.
Q. "Miss. Valarmathi was cordoned off by a
media totally sold on celebrating her rise
from her humble Aryahur origins, to head
me of ISRO'S a flagship satellite launches" Explain the meaning in Telugu.
A.

-t-AE d d O, E- u- * v A -

-x--- 692

C --
(L C ) -o.

Assume = 1) Think

US o.
ii) I have been to the US for six
months - WRONG - No meaning.

2) To believe something.
M. SURESAN

I have been in the US for six months =


US o. ( US
* p-- o.)

I "only think" that she is good.

A.

*- -o.

I 'think' that she is good.

A.

*-E ---o.

Q. Translate into English.




-C Course join --E

Something Could be Seriously Wr ong!


Gopika: I thought I could meet the minister
today, but he was too busy. Inspite of the
appointment he
had given me I
could not make
it.

vAE -----E
o, F -- K BJ
o.

--E
*a, ------.)
Vasanthi: How come? He had given you the
appointment, but did not see you. So,
what are you going to do?

(p-, F --- -nA L.


---, -- --U-J----a.
---.- - --V -vA -p- -o- --x---.)
Gopika: That's very nice of you. By the bye, I
haven't seen Raashi for some time now.
The last I've heard of her was that she
was ill. Something could be seriously
wrong. Or she wouldn't be silent so long.

(C F *-. -F, PE
V-jC. *-J--J
u --E L- C.
a. - --J--
.)
Vasanthi: Shall we call her?

( l?)
Gopika: We'd better ( *C)

(? --, Eo
-. ---o?)
Gopika: I just don't know. The matter is
urgent. Could you suggest any alternative, Vasanthi?

( L- . N u----iC.
j vu-o p--, B?)
Vasanthi: You could ask the Secretary to the
minister, couldn't you? If you want dad
can talk to him. Dad knows him well.

(y vA u-JzE T a !
F --i, o x--. o .)
Gopika: Could you tell your dad to help me in
the matter?

(y O o -E
p--?)
Vasanthi: Oh, certainly. But I have to watch
his moods. If he is out of the mood, he
could refuse. But don't worry. I'll talk to
him to night itself.

 Could you suggest an alternative?


 You could ask the Secretary to the minister, couldn't you?
 Could you tell your dad to help me in the
matter?
 If he is out of the mood, he could refuse.
 Something could be seriously wrong.

Look at the use of 'could' in the expressions above...


1) I thought I could meet the minister
( vAE h-E --o.)
Can --- -o. -C: Present --
Future n uEo -. -/LT
.

\ C
--o.

Course

Join

-E

A. We wish that a good number will join this


course.
Q. The past continuous tense can be used
instead of the simple past for a definite
action when we wish to simply that the
action in question is not common. "I was
talking to the P.M. the other day I was buying some diamonds yesterday" implies that
it if not unusual for the speaker to talk to the
P.M. and to buy diamonds respectively. Definite action
Simple
past tense
use

uEo - --C*,
N- N-J-. \

--
.
A. -- E, *a-i EE LE Past simple Past continuous
-a.
o V, PM x o.
Eo Eo v o N -
-- J-.
PM x-/ v *a-i
(definite actions) !
I spoke to him about it yesterday (spoke - simple past) =
A definite action at a point of time in the
past (yesterday)

E J* Eo - x-

'could'

- l..

could = LT

Could is the past form of 'can'.

(a past ability).
a) He could walk
10 kms an hour
those days.

I was speaking to him about it yesterday (was


speaking - past continuous) =
action continuing at a definite point of time in the past - yesterday when some other action also was going on.

E J*
Eo - x- o.

While he was playing she was studying -

--o-p, --C.
(
Vx

10 .O. ---L--)
b) Krishna: What games did you play at
school?

Sitaramachari, Mangalagiri
Q. "I am not have any other work" - This means
"I don't have any other work" or "I have no
other work" - Clarify.

(\x y ---

A. I am not have any other work - Wrong.

?)

I don't have any other work = I have no


other work - Correct.

Lakshman: I could play many games, but I


liked Football most

( --- -L----E. F, ---


\ d).

Q. "If the students are taking the exams" - Is


this correct?

c) Mahesh: Why couldn't (could not) you


came earlier?

A. Not correct as a sentence, because it is not


complete.

 I thought I could meet the minister today.

P-ho.
A. We hope that many more will join the
course.

If the students are taking the exams =


meaning not complete, so it is not a sentence. It is a clause,
because it is a group of words with a verb.

---?)

Madhu: Because I couldn't (could not) catch


the 8 'O' clock bus.

(8 -
----- x).
L n u 'Could'.
-- "Could not".
E: Could = -LT -, F
, N L-.
He could play Football.

--- ---L--
( N ).
He could sing well = --L--
(- L-)
He was able to sing well = --L--,
--- .
JEo N- a..

K-~ h/ h

Q. If students are taking the exams, then can


we say to them "Write the answers to the
questions which are Known to you"?
A. We can say (It is correct).
Q.

K~ Jh--
v- ~o J-Q-L---
Those who have finished their writing of
exam can scrutinize their answer sheets.
Is this translation correct?

A. ....... (can) check/ go through once again,


their answers, is better than scrutinize their
answers- scrutinize

vC (---

*C).

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

-- 25 -W- 2012

-- j---

v Z, v-v- p
1.

2.

3.

4.

v Z v u-vA ?
1) .>.
2) -J v
3) - --f
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v Z p vy p
j-- N E-C
p *aC?
1) 1953 v-J 7
2) 1953 Ja 12
4) 1953 d- 2
3) 1953 -J 12
v Z L -o ?
1) CyC
2) AK

17.

N-v - j--- p
JTC?
1) 1951

2) 1952

25.

3) 1953 4) 1954

18.

N-v u-Eo v v-u--


G--Jg-*--?
1) --- v 2) B- v
3) --N-
4) x-
19. 1952 - Eo- x -- Kd
C x a?
1) v
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p -- Bt y --
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l
-
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1) 6
3) 10

2) 8
4) 12

26.

v-v- Z
p p-C?
1) 1954 - 1 2) 1956 d- 1
3) 1956 - 1 4) 1956 - 15
27. v-v- -E C?
1) j--
2) o
3) N--
4) N--o
28. v-v- L u-vA ?
1) - --f
2) vt---f
3) - @-u 4) F @--f
29. v-v- L -o ?

v-v- L --u--vA ?
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1) v
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4) - @-u
6. vE v Z -Jy--
Eo E-N-h-ox -- p v-?
1) 1953 - 22 2) 1953 - 14
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7. N-v vEo -?
1) u-- -y--
2) yN
3) a--Lx -u
4) - --f
8. vy Z -Jy-- p
C?
1) M N- 2) N
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9. N-v -- p --?
1) a--Lx -u
2) u-- -y--
3) v
4) @--f
10. N-v - \ p-jC?
1) j--
2)
3) N--
4)
11. N-v - p p-jC?
1) 1949 -
2) 1949 d
3) 1950 -
4) 1950 -
12. N-v - v - \
J-TC?
1) N--
2) o
3) j--
4) -
13. N-v - v - p
J-TC?
5.

1) 1948
14.

2) 1949

3) 1950

4) 1951

vAC
2) CyC
-J
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GROUP - II, Paper -II, Section -I
30. l - p
v- C--J u
---v-- -J-v
JTC?
1) v N--
1) 1961 --
--d -.->---f
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3) v h-v
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22. l - p p J-TC?
31. 'v-o G JC?
1) 1956 -J 14
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1) T_- %gu 2) - --
4) 1956 v-J 26
3) 1956 Ja 18
3) -
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23. l - p \ J-TC?
32. -h G -JC?
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3) --pu 4) v-tu
24. l - p J-TC?
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34. -l- G -JC?
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Jd-- G v L. 19 * 25
x u L. - 157.5 .O.,
152 .O. h L.
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, - u---E d y L.
*-J-D: d 1
-j: www.joinindianarmy.nic.in

j- * uMd

j----E - -d-u tu-- u-- Ja * uMd


d Kh --h -C.
1) v-3 (t-u-- - -,
t-@, t-u--q -L-)
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2) -d v-10 (t-u-- - -

3, t--@ 2, t-u--q -L 2, t-u-q 2, -- NZ 1)


|-: -C N ----
*- -q - L. JNA 45 x.
-h: -j * - -a.
*-J-D: Vj 5
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, M

-M-E - -d-u jq
u- Ja () NN d Kh
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|: j vU. v -- d-
j- EN--E 30 L.
-h: -j * - -a.
*-J-D: Vj 10
-j: www.iiser-admissions.in

- --Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L-- x ---:

2) - Bn
Q--E -y--
4) u-- -y--
35. v G -JC?
1) -u
2) _ -
3) -t
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36. v J G -JC?
1) -J v
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3) -x J--y-h--
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37. --@N G -J a?
1) d X-
2) yN
3) --pu 4) _ -%-g-
38. vn -
1) C
2) -u
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4) -y--
39. v --- n-*--?
1) -t
2) -u
3) yJ st
4) _- -
40. B v Jv v -
1) s- 2) u-- -y--
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41. ' v -- v
- ?
1) N- --f 2) . -u
3) v -y-- 4) l x-f
42. j - u p J-TC?
3)

1) 1969

2) 1972

3) 1973

4) 1974

--
1-2; 2-4; 3-1; 4-3; 5-2; 6-1; 7-3; 8-1; 9-2; 10-3; 11-1;
12-4; 13-3; 14-4; 15-1; 16-2; 17-4; 18-1; 19-4; 20-2;
21-1; 22-2; 23-3; 24-1; 25-2; 26-3; 27-1; 28-4; 29-1;
30-2; 31-1; 32-3; 33-4; 34-3; 35-2; 36-1; 37-1; 38-3;
39-4; 40-3; 41-1; 42-1.

-Z-Eq LN-
-Z-Eq LN- (H-) 70 >-F
d Kh (\-L vA--C-) 30
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u- jq --t- o-@/
t- o-@/ -Z- -Z-Eq/
-Z- >-F-J/ -E-/ --Z/
N >-F-J- H/ H/ / q
(/ ) -C N-x -q
L.
--J-NA: 25 x.
C: BEL High School,
Jalahalli, Bengalore - 560013

-j:

www.bel-india.com

--J-Eo ----x, -N-u --u --


-www.eenadupratibha.net ---a

- -
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II IV

N--v -Jn-E vA
1) v--
2) --
3) -B
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2) 1954 d- d-
3) 1954 v
4) 1954 -J v-J Ja
16. - M N- E-C- p
Jp-*C?
1) 1954 - 27 2) 1955 d- 30
3) 1954 - 14 4) 1955 - 14

1)

1)

www.eenadupratibha.net

-- 25 -W- 2012

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p.
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h g-
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C.

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u.
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u.
l Je N = (n 1).
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27

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72; 82; 94; 104; 114; 123; 134; 141;
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-- N- -
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--: cci.essay@gmail.com
--j-: www.cci.gov.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 26 -W- 2012

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 26 -W- 2012

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www.eenadupratibha.net

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http://www.facebook.com/#!/pratibhainfo

https://twitter.com/#!/eenadupratibha

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--- 27 -W- 2012

-- j---
15

-u
1

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C?
1) (0,1]

2) [0,1)

3) [0,1] 4) (0,1)

2. A, B

N -
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3)

P(A) + P(B)
P(A) + P(B)

'S'

1) 0.39

E j

2) P(A) + P(B)
4) P(A B)

3) 0

4) 1

17

4. A, B
P(A B) =

N -p N-Jb --j

2) P(A) - 2P(A B)

5
1)
24

3
2)
4

4) 0.50

1
3)
4

28

1
4)
8

. Tx ~- * %*- a- ~- Eo
o- C a --E - u
4
2)
26

5
3)
26

2
4)
26

4) P(A). P(B)

29

1
3)
2

1
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* %-*a ~-Eo o- C a ---E -u ?

4
1)
11
19 1

2
2)
11

7
3)
11

100

5
4)
11

1
2)
3

1
3)
2

3
4)
4

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57
2)
64

7
3)
64

5
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8

7
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34

37
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1
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100

uo

1
1)
4

63
1)
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18 "PROBABILITY"

100 u * %-*a-
oo u 4 --E -u

5.

1
2)
3

3
1)
26

1) P(A) + P(B) - P(A B)


3) P(A) + P(B)

3) 0.89

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N -p N-Jb -j-
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3
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8

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2

8C
4
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28

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0
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28

1
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1
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128

5
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128

7
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128

3
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128

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1
1)
4

36

1
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2

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11
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21
7

1
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21

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8
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25

9
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25

6
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25

2
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33

1
3)
33

3
4)
33

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3
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10

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4
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7

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22

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4
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11

2
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11

23

14

24

5
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11
25

2
2)
3

5
3)
6

1
4)
4
1

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2
24
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35
5
35

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11

12
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77

D-

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77

1
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2

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1
2)
2

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5
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77

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256

120
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63
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256

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3
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1
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4

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32

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25

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77

5
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7

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11

2
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11

12 PROBABILITY

5 6

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 3 -W- 2012

-- j---

C.R. Sankaracharyulu, Medak


Q. In one of the previous
lessons (No. 194) you have
written bellow sentences.
Rohit (to Rajat): How shall I
go? (IDS)
Rohit asks Rajat how can I go
(RVPT)

'Shall I ever become rich?' says Rohit to


Rajat.

row? (Reporting verb 'asks' present tense).

Here 'shall' is used for indefinite future and


the reporting verb, 'says' is in the present
tense.

Ramesh asked Naresh


(Reporting
verb
'asked', is in the past
tense) if he should
(permission/ duty) see
him the next day.

So the reported (indirect) speech for the


above is: Rohit asks Rajat if he will become
rich.

Durgala Papaiah Sastry, Maripeda

Rohit asked Rajat how he should go (RVPT)

Suppose the passage in 'direct speech':

Rajat to Rohit: How shall I come then? (IDS)

'Shall I ever become rich?' said Rohit to


Rajat.

Q. 1) The President of India, Pratibha Patil

Here again, 'shall' is used for indefinite


future, but the reporting verb 'said' is in the past
tense. So 'shall' here becomes 'would'.

O Lessions u
j-E p. O definite article 'The'
sentence , sentence . N-J-.
A. J position (N) J* vu- N-J--p, The President of the US, B Obama
= B Obama, President of the US .
The President, Mr. Obama of the US -E

Rajat asks Rohit how will come then (DS)


Rajat asked Rohit how he would come then
(DS)
"How shall I go?" and "How shall I come then"
are requesting sentences. So 'can' and 'should'
are used in first sentence And 'will', 'would' are
used to report them. Explain how the word
'shall' is changed according to the context.
A: We use 'shall' with I/We in the question form

Reported speech (indirect speech) for the


above is:
Rohit asked Rajat if he would ever become
rich?

II. We use 'shall' with I/ We in question for

A. Make express your doubts


Express your doubts

J-.
J--C.

2) Emperor Asoka was a good ruler.

E. Sahitya Grover, Adilabad


Q. All kinds of sweets are also should be
there/ All kinds of sweets should be there. Which sentence is correct?
A. Both the sentences are correct with different
meanings.
1) All kinds of sweets should also be there
= In addition to something else, all kinds of
sweets should be there
=

Express your doubts!


for two purposes:

-,

1) For indefinite future, that is, for future


about which we are not definite.
e.g.: Shall I/ We be able to meet him?;
Shall I/ We be selected?
2) For things we are going to do, for permissions or for requests we use 'shall' with
I/ We in the question form.
e.g.: Shall I go now?;

the US,

-x--- 689
permissions/requests etc., too. In
such cases, 'shall' is changed into
'can', if the reporting verb is in the
present tense.

M. SURESAN

a) Rohit (to Rajat): How shall I go?

When shall we see him?

I. When we change the first type of 'shall'


questions with I/ We into indirect speech,
'shall' becomes 'will' if the reporting verb is in
the present tense.
Deepika: How long are you going to be in
Delhi?

(y Mx Eo--V/ -
?)

Darsika: For about a month. My work there will


take me at least as long as that. I will be
happy if it gets over by then.

(
. \ Eo V E C.
pj h- -)

Deepika: I think I'll be


there for a week
too, from the fifteenth of this
month. Shall we
meet there?
15

Rohit asks Rajat 'how he can go?'


b) Ramesh (to Naresh): Shall I see you
tomorrow? (Permission/ duty)
Ramesh asks Naresh if he can see him tomor-

. \ Rx V--jC. F, -\- N -o.


C)
Look at the following expressions
1) How long are you going to be there?

4) Long since I had been there

Eo V? ? ?
N Conversational English - a
. O - English
: How much time, how distant, long/
short distance. N u-J E-

Darsika: That'd be a real pleasure, wouldn't it?


How are we going to meet, then?

(
--i N, ? - J?)

Deepika: Where exactly are you going to be


during your stay there?

(\ y

\?)
Darsika: In Karol Bagh. That's where my uncle
lives. Where are you going to be?

(--
-. u C \. y \
--o?)
Deepika: Aurobindo Nagar. (G-- -- )
Darsika: How far is it from the place from
where I'm going to stay? Any idea?

(- v--E C ? ?)

Deepika: Quite far, but I am not sure. Long


since I had been there. But we're going
there in summer you know. It's going to be
very bad.

( *a p- F, -

(of

E p--p).

(-- y-x Eo L).

B. Balvanth Roy, Kohil, Khammam

The Prime Minister of India Mr.


Manmohan Singh = Manmohan
Singh, Prime Minister of India = Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh.

Q. I am travelling in the/on the train/ plane/


ship.

Prime Minister Manmohan Singh

Q.

A. I am travelling by train/ by car/ by lorry/ by


plane/ by ship - Correct.

o-

i) Mr. Manmohan Singh


ii) of India

- - EoF d--L.
- Translate into English.

p,
,

A To be able to get on in society, you have to


withstand everything.

The Emperor of India


Emperor Asoka

N-

Q. I have had dinner/ supper - Is this correct.

A. Correct.

Q. Please make express your doubts more


clearly. -

How far are you going?

2) For about a month, for a week


*
\ --. \
---?)

there
= Only sweets but of all kinds should be
there

u j-?

3) How far is it from here?

President Obama

N----- Eo sweets
L. All kinds of sweets should also be

FUNCTIONAL ENGLISH
-. (O n correct --p-).
Eo *-E English \-
long -. \ , -, -
--Eo long -. (*a-
Eo V, , E pLq *a--p
Hours, Days, Months, Years p.)
N- -E Distance 'far'
\.
Look at the following again
Sumanth: For how
long will your
meeting
go
on?

(O -O-
-
C?)

Surendra: Pretty long,


I'm afraid.

(h
\-- E

a) Bhanu: How far is your college from home?

( * O --@ ?)
Balu: It's a long way off.

-) (\ afraid = -)
n '--a-, ' o
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v--E F a-C?)

(
. - C). \ It's
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not (\
n).

Sriman: Around forty thousand

Warangal is not far off from Hyderabad.

(Pretty

( j )
Prem: Pretty Expensive, isn't it?

The city bus takes at least half an hour?

Delhi is a long way off from Hyderabad.


Questions
far

Sx

How far is Delhi from Hyderabad?

(h \ K !)
Sriman: I'm afraid, so.

b) Preethi: Are you going to be there for long?

How far are you going?

(\ - ?)
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stay? (
long =
short
=

\
-
v.)
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\ E--.
C Expression -E-:

j--- --* --Mx - -?)

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(- ox D`- -u-
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As long as you waste time, you suffer = If you
waste time, You Suffer.
c) Bheem: How long do you want me to
wait?
Arjun: For an hour.
Bheem: Sorry. I can't wait that long

(~-N--. --) n 'distance', 'distant'


-. F, Conversational English
far, a long way off \ NE--h.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

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--E 30 -W- 2012

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EAMCET - 2012
MOCK
COUNSELLING

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 30 -W- 2012

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1050
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3 85

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: 85

x N ?

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4

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GROUP
GROUP ----- III Mains
GROUP
Mains Paper
Paper -V
-V
GROUP
GROUP
Mains
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1990 100% --o --p-Ah 1990 2000 u
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10. Ny-N-u-- vu- Nu-n
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2001 2002 25%
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2003 vu- Nu-n u
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= 137.5 + 6.88 = 144.38
j h * 2000 vu- Nu-n
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-j-- -v-- -l-A, d- ---J--; -q d- ---J-- , G- -u, - --j- -K~-; - - -jq x- ---..

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3 -q- -y- d - --
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R = 100 0.114 = 11.4%


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d- FE u-x ---J j yK Al : C , v Zx v--d N-Ph lA. l-A vG vy
\ P~--E-a-.
j- Eo Ph
NL (18281835)
Lx-E p -C. NE y
*, - v o -.
o -- v--
-yK Al : l-AE , Mx h-
d \-- -
-v--x . v--l-
*- a. -' - dLq Ph J* vy
x-N-u v---d.
p --C. -x l-AE '-yK
--t---
lA o.
'B----

--- 2012 (--- d-)

1. u-- d1773 y -o
- C L-uh ?
1) ---M
2) -d-kx
3) dq
4) |
2. - yy vyEo l ?
1) -d-kx
2) dq
3) xx
4) NL
3. vG ju- y-j-u-u-~- u--J* -o -
1) ---M
2) xx
3) dq
4) -d-kx
4. --h --E -o
- ?
1) dq
2) ---M
3) -d-kx
4) |
5. y Ph Eg lAE v---d -o
-
1) ---M
2) -d-kx
3) NL
4) xx
6. ju - l-AE v---d -o ?
1) NL
2) ---M
3) xx
4) dq
7. x Nu v---d -o -
1) NL
2) ---M
3) xx
4) -d-kx
8. B-----Eo E-C-* -o -
?
1) ---M 2) NL
3) xx
4) |
9. --- N Ky-- vd
-o -
1) xx
2) ---M
3) |
4) NL
10. u----x v-y-E
o NPh NC?
1) y 2) jyK 3) -yK 4) Fo
--: 13; 22; 31; 41; 51;
63; 71; 82; 92; 102.
(- --E X vtv
* - N E-)

--Z -v--y --v- -Ey-*- - (--- d- -N-) --K~-


-E-- --C* '- E -Ch-o. -un- -- -D-Eo --T---a. -v--y -N--- - ---- --v- --A- -J----L.
C -K
D -K

A -K

B -K

1)4 2)2 3)3 4)1 5)3 6)4 7)2 8)1 9)1 10)4 11)3
12)2 13)4 14)2 15)2 16)4 17)1 18)3 19)2 20)4
21)2 22)3 23)1 24)3 25)2 26)2 27)3 28)1
29)4 30) 2 31)1 32)1 33)3 34)4 35)2 36)2
37)1 38)3 39)3 40)1 41)2 42)4 43)3 44)2 45)4
46)2 47) 4 48)3 49)2 50)2 51)3 52)4 53)1
54)1 55)4 56)3 57)1 58)4 59)2 60)2 61)1 62)4
63)3 64)2 65)1 66)2 67)1 68)1 69)1 70)3 71)4
72)1 73)3 74)3 75)3 76)1 77)1 78) 79)1 80)2
81)4 82)1 83)3 84)2 85)4 86)2 87)2 88)3 89)3
90)4 91)2 92)4 93)3 94)1 95)4 96)2 97)4 98)2
99)4 100)2 101)4 102)3 103)4 104)2 105)4
106)2 107)1 108)3 109)4 110)2 111)1 112)1
113)4 114)2 115)4 116)3 117)2 118)1 119)3
120)2 121)4 122)3 123)1 124)2 125)4 126)4
127)3 128)2 129)1 130)2 131)4 132)1 133)3
134)1 135)1 136)1 137)4 138)2 139)3 140)2
141)1 142)? 143)4 144)3 145)2 146)1 147)2
148)3 149)3 150)4

1)1 2)3 3)2 4)4 5)2 6)1 7)3 8)4 9)4 10)1 11)2
12)3 13)1 14)3 15)3 16)1 17)4 18)2 19)3 20)1
21)3 22)2 23)4 24)2 25)3 26)3 27)2 28)4
29)1 30) 3 31)4 32)4 33)2 34)1 35)3 36)3
37)4 38)2 39)2 40)4 41)3 42)1 43)2 44)3 45)1
46)3 47) 1 48)2 49)3 50)3 51)2 52)1 53)4
54)4 55)1 56)2 57)4 58)1 59)3 60)3 61)4 62)1
63)2 64)3 65)3 66)3 67)4 68)4 69)4 70)2 71)1
72)4 73)2 74)2 75)2 76)4 77)4 78) 79)4 80)3
81)1 82)4 83)2 84)3 85)1 86)3 87)3 88)2 89)2
90)1 91)3 92)1 93)2 94)4 95)1 96)3 97)1 98)3
99)1 100)3 101)1 102)2 103)1 104)3 105)1
106)3 107)4 108)2 109)1 110)3 111)4 112)4
113)1 114)3 115)1 116)2 117)3 118)4 119)2
120)3 121)1 122)2 123)4 124)3 125)1 126)1
127)2 128)3 129)4 130)3 131)1 132)4 133)2
134)4 135)4 136)4 137)1 138)3 139)2 140)3
141)4 142)? 143)1 144)2 145)3 146)4 147)3
148)2 149)2 150)1

1)4 2)2 3)3 4)1 5)3 6)2 7)2 8)2 9)4 10)1 11)3
12)2 13)2 14)1 15)1 16)4 17)3 18)2 19)4 20)4
21)2 22)3 23)1 24)3 25)4 26)4 27)3 28)2
29)2 30) 2 31)4 32)2 33)2 34)1 35)3 36)3
37)1 38)2 39)4 40)3 41)2 42)1 43)1 44)3 45)4
46)2 47) 2 48)3 49)1 50)4 51)4 52)1 53)3
54)2 55)4 56)1 57)1 58) 59)1 60)2 61)4 62)1
63)3 64)3 65)3 66)1 67)2 68)1 69)1 70)1 71)3
72)2 73)1 74)4 75)3 76)2 77)4 78)3 79)1 80)4
81)1 82)3 83)4 84)1 85)1 86)2 87)1 88)1 89)4
90)2 91)4 92)2 93)1 94)3 95)4 96)2 97)4 98)3
99)4 100)2 101)4 102)4 103)2 104)4 105)2
106)4 107)4 108)2 109)4 110)3 111)1 112)2
113)2 114)3 115)3 116)4 117)4 118)3 119)2
120)1 121)3 122)2 123)1 124)3 125)2 126)2
127)4 128)3 129)1 130)2 131)4 132)4 133)2
134)3 135)3 136)2 137)1 138)? 139)4 140)3
141)1 142)1 143)4 144)2 145)3 146)4 147)1
148)3 149)1 150)2

(- ' -E j-----E CAREER ---d-u- -E-- --C-)

-j-- -v-- -l-A, d- ---J--; -q d- ---J-- , G- -u, - --j- -K~-; - - -jq x- ---:

1)1 2)3 3)2 4)4 5)2 6)3 7)3 8)3 9)1 10)4 11)2
12)3 13)3 14)4 15)4 16)1 17)2 18)3 19)1 20)1
21)3 22)2 23)4 24)2 25)1 26)1 27)2 28)3
29)3 30) 3 31)1 32)3 33)3 34)4 35)2 36)2
37)4 38)3 39)1 40)2 41)3 42)4 43)4 44)2
45)1 46)3 47) 3 48)2 49)4 50)1 51)1 52)4
53)2 54)3 55)1 56)4 57)4 58) 59)4 60)3 61)1
62)4 63)2 64)2 65)2 66)3 67)3 68)4 69)4 70)4
71)2 72)3 73)4 74)1 75)2 76)3 77)1 78)2 79)4
80)1 81)4 82)2 83)1 84)4 85)4 86)3 87)4 88)4
89)1 90)3 91)1 92)3 93)4 94)2 95)1 96)3 97)1
98)2 99)1 100)3 101)1 102)1 103)3 104)1
105)3 106)1 107)1 108)3 109)1 110)2 111)4
112)3 113)3 114)2 115)2 116)1 117)1 118)2
119)3 120)4 121)3 122)2 123)3 124)4 125)2
126)3 127)1 128)2 129)4 130)3 131)1 132)1
133)3 134)2 135)2 136)3 137)4 138)? 139)1
140)2 141)4 142)4 143)1 144)3 145)2 146)1
147)4 148)2 149)4 150)3

j- --- --

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 1 - 2012
MODERN PHYSICS

(-E A--Y)
1. In Millikans oil drop experiment, an oil drop
with a negative charge Q in the absence of
electric field is found to move down with a
terminal velocity v. When an electric field E
is applied, the drop is reduced to absolute
rest. Now the drop acquires additional negative charge q and the drop is found to move
up with a terminal velocity of 3 v. The ratio
Q : q is

NLx- - j G v
- 'Q' - o
j G Nu ~v - p 'v'
- C. 'E' Bv o Nu ~vEo
v
T- -*- - p, G N- C. j
G - 'q' -- Eo C-- p, '3 v'
- -- j L vG- h, Q : q =

-- j---
--j` u 0.

j
- - j ` u o A - - -i - p,
2
A Zx Je 106 m/s. A
j-`uEo
T_h, A Zx Je
5
(m/s) ?
0

1) 2.5 106
3) 4 106

5. Photons of energies 4.25 eV and 4.7 eV are


incident on two metal surfaces A and B
respectively. The maximum KE of emitted
electrons are respectively TA eV and TB =
(TA - 1.5) eV. The ratio de-Broglie wavelengths of photoelectrons from them is
A: B = 1 : 2, then
4.25 eV

1) 1 : 2
2) 2 : 1
3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 3
2. A monochromatic light of intensity 6.4 mW
emitting 8 1015 photon/s falls on a photosensitive metal. If stopping potential is 2 V,
then work function is

8 1015

-x N- ho
Bv o -g A, j
C--p, A Zx -C E{ 2 V , E v ?
6.4 mW

1) 2 eV
2) 3 eV
3) 4 eV 4) 5 eVs
3. A silver ball of radius 3 cm is suspended by
a thread in a vaccum chamber. UV light of
wavelength 310 nm is incident on the ball for
some time during which a total energy of
10-11 J falls on the surface. The potential at
the centre of the ball due to the release of
photo electrons is
3

.O. ul o Eo,
u C -D-. j 310 nm --j` u o AF--- A C-p, h 10-11 J h C--x-uC.
A Zx N- x
v l E{- ?
1) 1 V 2) 0.75 V
3) 0.6 V
4) 0.8 V
4. The threshold wavelength for certain metal is
0
0. When a light of wavelength
is incident
2
on it, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons is 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the
0
incident radiation is reduced to, then the
5
maximum velocity of the photoelectrons in
m/s will be

2) 5 106
4) 2 106

4.7 eV

A, B

h o x

A
3.75 eV
b) the work function of A is 2.25 eV

\ E v

- --t- Ky (-) 134


WE v - d Kh d -{
N- --h -C.
N-: 5, Tx29, D41, l16,
H4, QtK1, M6, J3, qO3,
-J3, K7, L1, -B3, 1,
N4, o2, ---5.
|-: j vU-- o-L- @/
x L. 30 x N--.
-j J>-Z-- *-J-D: 25
-j: ssc.nic.in

is

1) 1
2) 0.1
3) 0.2 4) 0.3
8. A photon of energy 2 eV is incident on a

1
1)
8

3
2)
8

5
7
3)
4)
8
8
10. The Moseley's law is
= a [Z - b], where
Z is the atomic number of target and is
the frequency of X-rays, a and b are constants.

Z
= a [Z - b]
X
a, b

x E
- u,
nj

~u-
- -u ,

1) 'a' depends on spectral series and


member in series but 'b' is independent of spectral series.

PHYSICS

B
2.73 V
d) the work function of B is 4.2 eV

\ E v

B \ E v

4.2 eV

1) only a & c are correct a, c


2) only a & d are correct
3) only b & c are correct
4) only b & d are correct

j-N
a, d j-N
b, c j-N
b, d j-N

6. X-rays of wavelength 0.024 A are allowed


to fall on a metal scatterer. The wavelength
of the scattered photon is doubled. The energy of the recoil electron is nearly
0.024 A

-j` u o X - -
j i, J-~- C--p, J-~-
--j` u --j-`u-E
dj, \ AJ-T Z h ?
1) 2.6 105 eV

2) 1.3 105 eV

3) 2.6

4) 1.3 106 eV

106

eV

L-ho -vUx
--j` u, --j-`u-E --i,
\ Ah, \ h o
EpAh ?
hc

hc

hc

1
= v2 = 2v1 = 2 106 m/s
4

10

= 1.56 107
So No. of electrons emitted = 1.56 107. As a
result positive change acquired by ball
= (1.56 10 ) (1.6 10

) = 2.5 10

-12

1
hc
hc
hc
2
4. mv1 = - =
2
0
0
0

TA

2) 'a' depends only on spectral series


but 'b' depends on member on
spectral series.

'a' g---v-j v ----C. F 'b'


g- j ----C.
3) 'a' depends on spectral series and member
in series but 'b' depends only on spectral
series.
'a' g- v, g- -j ----C.
F 'b' g- vj v ----C.
4) 'a' independent of spectral series but 'b'
depends on only spectral series.
'a' g- vj --- F 'b' g---v-j
----C.
Key
1-4; 2-2; 3-2; 4-4; 5-4; 6-1; 7-2; 8-1; 9-2; 10-3.

(-- ----E --- -N-un-x


--u-)
1
2 = 1.24 A = 0.1
2
hc
hc
5
8. Er = = 2 eV, E2 = = .2 eV = 5 eV

40
2

100
h
deBroglie wavelength 0 =

2mk
1
x
0
(x = constant)
k=
2
k
K2 = 4K1

( )

We know,

TA = 2eV

1
hc 1 12400
Energy of electron = = eV
2

2 0.024
= 2.6 105eV
12.27
12.27
7. electron (1) =
A =

v
10000

1= 0.1227 A
hc

12400

eV

10000

min (2) = = A,

For EAMCET Concepts, Online exams, Previous and Model papers with solutions click on...

K=E-W
K1 = 2 - W ...... (1)

TA - 1.5

6. When wavelength is doubled, energy


becomes half. The remaining energy is
transferred to electron.

2.5 10-12

so V = = 9 10
;
40 R
3 10-2
V = 0.75 V
9

2 km
(k = K.E = T)

B
TA
= ,2=
A
TB

WB = 4.7 - TB = 4.7 - 0.5 = 4. 2 eV

-9

-19

TB = TA - 1.5 = 2 - 1.5 = 0.5 eV

( ) (
)

310

WA = 4.25 - TA = 2.25 eV,

E
10-11
= =
hc
6.62 10-34 3 108

2.25 108 m/s

5. Debroglie wavelength given by

3. No. of photons

4) 4 eV

W = E - k = 3 eV

( )

3) 3 eV

( )

E = 5 eV

2) 2 eV

9. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity 2.25 108 m/s is equal to
the wavelength of a photon. The ratio of
kinetic energy of the particle to the energy of
photon is (Velocity of light = 3 108 m/s)

2
v1

2
v2

E
E
2. n = P 8 1015 = 6.4 10-3
t
I
E = 0.8 10-18 J

1) 1 eV

q = 3Q
Q:q=1:3

j 2 eV h o --i-p -- Zx -vUx --j` u .


A --j-`uEo 60% T_h, --
Zx -vUx --j` u /2 , _J E
v ?

mv2 = - = 4
2
0
0
0

EQ + 3EQ = E (Q + q)

g- v- --J- -g- --j


----C. F 'b' g- vj
---.

-. u---

2.25 eV
c) the work function of B is 2.73 V

A \ E v

'a'

metal. The minimum de-Broglie


wavelength of the emitted electrons is . When the wavelength of
the incident radiation is reduced by 60%, the
minimum de-Broglie wavelength of emitted
electrons is /2. Then the work function of
the emitter surface is-

mg + 6r (3v) = E (Q + q) .... (3)

- --t- Ky

electron

-E 10,000 V E{-
v-Th, Z -vUx --j-`u-E,
N--u X - - Ee --j-`u-E
EpAh ? (-Z e/m = 1.7 1011 C/Kg)

a) the work function of A is 3.75 eV

mg = EQ ............ ..... (2)

v d Kh --h -C.
|: q.
: 18 * 27 x u L.
: K~, \ d y.
-h: -j y. *-J-D: 25
K~: Vj 29
-j: ssc.nic.in

of

X-

-j C--p
-- A Zx Je A h -
TA eV J TB = (TA - 1.5) eV. A Zx
-vUx --j-`u EpAh A: B = 1 : 2,

1. mg = 6rv ............. (1)

d -{ N- (--) d-v-

7. If 10,000 V applied
across an X-ray
tube, what will be
the ratio of deBroglie wavelength
of the incident electrons to the shortest wavelength of
X-ray produced (e/m
1.7 1011C/Kg)

\ AJ-T Z h ?

SOLUTIONS

d -{ N- d--

4K1 = 5 - W ...... (2)

W = 1eV
9. Given particle (1) = photon (2)

h
... =
p

= P1 = P2
1

mv2 (mv) v
2
Then = 2 =
E2
mc
2(mc) c
E1
P1 v
V
2.25 108
3
= = = 8 =
E2 2P2 c
2c
2 3 10
8
E1

10. a =

1
1
RC 2 -
m
n2

Where 'n' corresponds to spectral line and


'm' corresponds to spectral series. 'b' is a
constant which depends on spectral series.
For k series b = 1, l series b = 7.

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 1 - 2012

-- j---
C?
)
G) A
)
) *---
14. '
-{
t E Eo
?
) Z-
G) v-d-
) u--j-> t ) -v-q
15. ---uC (Hashimoto disease)

vC -C-*C?
) uK
G)

) v x
) jFo
uC x ---K- Ey
-C?
) v----
G) ---
) -u--- ) -v---
9. NNx q--x E-
ya x (Free Radicals) v-Eo
T_h?
) N-N-
G) G-N-
) N-N-
) jFo
10. N-N- \- B-- x j
--N (Hyper Calcaemia) uC
hC?
8.

GROUP - I, II, IV, JL, DL, ASO

->.-. ----@
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

u-uC x xx - t
hC?
) -s-E
G) --L
) j -u-J
) u-N
@x GlE Et y yE
EhC?
) Jx
G) p
) *@
) ~
\ O p
p?
)
G) *---
)
) sJ
Eo -
B?
) p-%
G) p-
) -
) -
C --E- --C-*- u \
) f j
G) s-A--
) yg- \ J- ) vv-
A - u \ E Eo ?
) \- o
G) o
) Kx
) b
-nx - x N?
) L x
G) d-J x

English (Methodology)
Listening Skills
"To be able to use the language to convey
thoughts, intentions, wishes, information etc.,
a person needs a mastery of various
elements"
- John Haycraft
Learning a language can be attributed to mastering a set of skills to use the language. In
other words learning a language means learning to speak, read and write in the language.
We should also be able to understand when
someone speaks that language.
Classification of Language Skills
A Diagrammatic Representation
(1)
Listening
Passive skill Receptive skill
Comprehensive skill
Aural skill
Basic skill in language learning
(4)
Writing
Active skill
Expressive
skill
Productive
skill
Graphic
motor skill
A communication
skill

Language
Skills

(2)
Speaking
Active skill
Expressive
skill
Productive skill
Oral skill
Speech is
primary in
language
learning

(3)
Reading
Passive skill
Receptive skill
Graphic skill
Promotes language
So acquiring four skills is an important

A - u \ E Eo ?
) N-N- G) N-N-G12
) x
) j-
) N-N- ) N-N-
16. j- vC vN-- j-q
t 65
11. C - x NNx
C?
N*ao---?
) -
G) >
) \-
) -F
) xJ
G) \- J-T-
17. -u i x-o v-x
) \- C- B-- -d -G. --
----n * G-h?
) jFo
) G) f ) ) Fo
12. N-N- @-v- ---
18. v uCE '-L-
C?
E ?
) -F
G) >
) x d v G) q v
) T
)
) v
) yf v
13. yf \x y vu-pAh -- \
aspect of language learning. Language is a skill
subject in contrary to content subjects like
Mathematics, History, Geography etc.
Teaching of English or any language
predominantly rests on developing of four main
skills namely listening, speaking, reading and
writing in the learners. Thomas and Wyatt said
that it is necessary that the Indian pupil should
not only understand English when it is spoken
or written, but also he should himself be able to
speak and write it.
Though listening and reading seem to be
passive outwardly, they are active which need
lot of concentration. Speaking and writing on
the other hand are active skills. They are also
called Productive skills or Expressive skills.
Here a person is seen engaging actively transmitting or expressing the information.
Listening and speaking skills demand the
exercise of auditory and speech organs (ears,
tongue etc). So they are termed as AudioLingual or Aural-Oral skills. Similarly reading

general.
Definitions of Listening
"Listening is the ability to identify and understand what others are saying. This involves
understanding a speaker's accent or pronunciation, his grammar and his vocabulary and
grasping his meaning"
- Howatt & Dakin
Listening is an act involves decoding sounds
and grasping the meaning behind them.
Diagrammatic Representation of the
Process of Listening
Listening is an active process. It can be
depicted as:
Input
(Speaker's
Words)

Processing
(Understanding/
grasping,
Pronounciation,
Vocabulary,
Grammar,
Meaning)

Output
(Listener's
response)

An activity of paying attention!


and writing involve visual (eyes)
and psycho-motor organs
(mind) leading them to consider
as graphic motor skills.
Let us discuss the first skill.
LISTENING
Listening is an important
Rahmatulla
language skill and yet the most
neglected skill in our classroom. Listening is
the primary channel in language learning. It is
an activity of paying attention to trying to get the
meaning from something we hear. We come
across some people using listening and hearing as synonyms but there is a clear distinction
between the two.
LISTENING AND HEARING
Hearing is a physical process of receiving
sounds. Enjoying music while doing some work
comes under hearing. Listening on the other
hand is a conscious mental process or an
active cognitive process. Listening is conscious
and focussed where as hearing is casual and

Fathers of Listening
James Brown, Ralph Nicholas and
Cart Weaver were the eminent linguists of
1940s who established, listening as a skill
and are considered to be 'Fathers of
Listening'.
Sub-skills of Listening
Listening for
Sound Perception
Identifying
sounds
eg: wood - food
/u/
/u:/
Segmenting
sounds into meaningful groups.
Recognising
stress, intonation
patterns.

Listening for
Comprehension

 Understanding
the
meanings of the words.
 Following commands or
directions given orally.
 Understanding dialogues,
questions, conversations.
 Understanding narrations or descriptions.
 Understanding
the
tone of the speaker.

Kinds of Listening
Different situations require different types

- --Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---:

19.

-x -x-G- E
h?
) -x-G
G) o-x-G
) --x-G
) -x-G
20. - - - A
?
) -L--q
G) -- -
) q
) --q
21. K- \- ( 40 ) v C?
) -x-G
G) v-v-G
) -s-N
) x-
22. K- Ad - C?
) -N
G) x
)
) Jd-
--
1; 2; 3; 4G; 5; 6; 7;
8; 9; 10; 11; 12G; 13; 14G;
15; 16; 17; 18G; 19; 20;
21; 22.
(-- j---- ---K~-
-P~- -E--)
of listening. We may listen to obtain information, make discrimination or engage in critical
evaluation etc.,
Wohin and Coakley (1982) describe five
different kinds of listening: Discriminative,
Comprehensive, Critical, Therapeutic and
Appreciative.
1) Discriminative Listening: Listener distinguishes fact from opinion.
Pay attention to specific speech sounds.
2) Comprehensive Listening: Listening to
understand a message. eg: Rly. announcements, weather forecast News Bulletin.
3) Critical Listening: Listening to evaluate the
message whether to accept or reject.
eg: Advertisement of a product.
4) Therapeutic Listening: Listening to understand to solve problems. eg: Listening to
riddles, quizzes.
5) Appreciative Listening: Listening for enjoyment or for sensory impression or entertainment.
eg: Listening to poetry, plays on radio, stories
etc.
Activities to develop listening skill
Teacher's speech serves as a unique source
of listening for the children. He/ She can give
commands, instructions, make statements,
draw a picture and ask questions based on
it. All these activities provide the children an
opportunity to get the exposure of listening.
Dictation of words which differ in only one
sound (Minimal pairs) be given as an activity
to master different sounds of English.
eg: pat - bat, sit - seat, ant - aunt
Short stories could be narrated and the
learners may be asked comprehension
questions or may be asked to re-narrate.
Quizzes with simple questions evince interest in the class to make joyful learning.
A tape recorder is highly helpful in the development of good pronunciation, differentiation
of sounds, intonation patterns etc.
Language games like 'Chinese Whisper'
could be played in the class to give ample
exposure to listening.
(Writer- School Assistant in English,
ZPHS Bhakaraopet, Kadapa)

www.eenadupratibha.net

10 - 2012

-- j---

EAMCET -2012 (ENGINEERING) MODEL GRAND TEST


(-E-o- --)

-sented by the equation y = 5 cos

93 The stress versus strain graphs for two wires A and B


are shown in fig. If YA & YB are the Young's modulii of

tance between two consecutive nodes is

p- n O-- y = 5 cos (
sin 40 t.
3)
\ x, y .O.x t x C.
p-- u-

B vA-,
N%-- u v
a.
YA,
YB -n
---j

1) 5 cm

1) YB = 2 YA
2) YA = 2 YB
3) YB = 3 YA
4) YA = 3 YB
94 The normal force required to separate two glass
plates of area 102 m2 with a film of water 0.05 mm
thickness between them is (surface tension of water =
70 103 N/m )

u-a o V - u
0.05 mm o F C. OE
-E -Lq ?
(F u = 70 103 u/O)

1) 28 N
2) 112 N
3) 5.6 N
4) 11.2 N
95 Two capillary tubes of same length but radii in the ratio
1 : 2 are fitted to the bottom of a vessel with pressure
head 'p' in parallel with each other. What should be the
radius of the single tube of same length that can
replace the two so that rate of flow is not affected ?
(r = radius of first tube)

, u-l EpAh 1 : 2 o
- -R- - - , - 'p' o v - -E- - -- -a. F v - -
- , OE B- , o -R- -

- T- h, E ul (r = -R ul )

1) (17)1/4 r 2) 17 r2
3) 8.5 r
4) 17 r
96 A Platinum resistance thermometer reads 0C when
its resistance is 80 and 100 C when its resistance
is 90 . Find the temperature of the Platinum scale at
which the resistance is 86

x E - t-O- 80 E l 100C
K- , 90 E-- - -o- p 100C K
*aC. 86 E o- p - t-O- K
?
97 Matching.
List - I

3) 20 C

4) 10 C

---.
--G- - I
List - II --G- - II

a) Isobaric process

b) Isochoric process
f) dQ = du + dW

n -J- - vv

g) du = -dW

.O. - o - V Ct
v-- o -n . A
- O 60
CC. * C -_--i-C.
-_ Kzy n-v
1)

u-n 30 x h a. u-n j J-T E


10 x
- _ h p
1) 20 J

2) 40 J

3) 10 J

4) 20 J

99 Two Steam Engine A and B have their sources at


700 K and 650 K respectively and their sinks at 350 K
and 300 K. Then

A, B

NJ v - 700 K, 650 K
l o. 350 K, 300 K l
1) A is more efficient than B
A

B \ ~ C

2) B is more efficient than A


B

A \ ~ C

3) both are equally efficient

cm

1) behaves as a divergent lens of focal length 72 cm

.O. u- o --
vJhhC

2) behaves as a convergent lens of focal length 72 cm

-- o -KA - un nA
h 'U' -- -L u G l,
* -KA Eo B-
JT E
1) 2 U
2) 3 U
3) 4 U
4) 5 U
110 Two wires A and B made of same material and having their lengths in the ratio 6:1 are connected in
series. The potential differences across the wires
are 3 V and 2 V respectively. If rA and rB are the
rB
radii of A and B respectively. Then is
rA

-n - EpAh 6 : 1 o
A, B B- v . B
u u t - 3 V, 2 V.
rB
rA, rB A, B u-l-j
rA

.O. u--o --
vJhhC

4) behaves as a convergent lens of focal length 36 cm


36 .O. u-o G--
vJhhC

2l
l
l
4l
2)
3)
4)
3
2
6
3
112 A thermo couple produces between 0 C and 20 C
a thermo e.m.f. E1 and between 20 C and 50 C a
thermo e.m.f. E2, the thermo emf produced between
0 C and 50 C is
0 C, 20 C

u g-t E1 g N...
phC. 20 C, 50 C u g N... E2.
0 C, 50 C u g N...
E1 + E2

1) E1 + E2 2) E1 - E2 3) 4) E1 + E2
2

2) 4 I

3) 5 I

A magnetic needle of pole strength 20 3

Am is pivoted at its centre. Its north pole is pulled eastward by


a string. The tension required to produce a deflection
of 30 from magnetic meridian (BH = 104 T) is

Am vyo -\ *-
v l GT-. h vEo vA pC . u-h *
30 --h -Lq u (BH = 104T)

20 3

1) 4

103 N
103 N

2) 2

103 N
103N

4) 2 3

capacitor is

vA -- u u E- -{

1) 12 V, 12 V

2) 16 V, 8 V

3) 0 V, 24 V

4) 8 V, 0 V

119. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from

N-- _--i- -Z- E *


sNhC?
1) Inner orbits of atoms - ~~u
2) Free electrons existing in nuclei

v-E ya -Z-
3) Decay of a neutron in a nucleus

v- uvx N-
4) Photon escaping from the nucleus

v- * - C -
.

another form is called

CHEMISTRY

cular coil at the nearer end like pole will be induced

%uu (A): -\-Eo, %h- d-j- B *a--p, _J *J l A


v vJ-C.

121. The order of first electron affinity of O, S and Se is


O, S, Se

Reason (R): Lenz law is the consequence of law of


conservation of energy.

-Z -E v

1) O > S > Se

2) S > O > Se

3) S > Se > O

4) Se > S > O

122 The presence of primary alcoholic group in glucose

(R): E, h Euy EE
--.

can be identified by

xE v-N \- Eo
u El-J--a?

1) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation of A.


A, R
2

1) Oxidation to gluconic acid with Br2 water.

j-N. R C A j N-

Both A and R are correct.

vO x-E x q--
C--

R is not the correct

explanation of A.

2) glucose reduces Tollens reagent

j-N. R C A j N-- -.
3) A is true, but R is false A A jC, R jC
4) A is false, but R is true A A jC , R jC
115. Identify the correct order of the following particles
A, R

x, q Eo ~-- C
3) glucose undergoes reversible isomerization

x Cy %-Qu-Eo
4) oxidation to Saccharic acid with Conc. HNO3
HNO3

when arranged in the decreasing order of K.E. when


moved for same time in the same electric field.

Nu ~v, -- C
----o-p Ah vEo --
v -.
I) Electron -Z
II) Proton v
III) Deuteron - u-- IV) Tritium v-

108 A capacitor is charged to a potential so that the energy stored in it is 8 J . The battery is then disconnected and a dielectric of dielectric constant 2 is placed
between the plates. Then energy stored becomes

1) II, I, III, IV

2) II, III, IV, I

-- E Ey o h 8 J -

3) I, II, III, IV

4) III, IV, II, I

114 Assertion (A): If a magnet is brought towards a cir-

ABC

4) 104 T

118 In the figure shown the potential drop across each

--E -h-E - a
JEo -?
1) Transducer vq-u- 2) Transistor vEq-d

3) Rectifier
-C-\-J 4) Amplifier l

3) 105 T

2) AND gate AND


4) OR gate OR

v-h-o 3 .O. ul- --o


%h- ~ O v * 4 .O.
-E G l -\ ~v v
54 T. v l -\ v
1) 25 T 2) 125 T 3) 250 T 4) 625 T

106 A magnet of length 10 cm and magnetic moment


1 A-m2 is placed along the side AB of an equilateral triangle ABC. If the length of the side AB is 10 cm,
the magnetic induction at the point C is

2) 107 T

NAND gate NAND

120 The device that converts one form of energy into

4) 7 I

-- -vA-- AB
10 .O. , 1 Am2 -\ v o
\Eo . AB 10 .O.
C G l -\ v

NOR gate NOR

113 The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular


loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 T . Its value at
the centre of the loop will be

I, 4I

Bv- o A uA-- x
O- d -J pC.
u - A G l 2 . B G
l . A, B L Bv- u

)
)

1)

3) 4 3

4) 2

-E{--O- B 'l'. B -t *J
-* 3l l 'E' N...l --o
-- --C. B - *,
\ -- --C. (2u E-
u, -z -.)

105 Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere


to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase

difference between the beams is at point A and


2
at point B. Then the difference between the resultant
intensities at A and B is

3) 1

C represent out put, the circuit represent

C A, B -, C --
Eo *-hC?

36

1
2

E is balanced at a length
3 from the positive end
of the wire. If the length of the wire is increased by
l
. At what distance will the same cell gives a balance
2
point (assume cells are ideal and external resistance
is zero)

3) behaves as a divergent lens of focal length 36 cm

107

2)

.O. u- o G--
vJhhC

1) 2 I

1
4

-- x E
a.
\
1) a is independent of target material while b is not
a _ -nj --- F, b ----C.
2) b is independent of target material while a is not
b _ -nj --- F, a ----C.
3) Both a and b are independent of target material
a, b _ -nj ---.
4) Both a and b are dependent of target material
a, b _ -nj ----.
117. In the circuit given A and B represent two inputs and

111 The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf

72

-x ---T- -j -- --C.

.O. -o --v 0 C l
E, 100C l F d . v
0.2 .O., - 0.02 CGS v--j
y h --C. (
v = 0.9 gm/cc)
1) 6 sec . 2) 9 sec . 3) 12 sec .4) 15 sec .
101. The stationary wave produced on a string is repre-

1)

116 Moseley's law for line X - ray is given by :

= a(Z b) Here :

X = a(Z b)

1) 8 J
2) 16 J
3) 20 J
4) 4 J
109 Two identical charges are seperated by some distance, then the potential energy of the system is 'U'.
The workdone in bringing an identical charge from
infinity to the mid point of line joining the charges

72

100 A cubical vessel of side 10 cm is filled with Ice at


0 C and is immersed in water bath at 100 C. If
thickness of walls of vessel is 0.2 cm and conductivity is 0.02 CGS units, then time in which all the Ice
melts is (Density of Ice = 0.9 gm/cc)
10

.
. v-- o - -
v u-l 20, 30 .O. v--
pz - u S vEo 43
v-- o v E. un

- ~ C
A, B

cm 4) 3 2 cm

1) 109 T
4) depends on fuels used in A and B

2) 4 3 cm 3)

104 Two plano-concave lenses of glass of refractive index


1.5 have radii of curvature of 20 and 30 cm. They are
placed in contact with curved surfaces towards each
other and the space between them is filled with
4 Then the system
a liquid of refractive index
3
15

n-g vv

4) 40 cm

1) 74.1 m
2) 72.7 m 3) 75.4 m
4) 73.1 m
103 A parallel sided glass slab of thickness 4 cm is made
of a material of refractive index
3 . When light is
incident on one of the parallel faces at an angle of
60, it emerges from the other parallel face. Then
the lateral displacement of the emergent beam

d) Adiabatic process
h) dQ = du
1) af, bg, ch, de
2) af, bh, cg, de
3) ag, bf, ch, de
4) af, bh, ce, dg
98 30 Joules of heat is given to a system and workdone
on the system is 10 Joules. The change in internal
energy of the system is

cm

-o _ d y NuJn yE
Eo -\-o. v-N - -u
-Lq d 24.7 O.,
y - ?

c) Isothermal process

g-v- vv

3)

-E{-- -P
. u-KE B,
- u 2
n o Eo
* Ey o h

e) dQ = dW

n-- vv

2) 3 cm

102 A student finds out the velocity of sound with the help
of a closed organ pipe. If the required length of pipe
for the fundamental resonance frequency is 24.7 m,
then length for next resonance frequency will be

102 m2

2) 60 C

vA

A, B

1) 30 C

sin 40 t,

where x and y are in cm and t is in seconds. The dis-

the materials then

x
3

()

-J x q--

123 The correct order of Carbon - Carbon bond length in

the following

C- j s---s v
1) C2H6 > C2H4 > C6H6 > C2H2
2) C2H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 > C6H6
3) C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H2
4) C6H6 > C2H6 > C2H4 > C2H2

- 10 - 2012

-- j---

EAMCET - 2012 (ENGINEERING) MODEL GRAND TEST


124. Among the following, which one is the most effective protective colloid ? (Gold numbers are given in brackets)

4) A is false but R is true. A

p, R p

133 The number of three centered, 2 electron bonds in

C- u-C- ~Ea x- (f
u y--f)
1) Gelatin (0.005)
- (0.005)
2) Haemoglobin (0.03)
-x-G (0.03)
3) Albumin (0.1)
s-N (0.1)
4) Potato starch (25)
da (25)
125. Matte is
u
1) 98 % pure Copper
98% l
2) 95 % pure Zinc
95% l >
3) Cu2S with little FeS
Cl FeS Cu2S
4) Iron containing 4 % Carbon 4% s o
126. Correct statements in the following
C- j uu
a) Garlic odour of acetylene is due to PH3 and H2S
as impurities
PH3, H2S

L- x --M- xLx

diborane is

j-- 3 v- 2 -Z u
1) 2
2) 4
3) 3
4) 6
134. In Ramsay - Rayleigh's first method, Nitrogen of air
is removed in the form of

SCl2

c) Acetylene undergo nucleophilic addition reactions in


the presence of heavier metal ions

d) On ozonolysis acetylene gives oxalic acid

--M - -L- u b-L


xEo hC
1) All Fo 2) b and d G,
3) b,c and d b, c, d 4) a and c only -, --v-
127

1) (CH3CO)2 O > CH3COOC2H5 > CH3COCl


2) CH3COOC2H5 > (CH3CO)2 O > CH3COCl
3) CH3COCl > (CH3CO)2 O > CH3COOC2H5

1) Acetanilide
2) Acetophenone
3) Benzophenone

4) N - Phenyl acetamide
128 The volume of CO2 in litres liberated at STP when
3.18 gms of Na2CO3 is treated with excess of dilute
H2SO4 is

A. Preparation of acetaldehyde from


ethanoyl chloride

-- xj * --Lfj -K
B. Hydration of alkynes

1) N3H
2) NH2OH
3) NH2NH2
4) NH3
130. The ratio of average kinetic energies of SO2 and O2
at 25C
25C

g-v l
A--h EpAh

1) 1 : 1

2) 1: 2

SO2, O2

3) 2 : 1

4) 4 : 1

131 99% of a first order reaction was completed in


32 min. When will 99.9% of the reaction complete
(in minutes)

(aq)

. If the standard reduction potentials

Magnesium and Copper are -2.38 V and

of

+ 0.33 V respectively. The emf of the cell is

1) + 2.03 V
2) 2.03 V 3) + 2.71 V 4) 2.71 V
144. The % of 'p' character in hybrid orbital of the central
atom of PCl5 molecule
PCl5

- v -- Js--E 'P' Js- y


1) 25%
2) 50%
3) 75%
4) 60%
145. Consider the statements -C uu- -E-.
d- d

Reason (R): CH4 to SnH4 thermal stability decreases as bond energy decreases

N-(R): CH4 * SnH4 -h _ x


g--n-y _C
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

E-i-N. R C A j
N

A, R

2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct


explanation of A.

E-i-N. R C A j
N
3) A is true, R is false A p, R p
A, R

H2SO4

()

4) Na2CO3. 10 H2O

154. 0.1M solution of the following has the highest pH

C- u-C
C?
1) Na2CO3

III) Lactose is also known as milk sugar

pH

2) NaHCO3 3) NaOH

2) HBr

4) 6.98

3) HCl

A B.
573 K, 300 atm
AlCl
3

1) I

4) I, II, III, IV

146. Which of the following has lowest thermal stability

-C* p o uu C?

1) It is more acidic than rectified spirit

DE d-j pJ C xy C

C- up g ny o-C?
4) Rb2CO3

4) HF

aq.NaOH

The incorrect statement regarding B is

1) Li2CO3
2) Na2CO3 3) K2CO3
147. Setting of plaster of paris involves

4) CH3COOH

3) 7

Cl2

157.

3) I, II, III

N ?

2) 6

da i- E
The correct statement is/are j uu/
2) I, II

0.1M

N o

C-- C pQ- o-C?


1) HI

2) Its boiling point is less than ether

DE p- g-v \
3) It is fairly soluble in water

)
2)
3)
4)

xd J d vv- J-C
dehydration process
Eb-M-- vv
contraction of mass
n
hydration process
wKn-- vv
loss of water molecules F -- p-

3. PdCl2/CuCl2, H+ C. Catalyst used in the preparation


of acetone from acetic acid

in a cubic structure in which the X atoms are at the


corners of the cube of Y atoms are at the face centres. The formula of the compounds is

- * - x K -T vp-
4. 1% HgSO4,

D. Hydroxylation of alkenes

H2SO4, O C

M\- jv-q--
E. Hydration of alkenes

The correct match is

X, Y

- x p- t- Et p---- CC. Dx X ---


-, Y --- u
G-- v-Nh t- t
1) X3Y

M\- wKn--
j

2) XY

3) XY2

4) XY3

149. 0.16 gm of an organic compound on combusition


gave 0.44 gm CO2 and 0.36 gm, H2O. The percent-

1) 1-C, 2-E, 3-A, 4-D

2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B

age weight of C and H in the compound respectively

3) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E

4) 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A

0.16 v vD t- C-p 0.44 v. CO2, 0.36 v. H2O --f.


t-- C, H -- -

139. The ion with highest magnetic moment is

u-C -\ v o
1) V3+

2) Cr3+

3) Fe3+

4) Co3+

1) 25 & 75

2) 40 & 60

3) 75 & 25

4) 60 & 40

Reason (R): Standard enthalpy of elements is


assumed to be zero

EPa uu(A): IVA v jwj-x CH4 *


SnH4 ~-- y C

2) 10% HCl

1) H3PO4
3) Conc.

156. which of the following is most volatile

v-

1) 16

CH4 to SnH4 reducing nature increases

with

-\

u-i ' ( v-) N- ---i E--

(--J-)

-- NE- -Kb-N-
C

1) 8

II) Sucrose is also known as cane sugar

EPa uu(A): t- v Mp
N E v x-gE -
C

132 Assertion (A): In the hydrides of IVA group from

4) 0.1 M Urea

153. Anion exchange resin can be 'revived' by treating

155. The pH of 10-8 M HCl is


10-8 M HCl
pH

I) Maltose is also known as malt sugar

v v u 99% Jh----E
32 EN- dC. u 99.9% Jh--E d (-E-N--x)
4) 48

2) 0.1 M BaCl2

3) 0.1 M NaCl

v ~-- t N- -2.38 V,
Mg(s)+ Cu+2(aq) Cu(s)+Mg+2(aq).
u J -\ -N.-.-.

150. Conditions for a acceptable value of '' (wave func-

3) 64

1) 0.1 M FeCl3

Mg, Cu

140. Assertion (A): Standard enthalpy of compound is


equal to its standard heat of formation

2) 32

boiling point?

C C p-- g-v o v

C F yp C
4) It is an aromatic compound

C -- t-
158 Which one of the following will influence both equi-

librium state and equilibrium constant

148. A compound formed by elements X and Y crystallizes

j \- wKn--

3.18

v Na2CO3 C NM H2SO4 u
-C N-u CO2 --J-
STP l Mx
1) 0.112 2) 0.672 3) 0.336 4) 0.448
129. The oxidation state of Nitrogen is lowest in
C- N q- - An u- p o t-

Cu(s)+Mg+2

(aq)

IV) Starch is also known as Amylum

x L- (%- ) -\
- ( )
1) Freon
v
2) Tetra fluoro ethane
v-x
3) tetra fluoro ethyne
v-x j
4) Tetra fluoro ethene
v-x D
138. Match the following.
-C---E .
List - II d - II
List - I d - I

2. H2/Pd - BaSO4

152. Which of the following solutions will have the highest

d- \

137. The monomer of the polymer 'Teflon' is

j v 'B' C
--E-j
---
--
N - j --i

4) C-C

+0.33 V

_ l-A F- E xj-x T
vv- L --
1) Bleaching powder Hx* (N- g)
2) Lime o
3) Alum
4) All the above
jFo
136.In the conversion of aniline to acetanilide the correct

1. MnO/ 300 C
In the above sequence B is

2) C-O

chemical/s used are

4) CH3COCl > CH3COOC2H5 > (CH3CO)2 O

x -~ --M
ux---L - u _C

1) C-N

1) CaCN2 2) Mg3N2 3) NaNO2+NaNO3 4) NO+NO2


135. In Nalgonda technique for defluoridation of water, the

E-M-, --E-j- a vv-


-j-- - u-Q- j v

with SCl2

(C po),
E

3) C-H

q uM l-A, L-E j-v-


N -T-h

b) Mustard gas is the addition product of acetylene

df C --M,
po

'A'

143. The cell reaction of a cell is Mg(s)+ Cu+2

order of reactivity of acetylating agents is

in 'A' is
C2H5Cl+ KNO2 DMF
A

N-(R): - v Mp N
u B--.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
A, R

E--i N. R C A j N-.

2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.


A, R

E-i-N. R C A j
N- .
3) A is true, R is false
A p, R p
4) A is false but R is true A p, R p
141. SO2 bleaches by
SO2 E x Ng hC?
1) Reduction
~--
2) Oxidation
q--
3) Hydrolysis
-N-x-
4) Acidic nature
x y
142. C2H5Cl + KNO2 DMF
A (Major). The bond absent

tion) is

I) '' must be continuous

' N EPa N- L

1) 105, 2.12 A, 8

3) 105, 1.06 A, 16

2) 105, 2.12 A, 16

4) 109.28', 2.12 A, 8

160. End product of HELL-VOLHARD-ZELENSKY reaction of acetic acid is -

-f --\ u - xEo
p-J A po
1) Cl2HCCOOH
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2) Cl3CCOOH
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(Prepared by Senior members of Faculty, Sri Chaitanya


EAMCET Coaching Centre, Vijayawada)

KEY

III) '' must be single valued

' - -G-- --l-j- - N L


IV) The probability of finding the electron over all the
space from '+' infinity to '-' infinity must be equal to
one

'+ * '- ' vA-N-B v-


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151. Vapour pressure of an aqueous solution is 2% less
than that of the solvent. The molality of the solution
is nearly

v p- l v p 2% \- v
L -
3) 1.13 m

- SSS , S-S j` u,
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www.eenadupratibha.net

II) '' must be ifinite

2) 1.5 m

pairs present in S8 molecule are

S8

-Jh --u--x- x ---...

' N N-*a-o L

1) 2 m

C- C --nA, n
F v-N hC.
1) Concentration of reactant v--
2) Presence of catalyst
vp- ~
3) Temperature
g-v
4) Pressure

159. SSS bond angle, S-S bond length and no.of lone

4) 0.2 m

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Maths: 11; 23; 32; 43; 51; 61; 72; 82; 92;
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341; 351; 361; 371; 382; 394; 403; 413;
421; 431; 443; 452; 463; 472; 482; 494;
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663; 672; 681; 691; 703; 714; 723; 731;
744; 752; 763; 772; 784; 791; 801.
Physics: 812; 821; 832; 841; 853; 862; 871;
882; 891; 902; 914; 923; 933; 941; 951;
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1112; 1121; 1133; 1141; 1153; 1163; 1174;
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1264; 1273; 1282; 1294; 1301; 1314; 1321;
1331; 1342; 1354; 1363; 1374; 1382; 1393;
1401; 1411; 1422; 1433; 1444; 1454; 1461;
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Sr. INTER PHYSICS MODEL PAPER


INTERMEDIATE ADVANCED SUPPLEMENTARY
EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2012

PHYSICS PAPER - II (English Version)


Time: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 60
10 2 = 20 M

SECTION - A
Note: i) Answer all Questions.

11. Explain double refraction (birefringence) of light.


12. Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at a point
on the axial line of a bar magnet.
13. Derive an equation for the energy stored in a capacitor. If a
dielectric is introduced between the plates how will energy
change?
14. State and explain Kirchhoff's Laws.

ii) Each question carries two marks.


iii) All are very short answer type questions.
1. Define absolute refractive index? What is the relation
between the relative refractive index between two media and
the absolute refractive index of the media?
2. Mention any two uses of Optical Fibres?
3. On what factors does the period of oscillation of a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field depend?

15. What are Peltier and Thomson effects? Define their coefficients.
16. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 . A current of
3
10- A pass through the galvanometer. How can it be converted into a) Ammeter of range 10 A and b) Voltmeter of
range 10 V?
17. Describe the origin of X - ray spectra?
18. Distinguish between half wave and full wave rectifiers.

4. Can there be electric potential at a point with zero electric


intensity? Give an example?

SECTION - C

2 8 = 16 M

Note: i) Answer any two of the following questions.

5. Explain Ohm's Law.


6. How many electrons flow through a wire when 1A current
passes for 1 milli second?
7. State Moseley's Law? What is its importance?
8. Write the truth table of NAND gate. How does it differ from
AND gate?
9. In a transistor circuit the base current changes from 50 A to
150 A. The corresponding change in the collector current is
from 0.2 mA to 4.2 mA. Find the current gain.
10. Mention the basic methods of modulation.
6 4 = 24 M

SECTION - B

Note: i) Answer any six of the following questions.


ii) Each question carries four marks.
iii) All are short answer type questions.

ii) Each question carries eight marks.


iii) All are long answer type questions.
19. What is Doppler effect? Find an expression for the apparent
frequency heard when the source is in motion and the
listener is at rest. What is the limitation of Doppler effect?
A fire engine with its bell ringing with a frequency of 200 Hz
is moving with a velocity of 54 kmph towards an observer at rest
near a hut on fire. What is the apparent frequency of sound
heard by the observer? (Velocity of Sound in air = 300 ms-1)
20. State Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction. Lenz's
law. Explain self and mutual induction. Derive the equation
for the induced emf in self and mutual inductions.
21. Explain the source of Stellar energy. Explain the carbonnitrogen cycle and protan-protan cycle occurring in stars.

INTERMEDIATE ADVANCED SUPPLEMENTARY

PHYSICS PAPER - II (Telugu Version)


TIME: 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 60

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--C 13 - 2012
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--- 15 - 2012

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-- 2 - 2012

dx =

9 + 16 sin2x

log2

2)

20

log2

3)

10

log3

4)

20

cosx

-2

log3

3
4

10

1)

2)

xdx

1 + sinx

dx =

1+e

3) 0

1
2)
2

1) 0

7.

tannxdx then Lt n (In + In-2) =


n

/2
2.

xdx
1,
+ cos sinx

10.

< is....

1)
2)
sin
cos

3)
4)
sin
cos
0<

4)

3) 1

1
1
1
1) -(2 /3 + 3 /3 + .... + 7 /3 ) + 14

2) (
)
2 2 -1

4) ( 2 -1)

1)

3) (
)
2 2 +1

4) 1

6. If In =

sinx + cosx

1)

DEFINITE INTEGRALS

/4

1.

-- j---

11.

1 + cosx

2) -(21/3 + 31/3 + ..... + 71/3 ) + 13

dx =

3) -(21/3 + 31/3 + .... + 81/3) + 14

The Number on Integration is...!

3.

1)
4

2)
2

Mathematics

4)

3)

1
3) -
4
2

dx =

secx + cosecx

1)

2) 2

ln2

1)

3) 3

4)

1) 0
(5)

(sinx + cosx) dx

(3 + 5) = 2
4
(6) Short cut:

1
1
5 + 4(sin xcosx)
= log
4 2(5)
5 4(sinxcosx)
0
1
1
= log1 log
9
40
ln 3
=
20
a
a
(2) f(x) dx = [f(x) + f(x)] dx if f(x) is neither
a
0
even nor odd.
/2
cosx
cosx
=
x +
dx
1+e
1 + e-x
0

/2

/2

= cos x dx

= [sin x]

(3)

Short cut:
/2

f(sin, cos, tan, cot, sec, cosec)

dx =

3/4

1+sinx

dx = 2

Short cut:
1

(x
+a )
2 2

=2

=2

[
[(

(1+x )

dx = + tan
2a2(x2+a2)
2a3

2 +
2(1 + x )
1

) ]

+ 0

tan1

( )]
x

=+
2
4

()

-1

(9)

I=

ln2
8

f'(x)

-cos f(x)

dx =
f(x)

sin

3/4

] /4

[x2] dx = (n21) n ( 1 + 2 + 3

Index of f(x)

s3

-1.5

+ (n 1) , n, k I+
Where [ . ] denotes greatest integer
value function

For EAMCET Concepts, Online exams, Previous and Model papers with solutions click on...

2.3

-1

15)

(2+1) (2 - 1 - 1)

2
= -0.4

= -1 + 0 + 0.6

[a]+1

{x} dx =

1 - {a}2

{b}2
(s3) {x} dx =
2

[b]

[b]
[b] - [a]
as both the limits of
{x} dx =
2
[a]+1
integration are integers

5.5

5.5

{x} dx = {x} dx + {x} dx +

1.4

=
=

+ 2(0.3)

[a]+1
[b]
b
{x} dx = {x} dx + [x] dx + {x} dx
a
a
[a]+1
[b]

(s1)

(s2)

1/k

s2

[b] dx = [b] (b - [b]) = [b] . {b}

[xk] dx = (nk 1)n 1+21/k + 31/k....


k

s1

[a]dx = [a].([a] + 1a)

= -2 (-1+1.5) +

+ ... + n21), n I

[b]

[x] dx = [x] dx + [x] dx + [x] dx

1
1
ax
dx = tan( )
1
+ cos ax
a
2

[a]+1

[x] dx

[b]

-1.5

= 23 - 2 + 3 +..... + 8

[x] dx +

[x] dx =

2.3

[x2] dx = 24 1 + 2 + 3 +....+ 8

the limits of integration are integers

[b]

3
- tan = ( 2 +1) - ( 2 -1) = 2
8
8

[a]+1

cot1 (cot)

[b]

[x] dx +

(b - a) (b + a -1)
[x]dx = , as both
2

1/3

+ .... + 7

1/3

+ .... + 7

[a]+1

[x]dx =

[b]

1/3

+3

value function.

(13)

sin

dx

Where [ . ] denotes greatest integer

Shortcut:

a
[a]+1

1+cos sinx

1/3

1/3

+3

[a]+1

[x] dx =

f(a-x) dx

sin

I=

sin lnx dx

e37

-0

(14)

[ ( )]
[ (
)]

[... ln ( 1 + tan( 4 - x)) = ln2 - ln (1 + tanx)]


( 4

= 13 2

x
2
tan
2 + cos
tan1
sin
sin

2I =

/4
2 = ln 2dx

dx

1/3

(12)

[x3] dx = 14 - (1 + 2

0
Short cut:
x

1
2
-1 a tan 2 + b
dx
=
tan

a + b sinx
a2 - b2
a2 - b2

2I =

= tan

-cos(
1

f(x) dx = f(a - x)dx

x
= tan

2 = ln2

f(x) dx =

(11) Short cut:

/4
(8) Let = ln (1 + tanx ) dx

37
x] e

ln
[
]

= -cos 37 + 1 = 2

xdx
(10) Let I =
0 1+cos sinx


2 2

3 /4

2 2
1 (1+x )

1+ sinx

(4)

/4

dx

Short cut:
1
1
dx =
[ tanax secax]
1+sinax
a

f(same ratio) f(Neighbour ratio)


1

3/4

xdx
1

2 =

/4

/2 f(cot)
cotx


dx =
4
cotx + tanx
1

f(a + b x)

Let =

0 f(Same ratio) + f(Neighbour ratio)

KEY
1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 4 5) 2 6) 3 7) 4 8) 2 9) 4
10) 3 11) 1 12) 2 13) 2 14) 4 15) 2.

dx =

f(x) dx =

2) 2.045
4) 0.125

(Writer - Director, AiM Institute, Hyderabad)

1
If n = tannx dx then n + n2 =
n -1
0
n
Lt n (n + n2 ) = Lt = 1
n1
n
n
(7)

[x3 ]

cos n = 1 if n is even
=
1 if n is odd

= [tanx secx]
2
/4

= ( 2 1)

=1

/4

1) 0.42
3) 1.5

/4

a+f(x)

af(x)

( )]

4) 2

a sec x + b cosecx

dx = (a+b)
sec x + cosec x
4

3) -1

/2

2
2
0 5 [4(sinx cosx)]

Short cut:
f'(x)
1
dx = log
a2 f2(x)
2a

Short cut:

(sinx + cosx) dx

/4

2) 1

dx =

1.4

4) 23 - (
2 + 3 + .... + 9 )

13.

4) 0.4

3) 0.6

3) 24 - (
2 + 3 + .... + 9 )

4) ln2

9+16 [1(sinxcos x)]

ln2

3)

sin(lnx)

dx =
x

(1)

ln2

2)

{x}

15.

2) 23 - (
2 + 3 + .... + 8 )

9.

HINTS - SOLUTIONS
/4

ln (1 + tanx) dx =

e37

1
4) +
4
2

2) 1

5.5

1) 24 - (
2 + 3 + .... + 8 )

Syed. Anwar

[x] dx =

1) 0

8.

3secx + 5cosecx

1.5

1
4) -
2

[ x ] dx =

12.

/4

2)
16

2) -2

2.3

14.

dx =

(1 + x )

1)
8

dx =

2 2

4.
-1

5.

1) 2

cotx

cotx + tanx

1
3)
2

4) -(21/3 + 31/3 + .... + 71/3 ) + 16

1.4

(0.4)2

0.42

52

+ 1.5

{x} dx

(0.5)2

+ 0.125

= 2.045

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 2 - 2012

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www.eenadupratibha.net

--C- 20 - 2012

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h vu

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h J-v - d- -,
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O v.. 320 * 200 -q-
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(v. . 330 375) p O, U


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-
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u- *, Pa-

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h vu J-TC.
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2) g -Eo ------E
3) g N--Eo ------E
4) 2, 3
--: 11; 22; 34; 44; 53; 61;
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143; 154; 162; 174; 183; 191; 202;
214; 223; 232; 242; 252; 263; 271.
(-- -K- ->-x --T-u-- -..--.-. v--y -- -W-E- ----- -a)
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(- --E X vtv *
N E-)
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 20 - 2012

-- j---

Suresh Gupta, Illendu


Q. Explain which of the following
sentences is correct and
more forceful.
I will have my clothes
washed/ I will have got/ had
my clothes washed by this
time tomorrow.
A. I will have had/ will have got my clothes
washed by this time tomorrow - Correct.
His hands are tied with chains/ to chains.
A. His hands were tied with chains - Correct.
He entrusted the work to his staff/ for his
staff.
A. ..... entrusted the work to his staff - Correct.
The college students are not supposed to
tease the girls/ The college students should
not tease the girls.
A. Both are correct and have equal force.

Suman Naidu, Mukundapuram


Q. He is much more better than his wife/ He is

A. They became mad/ old.

A. She was possessed.

u dC.

A. You will be sinning/ It will be a sin if you do


that.

h F --C.

Shashi Rekha Singhal, Kukatpally


Q. He met with the accident while/ when he
was crossing the road - Which word is suitable here.
A. ... while/ when he was crossing the road Both are correct.
Explain whether the following translation is
correct or not.

Q. "A figment of imagination"- In a standard


Dictionary
this sentence is
given for the word
"Figment" - Is this
correct?
A. Figment of imagination - Correct.
Q. Translate the following sentences.

x b d-E J--h x
----o.

A. When they saw some one running with


ankle bells they were afraid.

A. I am starting.

-----o.

x o -u B-h-E -E -
\ p- = Our Rajesh
got him called from a far distance place so
that he will solve the problems of this/ in this
house.

Pallavi Kothari, Machilipatnam.


Q. Explain the necessity of the underline word
in the following sentences.
We do have to bear the hot Sun in the sum-

We have to bear the hot Sun!


more better than his wife/ He is better than
his wife - Explain which usage is correct
A. He is much better than his wife - correct. He
is better than his wife - Correct.
Q. I am on the first floor/ on the balcony/ on the
upstairs/ on the terrace - Which one is correct?
A. Terrace = Open place with a parapet wall
around.
First floor =
= Above the ground floor
Second floor = The floor above the first floor.
Q. What is the meaning of "Prejudice"?

(d-)

A. Prejudice = Dislike without reason

(Gv)
Translate the following into English.

x *ax/ -L-x u.

Amar: What do you think he can do?

( ----?)
Anup: Instead, ask me what he can't do. He
can simply tell your boss that you are
not able to do the job well. (

mer/ We have to bear the hot Sun in


summer.
I had to meet him/ I did have to
687
meet him.
We have through the exam/ we did
A. Rajesh got him from a far off place
have through the exam.
to solve the problems in the
A. In all these sentences, the use of
house.
M. SURESAN
'did' and 'do' + 1st Regular Doing
Rai Bahadoor Suxena, Nirmal
Word gives more emphasis to the sentences.
Q. Explain the pronunciation of following short'I do like it' is more emphatic (powerful) than
forms.
'I like it?
1) I've, 2) I'll, 3) I'd.

-x---

A. These are contractions, that is, shortened


forms of expressions.
I've = I have, I'll = I will, I'd = I would.
Other such contractions are:
I'm = I am; He's/ She's/ It's = He is/ has; she is/
has; it is/ has

Amar: Do you think my boss will go by his


word? She has her own way of knowing
who is competent and who isn't. (
boss

Anup: If you think so, why are you asking me?


(

?

JnE
--u
--o-?)

Amar: Don't say his word alone got his candidate the job. The candidate is adept at
the job too. (

x v
u-Jn u *a-E .
uJn -n.)

Anup: He knows his job all right, but there are


others who are as good and perhaps
even better. (

- E . F
h, \- L--x
o !)

Amar: I am not able to understand why you


think so high of him. I'm afraid you are

'o.

J-

Adithya Pancholi, Vijayanagaram


Q. In one of the earlier lessons you wrote a
sentence: "He looked as though he was
weighed down by all the cares in the world"

v--E -Fo E -D-h-ox


E--h-o. \ n p E-h-o He is looked ...... the world d 'is' E L ! N-J-.
A. He looked - Main clause in the sentence,
looked - Past tense. (He is looked - Wrong),
so the verb in the subordinate clause should
also be used in the past tense. That's why,
'was' is used, in 'As though he was...'
secondly, the meaning of 'As though/as 'if' is

'-x F E.
As if/As though is always followed by the
past tense.
He talks as though/ as if he knew every
thing
(

Fo L--x x--, F -L-.)

Q. She has/ gets even her elders doing all


kinds of jobs for her.
Sentences
She
makes even her elders doing all kinds of
she has/
jobs for her
gets -

-E

E p-a ! J
E -Lq - N?
A. N--j- p-a. Fo Correct.
x--p variety h !
b) Damodar: What is he good at?

( --C --?)
Dhanush: He is very good at imitating any
actor

( --j --J---)

poor at judging people. (

J*
p -----o n
. y -- -
-n-N .)

Anup: Oh, does she? Then how could he


manage to have
his
candidate
selected by her?
(

Q. He is born in 2011 here the underlined word


is pronounced as
Then how is the following underlined word pronounced? All the
misdeeds are born by us.
A. He is born in 2011 - Wrong.

He is good at Acting any Role!

E
- E .
O boss y F E J -
E p---.)

O -h?
-n, -----E
l- --o.)

He was born in 2011 - Correct.


To be born =
All the misdeeds are borne (not 'born') by us.
'Borne' =
born, borne - pronunciation, same.

-, o --o?)

Amar: Because I thought you knew better.

y L--------o d.
In the conversation above, observe the use
of expressions, which show 'ability'.

Look at the following expressions


1) ....... he can do?

--E )
b) Sumeeth: Can you read and understand
Tamil? If you can, please translate this for me.

p Lq Nx Cd/
--.)
(Good at) (Poor at)( ----)

Ganesh: I can, but I doubt if I can translate it


well.

He is good at speaking English but poor at writing


(

(---, n ---. F --C-- C -.)


can () n, 'able' .
a) Anand: Will he be able to help us? (
--? = Can he help us?)

2) Ask me what he can't do? (can not do)


3) He can simply tell your boss ........

Eo--.)

(---E t.

(?/ --? F, o

Tx x F, -.)

d) Lavanya: Why do you keep arguing all the


time?

( p Ch ?)

Suvarna: I am doing what I am an adept at


and you are poor at
(Poor
at),
(Adept at)

--L-TC

He is good at acting any role = He can act any


role well.

y --EC
d.

'Could' is the past form of 'can'


Could =

b) Try as I might, I am
not able (Unable) to

(-n u-o) FUNCTIONAL ENGLISH


meet him ( v-Ao-* E ---o)
\-J ' n (-sEo d) 'know'
(L ) -a.
She knows English = English =
8) You are poor at judging people.
j underline uh--x n u She can understand English = English
, --Eo Spoken English n -----C.
' n good at .
p --...
Kiran: Why do people admire him so much?
1) Can = / ; Can not = Can't (Spoken
English) - ----
(-E v a--?)
a) Prabhas: He can sing well
Admire = G--E-/ a
( --)
Kamal: Because he is good at acting any role
Subhash: Oh, can he? But my brother says he
( v--j --- d)
can't (cannot)

c) She is an adept at any thing needing


patience (

(y N ---? n ---?
--L-T, DEo --C* d)

Bhaskar: I'm (I am) sure he will be able to. We


are very close

4) ...knowing who is
competent
5) How could he manage to have his candidate
.......?
6) The candidate is adept at his job too.
7) There are others who are as good at it.

Good at = Adept at

LT .

a) Manoj: We can't see actors like NT


Ramarao (Senior) any
more (

.. -

)

Madan: Yea. He was very


competent as an actor. He
could act any role with ease.

( - * n. v---j -M- ---L--)


b) Nagesh: Why is he so dull?

( E-q o-?)
Omkar: Because he couldn't (could not) get a
class in the exam, though he tried his best
class

( v-Ao-* K-~
d)
Can, could JEo -- y l...

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 21 - 2012

-- j---
(zero)

Et
Ny vA n N--d--E O-E
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h.
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l E . l v...
'n C N->---E O-E ~tA ~ ti --- C. ---

E p-a.
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v.

amu
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1
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C. \ S
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GROUP - I, II, IV, JL, DL, ASO
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u d v J-vN
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v
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+

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\ vu-P o n --e
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Eo -E-. o 'uv E -h.

L. C -n-. DE
v -- E-v --i vu-P C.
h. N: 1) { h 2) --v-
uv- 'n' *-h.
-{--h C -Z-, v--E u
DE . n .
24
DE vu-P 1.674 10
v. C. h-x Zx v j --. v d J-vN -Z-x 1.00866 amu.
- - 1.
v (Centrifugal) C. DE v
- -
Zx v--E -.
-, uA--
--- -Z, v, uvx -J
x --- n -E
- p-a. v-N

L-C. --p Dx Eo -J C* NN Y--h

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d --E
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*aC.
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n v-N -. -n
--- v - u
_--.

x \- C?
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7. uvx Nu-- ?
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8. J - 'v-- E
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vd-?
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?
) 1.64 1024 v. G) 1.64 1027v.
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11. C- E - (Canal
rays) ?

-v-- --u-

-v---

) v - G) v -
) D-
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12. vx -\o Y-h ?
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vA--C-* Y-h ?
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) -
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G) v
15. -Z y E vA-C*?
G) Fq
) y
) --f
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----
1G; 2; 3G; 4; 5; 6; 7; 8G;
9; 10; 11G; 12G; 13G; 14G; 15.

\---

--- x----:

-
f - --E -
Jh Fq Y-h 1913 - vA--C-. vA---
v v d Zx u-C ,
EKg _x J-v-N-h. _- ~u
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n
C. v
x ~u-- 4 3 2 1 + K L M N
'n
~u
~u
. OE
1, 2, 3, ...
K, L, M, N, ... *-h.
v--E _- o n ~u h \-,
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~u * ~u CM --p
v h -C.

-f

v
-Z
v d
+
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D`
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%h-
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v d D` %h ~u- vA-C-.

v-Ux l

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+ v
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N-: >-F-J (N, -E-, --Z,
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: (u--q, NZ, >q)
|: -C N- / -t/
q vU L. : v K~ y.
-h: -j * - --a.
*-J-D: 31. -j: www.jntua.ac.in

h u jq

---E - -d-u
h u jq vU, x qx
v--E --h C.
q: Hq (Jq): 77; Hq (-v): 10; Hq (-h- o-@): 6.
|: >q, N,Z -@ -bd- .
x xE- u-->--@ o-@: 6
|: / q-.
-j J>-Z- *-J-D: W 20
-j: www.nimhans.nic.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 21 - 2012

-- j---

h-E NEo- vA-Eu


N-- h- 'v-n .
h--E N-Fo v-n- N- _-
. h ~-- ----, y h- ~-- a-
v n -----.

fi (A + C.Ui)

x =
fi
fi = N

x1 + x2 + .... + xn
=
n
x i
=
n (i = 1, 2, ..., n)

- - - - - - - -E hE Eo x i *'A' n - -PE Bh a
N- (di) J d E -\-.
di = (xi - A)
di
xi = A + di, d =
n
x
(A
+
d
)
nA di
i
i

x =
=
n =
n
n +
n
(i = 1, 2, ..., n)

x =A+ d

i=1

= xi n x

= n x n x = 0.

-.

A fi + C Uifi

x =
fi

u-

A.N + C. Uifi
=
N
A + fiUi
= C
N

(--- )

-K_-% h- x1, x2, ..., xn 'n'


-- ( x ) CN-
Ey-*h.
h
--- =
u

n
= (xi
x)

v - - - - a.
--: A.M. -.
C.I. 60-62 63-65 66-68 69-71 72-74
f

18

--d:
xi (-A
u N)
61
64
67 = A
70
73

d *,

42
fi

27
Ui

(N-)

8
fiUi

xi A
=
C
5
18
42
27
8

2
1
0
+1
+2

10
18
0
27
16

A = 67, fiUi = 10 18 +27 +16


= 43 28 = 15

C = 64 61 = 3, N = 5 +18 + 42 + 27 +8 = 100

'n' -o -K_-%
hEo
-
v -- v -Ja--p E
u--Eo CN- Ey-*h.
n+1
(i) u- =( ) u, (n -u )
2
n
=
2

n
, (
+1) u -J, (n J-u
2
) h- 50% N-
lC, 50% N- *-o-D -- u
h u- Ey-*h.
: 30, 25, 30, 35, 20, 27 N - Nu-Jn
K~x *a \-j, u-
\ ?
: h-Eo - v h,
20, 25, 27, 30, 30, 35, n = 6
n J-u d u-
6 u +

(26 + 1) u
2
=
2

- -- --- - --?
: 25, 50, 75, 80, 93, 47, 33, 67 -
?

xi = 25+ 50+75+ 80+ 93+ 47+ 33+ 67, n = 8


= 470
470
x

x = i = = 58.75
n
8
A = 50
di
di = 25, 0, 25, 30, 43, 3, 17, 17
di = 25 + 25 + 30 + 43 3 17 + 17
= 70

= x=A+ d
d
= 50 + i
n
70
= 50 +
8
= 50 + 8.75 = 58.75

lA: h *
B-E N- l.

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3) X
4) -y
73. p J-l v C?
1)
2) vt-v
3)
4)
74. a P \ C?
1)
2)
3)
4) j
75. :
1) K
) N, < u
2) Gh
G) <, @ u
3) j
) G, N u
4)
) G, -x u
1) 1, 2, 3, 4G 2) 1, 2, 3, 4G
3) 1, 2, 3, 4G 4) 1, 2 3, 4G
76. Nh N?
1) v%-A - v- -
2) E y C- -v---d
--C
3) E y @----E d -x-C
4) jFo
77. -, To--y- --l--- ---
vx C- --Nh?
1) j v
2) , v v
3) h B v
4) -N v
59

www.eenadupratibha.net

- 24 - 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP -I (PRELIMS) - 2012 MODEL GRAND TEST


78.

O C

2) h a- *o
3) C p o *o N
4) v v s To--y
l-- x p A-l v
79. v *q v ~u N?
1) vEo ~-
2) C J- nA N-N--
3) ---E
4) jFo
80. - - d-u -d
- - \
C?
1) uMx
2) - 3) j--
4) -
81. a-J- Ny--F-, uC
1) t d

2) C v JDl _
3) C v J-Dl
4) u o-@
L
82. -, -- x -q
-N O - -?
1)
2) x
3) 4)
83. J- C Eo *-hC?
1) E v---
2) E Ny-Eo
3) E J--Eo
4) E u-CE
84. - N--j N -
C v- J-?
1)

1) 3808
85.

2) 3598

3) 2550

4) 3498

--- Nh-g -
N - C?
1) 40.6%

2) 62.7%

3) 48.8%

4) 58.6%

s 200 .O.
--J-o F E. F E
?
9.8
9.8
9.8
1) N
2) N 3) N 4) u
5
10
2
87. - fj - ~- E o
u -y-- C. u-
-J-
1) ~A -- C
2) --j Ee , ~A -
hC
3) j J-e- , ~A -
- hC
4) -- vEo -C
88. ---Jt n l @-N- .
C - N*ao E
d ?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 8 4) 12
89. FE 0C * 10C --p E
-J-
1) C
2) _C
3)
4) T_, y --C
90. 1 -@, 10 -@ vu--o h--
- E- j N-J--p, C \ h
--C?
1) 1 -@
2) 10 -@
3) h --
4) NJ - j -- C
91. C- l EC C?
1) -->-
2) p--
3) df u
4) vu
92. J-*--p E K-- v-P
C?
1) > 2) -JqE 3) t 4) F
93. '--q E Eo ?
1) > vi
2) > jv
3) > j q
4) > xj
94. - -, x ux a--E
*o *o ux Eo ?
1) L- -
2) p--
3) L{ q-
4) L{ s-
95. v-E >-x --T d -K
s C?
1) v
2) vj
3) C60
4) v
96. Jh j ?
1) x-xd
2) -
86.

3) -xd
4) u-xd
- B %~ C?
1) v--
2) N
3)
4) vJ
98. v-- v C?
1) d
2) s-N
3) -
4) x-
99. uq
1) j
2) ud-J
3) U
4) _
100. K- \ C?
1)
2)
3) L{
4) Uo-
101. Eo-x -D-- J-T - -
Eth?
1) -J
2) -x
3) -x
4) --x
102. -- -Jh Et-L-* uC C?
1)
2) *
3) q
4) L
103. -- E N, A
E -C-* v--Dl-- v
C?
1) -- h \ (Cerebellum)
2) h \ (Cerebrum)
3) b-- (Medulla Oblongata)
4) q
104. '- un Eo vA--C*?
1) .>. q
2) . Nv
3) ..
4) O, xq
105. -L uC E x C?
1) ud-J
2)
3) v-
4) j
106. - _- xEo -E-h *
v-?
1) %--u-E-h
2) ---E-h
3) --u--E-h
4) D
107. C- j Ny-N-u- C?
1) ~-P
2) *
3) xG
4)
108. -@- n---?
1) l --b
2) >----J
3) \L -L-v
4) g--u
109. E j -J- C?
1) p 2) -- 3) |- 4)
110. J- C j - J n--E
J a?
1) v-h u
2) G--
3)
4) vA
111. -L -Eo C-h-x - vC-*
v-Jh ?
1)
2) -v-h
3) \-h
4) --h
112. -- C-N uh ?
1) - {
2) o >
3) .. G
4) q vq-
113. Qt J-v j Y J---- ?
1) ~ t-N
2) jN 3) CtE 4) -Gf-N
114. >> -o - v NC?
1) -
2) Qt
3)
4) u
115. M Q-q C -B x
vJh ?
1) --Cl
2) ---N
3) s
4) --Dl
116. x Cl "Mb v-N* j ~ --
u C?
1) -B
2) u 3) 4)
117. -- J-v uC N Ph
v-Jh ?
1) { 2) x--Cl "-Mb 3) s
4)
118. s Qt- v Cl C----?
1) --
2) J-
3) j G-C
4)
119. --- --- -- - -- --- -- _-o
j -v-A-E-C?
1) -- --M
2) -s j--J
3) --E{
4) -- --
120. v-uEo 100 V L-*--C ?
1) --
2) -h-
97.

3)
4)

---
--
121. --- --* -x ---E-E -Ja- --v--Jh -?
1) -v--
2) ---
3) --v---N
4) --A--
122. D - h
u
1) -- u
2) --- u
3) --
4) H
123. Nx--- G C----?
1) ->-E--
2)
3) F-G-
4) -R-F--h
124. -t-D 'j--- G-
s C-L--d?
1) d
2) E--
3) "- u
4) L----
125. -t-D YEo J v-G-*
q
1) 1920

2) 1921

3) 1922

4) 1923

126.

C- 'u E-C?
1) Z-L
2) yb-x 3) vG 4)
127. Kd -- E- dEo C*
v--vA ?
1) C--D
2) @ D
3) --
4)
128. d-- x vA--L J- -
a?
1) 10% 2) 15% 3) 5% 4) pd p
129. - ---i V
1) 18 W 1951
2) 26 -J 1950
3) 13 1952
4) 15 d 1952
130. Nu-\ dE C* Jd- C?
1) 24
2) 21 ()
3) 19
4) 39 (G)
131. nE n x J-yx ?
1) 33.3%
132.
1)
133.

2) 25%

3) 50%

4) 18%

'v-P-j v -*
vG 2) vq
3) -J 4) x
h u-n, p- Eg
-JC?
1) v-d
2) x-
3) Z-A
4) vA--L
134. Z-A Eo x v--L v d
1) _-
2) _-
3) 1997 * _--o
4) 1, 3
135. ' G- C ?
1) v 2) Z 3) t 4) -Pd C-
136. --- x- x s-Ao
J-v C?
1) h--
2)
3) Y J-v
4) -
137. 1947 y -- u C?
1)
2) j 3) j, x 4) x
138. 201213 -
b q, d v-R
- --* h-?
1) .36,117 x
2) .37,113 x
3) .38,116 x
4) .35,114 x
139. -u , - p- NE--T-*
vx u
1) v-N v-N
2) u--L u-
3) Nh-
4) v-N -u
140. W.T.O. v 2010 Y - -A
v o n C?
1) 4
2) 6
141. 2012 13
1)
.20 008
3)
.20 096
142.

3) 5

--G-%Cl *- -C-h-C?
u v-i D`--L @
@- u
Jn @ v
4) Fo
v U.N.O. u
--G-%Cl N

1)
2)
3)
145. 2011 H.D.R.
1) 0.679

2) 0.676

3) 0.682

4) 0.691

146.

--- a u Eo
n?-1) vTx u
2) u
3) -- u
4) --- -u
147. v vy 200910 -> -j
@ u C?
1) 28.96

2) 29.40

3) 28.69

4) 26.39

148.

vy E G-%Cl --E
xd W C?
1) , *o J-v-
2) --
3) T u p--
4) u
149. 200405 -\ N E-C v
J 37.2% C. 200910 -
v - -J C?
1) 25.7
150.

2) 41.8

3) 33.8

4) 29.8

'@ D d { u l-N?
1) d \-- --A -F-
A
2) *x h F.D.I. -A
3) d
\-- *x ---x
yE
4) o-- x * .60,000 - x
OJ-

-( --- -v-o-v-Eo j------E -~u


... -d- -J\- -E-- -%- --C-*-C.)
KEY
13; 21; 32; 42; 51; 62; 72; 83; 94; 103;
112; 123; 134; 142; 152; 162; 173; 182;
192; 201; 213; 221; 233; 243; 253; 263;
273; 284; 291; 302; 311; 322; 331; 342;
354; 364; 371; 383; 393; 402; 412; 422;
434; 443; 454; 461; 472; 481; 491; 502;
511; 524; 533; 543; 552; 561; 572; 583;
594; 601; 613; 622; 633; 644; 652; 661;
672; 683; 692; 703; 711; 723; 732; 743;
754; 764; 772; 784; 794; 801; 813; 821;
831; 842; 854; 864; 873; 883; 894; 903;
914; 922; 933; 941; 953; 963; 974; 981;
991; 1001; 1011; 1022; 1033; 1041; 1051;
1061; 1073; 1083; 1093; 1102; 1114;
1124; 1134; 1141; 1152; 1164; 1172;
1183; 1192; 1203; 1214; 1223; 1232;
1242; 1252; 1263; 1272; 1282; 1293;
1302; 1313; 1322; 1331; 1344; 1353;
1361; 1373; 1382; 1394; 1402; 1411;
1421; 1434; 1444; 1453; 1461; 1473;
1482; 1494; 1503.

4) 1

v-v- -b vu- ?
, x
2) .21,008 x
, x
4) .20,118 x
u -H \ Eg-- x
vu \ a p
1) \ h J- C
2) \ h J- _C
3) vu h x p
4) u u C ->-x -J----
143. ~ t Nh--n y \ _ J
C-ho
) -A -u
G) -u
) H -u
) E CM -u
1) v
2) ,
3) G,
4) , G, ,
144. U.N.O. U.N.D.P. u--- E vA--C-

- --Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---:

-- -u- 1000 x\-


-- -u 1000 -v----K x\ -d- Kh --h- --C.
-|--: -x-J- - -d- --H- 2011
-/ -- ---x -Ey-*- --
J -b-N--- (--xu-)- -\ -
L. -v-B- ---j -d ---L.
--u-i- --D-:
--h -V --Lx: -W- 1 --* 15 -.
---j- -J->Z--: -W- 1 --* 15 -.
--j-: www.syndicatebank.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--v 25 - 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP -I (PRELIMS) - 2012 MODEL GRAND TEST


No. of Questions: 150

Max. Marks: 150

1. -o-- pd q v --- x2011


-f - -J v--?
1) vN
2) * -\
3) -- -
4) -v- E
2. -J 2012 99 jq v ---
\ Ey--?
1) j o 2) --y 3) j 4) -
3. v vy - v--* @ ~ 2011
-f --o Z-E C ?
1) -- oN
2) l u-~ t
3) J -E
4) -- A
4. -J 2012 j J-T v -B
C-q -- u A-C -j {
Gq- v--vA?
1) -
2) J-
3) vE-
4) J-Gx
5. v--j vu- E- vy-L--i EEo - s v Y--h -\o. s \ C?
1) Z-L 2) tF 3) -J 4) j
6. h - -vG-- PETA -
Ey--* y --u?
1) , Lx -
2) u, vA j
3) Nv, K 4) G- a,
7. ' v-v-- s- h
-vA ?
1) F--
2) Pp-E-
3)
4) N--
8. t -f2012 -C* Go o JE
Jh-.
1) J NJ
2)
3) O -y
4) @ v-tu
9. vA-e-t j u-j -*-vj - n
C -J--E -A C u-C
1) N-
2)
3) v--
4) q
10. Z-L- 2012 - Tq N
1) J - u 2) --q u
3) Nd-J - - 4) E M
11. vA-e-t pd q f 2011- -
---J --a?
1) -N
2)
3) -v- E
4) q d
12. jy v--j p-j o n O~ N
E-C- - v-y-E -Jp-*C.
N jt ?
1) .-v-R
2) E -\
3) > |
4) v
13. Fd- -n -\2011 v?
1) .-.
2) .
3) .-..
4) . @
14. v vy Z-E C 35 x o
-B--- 2013 N Ky K-~-
-u -- Lp-*C?
1) 2) H 3) 4) t--Qt
15. v- A-duh (h 59.9.O.) TEo
Jf %d-* v - T -n?
1) L-pq 2) j 3) Ml- 4)
16. -sq vA x--* N- v v--
u o C?
1) yb-x 2) D -G 3) 4) -
17. 2012 v--J o \ f v
?
1) 83

2) 84

3) 85

4) 86

18. xC-N A u u-~- Ja 2012 Eo-u. u~ N -d o-J?


1) 3

2) 4

3) 2

4) 1

19. 2011 -q--E v--* 59 B --*v


fx h -\ -J G-*C?
1) TK -Jg
2) F-
3) t--
4) Jy-
20. - Hx Eo- J-T h v--E
h - n u ?
1) 403

2) 405

3) 407

4) 409

21. sq vA N- v v- u - x x. h ?
1) 6,700 x x
2) 6,900 x x

-v--y --u-

(GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY)

3) 5,700 x x
4) 5,900 x x
22. x--K E- E-C v
'x--x - -yu
v- -- n
1) 105

2) 103

3) 101

4) 99

23. * -\ -KE x-- J-T


u V ?
1) 2012 Ja 12
2) 2012 Ja 14
3) 2012 Ja 16
4) 2012 Ja 18
24. v vy - N- - v
Z-E - u ?
1) 1,10,24,534

2) 1,20,24,534

3) 2,20,24,534

4) 2,10,24,534

25. -* - u-~- Eo--u?


1) b - 2) Z 3) tF 4) vq
26. -- 2012 v Ko N
1) -n 2) X 3) x- 4)
27. v -q Ja 2012 \ Ey--?
1) uMx 2) 3) u\ 4) u
28. v 2012 Z vy j J-y v--*
y u-v -~ v >x C?
1) _ 2) -f 3) X- 4) C--
29. UNHCR vu --J E-N---u?
1) q -
2) -L L
3) J -
4) J Z
30. G-%Cl u (ADB) -ox f jt-
E-N---u?
1)
2) .. E
3) .. %g
4) v Kb
31. -J- v- y vG-*
uh
1) {
2) q x
3) NL q
4)
32. l-E '- J p-C?
1) E-\
2) v
3) -
4) t--
33. V - d- h v--
o?
1) s 2) -U 3) - 4) --
34. h u v v
1) ---, Nv--- ---
2) -> -y, \--, v uA---
3) j-h y -- ~ G-hC
4) jFo
35. Tx d- F *ai - l CC?
1) q 2) x 3) Ed 4) Ll-
36. ~ u- -* x Dl "Mb E
?
1) t
2) M-
3) My
4) L
37. --- p- - n
1) - E- 2) v ---
3) y- 4) - ---
38. 'iv-\- i-J vA-E-C B v-j
x -o - ?
1) f |
2) f Ld
3) f v
4) f b
39. '-Z v- G JC?
1) - -@
2) --%g
3) --- A
4) -t-D
40. -F y yEo \- -d vG
-o -
1) f Ld 2) f Jp 3) f v 4) f b
41. uhE N- jx d
C--Eo vG v-y-E *a d C?
1) 1909 N-x d
2) 1919 q-f d
3) 1935 vy d 4) d
42. 'AE --E-* C D@ E- v-z-
J--* V
1) 1919 Ja 8
2) 1919 Ja 14
3) 1919 v 6
4) 1919 v 13
43. <--- ---E N?
1) -- j-u- %d-

-v-- --u-

-v---

Time: 2.30 Hrs

2) v- --
a-E
vy Eg--
3) vx -
n- vy
E--J-
4) vx C o
44. -t-D -d --v _o j
v
1) oE v-tu 2) kx
3) ---u
4) T_- --%-gu
45. K- - uEo l --E
JB-C?
1) --
2) E--
3) u-v
4) y
46. NL- q x--- b v
1) --
2) G-c -
3) -
4)
47. D Jy -j - p ?
1) 1930

2) 1931

3) 1932

4) 1935

48. -B- x Nu u-- x L-T


u--L
1) -B-- o u- a
2) vG-xj t --
3) -- v---u
4) x Nu -- u-*C
49. v-v M- - u--Jz
ENj-
1) -x J--y-h-- 2) O--L
3) -A --o 4) T_- --%-gu
50. fM u-v J J-TC?
1) j
2) Jt
3) N -
4) --
51. A--, N- <L - v
u-~ ?
1)
2) GK
3) --- u 4) - @
52. y- -Kd -q-x Eo-x _C?
1) 1923, 1926

2) 1919, 1923

3) 1924, 1927

4) 1919, 1922

53. ---Eo , -n- N->- -


vA C?
1) vq N vA-- 2) G- N vA--
3) f x v- v-J 20, 1947
4) v-R W 3, 1947
54. jyK N-Eo -q- v---d?
1) 1792

2) 1794

3) 1796

4) 1798

55. --- u j jv ?
1) f Jf
2) f- h v
3) f --
4) f-
56. -uJ-- -p-- Eo-x --J-?
1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

57. C-- J E Eo Jh-.


1) ~- -- E Jd- 15
2) p \ Jd- 19
3) v ~ \ Jd- 20
4) u J--- \ Jd- 32
58. vy u--- ---E o-,
- --x v-v--y-E a E--Eo-F
--h?
1) -Fq EC 2) Gx
3) -% EC
4) ->x, EC
59. u J-C v-N NC--EC
1) y-vA Eox --
2) Y pJhE -C-
3) v hE -
4) u--E d-, E -z- -N-
60. u--E -C* C -
J-Q-L-.
) v-N \ G) v-N N
) u-N- -P v
vy v d B ->
u-v j \o x E
%h -hC?
1) v 2) v 3) , 4) , G,
61. Op M u~ -- v-y p

\---

--- x----:

\-- N- C?
1) M \--
2) o \--
3) -A Nu \--
4) \--
62. v-d 'u--O~ C-
1) u-Eo E-N O-~-
2) NN d u l, K-~-
3) -E u-n- E-B- O-~-
4) Bp O-~-
63. u--O~ C---E --- J-N-
-E N?
1) u-E-y- _ Cu 2) -- Cu
3) u Cu 4) u--h C-M-- x
64. --- u-, - u----
--AE --a- -u-C C?
1) u u
2) u
3) vB vO u 4) ~ t- n
65. -H, u T_- E J-B-hC?
1) \- J \ vuy
2) \- \ vuy
3) \ vu-y p
4) u u JEo ->x O--J-h
66. yv Jn u-n -d
u-v-Eo Jh-.
1) qu-q -F- B
2) d-u - B
3) u u-- d
4) -{ v-R- v---d
67. -B Jy u p B ?
1) 1943

2) 1946

3) 1949

4) 1952

68. ----- A-l u u


1) --H-
2) E- u
3) p-- u 4) - u
69. B J-y- u Ey Ep-Ah
--- v--- n N?
1) -L-y--E u u _ vu
\- C
2) -L-y--E Jy u _ vu
\- C
3) -L-y--E v-v-y _ vu
\- C
4) -L-y--E u u _ vu
\- C
70. 201213 v b h - u ?
1) .13,90,925 x 2) .14,90,925 x
3) .15,90,925 x
4) .16,90,925 x
71. u --v- 5 - h ---E y- -Eo -- --h?
1) 5

2) 6

3) 7

4) 8

72. b Z J--l
1) H, h--v-, u-v-, Pa
2) H, u-v-, Pa , Bh-
3) H, h--v-, , Bh-
4) H, u-v-, Pa ,
73. C-- A---j B o Z ?
1) N-- 2) 3) v-v- 4)
74. ---Eo E - Z, vL
v N->-?
1) J-v ,
2) -R , \%-A -y
3) J-v, -R ---, \%-A -y,
4) ~-, -
75. u N u _ V
1) W 21 2) d- 22 3) - 22 4) -J 3
76. A---i v C?
1) v 2) -- 3) 4)
77. PL v- Nt -E \ -h?
1) t--Qt
2) -- v
3)
4) -- v
78. --- (-) O--E P C?
1) -d 2) -d 3) j- 4) -v-TJ

www.eenadupratibha.net

--v- 25 - 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP -I (PRELIMS) - 2012 MODEL GRAND TEST


79. - -- vEo Jh-.
1) -J, -C, t, A
2) -J, t, C, A
3) t, -J, A, -C
4) t, A, -J, -C
80. B E-v u-v-Eo -p- -v---d?
1) 1944

2) 1954

3) 1964

4) 1974

81. -- Jn- u-i N?


1) g-- -a
2) g-- \ -a
3) x-A -
4) -
82. %Ah v-~ x --
FE Ey- hE p--o?
1) 2 * 3
2) 3 * 4
3) 1 * 2
4) 4 * 6
83. A \ a pAh -L Nu-a h
1) -h
2) t Nu-a h
3) Nu-a h
4) h
84. J J Nx-Eo v d q
1) 1960

2) 1963

3) 1965

4) 1967

85. '-j E-Eo -x -?


1) J-v
2) Nu J-v
3) p u-J K 4) J K
86. - -\ t--Eo -
n-?
1) _- 2) -- 3) 4) -
87. p- 28 Z C?
1) h-- 2) Bh- 3) ^ 4)
88. >---> y v u-
\ C?
1) 2) - 3) uMx 4) j o
89. u--u--N-A 193 u J ~
-E C?
1) _-J 2) V 3) 4) d
90. v- C- pAh
1) j 2) 3) u 4) X
91. Nh Ey- N-- v u- *
v % u-- p a?
1) 2002

2) 2005

3) 1990

4) 1994

92. C-- N-h -C* t


N?
1) - N h-u-h--
2) K n v, h d; @-- p- --u J-nA
3) Jn J-n-A l h d
4) jFo
93. C j uEo Jh-.
1) j-Ku N C-J-
2) Nh N L-
3) Nh N j-K-u u---
4) jFo
94. C J--EC
1) N-h- T_--a
2) N-h- E-J--a
3) N-h- E-J--a
4) N-h- E-J-
95. - - -Nh C v
--C?
1) vA
2)
3) l-vA
4) ---j
96. N-h x \- -
-Nho?
1) v
2)
3) h -J
4) ~ -J
97. J-v-N- G-%Cl C - Lap
G-%Cl o x N-h x L
d Eo x o?
1) 5

2) 10

3) 20

4) 25

98. Nh T_ V B C Eyh?
1) d- 29
2) - 14
3) - 4
4) -J 13
99. v-v- - J-C
C?
1) 1, 2
2) 2, 3

3) 3, 4
4) 4, 5
100. N-h- -\-- v-N u
E C?
1) v vy
2) Z vy
3) >x J--- v 4) nE vy
101. Z Js~ J-n - 2011 K
Eo x -d J-T-E Z
u v-E EC *aC.
1) .5747 x
2) .6747 x
3) .7747 x
4) .8747 x
102. - -- d--E -- N-* To v- 357 C jD v
p-. d C?
1) Z 2) - 3) vq 4) tF
103. -- ---N?
) N-- p N--- -
G) To y-
) N-L v
) v
1) , G
2) ,
3) , G,
4) , G, ,
104. v-v-- C- -x u >x C?
1) X-
2) p---J
3) %g
4) x
105. C-- Nh Ey- -C* h
u- Jh-.
1) E-, --, -l
2) --, ~, u
3) J-K (--, -Jo-t)
4) jFo
106. d - vp h
1) A-h
2) --Eh
3) nA-h
4) Nu--h
107. 'g' N Ej ---?
1) v
2) N * h
3) N *
4) h vu-P
108. v wj- d d-E p-C
1) G--v-
2) n-
3) --
4) -v
109. v-o A--- C?
1) E, h
2) Ah,
3) , y
4) vu-P,
110. <- - B-E -T N?
1) X - -
2) -
3) A -
4) - -
111. C-- ya Zx u x \-
C?
1) T 2) L- 3) \ 4) u-N-E
112. h-E - - ---C?
1) x- 2) ~- 3) n 4) j-O-
113. C-- -i _ C E hC?
1) Lj o
2) Gu-N- _
3) vj _
4) _
114. jv--F--- --T vp-
1) 2) x 3) E 4)
115. u C
1) 2) y 3) v 4) i x
116. x - Ey -E --T -
1) - j p
2) xj
3) p u-J x
4) - -j
117. V -K -l-N?
1) o--, -o
2) p-j E,
3) , o--, 4) O-
118. L s j j q J- - ?
1) 3%

2) 3.3%

3) 0.03%

4) 0.3%

119. @- E L-T --N?


1) - - 2) \ j` u -
3) \ j` u - 4) %u -
120. \ -y-J- -Lq - N?
1) - s j j q -- E
2) - q- -- E
3) -y-J-Eo E
4) - jv- -- E
121. s-- J-T y jTyEo ElJ

1) 2
2) 12
3) 4
4) 6
122. - u
N-N Ey
C?
1) G2 2) G6 3) G12 4) G3
123. N-N G12 o -N?
1) -----N
2) E-
3) jJ-q
4) jx-N
124. -J E-- - -\-o--?
1) yf o
2) a
3) --N
4) q v
125. x { x \ N- -?
1) x 2) v 3) 4) x
126. v--u-h Jf n g-v- -j
-q -C* 2011 n
1) 10

2) 11

3) 12

4) 13

127. - --Qt u-, Y -A Ny-N-u 2012 Ja xE N- -


%d-*C?
1) * 2) 3) 4) A
128. v- L--J uh x,
Jp ju -j -
C-?
1) Z-L 2) vq 3) M 4) K\
129. v-- u l-j 7 Ox -u-
o 746 v -*-v- N-
C?
1) -J 2) j 3) 4) u
130. - 2 -v-Eo v-T-*C?
1) j 2) -J 3) vq 4) x
131. -C u vE -E.
78 97 65 34 28 97 24 59 29 76 47

v 7 9 , 7 -- 6
L-T 7 Eo o?
1) 2

2) 3

3) 4

4) 5

132. u-t- -, 6 x L*, 4 -. Go


1) 3/2

2) 1/2

3) 3/5

4) 2/5

133. - 40 Mx FC. 2/5 FE B,


NT-L F Sx 2/6 FE Bh, -
NT-L F- J- (-M-x-)
1) 16

2) 24

3) 8

4) 32

134. --A B j * 9 uh, C C * 7


uh. A J_ JlJ u o. B, A u
- uh-, h Nun ?
1) 20

2) 25

3) 30

2) 360

2) 1 : 5

4) 720

3) 1 : 6

4) 1 : 8

137. x N---N. a V D-R.


V ---i, D-R V
--C?
1) C-
2) -
3) -
4) v-
138. u 135. l u 180.
NT-L u 25. *o u
C?
1) 80

2) 90

3) 100

4) 110

139. uh h C 18 .O., y p C
6 .O., ~ C 14 .O. v-- .
*- - C 3 .O. vh,
v n * Eo Ox
o?
1) 3

2) 5

2) C

3) 7

3) D

6
2

4) E

6
3

1) 1
3) 480

136. , v - EpAh 2 : 7, J u 40 x. x J
- EpAh ?
1) 1 : 4

1) B

142. Mx v--* uh l-A x?


1) q 2) j 3) N 4)
143. C- n, l- -C*
J--EC C?
1) v- --
2) -- -
3) Mx -q
4) j--- -q
144. C--- D --C-* j- --
1) -- -q
2) v- --
3) j--- -q
4) Mx q
145. uh--- l-- -C* J--EC
1) E - N
2) C -
3) D -
4) A - q
146. A, B, C, D, E, F %h- d ao. x uh -E* p.
D, F u A o; C - D o.
D,
E \ \ x a-. --
C jC C?
1) A - B o 2) D - E o.
3) C, B \--\ o.
4) B, E \--\ o.
147. l-, F *o. l-, F
*o-. -J- l- ?
1) 2) 3) 4)
148. uh, nE - --o.
-Lq V V a-E
---o. y a E-
n-E -E , Eo V -u/
nEo --?
1) V
2) V u
3) V u 4) V
149. -C--- 3 uA-- -- Jh-.
4

5
2

1
6

4) 16

135. 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, ?


1) 240

N, , ) v--.
[ Mx v--* uh - x-.
[ C - , B - N- x.
[ D - v-h, E jx v--.
[ * Mx, v- q J-.
141. Mx Rx----?

4) 9

140. uhE J- h ' u


v \--\ . --C. -- uh
--?
1) - 2) 3) v 4) h
(141145): C --Eo v-h CN,
vo -Ly.
[ A, B, C, D, E o-
* 5 y (v, -, Mx, , j--) NN l-x (q, j,

- --Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---:

2) 4

3) 5

150. %h u-l
%h ju EpAh
1) 2 : 4

2) 4 : 2

4)

h J-
Ep-Ah ,

2:4

3) 1 : 4

4) 4 : 1

( vo--vEo j--E RICE P~


n E- % -C-*C)
KEY
1-4, 2-2, 3-1, 4-3, 5-1, 6-1, 7-3, 8-2, 9-3, 10-3, 11-1,
12-2, 13-3, 14-4, 15-4, 16-3, 17-2, 18-1, 19-1, 20-1,
21-2, 22-1, 23-3, 24-4, 25-3, 26-1, 27-2, 28-4, 29-2,
30-4, 31-1, 32-1, 33-3, 34-4, 35-2, 36-4, 37-3, 38-3,
39-2, 40-4, 41-4, 42-3, 43-2, 44-1, 45-2, 46-2, 47-2,
48-3, 49-4, 50-1, 51-2, 52-1, 53-4, 54-1, 55-4, 56-1,
57-3, 58-3, 59-1, 60-2, 61-4, 62-2, 63-3, 64-1, 65-1,
66-3, 67-3, 68-1, 69-1, 70-2, 71-3, 72-3, 73-3, 74-2,
75-4, 76-1, 77-2, 78-2, 79-2, 80-2, 81-1, 82-3, 83-3,
84-3, 85-4, 86-2, 87-3, 88-2, 89-2, 90-1, 91-1, 92-4,
93-4, 94-3, 95-3, 96-2, 97-3, 98-1, 99-2, 100-2, 1011, 102-2, 103-4, 104-4, 105-1, 106-3, 107-4, 108-4,
109-1, 110-4, 111-1, 112-2, 113-3, 114-3, 115-2,
116-1, 117-3, 118-3, 119-3, 120-2, 121-4, 122-3,
123-1, 124-1, 125-4, 126-2, 127-3, 128-4, 129-2,
130-1, 131-1, 132-4, 133-1, 134-2, 135-4, 136-2,
137-2, 138-3, 139-2, 140-4, 141-4, 142-2, 143-3,
144-2, 145-1, 146-4, 147-3, 148-4, 149-2, 150-3.

( v d @x....)
www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 26 - 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP -I (PRELIMS) - 2012 MODEL GRAND TEST


No. of Questions: 150

Max. Marks: 150

1. v u E-C v -- n B-- N-h x L vu~ d


(x)?
1) 5

2) 12

3) 8

4) 2

2. ---j C v \%A
C?
1) h Pp
2) u
3) *v--
4) Pp-
3. v--u-h - x p- u
- ~ , p ,
- v x E--h-o?
1) 60

2) 75

3) 67

4) 90

4. 2012 13 v -b u-- -A
?
1) . 55,000 x
2) . 5,75,000 x
3) . 6,00,000 x
4) . 6,25,000 x
5. D - -C-* HUNGAMA E-C
v d-- ---o -x
x ?
1) 33%

2) 42%

3) 66%

4) 58%

6. u-u--n v-v-- uu v---d-p v u-Jh ?


1) . --x
2) ..
3) - Nv
4) .. -A
7. v -B C q -
- Ey--?
1) j 2) - 3) j o 4) -
8. 2012 13 v -b Gq-- -E
J-N -E \-o?
1) 5%

2) 8%

3) 4%

4) 2%

9. ----E v v - ygq
-- --C?
1) N--o 2) -D 3) x 4) Ll
10. v--u-h -d J\ J-{ 2005
u u-- -v (HFA) -C-* n
C?
1) --
2) \
3) ------
4) E-
11. u v Jn Et
C?
1) u-~, - u
2) u-~, -- u
3) u-~ - u
4) u-~, p---p Z-A N-
u
12. v---- --T FE v--J vv
C?
1) xJ--
2) d--
3) Z-
4) -j--
13. -q- ' C v _Eo
a x, HE 17 >x Bv
p -u?
1) 2005

2) 2008

3) 2009

4) 2010

14. - hx *a \ \ t-
-E CC?
1) h J
2) ~ J
3)
4) -
15. -- h -R Nh-g v
o Nhg ?
1) 66.7

2) 58.6

3) 33.3

4) 75.6

Dendrology

Eo J* u- hC?
1) -
2) F---
3) %~
4)
17. --- -- N- p
p ?
16.

1) 1976

2) 1978

3) 1987

4) 1996

18. - d Ja -d-u \C?


1) Mx 2) 3) v- 4) o
19. vq uC --C?
1) ud-J 2) j 3) v- 4)
20. --- Nh u-C- o -ZC?
1)
2) H
3) h--v-
4)
21. 3 .O. -u, y 4 .O.
o- -. vh ---J
v * o?
1) 7 .O. 2) 6 .O. 3) 5 .O. 4) 4 .O.

-v--y --u-

(GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY)

22. jB p -N-*C?
1) 12, -J 2010
2) 12, -J 2011
3) 26, - 2010
4) 13, W 2008
23. 1932 d 20, E uA-- - j
D@ E---D~ v-G-?
1) u-v O vGx --
2) D--Jy -- x-
3) q- --f u- f
4) -h ---i
24. 2011 v n jt- -j--?
1) j--
2)
3) j x@ NY 4) Gx
25. 2005 Qt -N-* x
u-C- d-- v-C?
1) t
2) ---v-
3) -n
4) _-E-n
26. C A , D B d, D C j
Eo d ?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

27. 'y--CE - E v-G-?


1) --t-
2) -v-
3) y--v Nu-- 4) O--L
28. - O a-J vEo (PTWC) \
n-?
1) - ()
2) (--)
3) u ()
4) d vq
29. \ vA -- ?
1) - v--f 2) - ---
3) _ -%g 4) --pu
30. -h-F J -J?
1) u-
2) -b-
3) L
4) xv
31. vh ~ J u-~ ?
1) --
2) u
3) ---
4)
32. %- v --E v jyvA J n E-N-?
1) Kb
2) C vAD
3) Q---
4)
33. - --d --J-* >o \
Z-E C ---u?
1) Bh--
2) h--
3)
4) u-v-
34. v, -, d-v u o -Eo
*a L C?
1)
2)
3)
4)
35. 1917 B v - \ JTC?
1) 2) -h 3) 4) l
36. 1875 C--- jE \ n-?
1) v
2) Gx
3) u\
4)
37. u--E 11 u \o --B n Ey-Jh--Lq C--, N Eo?
1) 29

2) 24

3) 18

4) 16

38. - 9 14 EN- -hC.


x, EN- x n -p
Ja-p ?
1) 2 48 EN- 2) 2 47 EN-
3) 2 46 EN- 4) 2 45 EN-
39. u * -q -E 500
--j B-o - f u .
2.50. u fx u ?
1) 0.25%

2) 0.5%

3) 1%

4) 2.5%

40. -E yvu *a--p v u-~


?
1) l
2) .G. %-E
3) -t-D
4) --- v
41. 1857 A-- -- -o
- ?
1) f E
2) f |
3) f Jp
4) f Jf
42. CJ ---Eo -Jz-* NQ

-v-- --u-

-v---

Time: 2.30 Hrs

-J ?
1) --F
2) -
3) --q
4) -h-F
43. uh vy-%d (Short sight) C. n

1) _ o h-- --
2) o h-- --
3) <--E h-- --
4) g y C
44. ' J\- v -
?
1) G.>. A
2) G..
3) ----A-
4) ..
45. u N----Eo
-Jz-* a-U vA- ?
1) E
2) l
3) E
4) \-
46. CJ -JE -h Y
N-h?
1) q vq
2) NL q
3) {
4) -b- E
47. 11 -l K-E -o --Eo
EJt-?
1) F-- v-uo 2) --t -
3) --H
4) -
48. Mx -CE EJt-?
1) O
2) --Eo
3) -Eo
4) -
49. N-- vGx Eo v J--C--E p ?
1) L--- 2) K
3) "- -
4) fM u-v
50. T J-v v E
-C-*C?
1) u
2) h u
3) u
4) Qt u
51. 'C dK C -v- C - dq
v - ?
1) G..
2) . ----J
3) %g--
4) N.. O
52. U y- NE- 56 ho vl N
\ C?
1) 2) v- 3) 4) X
53. v TE u-C pAh -C?
1) 2) *M 3) q 4) M-N
54. v h- y P--C?
1) u y
2) _ y
3) L- y
4) - y
55. --- -J O v \ \
C?
1) -, E- D 2) v-v-
3) u-v-
4) ~-D-
56. t-- n-* Ny Nu- C?
1) ~-P 2) Nv--P 3) 4) xG
57. --- 'o-\ C?
1) _
2)
3) -
4) A----
58. u-C F - o Z
1) u
2) h--v-
3) -Z
4)
59. E TJ- %u N?
1) TJ- %u
2) p %u
3) %u
4) C %u
60. jA - x - -Z- - {
h?
1) N-- 2) -Z 3) 4) v-v-
61. >v-d -C N-D-ho N?
1) LG, vq
2) , Mb-J
3) pE , p
4) p,
62. Nh-g v-v- A-l >x.
E yA n o >x C?
1) ----
2) v
3) -
4) N--o

\---

--- x----:

63. s u, v-v- Cj
p-jC?
1) -A 2) o 3) %g 4) -J
64. vA J- 2005 -d
-N-*C?
1) x-
2) --
3) -t
4) -J h Z
65. '*wf t j j q -
E-N---u?
1) M
2) @t
3) C
4) D
66. 201213 b u-C v-N-* v
o C?
1) o
2) v j q
3) p- o
4) d q
67. uh h- 108 -- Nt
- d hC. 132 -- Nt
C d-E d C.
h ?
1) . 120 2) . 116 3) . 124 4) . 96
68. s B \ Z C?
1) h--
2) - v
3) H
4) u-v-
69. x ZE d -LxC?
1) Pa
2)
3) N--
4) -Z
70. 2011 - -N-* O y
-- N- ho ux- J-d C?
1) -
2)
3) N
4) --
71. | u-% ~ v Z C?
1) H 2) u-v- 3) g- 4)
72. -N * h N--, C--
-v-v ?
1) --E vA-u
2) ux- M-/-u-x- u
3) Jt-
4) ux- N*aAh
73. v- u -j C C?
1) vt-v 2) @ 3) - 4) j
74. v Nu J--- v \ C?
1) x 2) 3) -- 4) Xj
75. 84 \ -\-x -j h *v C?
1) 2012
2) C j L-
3)
4) C Jdd
76. 1912 j-E -v E-T--C?
1) - --v 2) x- --v
3) --v 4) %--v
77. \ y x ~, C Z y
C?
1) -n
2)
3) ---v-
4) t--Qt
78. u-\ Fj --o-, E
4/5 F ET C. FE 800 NMx-M-x
-B-p- u-\ ---T-*- -F- -J-
?
1) 1140 N.M.
2) 200 N.M.
3) 800 N.M.
4) 1000 N.M.
79. - -\o Y-h ?
1) -v
2) v J-
3) v Nd
4) x q
80. ~ x L - -jC?
1) -X
2) CF t
3) A A_
4) - C
81. - - p-t-
Ky- (--) \ C?
1) N--o
2) >
3) *
4) j--
82. u-Kx x C?
1) - x
2) jv-x-J x
3) p u-J x
4) jv x

www.eenadupratibha.net

--E 26 - 2012

-- j---

APPSC GROUP -I (PRELIMS) - 2012 MODEL GRAND TEST


83. ---q -N?
1) jv
2) q-v
3) jx q
4) jx-j
84. -- -Z-E-q --- f-J E
f- --T -J- C?
1) ,
2) ,
3) u-N-E, 4) u-N-E,
85. N d A--o %vA -v C . u--{ ...
1) -- ---
2) v -{ x n
3) E n --E ---i Eo --a
4) E --E ---i y-Eo --a
86. Ly v-L- u (LPG) v-
-C?
1) u
2) O
3) >
4) -- jv--sx Nv
87. vA L--,
-v v---, %h
F
A B D E
- *-hC. L-,
C
v--j E-
-C?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

88. v-R - -C-* v-- G-%Cl


Z-E CC?
1) vA 2) 3) - 4) \
89. J{ v -b - C N--i-p
1) -b -J*, AJT -Jp-h
2) -b - u-- -
3) v Jn---vAE @- -E -
4) v--vA, vA--L @- h
90. Js q-v --- CE -C-?
1) q Et-
2) E-~--u Et-
3) --Jt Et-
4) jFo
91. - Z-L- -\o u v--
v uL ---L- uC x hC?
1) 2) 3) ~ 4) \
92. ----- ----x- E C?
1) L-
2) jv-
3) q-
4) jv-
93. v-v- u-C v, h d L-T-*
- p -N-*C?
1) 1977

2) 1990

3) 1996

4) 2001

94. lEo -b-B v%A N-h T_


- v--*C?
1) 1990 2000

2) 2000 2010

3) 2010 2020

4) 1980 1990

95. B v L u~
?
1) ->-F--
2) E-G-
3) N--~ t
4)
96. --- jv- ----E
1) Q C- x
2) L-j x
3) \ y-J x
4) q-- L F x
97. J-d- - E N?
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2) uvx Eo
3) J-d- x---
4) --u EL---
98. \ \- -- N?
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2) F,
3) F,
4) , -
99. 'i v--E{- q vEo *-*
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2) . @--f
3) -v-v-
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2) -
3) . -v-
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101. C-- J-EC
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102.

103.

104.
105.

106.

3) v u N --- v
4) vB u N l x-
l- v -E %-C ?
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2) v vA
3) uG v-K 4) v--u-- -vA
1980 2010 u-- --- -N-*
v%A N-h h u 431.
N-h u ?
1) 56

2) 92

3) 38

122.

123.

124.

4) 184

107. J\-- uC ---E hC?


1) 2) 3) x 4)
108. Rh ud- -\o Y-h ?
1) qM
2) d
3) NL-q
4)
109. B UEo p, \ ?
1) 1950, -J 24, --
2) 1950, -J 24, Mx
3) 1942, 26, -h
4) 1911, 27, -h
110. Et - E vO
1) F -
2) -F -
3) Nu
4) L-
111. -{ v-R
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112. ---, u---E E - u---
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3) 16

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1) 25

2) 75

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4) 50

129. u- 3/8, 2/7 u uu 25 ,


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2) 260

3) 270

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130. 'Bh C -C?


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128. h O (NL-x)N-h J -C?

2) 216

3) 215

4) 236

136. - x--o-p 'A', 'B' x-p L


- JE Eo - E--da?
1) 6

2) 12

3) 18

4) 24

137. 2011 12 Jn y v n B
- ?
1) 55.1%

2) 57.8%

3) 59.6%

4) 66.66%

4) 18

120. CJ --Z-A - Z-A uh


?
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4) 14%

141. C-- ' u C?


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1) 2) - 3) 4) ~
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1) h--v-, u-v-, -, ,
2) h--v-, h--, , -,
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147. Jy u, u T_- E
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1) \- J \ vuy
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148. Z u~ - u-C-
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2)
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149. 63 -v -- u A-C -j
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4) -
150. 2011 2012 -q--E
---u pAh ? (NL- ox)
1) 250.4

2) 225.2

3) 230.5

4) 262.4

( vo--vEo j--E CAREER


P~ n E- % -C-*C)
KEY
14, 21, 34, 42, 52, 64, 71, 84, 92,
103, 111, 121, 132, 142, 152, 163, 172,
183, 192, 203, 213, 221, 233, 243, 253,
262, 272, 281, 291, 301, 312, 322, 333,
342, 352, 363, 371, 383, 391, 402, 411,
424, 431, 441, 451, 464, 472, 481, 491,
504, 514, 523, 532, 543, 551, 562, 573,
582, 594, 603, 614, 621, 631, 644, 653,
663, 672, 681, 691, 701, 712, 724, 734,
741, 754, 762, 771, 783, 794, 803, 814,
823, 834, 842, 853, 861, 872, 881, 894,
901, 912, 921, 931, 941, 952, 964, 971,
982, 991, 1002, 1011, 1022, 1032, 1044,
1053, 1064, 1071, 1082, 1094, 1103, 1113,
1121, 1133, 1143, 1154, 1162, 1171, 1181,
1193, 1203,1213, 1221, 1232, 1242, 1253,
1263, 1272, 1284, 1294, 1302, 1314,
1324, 1333, 1341, 1353, 1362, 1371,
1384, 1392, 1403, 1411, 1423, 1432,
1444, 1454, 1463, 1471, 1481, 1492,
1501.

www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 27 - 2012

-- j---

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--j-: http://nausena-bharti.nic.in
www.eenadupratibha.net

--C 27 - 2012

-- j---
Sneha Pallavi Joshi,
Kakinada

Q. Sir please say whether the


following sentences are
correct or not.
1. Does anyone have any
doubts to get to be clarified by
me.
2. If you hadn't been in Gajuwaka, you
would have studied here.
3. She has thrown the pen towards/to me.
4. I will only be the person to be
scolded/who will be scolded.
5. Who do you want to get your doubts clarified by
Ans: The correct sentences are:

their school.
2. I put him in the job (I put him on the job = I
gave him some work)
I joined him in the worker's union.
I got him admitted into the school.
3. You sent your man to jail and me out of it.
4. People with some sense of prestige don't do
so.

Shoeb Khan, Warangal


Q. If you asked me yesterday I would give it
you/If you had asked me yesterday, I would
have given it to you. Which one is correct?
A: If you had asked me yesterday, I would
have given it to you.
Q. Please say following sentences in English.

1. Does any one have/has any one any


doubts to be clarified by me?
2. Correct.

Q. It is an ordinary
fever/It is ordinary
fever - Which one
is correct?
A. ..... an ordinary
fever - Correct.
Q.

d-C

(Please say in
English)
A. I have sprained my neck/I have a sprain in
the neck.
Q. If we have to write an application for a job or
if we have to write a leave letter to our superiors, then what should we write at conclusion i.e. yours faithfully/ sincerely /truly
A. Yours faithfully,

u-i l-A x

Q. Sir, please say whether the following


translations are correct or not?

u x-

A. Speak justly/fairly

Who is talking to who?


3. She has thrown the pen to me - Correct

4. I will be the only person to be scolded/Who will be scolded - Correct.

-x--- 688

1. x \ Eo a-.
2. --E E/\q E--/\ Jp-.
3. O E j o -
Ba.
4. vAe o- .
Ans: 1. They won't (will not) admit you into
Madhukar: You were talking of buying a bike.
When are you going to buy it?

( j
---o. p -o?)

Pradyumna: I think it will take some time. I will


buy it in the coming month.

--E
.)

(
---o. a--

- u J-TC

A. He has had injustice/Injustice has


been done to him.
Q. They had to be at the hospital/ at
hospital - Which one is correct?

A. Don't feel sad about parting from


your friend
M. SURESAN

A. Both are correct. At the hospital, if they are


not patients, and 'at hospital' if they are
patients.

o. J F -?)
Madhukar: Same here. ( -)
Look at the following expressions
2) It will take some time.

\ E-

(Climb (up) the bench and stand?)


A. Stand up on the bench

ou o o.
(My brother is with my father.)

Will he help me?


1) When are you going to buy it?

Madhukar: Why wait till then?

O v * N---o- --.
(Don't feel sad for parting away with
your friend.)

5. ..... clarified by? - Correct


Please translate the following into English.

-- * ?)
3) ...... who will be taking over ......

?) - Permission
b) Midhun: Shall we have your car for a day
tomorrow?
Request

( O -h?)

Future ---E will, am/ is/are +

... ing to (am going/is going/are going etc),


wish/intend to

Pradyumna: My cousin, who will be taking


over as the branch manager here, tells me
that the prices are likely to come down by
then. (

5) I wish to .....

--.

6) I'd rather wait

a) Puran: Will he help me?

Madhukar: Shall I wait till then as well?

You observe that all the words underlined


are future indicators.

\ v - -o
->- p- _-aE -o.)

( - ?)
Pradyumna: Why? (Do) you intend buying a
bike too?

(--? y
j ----o?)
Madhukar: Yes, I'm
tired of my present bike. I wish
to dispose it of.

(. _o j N-T. t-----o.)
Pradyumna: Shall I then tell my cousin to
make it two?

( ->-
j -E p?)

Madhukar: Please. That will be of help to me.

(p-. -----.)
Pradyumna: I'd rather wait for the concession
than pay the actual price. What about
you?

(p d
ox T \ -- ----

4) Shall I wait till then too? / shall I tell .....

. O

'Will' often indicates indefinite future.

( h?)Indefinite
(*a-
--j
Future)

E
-Fo N-uh FUNCTIONAL ENGLISH Bhagath: He will
L-.
(help you), if you ask him.
Shall/Will indicates future - --o-C --
L N. *a (y -T, h)
b) Chakradhar: Will we have time enough to
--E N-u- N L---h.
catch the train? (-vi- --E
I/we shall, you/he/she/it/they will indefiL ?)
nite future . modern usage
Himakar:
We
will, of course, if we start immeEo- will -h-o. 'shall' quesdiately.
(-- -p- ---J ptions p . Questions

C)
Indefinite future, requests, permissions
\, 'Will we .....?' (we o question
I/we shall p-E-J.
'will' Eo -E-. C L-E
Vinod: I'm (I am) very hungry. Shall we have
future. , We will, if we - \ 'if'
something to eat?
( -L C. j A?) - E future *hC).
Future --E 'will' am/is/are
Vikram: I feel like eating too. Where shall we
going to + 1st RDW (am/is/are going to do)
go? ( A--E--hC. \ ?)
--Th. C. C
Vinod: Shall we go to the restaurant and eat
E x- u.
something? (- -Rx j A?)
'Will' E-Pa--i future --Th.
I/We shall requests, permissions
.
am/is/are going to ..... Eg- Eo
(Decision), intention (l), wish (J)
a) Kanchan: Shall I see you tomorrow about
---E .
the money I need? (----i s
N J* NtLo --- Bhaskar: So, what will you do?

-J x---o?
(Who is talking to who/whom?)

A. Who is talking to who?


Suman

O?

(Are you Suman?)


A. ...... Mr. Suman?

N. Vishnuvardhan Reddy, Rajolu

A. Be just/fair

A. Correct.

(O o-p, Mr. Suman L ?)


O J* No, x p.
( I heard about you the children had said)

A. I have heard about you. Children have told


me about you.

*o-p --E D E Jp-.


Union Jp- . x o AE
AJ-. . -
--f \ -x .
(I adopted him when he was a child. I made
him join the work. I made him join the
Union. He had had my food for 10 years
and stood against me. Just the same. He
killed my son on the road like killing a dog.)

A. I took him under my care when he was a


child. I got him a job. I joined him in the
union, I fed him for ten years, but after all
this he turned against me, and killed my own
son as he would kill any dog on the street.

(
h?)
Sudheer: I will tidy
up the house
Tidy up =

(x

l-).
l)

Bhaskar: So, what


are you going to
do?

(
---o?/ ----o?)

Sudheer: I am going to tidy up the house

(x

l---o)
I will tidy up the house

(x l-)
Eg --a.

I am going to tidy up the house

(x l---o-/--l-)
Eg
d Am/is/are ..... ing + 1st RDW-
-E/Eg--E - future EE -C.
Am/is/are + ..... ing + 1st RDW \
*a p-E am/is/are + ..... ing .
a) He will open his new office in a few days.

(Jh -Eg---.)
b) He is going to open his new office in a few
days -

-h-o *a.

c) He is opening his new office in a few days.

(J--h-o l-i--C)
Spoken/Functional English -
vu C.
p C l...
I intend/wish/want to see the minister - vAE
--E l/J-/-----o.
English - Future L
OC. d nAE d j
u.

Spoken English - - - u- -x ---... www.eenadupratibha.net

-- 28 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-I MODEL GRAND TEST


-v-o-: 150
1

P--N -->

. x O-E t- v --
v ?
1) Cl-
2) y --t
3) y v -
4) h
2. R K-~ h-E NuJn -_ v-u. -_ v,
n -?
1) h v-
2) v-
3) y v-
4) o v-
3. C- J-E u:
1) J--y JbiC
2) J--Aj J-N- -a.
3) jN, y-N--yEo J--y -C
4) E- v u, P~- J--y
Jb--a.
4. E- v , -- -
NuJn y v -- E N E-Eo Jh.
1) N v----iC
2) - * EJld
iC
3) *--iC
4) uh- --
5. x J-Q-- ----E lA
1) v--t
2) J-Q-
3) uh u-
4) --J-Q-
6. O N- C jE uT, Eo y
\ o -- ' l-E -d T o E- vv C?
1) o v E-
2) -o- l yn u
3) N-~
4) --Fu-
7. "The Mentality of Apes" v-h
1)
2) -Jn-
3) - 4) ---j
8. C u- l-- uh Ed- d -
v -a.
1) uh u- lA, J-Q- lA, --J-Q-,
v- lA
2) --J-Q-, J-Q--- -lA, uh u- lA,
v--- -lA
3) v lA, uh u- lA, J-Q- lA,
--J-Q-
4) J-Q- lA, v- --lA, --J-Q- lA,
uh u- lA
9. C- J-E N vEo Jh-.
1) N vA uh- N*a-o --C
2) N *--iC
3) N v-- - --J-hC
4) N j-h - -C
10. C lA u-- -Eo V --a?
1) J-Q-
2) v lA
3) uh u- lA
4) yu
11. x--q v - E- t-
LT -E v-Aoh ?
1) - C t--
2) K--E C t--
3) h-N t--
4) -z-t t--
12. uh t - vu ju C.
uh v-h -a?
1) --x 2) j- 3) G-* 4) n u
13. "Bells Adjustment Inventory" E l--
Jh-.
1) y
2) Jn
3) u 4)
14. E ho V - Eo--
*a--p x -, V - ~ vEo
--T----o?
1) ---
2) -Bt--
3) -Bh--
4) J-
15. J-T v-- - -E EqM,
Eqx Jh L , Eg- B- 'EqL vv- -C-*C?
1) x--q 2) ..-o 3) NL-- 4) --Jx
16. u- vv- -C* J-E u
1) u- Nu, %Ah- v-h-- E \L
p-
2) v, vA--u u %i _ -C.
3) v-h p y- C.
4) u- p uh \ -, s
s
17. C- 'S' Type E- C?
1) CS - - CR
2) UCS UCR
3) CS UCR
4) jFo j-
18. '-N u-Eo -u- NN
N->*, Nu-n- C* * L

-h -\-: 150

--: 150 -E-N--

-d, y NN -Jyz
-u-- --J-hox?
1) Y E--
2) u--
3) u-
4) -_ l
19. v-N -j o lA y - C---a l-Eo -C*C?
1) v
2) - 3) -Jn- 4) -
20. q- v vv- -u- \
NJ- NE NuJn h-- C -i
t %A?
1) Ev\--t t %A
2) J\ t %A
3) v-t t %A
4) d t %A
21. 'A' J- n-AE , vh 'B' E
x B E 'A' La---x N vv
1) Nu--J-
2) j-Jo v
3) Nt %A
4)
22. B -- E u- a-o NuJn
vh u a.. vh
u v h h - L-T
1) -- 2) A-- 3) 1, 2
4) D-
23. --y - ~- h--,
o-- ?
1) El-P
2) c
3) -U 4) D-
24. Nu-\ d - 2009 -- E
v
1) 2) \ 3) u Z 4) t--Qt
25. NCF - 2005--p- v v -*C?
1) -
2)
3) SCERT
4) -Z-G-
26. Nu vv- vAv vv- \-o--?
1) q
2) -u
3) sd
4) j--
27. NE- o vu -- x- Jh--E K~ C?
1) v\E K~
2) --v
3) C xd J>d
4) jFo
28. Cl--u- --h-i N
1) A--
2) --
3) -
4) D-
29. uh Jh--yj v vC C?
1) v- vC
2) j- vC
3) -j-- vC
4) x-vC
30. -- C u -uh- n jA-
ny- T---E --_ vA--C-
1) v- n
2) h v- n
3) y v- n
4) n- -j T--a

--

C uEo CN 31 * 36 vo j - Jh-.
\ -----n n-N-a
C\ E gE D-*E p-v
\ -- PH-vE o d! Cdj
\ \ A Lx Lx.
31. %-h-u -q CC?
1) p-- 2) - 3) l 4) h
32. 'PG E- K-- a?
1) L
2)
3)
4) *
33. -J-C v Cl?
1) L -L-
2) X-
3)
b
4) o-u
34. - DE up-h un
1) --p- E- (-)
2) - AJ-- (-)
3) y_ E-- (-)
4) -- --E x-E- (-)
35. u N Ad-?
1) 2) \ 3) \ 4) o
36. 'n n?
1) - 2) AJ-- 3) -- 4) -
C -C-N, 37 * 42 vo- ---- Jh-.
..... (1) X Ny- u--- J ...... (2)
NPd %A -*C. DE v--u -O
J - G- %h--- oC. DEE
NPd %A-E --o? DE jP-d u--N? -N
vo. -, ---- h--, %--G--, --- - % D~ -E
-o Ny- DE vu-~ . 'v-v-h
--E 'p-%~ J jL h d-o
, -Eo - T-L---a.
Ny- x-J To-- E -j --

a. -E .
x --. N
-t--j-.
l % ~--
O. E '%d
N--- x Ny-l- dd t-l- -v- -.
M v h-- DEE ---
v--. C , h c LT---J Eo \-J-- v-o, --
N Ba v-o- -F-
-C .
37. (1) n-- -LqC?
1) t--
2) N--
3) N N-
4) N v
38. -....
1) , h
2) , h
3) , -
4) , -\
39. To- C ?
1)
2) O p-
3) - y-
4) hO p-
40. u- (2) n-- LqC?
1) h-- 2) Cy- 3) u--\ 4) -
41. ---... B--E n?
1) d
2) d -N
3) v---n
4)
42. Ny- J u-E c- f G-*C?
1) v v h
2) - p-%~
3) ---
4) -O
43. C N C?
\ j -
v\ L--
v\
\- DE L -V
1) L- 2)
3) 4) j
44. C- -t v
1) , A
2) a,
3) a, a
4) ,
45. N -- C u?
1) -n u-n
2) ---n
3) Nu-n
4) --u-n
46. vA J ---y --C?
1) - -%-g-t 2) .N. --o
3) --Lx --- 4) X v--u-Y
47. Ny- J ?
1) XX
2) X
3) . ---f
4) yJ N-f
48. x--vJ -O---v *-* jNF
y-E --?
1) A-y
2) y---y
3) u y
4) Y y
49. u-h-u--- o
1) -D
2) B
3) v--
4) \
50. vy o T_-* h- _-.
u-E -- v Eo L-hC?
1) hyn
2) v-n
3) -n 4) u-n
51. - 'o, x - a Nh
1)
2)
3)
4) A
52. - L -vA
1) -t
2) x
3) --
4) x- At\
53. , - - -L v
x-?
1) y--
2) ~---
3) h---
4) u--
54. --, u--, U, --C
x pN?
1) n--
2) n-u-
3) n--{
4) ~u-n- -Cl
55. Z- E Eo v-N --x t yu----, U-Eo * Nu- h-o?
1) h--v- 2) u-v- 3) 4) -Z
56. Nu-n u- xE -, j n-
v-h. C ~u?
1) --
2) -* -j--
3) -G-*
4) --A
57. u- - v-z - *J ?
1) vB-- 2) --- 3) u 4) N-
58. *
vo-v ~-x 'P-* ~u,

n u K-~---N -D-E ?
u-
2) v--
3) h-E-d

4) Ny--F-
59. u C- - 18 -
u \-o?
1) 8
2) 10
3) 12
4) 6
60. Nu-n g Jh--yEo G%Cl C?
1) u-v--R
2) Nu v-R
3) n- v-R
4) J{ v-R
1)

English
61. Suma is not the cleverest of all the girls in the class.
1) Suma is not one of the cleverest girls in the class.
2) No other girl in the class is as clever as Suma.
3) Suma is cleverer than any other girl in the class.
4) Some of the girls in the class are atleast as clever
as Suma.
62. 'I have never spent Christmas alone before, .......?'
Choose the correct question tag to fill in the blank.
1) aren't I
2) have I
3) isn't it
4) haven't I
63. 'The room is cleaned everyday'
The other form of the given sentence is:
1) Somebody cleans the room everyday.
2) Somebody cleaned the room everyday.
3) Somebody cleans the room very now and then.
4) Somebody was cleaning the room everyday.
64. If the doctor had been called earlier, she would still
be alive today.
The above sentence means:
1) She died because the doctor was called but
never came.
2) She died because the doctor was called very
early.
3) She died because the doctor was called late.
4) She died because the doctor was not called.
65. She was .......... seeing the grandchildren again.
Choose the appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the
blank.
1) looking forward to
2) looking over
3) looking into
4) looking after
66. Fill in the blank with the correct verb form.
It's late. It's time we ........ home.
1) went
2) go 3) have gone 4) will go
67. Find the word which is spelt correctly.
1) entrprenuer
2) entrepreneur
3) entepreneur
4) entreprenuer
68. Choose the appropriate sentence:
1) I am going to home now.
2) I am going home on now.
3) I am going home now.
4) I am going for home now.
69. 'Mahesh ........ (wait) for me when I arrived'.
Choose the correct form of the verb given in the
brackets and fill in the blank.
1) has been waiting
2) waited
3) was waiting
4) had been waiting
70. Some people (a)/are interested (b)/ but the majority
(c)/ doesn't care (d).
Find out which part of the sentence has an error.
1) a
2) b
3) c
4) d
The following passage has four blanks.
Choose the suitable word for each blank to make it
meaningful.
One day in 1946, when Mother Teresa was travelling
........ (71) a train, she heard what seemed to her a clear
call from God, to give up ....... (72) and follow him into
the street to serve him among the poorest of the poor.
She soon got permission to leave the order. She set
........ (73) alone ....... (74) a cheap, white cotton sari
with a blue border and a cross on the shoulder.
71. 1) at
2) into
3) by
4) on
72. 1) everything 2) anything 3) nothing 4) something
73. 1) back
2) in
3) out
4) up
74. 1) wore
2) wearing 3) wear
4) wears
75. Iron is ....... useful metal.
1) a
2) an
3) the
4) No article
76. They are sitting .......... the shade of a tree.
1) under
2) in
3) on
4) with
77. Water the plants regularly.
The parts of speech of the underlined word is
1) Noun
2) Adverb
3) Verb
4) Adjective
78. 'He loved her'. The negative form of the sentence is
1) He don't love her
2) He didn't loved her
3) He doesn't love her
4) He didn't love her
79. She said to him, "How is your mother?"
1) She inquired him how his mother was
2) She asked how his mother was
3) She told him how her mother was
4) She asked him how her mother was

-- 28 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-I MODEL GRAND TEST


Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Success does not mean the absence of failures. It
means the attainment of ultimate objectives. It means
winning the war, not every battle. We have met people
and who literally wander through life. They simply
accept whatever fate brings them. A few may succeed
by accident, but most suffer through a lifetime of frustration and happiness. Have you ever wondered why
some individuals, organizations are more successful
than others? It is not a secret. These people simply
think and act more effectively. They have learnt how to
do so by investing in the most valuable asset viz people. The success of an individual organization or country depends on the quality of the people. People can be
your biggest asset or your biggest liability.
80. According to the author success means 1) winning every battle
2) absence of failure
3) attainment of ultimate objectives
4) escaping accidents
81. By wandering through life
1) one succeeds 2) one meets accidents
3) one suffers
4) a few succeed and most suffer
82. The reason why some individuals are more successful than others
1) is a secret
2) is due to the fact that they think and act more
effectively.
3) is due to the possession of large assets
4) is due to the fact that they are learned
83. The success of an organization depends on the
1) quality of their people 2) quality of the organization
3) assets and the liabilities 4) quality of the country
84. The passage is about
1) organization
2) people
3) country
4) success of people
English Pedagogy
85. Establishing a direct bond between word and idea is
the salient feature of .....
1) GT method
2) Direct method
3) Bilingual method
4) Reading method
86. Identify the function word from the following
1) reached 2) brave 3) but 4) accurate
87. Find out the word that consists of the phonetic symbol /x/ from the following .......
1) annoy
2) man
3) custard
4) face
88. Global ability to use the language can be assessed
through ..........
1) Diagnostic test
2) Proficiency test
3) Achievement test
4) Summative test
89. Encoding of thoughts refers to .......
1) interpreting 2) deducing 3) listening 4) writing
90. The following one is the best explanation for the
term 'curriculum' .........
1) an organised plan of a course
2) an academic foundation
3) an evaluation process 4) a process of learning

--

91

. C- C u?
1) Eo u g-
2) Eo g- g u
3) Eo gu -- u
4) Eo -- u - u
92. 9, 18, 36 T--- '2 NT Ee
u
1) 34

2) 39

3) 38

4) 35

93

. u ... '6, u EpAh


l u?
1) 6

2) 12

94 15
(

Eqx K
-x)

1) 20
95

60

4) 36
5

--j

2) 30

3) 35

2) 200

4) 105

. -- - EE 20 Vx h,
- EE Eo Vx h?
1) 10

2) 25

3) 30

4) 40

97

30
70

. \ vA--

1) 70

2) 30

3) 80
20

. -v \ d--
ju ?
1) 400 m2

2) 16 m2

X = ?
4) 100

O. -v

3) 25 m2 4) 40 m2

99.
3,
5 ,
8 ,
10
4
2
1)
2)
5
3
2

98

Eqx K?
4) 40

3) 320

Gox l Go?

100

. l-%-h-E ?

1) 90

2) 180

101
1) 28

3)

4)
10
7

3) 270

4) 360

. %h u 14 O. --E %h ju (.O.--)?
2) 196

. + 12 )

(1

1) 120%
104

3 )
2
2)
19

3) 308

4) 154

1
..... (1+ 19
) = ?
19
1)
3)
10
4)
9.5
2
103. 200 C Nun x 20 C L-
?

102 (1

(1

2) 90%

4 )

3) 80%

4) 150%

. h- . 200 E, . 800 Nt,


?

1) 100%

2) 200%

105 2
5 3
3
1

8
1) 7
15

3) 600%
8
6

4) 300%

12
2) 9
15

* Bh ?

1
3) 3
15

121

2
4) 3
15

106 13 498

. . .O. d O-x h
.
.
4) 1349.88
107. D, M, L, C u -G u
-
1) 50, 100, 500, 1000
2) 1000, 500, 50, 100
4) 500, 1000, 50, 100
3) 100, 50, 500, 1000
108. A:B = 4:2; B:C = 3:5 A:B:C = ?
1) 1 3498 2) 134 98 3) 134988

1) 5:3:6
109

2) 6:3:5

3) 3:5:6

. --
x u-?

1) 300

2) 270

4) 5:6:3

10:00

-j--p

3) 180 4) 330

. \ - . 216, K?
1) . 131.50 j
2) . 129.60 j
3) . 216.40 j
4) . 126.40 j
3
111. W
4 M. W o Eo?
1
90
1
1
1) 24
2 M. 2)
5 M. 3) 22
2 M. 4) 23
2 M.
112. %h u, ul EpAh ?
2) 2:1

3) 3:2

4) 2:3

1) 423

2) 420

3) 576

2) 1589

3) 1595

4) 1585

127

. yq j n-?
1) >
2) v
3)
4) A
128. j ---E N* h--Eo -?
1) h 2) -J-v 3) -v 4) >
129. * Es N-u\ d -C-* -q?
1) 2009

2) 2008

3) 2010

4) 2007

130

113

. C- v-- ?
1) 9, 11
2) 15, 17
3) 21, 23 4) 11,
114. L 6 K~ x C-* \ -J
L C-* h \ Eo?

. -Jxd l E d- -C?
1) ~-v 2) N 3) 4) --
122. %g -J u o q?
1) L-
2) *
3)
4) x
123. x-- J-l -E
Z?
1) 2) - 3) - 4) Pa---
124. v- u-C --v o ?
1) --
2) 3) x- 4) Z-L
125. --- P- E-x \ G- ?
1) --x 2) - 3) \ 4) o
126. Jt-- EJt-* -q?
1) 1591

110

1) 1:2

. vh Nu v-R -Eo \ lA
Cho?
1) - 2) E-
3) x- 4) Nx-
116. C- QJ{ lA vj --?
1) -E E Jj C--i Eo y
2) J v
3) QJ{ J--g
4) l-Aj ---
117. -u-- -Lq ~
1) - l- - h LT L
2) Nu-l j-h - -\-- T
ju L.
3) - v--Eo Ey- n u L
4) jFo
118. K~ - vEo l -u- J u-- y x
h, \ h, vo-v NP-d ?
1) v--
2) Ny--F-
3) N Ed
4) ---t-
119. ~ E-E -----E --C?
1) El- E
2) G-* C
3) J-Q- u
4) *
120. Nun x
--Y
*a-yEo
C -u-- C-
B u EC?
1) v, u- pd
2) -u J_ Nx--
3) - \E, E----Eo --T-
4) _- --J-

--Y

hEo

-- -----@

115

. u \ 40] N 80 u ?
1) 100

96

3) 18

2:3

13
72

4) 432

. NJ-- ---u --o--C --CE?


1
1
1
1
1)
12 2)
3 3)
6 4)
5
.
131 Z--A u ---?
1) p
2) -o
3) v--vA
4) v-d v u-Jh

132

. p-Ah h-- vu h Jn N-uh?


u-N 2) L 3) p- 4) NE-

1)

--u--Y

133

. L, F, -E ~ t-@- E-E V
Y-h?
1) --a 2) xN 3) J-d- 4) Jy
134. -N-A ---d C --
Eo *-hC?
1) - { a -
2) a -
3) v x
4) jFo
135. vM L --C-*- -v-M -n?
1) -J
2) y
3) 4) p
136. SI l-A u--JC?
1) CGS
2) FPS
3) MKS
4) D-
137. v --E u,
xd -. N
1) h g---
2) g---
3) / h g--- 4) D-
138. -p > j q -C?
1)
2) F 3) -
4)
139. x x L C?
1) j-s-
2) E-
3) d-J x
4) D-
140. jE- A \E v--u- --E
J-?
1) v\-v 2) J-\ 3) d\ 4) -NA
141. L y \ -- \?
1) \- o 2) J 3) 4) jFo
142. K Et--E, --- p
1) 2) o
3)
4) d
143. * * _?
1) p
2) B
3)
4)
144. - uC E--E -?
1) n--- 2) kn- 3) n---- 4) n-
145. F u- n v ~u N?
1) -n u- vO-u--n G-%Cl
2) - -n u --p
3) -n u- vu y---
4) N-- -C-
146. Nun xE j-h - %d- B-
J-NA o lA
1) -u 2) v-p 3) E- 4) y-
147. ' -J-- l-A Ch --?
1) vd
2) y-
3) - 4) a
148. J-d v o vo
1) u- vo
2) -j-*a vo
3) vo
4) ---
149. _-- - - h -
LT Gl *o n
1) ---E j
2) u
3)
4) v-
150. * u v- --E ~?
1) u- p
2) *
3) -{---i d
4) C @

- ' - -@-x -v--Jh.


--Z -v--y --C- -Ey-*-
(

www.eenadupratibha.net - ----- --C.)


-I
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--q -v -v-L-q 2012

A -K

B -K

C -K

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11)4 12)3 13)3 14)3 15)2 16)1 17)2 18)2 19)1
20)3 21)3 22)4 23)1 24)3 25)1 26)4 27)3
28)1 29)3 30) 1 31)4 32)1 33)2 34)3 35)1
36)1 37)2 38)1 39)3 40)4 41)2 42)2 43)1 44)4
45)2 46)3 47) 4 48)2 49)2 50)4 51)3 52)4
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61)2 62)4 63)3 64)3 65)1 66)3 67)1 68)4 69)1
70)4 71)3 72)2 73)1 74)3 75)2 76)3 77)2 78)1
79)1 80)2 81)2 82)2 83)3 84)3 85)4 86)2 87)2
88)3 89)1 90)4 91)2 92)4 93)1 94)4 95)4 96)2
97)4 98)1 99)3 100) 101)1 102)3 103)1
104)4 105)2 106)1 107)1 108)2 109)2 110)4
111)4 112)1 113)3 114)4 115)1 116)3 117)4
118)4 119)2 120)3 121)2 122)2 123)3 124)3
125)1 126)2 127)3 128)2 129)1 130)3 131)1
132)3 133)1 134)2 135)3 136)4 137)1 138)2
139)2 140)3 141)2 142)3 143)1 144)4 145)1
146)4 147)4 148)4 149)1 150)2

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4)4 5)4 6)2 7)4 8)1 9)3 10)


11)1 12)3 13)1 14)4 15)2 16)1 17)1 18)2
19)2 20)4 21)4 22)1 23)3 24)4 25)1 26)3
27)4 28)4 29)2 30) 3 31)2 32)1 33)4 34)1
35)3 36)2 37)1 38)4 39)1 40) 41)4 42)3
43)3 44)3 45)2 46)1 47)2 48)2 49)1 50)3 51)3
52)4 53)1 54)3 55)1 56)4 57)3 58)1 59)3 60)1
61)2 62)2 63)3 64)3 65)1 66)2 67)3 68)2 69)1
70)3 71)1 72)3 73)1 74)2 75)3 76)4 77)1 78)2
79)2 80)3 81)2 82)3 83)1 84)4 85)1 86)4 87)4
88)4 89)1 90)2 91)2 92)4 93)3 94)3 95)1 96)3
97)1 98)4 99)1 100)4 101)3 102)2 103)1
104)3 105)2 106)3 107)2 108)1 109)1 110)2
111)2 112)2 113)3 114)3 115)4 116)2 117)2
118)3 119)1 120)4 121)4 122)1 123)2 124)3
125)1 126)1 127)2 128)1 129)3 130)4 131)2
132)2 133)1 134)4 135)2 136)3 137)4 138)2
139)2 140)4 141)3 142)4 143)4 144)4 145)2
146)3 147)1 148)1 149) 150)2

1) 2 2) 4 3)3 4)3 5)1 6)3 7)1 8)4 9)1 10)4 11)3


12)2 13)1 14)3 15)2 16)3 17)2 18)1 19)1 20)2
21)2 22)2 23)3 24)3 25)4 26)2 27)2 28)3
29)1 30) 4 31)2 32)2 33)3 34)3 35)1 36)2
37)3 38)2 39)1 40)3 41)1 42)3 43)1 44)2 45)3
46)4 47) 1 48)2 49)2 50)3 51)2 52)3 53)1
54)4 55)1 56)4 57)4 58)4 59)1 60)2 61)2 62)4
63)1 64)4 65)4 66)2 67)4 68)1 69)3 70)
71)1 72)3 73)1 74)4 75)2 76)1 77)1 78)2
79)2 80)4 81)4 82)1 83)3 84)4 85)1 86)3 87)4
88)4 89)2 90)3 91)4 92)1 93)2 94)3 95)1 96)1
97)2 98)1 99)3 100)4 101)2 102)2 103)1
104)4 105)2 106)3 107)4 108)2 109)2 110)4
111)3 112)4 113)4 114)4 115)2 116)3 117)1
118)1 119) 120)2 121)2 122)1 123)4 124)1
125)3 126)2 127)1 128)4 129)1 130) 131)4
132)3 133)3 134)3 135)2 136)1 137)2 138)2
139)1 140)3 141)3 142)4 143)1 144)3 145)1
146)4 147)3 148)1 149)3 150)1

1) 2 2) 2 3) 3 4)3 5)1 6)2 7)3 8)2 9)1 10)3 11)1


12)3 13)1 14)2 15)3 16)4 17)1 18)2 19)2 20)3
21)2 22)3 23)1 24)4 25)1 26)4 27)4 28)4
29)1 30) 2 31)2 32)4 33)3 34)3 35)1 36)3
37)1 38)4 39)1 40)4 41)3 42)2 43)1 44)3 45)2
46)3 47) 2 48)1 49)1 50)2 51)2 52)2 53)3
54)3 55)4 56)2 57)2 58)3 59)1 60)4 61)4 62)1
63)2 64)3 65)1 66)1 67)2 68)1 69)3 70)4 71)2
72)2 73)1 74)4 75)2 76)3 77)4 78)2 79)2 80)4
81)3 82)4 83)4 84)4 85)2 86)3 87)1 88)1
89) 90)2 91)2 92)1 93)4 94)1 95)3 96)2
97)1 98)4 99)1 100) 101)4 102)3 103)3
104)3 105)2 106)1 107)2 108)2 109)1 110)3
111)3 112)4 113)1 114)3 115)1 116)4 117)3
118)1 119)3 120)1 121)2 122)4 123)1 124)4
125)4 126)2 127)4 128)1 129)3 130) 131)1
132)3 133)1 134)4 135)2 136)1 137)1 138)2
139)2 140)4 141)4 142)1 143)3 144)4 145)1
146)3 147)4 148)4 149)2 150)3

(- ' -E j-----E CAREER --- ---d-u-, RICE P~- n -E-- --C-)

-v-o -J --. j- ---

29-10-1999

--- 29 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-II MODEL GRAND TEST


--Y -N-

-v-o-: 150

P-N- ->
1. jA N l-Eo vA--C-*C?
1) j \
2) x--q
3) -_
4) - \
2. h v - Nu vA
1) vu~ -- L
2) P vC
3) c--t N l- 4) jFo
3. @ @ v 1115 -q- u N
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2) h v -
3) c-vC v -
4) h v -
4. -\ -u
1) K- p
2) y p
3) --vC p
4) jFo
5. Et v- n - h P-
d- h-E \-oC?
1) -_
2) - \
3) j \
4) x--q
6. uh C- E- ?
1) u
2)
3) h -
4) p-j p--a
7. j-h -- x uh s
vA C-h?
1) n u %--t-
2) n u G-*
3) G-* %--t-
4) G-* jJ
8. Jh-y N v v -JC?
1)
2)
3) o-
4) -
9. -u---i ~ v?
1) v ~-
2) --
3) -Bh--
4) j y--p
10. h u- lA C?
1) d
2) v
3) J-Q-
4) yu
11. v uhj E--hC?
1) v
2) y v
3) 1 J 2
4) j v
12. --- l h?
1) - j 2) - 3) \o 4)
13. a-o NuJn y 'A--Y
- a---o.
1) n --
2) - --
3) uA --
4) u --
14. Dl- * - Dl- j -Eh
p-J E- N-J-*C
1) -
2) .G. q
3) \o
4) j
15. u---E -
1) -l 2) P~ 3) _--z-y 4) v
16. u- ~ EC C?
1) y-vA
2) *
3) v-h p
4) D-
17. Gs \-oC?
1) vA--- 100% -t-J---
2) 100% Nt %A
3) --Cl Nt %A _-C
4) jFo
-E-o- -@-x -v--J-*-
TET PAPER - I --- -v- -d ----
12; 23; 31; 42; 54; 62; 73; 83; 91; 102;
114; 124; 132; 141; 152; 164; 171; 182;
191; 202; 211; 222; 233; 244; 251; 262;
274; 283; 292; 301; 31-1; 32-3; 33-2; 34-2;
35-3; 36-1; 37-4; 38-2; 39-1; 40-3; 41-2; 42-2;
43-3; 44-2; 45-1; 46-1; 47-3; 48-2; 49-3; 50-4;
51-3; 52-4; 53-2; 54-4; 55-1; 56-4; 57-3; 58-2;
59-1; 60-2; 61-4; 62-2; 63-1; 64-3; 65-1; 66-1;
67-2; 68-3; 69-3; 70-4; 71-3; 72-1; 73-3; 74-2;
75-1; 76-2; 77-3; 78-4; 79-2; 80-3; 81-4; 82-2;
83-1; 84-4; 852; 863; 872; 882; 894; 901;
914; 923; 933; 941;952; 962; 974; 983;
991; 1001; 1014; 1023; 1032; 1044; 1054;
1062; 1074; 1082; 1091; 1102; 1113;
1122; 1134; 114-4; 115-2; 116-4; 117-4; 118-3;
119-4; 120-4; 1214; 1224; 1233; 1243; 1252;
1261; 1273; 1282; 1291; 130-2; 1313;
1324; 1331; 1342; 1354; 1363; 1372;
1384; 1391; 1402; 1414; 1423; 1432;
144-3; 145-1; 146-1; 147-3; 148-1; 149-4; 150-4.

-h -\-: 150

--: 150 -E-N--

18.

u-- v -C C?
1)
2) J-
3) \ %-A J-
4) D-
19. P--vC l-x - ~v %h
-C?
1) -
2) - 3) c 4) Fo
20. u N v 1) vA uh u- l .
2) vA uh u- l
3) vA uh u- l
4) jFo
21. u-h lA?
1) y-
2) vd
3) E-
4) u J-\
22. eu - - --o--J vu Nu ?
1) %d-
2) NE-
3) --q-
4) - ju
23. 'v Cy _ -y jL
1) c 2) -T 3) El- 4) D-
24. j--Eo Jh-.
1) _--z-y v-
2) v _--z--y
3) _--z--y-E v--E u
4) jFo
25. v-N Nx Ja --- \x
1) Nu-\
2) -yu \
3) G-%Cl \
4) , J--~
26. Nu-\ d -j -J u yL?
1) -d
2) nE vy
3) Z-v-y
4) Ey- N
27. NCF 2005, d- 3 vh-N--EC?
1) 2) E - 3) 4) D-
28. ~ u--- - u-
1) - E-
2) .G.--q E-
3) \o E-
4) jFo
29. sd u-- -- E --E
JhC?
1) L 2) o 3) u 4) o-
30. %d u---E CC
1) c--t
2) -
3) Eo
4) jFo
ENGLISH

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition.


1) on

2) for

3) upon

4) to

uniform

offends

3) hasn't it

2) doesn't it
4) won't it

33. Centre favours uniform hostage policy.


The passive form of the given sentence is 1) Uniform hostage policy has been favoured by
the centre
2) Hostage policy is uniformly favoured by the
centre
3) Uniform hostage policy was favoured by the
centre
4) Uniform hostage policy is favoured by the
centre
34. Full moon enhances your qualities
The meaning of the underlined word1) heightens

2) dwindles

3) encourages

4) impairs

35. Identify the correctly spelt word


1) Alcoholism

2) Alchoholism

3) Alcohalism

4) Alcoholisam

36. Air India pilots have put off their strike indefinitely.
The underlined phrasal verb meant 1) cancelled
3) prolonged

4) Cuba has declared


good Friday as the
holiday
at
the
request of the Pope.

3) believes that religion is nothing but a huge


garbage.

38. Anjali, Sachin's wife is .... him by four years.


The appropriate comparative degree in the blank
will be1) elder than

2) elder to

3) older than

4) older to

39. When the salutation (or greeting) of a letter is 'Dear Sir' The following would be the suitable subscription
1) Yours affectionately,
3) Yours sincerely,

2) Yours faithfully,
4) With kind regards,

40. On the eve of Republic day last year, an additional district collector ........ alive by a gang.
Which of the following verb forms fits in the blank.
1) was burnt

2) had burnt

3) has been burnt

4) had been burnt

41. The adjective and the adverb forms of the word 'fast' respectively are1) fast - fastly

2) fastness - fastly

3) fast - fast

4) fastly - fast

42. Has the film Titanic 3D been seen by you?


The best reply would be 1) Yes, I have

2) No, I didn't

3) No, I had not seen

4) Yes, I had

43. Sagar said to his girl friend, "Will you come if it


rains?"
Which of the following sentences will be the apt
choice for Indirect speech?
1) Sagar asked his girl friend whether she would
go if it rained.
2) Sagar enquired his girl friend if she will go if it
rained.
3) Sagar requested his girl friend whether she
would go if it rained.
4) Sagar asked his girl friend if she would come if
it rains.
44. It's high time that we had our lunch.
1) They had their lunch.
2) Since it is already late they wish to have their
lunch immediately.
3) It is unhealthy to have food beyond lunch time.

Police

Complete the sentence with the right question tag.


1) does it

of

What can be inferred from the above sentence?

31. Miami University confers honourary doctorate ....


Oscar winning musician A.R. Rahman.

32. Gabbar Singh's


officers, ...?

the
request
Pope.

2) advanced
4) postponed

4) It is a very long time since they had lunch.


(45 - 49): Read the passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
What you call 'my body' is just a heap of food that
you have eaten; you have accumulated over a period
of time. What you call 'my mind' is just a heap of
impressions that you have gathered from outside. So
these two things are still outside. Your mind is just
society's garbage bin. Anybody who walks by you,
stuffs something in your head and goes. The accumulative part of the mind is subject to all kinds of social,
religious and cultural situations, you are being
exposed to. The very way you think, feel and understand life is just what kind of garbage you gathered in
your head. Some of you have social garbage, religious
garbage, spiritual garbage, it doesn't matter. But all
this has come from outside. Your ability to recycle the
garbage is your intellect. When your intellect becomes
razor, nothing sticks to it, doesn't get attached to anything, it is not identified with anything, it just makes
you see everything simply the way it is.
45. It can inferred from the passage that 1) the mind of a human being is no more than just
a dust bin.
2) since man has awareness, he is nobler than
any creature in the universe.
3) the human being is unholy and in human

37. Which of the following sentences is an appropriate


expression -

4) the intellect of a human being can be razor


sharp.

1) Cuba declares good Friday a holiday at Pope's


request

46. It can be understood that the author or the


passage -

2) Cuba declares good Friday as a holiday at


Pope's request.
3) Cuba has declared good Friday as a holiday at

4) is a great pessimist.
47. The word- 'accumulative' is
1) an adverb

2) a verb

3) an adjective

4) a modifier

48. The sentence - 'These two things are still outside'


implies that
1) the mind and body do not constitute what we
call "I", as you are a soul.
2) the mind and body are not under your control as
they are tremendously influenced by outer
environment.
3) the mind and body can be yours when they are
controlled by you.
4) inspite of all efforts, they are always outside
only.
49. According to the passage, which of the following
statements is appropriate?
1) The thoughts about religion and god also can
be considered a trash.
2) Excepting the noblest thoughts in regard to
religion and god, everything else is no better
than a big refuse.
3) When you say "I", it means you are an
intellectual.
4) Mind receives only the undesirable and highly
unwanted things.
(50 - 54): In the following passage, there are blanks
which have been numbered from 50-54. Below the
passage, against these numbers, a choice of four
words/phrases marked 1, 2, 3, 4 is given, one of which
fits the blanks appropriately. Choose the correct
answer.
What we call happiness according to the external
sensations is only relative and is only temporary and it
depends ..50.. the environment. If environment ..51..
to decide happiness, happiness will be always
oscillating between happiness and ...52... and that is
the sum and substance of human life. To many of us,
happiness is only an idea and not an experience. We
live in hope of happiness and many times, we live in
the ..53.. of happiness, but in the total ...54... of the
idea of happiness. When happiness is only an idea, it
can not be and experience. So, when we want to
understand what real happiness is, we have to understand ourselves away from the external sensations.
50. 1) upon

2) with

3) at

51. 1) was

2) is

3) has to 4) were

52. 1) ecstasy

2) bliss

3) unhappiness

4) malice

53. 1) absence 2) presence


54. 1) dearth

4) over

2) want

3) lap

3) presence

4) dream
4) ignorance

55. How many pure vowels are there in English language?


1) 8

2) 9

3) 11

4) 12

56. The weightage that should be given to the subject


matter in prose in the 'Blue Print' is 1) 28%

2) 36%

3) 20%

4) 32%

57. When you want to read the score card to know


how many runs your favourite batsmen had made,
the sub-skill involved is1) Skimming

2) Intensive reading

3) Scanning

4) Creative reading

58. Language acquisition is a1) conscious process


2) subconscious process
3) unconscious process
4) super conscious process
59. Map is referred to as
1) Study skill

2) Reference skill

3) Reading skill

4) All the above

60. The communicative approach lays stress on


1) Fluency and accuracy

1) has not realized the potential of the mind.

2) Accuracy before fluency

2) believes that everyone has the potential to


become great if only one hones one's intellect.

3) Confident writing
4) Fluency before accuracy

--- 29 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-II MODEL GRAND TEST


--
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105. 'q E u- -h?
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106. u-Eo p --C- ?
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2) 26 1949
4) 26 1950
3) 26 -J 1950
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112.

2) 12

3) 11

4) 13

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2) 65.46%

3) 82.14%

4) 75.12%

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d--K 2) u- 3) Nv 4) jFo
vB G-%-Cl o Z C?
v-v- 2) - 3) N-- 4)
- { v-R E v-u-N-a?
u-
2) -C--p
Nt-R G-%Cl
4) -J Et-
vu C- u C?
.-G..
2) Jy u
v Jn
4) - u
j Jh.
v-R 1950
2) Jn 1951
B G-%Cl L1952 4) jFo
Jt-- vA- N?
f 2) 3) 4)
NE- h- N
p-Ah -C-*-N 2) J- BaN
u-n---E -C-*-N 4) vA- h-
u- N J-, p- u

1)
2) n
3) - ---
4) N---
123. F - v-d- d uEo -?
1) u
2) -
3) G-%-l- u
4) jFo
124. u-, --, \-- -- h-o ?
1) 2) v 3) 4) ~ -J
125. Eo '~ ?
1) ~ -J
2)
3) -J\
4) h J
126. v- Eo *
* C?
1) j--
2) N--
3) -
4) N--o
127. '-x o?
1) 2) 3) v 4) -J\-
128. l C C?
1) 2) vt-v
3) 4)
129. l-Eo vA--C*?
1) ->- 2) -Kx 3) - 4) p
130. v-v-- - \- o >x C?
1) C-- 2) t 3) X- 4) N---
131. y- o?
1) -
2) u
3) j 4) -J
132. v \- o v C?
1) -- 2) v 3) - 4) D-
133. x, ph x v-v- o n C?

1) 1
134.
1)
2)
135.
1)
2)
136.
1)
2)
3) 1 2
137.
1)
2)
138.
1) 76

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

u - -v-x A lC C?

-Jt 3) E- 4) j
p * Pa--E AJ v-C?

N 3) - 4) d u
'-G N?
N ---- g
N yJ g
,
4) D-
h Eo *-hC?
v
3) t 4)
M \ ox -J E--hC?
2) 86

3) 65

4) 56

Y ->
139. s, -- J-- u
C N o ~u
1) ju 2) -- 3) c 4) NE-
140. v x L- o -
1) c 2) -- 3) ju 4) NE-
141. u- u-C -
lA C?
1) y-
2) 3) v-v
4) -u
142. xv- [ ] --- C Eo L---hC?
1) vo u
2) v-u
3) \ h
4) jFo
143. u- = + ......
2) -Jh-y ~-
1) \
3) u-E-g
4) u-
144. -j-*a vox
1) uh Ee \
2) N- Ee \
3) uh Ee \
4) 1& 2
- P- --
145. _--
Ehop J-- v
1) _ C
2) n
3) - C
4) jFo
146. J---E --T v C?
1) j v
2) v
3) %-h v
4) *v v
147. - NJ-N u C?
1) --j u
2) -, -R u
3) JM u
4) -R u
148. u C---p -R v,
J-v J-, Jn v
L C- u-n- J-T C
lA?
1)
2) vu Y
3) iu
4) u--
149. Y u- v- -J-
?
1) Jp-- 2) v 3) -KA 4) jFo
150. YEo C- L?
1) --A * \ p-E
2) c -E
3) Y jJE -E
4) jJE -E
KEY
1-3; 2-4; 3-2; 4-4; 5-2; 6-2; 7-2; 8-1; 9-3; 10-2;
11-2; 12-1; 13-2; 14-1; 15-4; 16-4; 17-4; 18-2;
19-1; 20-1; 21-2; 22-2; 23-2; 24-2; 25-4; 26-2;
27-4; 28-3; 29-2; 30-4; 31-1; 32-2; 33-4; 34-1;
35-1; 36-4; 37-1; 38-2; 39-2; 40-1; 41-3; 42-1;
43-1; 44-2; 45-4; 46-2; 47-3; 48-1; 49-1; 50-1;
51-4; 52-3; 53-1; 54-3; 55-4; 56-3; 57-4; 58-2;
59-2; 60-1; 61-2; 62-4; 63-2; 64-1; 65-2; 66-4;
67-2; 68-3; 69-4; 70-1; 71-2; 72-1; 73-2; 74-2;
75-1; 76-2; 77-1; 78-3; 79-1; 80-3; 81-1; 82-1;
83-2; 84-2; 85-2; 86-3; 87-2; 88-4; 89-2; 90-4;
913; 922; 931; 942; 952; 963; 974; 983;
991; 1004; 1012; 1022; 1034; 1042; 1051;
1062; 1073; 1083; 1094; 1102; 1114;
1121; 1132; 1142; 1153; 1164; 1173;
1182; 1194; 1203; 1212; 1224; 1232;
1242; 1251; 1263; 1273; 1284; 1291;
1302; 1314; 1323; 1331; 1343; 1353;
1361; 1373; 1381; 1392; 1404; 1414;
1423; 1433; 1444; 1453; 1462; 1472;
1483; 1492; 1504.

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo j-----E


-~u d- -J\- -E-- -%- --C-*-C)
-- II -u--q, j-q -N- -v-o- - -@-x

- 3 - 2012

-- j---
Electrochemistry

CEEP - 2012 KEY

S.No. A B
1. 2 3

C D
3 3

S.No. A B
61. 2 1

C
3

D
2

2.

62.

3.

63.

4.

64.

5.

65.

6.

66.

7.

67.

8.

68.

9.

69.

10.

70.

11.

71.

72.

13.

73.

(ECe+4/Ce+3 = 1.44 V;
+2

Fe

+ Ce

1) 7.2 10
3) 7.2 10

EFe+3/Fe+2 = 0.68 V)

+4

Fe+3 + Ce+3 is

13

2) 0.76

12

4) +12.76

2. The correct order of equivalent conductance


at infinite dilution of NaCl, LiCl and KCl is

NM l NaCl, LiCl, KCl u


-- j v
1) LiCl > KCl > NaCl 2) NaCl > KCl > LiCl
3) LiCl > NaCl > KCl 4) KCl > NaCl > LiCl
3. The rusting of iron takes place as follows
1
2H+ + 2e +
O2 H2O; E = +1.23 V
2

1 4

74.

75.

16.

76.

The G for the rusting of iron is

17.

77.

p d-

18.

78.

1) 322 KJ/Mole

2) +322 KJ/Mole

19.

79.

3) 161 KJ/Mole

4) +161 KJ/Mole

20.

80.

21.

81.

22.

82.

83.

24.

84.

25.

85.

26.

86.

27.

87.

28.

88.

89.

30.

90.

31.

91.

32.

92.

33. 4 3

93.

34.

94.

35.

95.

36.

96.

37.

97.

38.

98.

39.

99.

40.

100. 3

41.

101. 1

42.

3 4 3

102. 2

43.

103. 2

44.

104. 4

45.

105. 1

46.

106. 1

47.

107. 1

48.

108. 2

49.

109. 2

50.

110. 1

51.

111. 4

52.

112. 1

53.

113. 3

HNO3 E sx u--E

1) Tin is passive after initial reaction


v u J- y
u-u---C
2) Tin is noncorrosive metal

4. The molar conductivity of 0.1 M acetic acid


solution is 5.2 S cm2 mol1 and degree of
dissociation is 1.33%. The molar conductivity of this acid at infinite dilution is
0.1 M
52 S
1 33%

--x v -
.
.O. 1, E N- Bv
.
x-E NM l
-
1) 3.91 2) 390.97 3) 39.09 4) 399.7

5 If the values of ^ of Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and


NH4Cl are 520, 280, 130 Ohm1cm2equiv1
respectively, the ^ of NH4OH in same units
is

^ N-
1 .O2
^ N

Ba(OH)2, BaCl2, NH4Cl


520 280 130
1
NH4OH

,
,
u ,
E-x
1) 290
2) 370
6.

4 250

The ratio of ionic conductance (^0) to Ionic


mobility (U0) is

HINTS
1) Ecell = ER EL = 1.44 0.68 = 0.76
0.0591
Ecell = log Kc
n
0.76 1
log Kc = = 12.86
0.0591

Kc = 1012.86 = 7.2 1012


2) Smaller ion is larger as it is more hydrated.
Order of eq. conductance is

u
1, 2
-

3 both 1 & 2

4) conductance

.-.--.----

y Zx u AgNO3 v-Eo Nu-Cy-x h l J u


1) 2H2 + O2 + 4e 4OH

2) 2H2O 4H+ + O2 + 4e
3) Ag Ag+ + e

ptH2 (P1) H+(aq.) H2 (P2) pt is

j -E emf N
RT
P2
2.303 RT
P1
1) ln
2) log
F
P
2F
P
)

11. Cr2O7

^ =
^0 =

1.33

114. 2

4)

115. 3

56.

116. 4

5) Ba(OH)2 + 2 NH4Cl BaCl2 + 2 NH4OH

57.

117. 4

58.

118. 3

59.

119. 3

60.

1 4 3

120. 3

= 390.97

2^NH4+ + 2^OH

= ^Ba(OH) + 2^NH4Cl ^BaCl2


2

= 520 + (2 130) 280


= 500

^NH4+ + ^OH = 500


= 250.
2

^0

^0

=F
U0

RT

P1

4 ln
F
P2

+ I I 2 + Cr

+3

l
l
1
1
1
8) Cell constant = = = = = m
a
ll
l
m
1
1
1
) =
Wave number (
= =m
m

9) Ag is active electrode. Due to reduction at

cathode, Ag will be deposited.


RT
P2
RT
P2
10) emf = E ln = 0 ln
nF
P1
2F
P1
RT
P1
= ln
2F
P2
2.303 RT
P1
= log
2F
P2

G = nF Ecell = 2 96500 1.67 Joules


= 322.3 K.J Per mole.

2) Cd+2 & Zn+2

3) Cd & Zn

4) No

reaction

u -
14

E values of three metalic cations A, B


and C are 0.52, 3.03 and 1.18 V
respectively. The correct order of
reducing power of the metals is

-x E
N - 0.52, 3.03, 1.18 V.
~ -n u j v

A, B, C

1) B > C > A

2) A > B > C

3) C > B > A

4) C > A > B
KEY

3; 2
4; 3
1; 4
2; 5
4; 6
3; 7
2; 8
3;
1
4; 10
2; 11
3; 12
1; 13
4; 14
1.
9

7) Anode is lead, cathode is lead dioxide.

= 1.67 V

5.2 100

X, Y

1 CdSO4 & Zn

P2

3 ln
2F
P1

3) Ecell = ER EL = 1.23 (0.44)

6) U0 =
F

4) Ag+ + e Ag

10. emf of the cell

2.303 RT

13. Cd + ZnSO4 X + Y where X &


Y are

9 The reaction that occurs at cathode during


the electrolysis of AgNO3 solution between
silver electrodes is

K+ (aq.) > Na+ (aq.) > Li+ (aq.)

N \

G-hC.
2) wave number

3 500

4) Tin is cheaply available

- --Y
.

-v-o-v x- ---..

4) 2.12 V

12. Tin cans are used to transport conc. HNO3


because

www.eenadupratibha.net

2) 0.18 V

3 Its E value is very high

b + 11

-- , -
-j q,
2) Lead & Lead dioxide , -j q
3) Zinc & Lead
>,
4) Lead & Nickel
, E
8. m1 is unit of
m1 C DE E
1) cell constant
-n-
1) Lead dioxide & Lead

1) +0.18 V
3) + 0.54 V

55.

16
-v-o- -p --C.
--E ---L.

~ E

54.

7 Anode and Cathode in lead storage battery


are respectively

Fe+2 + 2e Fe; E = 0.44 V

29.

Ecell = 0.79 V, ECr2O72 = 1.33 V, EI = ?


2

----N-M- --l - --x -- -- --?

15.

*a u -- nA n

14.

23.

1. The equilibrium constant for the following


reaction

p d C N --C

12.

-E -
(^ ), G- (U )
EpAh
1) e
2) E
3) Faraday
4) Transport number
G--
u

11) Ecell = ECr2O72 EI


2

EI = 1.33 0.79 = 0.54 V


2

12) Tin is passive towards Conc. HNO3


13) E

Cd+2/Cd

= 0.43 V

EZn+2/Zn = 0.762 V

Cd can not displace Zn. So no reaction

-G-q
-Gx --d-u- - -o--@ -- j-q (-G-q,
--F) ---v-- -u --vU, -- -v-v-x -v---E --h- --C.
1) ---v-- -u --vU -v-v- (4 --x).
--F u- -Ey-.
2) -- (u- j-q) (--pt-- u-J-
p--j---). j--- u- -Ey-.
-|--: -H-q- -F 60 -- -\-
--L.
-: -|-j- --J-E ---j- -v-- -K~ -y -h.
-d--: q-x -v--P-*- --J --* d- - - -- .8000 -h.
--h: ---j-, --j-.
--h- y- -*--J --D: - 30.
---j- -K~ --D-: -W- 7, 8.
--j-: www.bitsadmission.com

takes place.
1
14) reducing power
E

--H v, ---, , q, --q v - IV G u, d -J- x :

-- -Ey-*-- - 2012 (--L-o)


-K~- -E -C-* '- E
Ch-o. -un- -- - -D-Eo
---T--a. -v-y -N -
--- - v- -A- -J----L.

-q -d
-G- -u
----j -K-~
x -- -. ..

-- 2012

www.eenadupratibha.net

- 3 - 2012

-- j---
3)

GROUP - II

II (---v-- -J-v)
v Z p
1.

2.

3.

v - v -- \
J?
1)
2) N--
3) *-M-o
4) x
v - v -- J u-~ J-?
1) uA s- 2) --pu
3) G.. t
4) o ~ t---
v - v -- p
J?
1) 1913

4.

5.

6.

7.

2) 1914

3) 1910

-
4) N--
8. -K -- E o v -- Bt ?
1) (x)
2) (N--)
3) (N--o)
4) (-)
9. v -- \, -- u
G-v -_---u?
1) (-)
2) (x)
3) v (x)
4) CyB (N--)
10. v v J\ p p-C?
1) 1915 2) 1916

3) 1917

4) 1918

-u-
J* Ja-?
1) vv
2) CyB -
3)
4)
15. v
NyNuEo p
p ?
1) 1926 v 26 2) 1926 v 30
4) 1925 v 26
3) 1925 14
16. v Ny-N-u- v- \
pC?
1) N--o
2) N--
3) o
4)

v v J\ p p- C?

4) 1912
11.

v - v --x vu v
Z Bt-Eo vA--C-?
1) --pu
2) -- -
3) G.. t
4) Ah --x
vu-v --Eo N-J---E J
yuE -Z- u--*C?
1) --pu 2) dG --u
3) -Q--E -y-- 4) - -
--h vu Z E,
-- \x, x u--
\-- vA- --?
1) G.. t
2) dG --u
3) --pu 4) x -v
v - -- \
J?
1) -x
2)

-@

@-- K_--

@--- -u o L-, -- N->--o 'K_--


. K_-- Eo ---J vA-C-*C ... . --K_- -J-* --L
Y --K_- --Y. K_-- N d L
C ( t *o--t
). K_-- N- -v- 'A.
DEo d-E a-a.
K_----E v-
A -j K_-- '- l-A,
u- ---j- --K_- -'-- -l-A-
C. K_--- j* C @ u
L- --. -- C * j xDl @ u L- _-.
K_--- A-*o v A; A-l
v u. A Eo -J vA--C-*C '. _J L-
, --E ya \ - @-- -- A.
@ K_--: ( u K_--)
'd N- Y-h ' x-d , K
Et, - @--Eo-F
5 u- K_--J-. N: 1) F
2) vd 3) >/ PM-v 4) x
5) E--L.

u-E C @ 'A ---i-N.


N 'v--y @. E-E

v Z v J\ J
17. v Ny-N-u- v j
vs- p-C?
-q ?
1) --- A
1) s-
2) dG --u
2)
3) G v-
3) d-* -L--f
4) --A-
4) d s--
12. vu v v J\ --d -.->---f
18. v Ny-N-u- n, -N-yv u-~ ?
Nu-- v p J
u NE --i-C?
1) Q--E -y--
1)
v

-- 2) h-v, v
2) dG --u
3)
v

- 4) N, - -
3) --pu
19.

d v Ny-N-u-
4) uA s-
C?
13. vu v v J\- v u-Jz
1) v Ny-N-u-
?
2) v NyN-u-
1) --pu
2) s-
3) -h Ny-N-u-
3) Q--E -y-- 4) -
4) t-E Ny-N-u-
14. v -- vu v Ny-N-u@. _E C @ Eo-- -x E--h. O Eo y---,
J-Eo -o-@--Eo, -@--Eo v-Jz-h.
: ud-J-, FL---a j- (-ud-J).
Nj s-N-* --@- 'FL -a
j-.

vd

@ 'pd-i -E-t o, E-E ---@. Eo vd @x J

>
@ 'A v-N o -
@. N 'A \ Et vu- o
@. u 'f, N
u, dq, kx fq, d, tq, d-- @--o.
u @ 'A-- - v-Jzh. --* , %~ ---xE
@--- n J-T ---
N- , J-T -n- -
B-- (EKb -n * J vC

20.

v -L vu-v Bt
p T_C?
1) 1924 2) 1926

3) 1927

4) 1929

21.

v v yu Kd J --y
p-C?
1) s-
2) >.N. s-
3) dG --u
4) u-- -y--
22. 1931 v - vu -
\ J-TC?
1) N--
2) N--o
3)
4) v
23. v - vu ---E u-~
-*--?
1) --u
2) xJ s-
3) f
4) -y--
24. -- - p p-C?
1) 1930

2) 1932

3) 1936

4) 1934

25.

-- v -- J u-~-
J-?
1) dG -
2) -f
3) xJ s-
4) s-
26. -- - -- \
J-?
1) -- 2) 3) u 4) A-A
--
14; 23; 31; 42; 51; 62; 74; 83; 92; 104;
111; 124; 131; 141; 151; 162; 173; 181;
191; 203; 212; 224; 233; 244; 251; 262.

v-j _ \x v- h G%Cl
C .
v--j (v 'v- h)
\x v- h G-%Cl C C.
v--j _ 'o/ J--j-
v-N @. O y >o-p-t
(N% H : j). >--p-t
(% H : N, vJ) o.
Nj 'v- h/ v o
@ J--j-.

E--L

uEo '- E .
- @-j --Fo u
o ( 1 NL- j @).
O v--J ,
@-j ---- (--).
u-E C @ u @
jNu \- . --N
x -Eo v-Jz-h (p>-
). u @x ---E p- v-E -
o.
u 10 _ o- --N:

-v L- *a x - E- - - - -?
--- . N y-n ). vv x OE
-- @N-h.JEo
Nj @ un-
J-- --- --
v--J ui @- \( vd F-- -
. O 'NE v--J
B--) N-Eo v-Jz-h.
.
u _o. N
Eo @ \x u-
1) x-j 2) v- .
. v-Dl
i, d LT-h.
x-j: -_-@x J---
:
vx ,
. -x --u --v y

.
-Eo y --. @Fo 'l-H--

pAh h. N : jp-j, -q.

x
JT

o 'i-L
x-j @ x '-q A u-i-N.
Eo p-h. : j -,
-q --x, -vx E-
u.
-- - -.
x
OE '-v L- *a x
uEo '-j E .
.
v-: N - @. J---- - - @-j %~-Fo u-E -- x @-j -- ( 3 ~ * 5,50,000
. : O, -O-, -O, ). E- Eo --
-Lq -Eo, q--, --, -
xt.
h. x uEo _-
Eo vd x-j, v-
N>. 1) v-j (, L--d q)
~. : Ux
2) v--j (J--j, N%, %).

- --Eo -- - -K~- --- - -jq, -N-N- -K~- -L--, -N-u --u -- x ---:

-_
1. J-
2. --
3. -
4. x--Lt-C
5. E Lt-C
6. -L
7. wn-
8. \
9. -j---t
10. f

---
p>-
jv
--Mx
x-J, l--
L--, --J
-,
-, , M, x
h, La-p
v ~v
Eo --- (
* ).

www.eenadupratibha.net

--- 30 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-II MODEL GRAND TEST


u--q, jq N-
-v-o-: 150
-h -\-: 150
--: 150 -E-N--
-P--N --->
1) -vO
22. Nu N- _--z-y E C vu
1. C- J-E Jh-.
hC?
2) yy
1) - K~ NN f
1) uh
2) --u-
3)
2) x vu K~ -, ~ t
3) uh------j-- -u 4) j Eo-F
4) N y- t3) A-%h vu K~ pd *v
23. J-E C?
-
4) q l- K~ pd-i *v
1) J---t u- u-- E-
40. u- E
2. C x u- E N-Eo Jh-.
2) Learning by doing - %d u-
1) ----
2) ---
1) K-~ 2) j a--
3) -- u- Nx f
3) ----
4) ----
3) P a-- 4) jT ~-
4) Dl- v E- --j
41. 'v--- -- - - u-E
3. NuJn - \ ----.
E v- u?
24. C- J-E
\ --i --E d-.
1) v--- -- EC
1) y-u t-- p--
J-Eo N-J v
2) v-- --E--T-J--C
2) Cl
1) L v
2) u v
3) --E--T-J--C v--
3) j xd
3) -l v
4) v v
4) v- --- T-J--C
4) - P --
4. -q df vv- v- K~ C
42. ou C-N. , x-E l?
25. u x N -A C
1) Gl K~
2) - K~
1) B ---
2) --N --
u C-. C C- -
3) P.P. K~
4) h K~
NhJhC?
3) v--N -- 4) v --
5. --K-~ l-A E C?
1) uh-
2) uh--_
43. --v----
1) t-v- C
2) N Ed
3) -A
4) --u-h-
1) G vA-G L
3) uh- E - u---E ---iC
26. u--i j-u P ---,
2) pu L
4) *o--x u---E ---
Nu-JnE J-Q-L---E y --T lA?
3) pu -- 4) a -a
6. N--E E v-C?
1) yu
2) -J J-Q-
44. vA d-o dC u
1) N v----iC
3) d

4) jFo
'vA C
2) v-h--J--a
27. K-~ p NuJn, -u- J_ C--1) --
2) y-
3) N Eo x N-i N-*a-o
E p ~ v- -C-*C?
3) u
4) v N-
C
1) vA--
2) v ~-
45. v
4) N *--iC
3) ---
4) J-
p \
7. P --- -C- ----E
28. x --- E x A---o.
C- \
o v C?
d ---E v E NuJn Nh,
C- n
1) - v
2) v
' v NuJn o?
1) o
2) oN v
3) - v
4) _ v
1) h v -
2) y v -
3) h
4) -q
8. P- 't-- y u-- p-, Ej
3) -
4) h v -
46. 'j *aC F d h
J--C*, K_--J-*--.
29. Lx--v NuJn d-

u
1) - -\
2) j-\
u Ch -_ jA N- NuJn
1) h , v N-ln -
3) x--q
4) NL--
n o?
2) h , v N-ln -
9. Nu-Jn -- x- d . x--
1) v- n
2) y v- n
3) h , v -n -
u- -h. Nu-Jn-E {
3) h v- n 4) D-
4) h , v -n -
1) J----J-
2) ----J-
30. --- E- uT V --
47. '~- NC
3) -----
4) Cy-----J-
JnAE \ N-J---, F - --
1) ~ + --
2) ~ + --
10. vc Gl K_-- *v C-
J-n-AE \ N-J------Eo --a?
3) ~ +- -
4) ~ +- E
Eh?
1) -
2) Jh
48. CyB p- --E ---
1) vc--
2) o vc--
3) %- ---p-
4) l v
1) -p, NuJn, v-
3) \ vc--
3135. C uEo CN, --*a- vo --
2) NuJn, NJ*, N----
4) vA---
Jh-.
3) -, , vo
11. v- C vu *a,
' u-- o - 4) vt-N-h-, -p, NuJn
-C-* u- l C?
-G-f- vA o--x >y-v-j 49. 'd 'G~ n p-C. \
1) _ l
2) c l
uC. -h v.. 14241503 u--
J-T n J-
3) R-Type E-
4) S-Type E-
@N* 32 h -h-- A---E L*,
1) ~un Cl
2) n
12. uh- E y- Jh--yj v
v -AE y-q-l-i - -3) n u
4) ---J v
v -
-, y---- --N --, -h- 50. 'uh -- h XX u?
1) v-- - j--
2) j-- --vC
--u o---u. - -h--
1) Oo-- u
2) vu-~ --%A u
3) -j--- - -v-
3) -~ --%A u
4) t u
o- -Gl %g-uE '-TJ --
4) vC ---j--
v--i--p-, o-u EE o--o P- 51. 'x-- s C
13. nA E Eo ?
1)
2) --
3) h 4) -
C---- --N- -h -. -
1) Jh
2) u-
52. -t v- ---
N-v- u-j-.
3) -t-
4)
1) , C
2) ,
31. u-- --
14. u *a V uh uh--J-* --
3) , J
4) A,
-?
y, Eo y uh N uh53. --a o u 'a vu
1) u-V 2) ~vu 3) o-u 4) -u
------
1) -n
2) Kun
32. ct--E u- -JE \-?
1) t %A *o ~
2) l v
3) --qn
4) --n
1) o-- -u
2) %g- -u
3) -
4) %- --p-
54. ' -E -n
3)
4) * A--- -u
15. B v-R v2005 -C-*
1) d, x, K
2) g, ,
33. - --N-v- v Cl CC?
1) v-E u- Lp- L
3) x, u- ~v, c 4) d, J, t
1) o-u, ~vu, %g-- -u
2) x---J -t Nu C- L
55. yE, jL, , q, --
2) o-u, -u, ~vu
3) u- v-t n-A --L 4) jFo
c ~u-E N--E C-N?
3) uu, o-u, * A--- -u
16. -y
~x -- ---E
1) N c
2) -c
4) o-u, uu, ~vu
y C?
3) u c
4) h c
34. '-TJ - -vv- C-N?
1) --A -y
2) El-P -y
56. yp -u--C Ey--C E. --, u-t
1) Jg-
2) h--
3) -U -y
4) D-
--bEo C?
3) %hvC
4) \-R
17. EqM v-t- Eq-L vv C?
1) u-
2) K~
35. o-- -u *-* -h- Eo?
1) E-l-P
2) vd-v -
3) El-P 4) Nv
3) J--
4) vo-R
1) 22 2) 32 3) 12 4) 24
18. O -A C NuJn -- W -u
57. , - o
3640. C uEo CN, -- Jh-.
h, Nu-Jn E- vv Lp---E
ju
V-t-h J- --v-, Ja
u?
1)
v 2) 3) 4)

1) -s-
2) -Fu--
-H-, --~-, J-%h C-A c 58. ->, Jn nA--; --, v--,
3) o v E-
4) N-
B i-u -j E %d -E
~t v-p-J- Nt-- X---h-y!
19. uh t %A -- uh ---i
-C--Lq u--h vT
36. Xh-y h?
u ?
1)
2)
3)
b 4) l
1) vT
2) u vT
1) 2) u-
3) Jh 4) -t-
37. X--- h- E X l-E n?
3) - vT
4) vT
20. Nu-Jn E- ' q C ju?
1)
2)
3) ~ t
4) --
59. -u- t- -T* '
1) ju
2) ju
38. u p N
L p. -u- o--oC
3) ju
4) K ju
1) X--h vh u
2) -E
C ----?
21. Nu\ d2009 --- \
3) P-hA
4) V u
1) vu 2) %u 3) %u-vu 4) -A --
vu Lp-*C?
39. 'c-~ t --E --?
60. Nun x ---AE, % vO-- L-T1) 15
2) 38
3) 18
4) 17

-E -u- u - o--o.
cEo -C- - -u-
C-LqC?
1) u
2) u
3) 4)
ENGLISH
61. Go to store, ........ ? (The correct question tag is-)
1) aren't you
2) won't you
3) do you
4) did you
62. They are known ....... be honest.
Choose the correct preposition.
1) for
2) with
3) by
4) to
63. Choose the correct form of leave taking for the
letter which you start addressing as "Dear Madam"
1) Yours faithfully,
2) Yours obediently,
3) Yours lovingly,
4) Yours affectionately,
64. 'If Raju had been honest, .......
Choose the correct answer to complete the
sentence.
1) he would have returned the money
2) he would has returned the money
3) he would had returned the money
4) he would return the money
(65-68): The following passage has four blanks.
Choose the suitable word for each blank to make the
passage meaningful.
An effective speech ..... (65) an attractive speech.
It not only ....... (66) the audience but ...... (67)
changes them. Worried audience become cheerful.
Mild audience become wild. Sometimes listeners
change .... (68) faith as a result of an effective speech.
65. 1) had
2) was
3) has
4) is
66. 1) attracts 2) attracting 3) attract 4) attracted
67. 1) time to time
2) sometimes
3) anytime
4) everytime
68. 1) her
2) his
3) our
4) their
69. My room is cosy. (The underlined word means -)
1) expensive
2) horrible
3) comfortable
4) cheap
70. "Why did your brother write such a letter?"
The passive form of the given sentence is
1) Such a letter was written by your brother, why?
2) Why had your brother written such a letter?
3) Why was such a letter written by your brother?
4) Why did such a letter was written by your
brother?
71. "Are there any books on the shelf?"
The underlined word is
1) a preposition
2) a conjunction
3) an adverb
4) a determiner
72. Hari and Ravi ......... here for ten years.
Choose the correct verb form to complete the
sentence.
1) have been living
2) live
3) lived
4) are living
73. "Of all the metals, ...... gold is the most precious"
Choose the correct article to complete the
sentence if necessary
1) the
2) no article required
3) a
4) an
74. The student leader gave a passionate speech and
won the election in the college.
The underlined word means1) encouraging
2) descriptive
3) emotional
4) ambitious
75. My little sister ........... a beautiful dress on her
birthday party. (Choose the correct phrasal verb.)
1) put on 2) put in 3) put off 4) put up
76. Some boys are atleast as industrious as Suresh.
This sentence can be said as1) Some boys are the most industrious.
2) Suresh is not more industrious than some other
boys.
3) Suresh is more industrious than some other
boys.
4) Suresh is the most industrious boy.
77. The teacher said to Kamala, "How are you?"
Choose the correct form of reported speech.
1) The teacher asked Kamala how were you.
2) The teacher asked Kamala how was she.
3) The teacher asked Kamala how she was.
4) The teacher asked Kamala that how she was.
78. Would you (a)/ follow me (b)/ wherever (c)/ I would
go? (d)
Choose the part of the sentence that has an error.
1) d
2) b
3) a
4) c

--- 30 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-II MODEL GRAND TEST


79. A: Some people are very poor.
B: They are happy.
Choose the sentence that combines the above two
sentences.
1) Though some people are poor, they are not
happy.
2) All poor people are happy.
3) Though some people are poor, they are happy.
4) Some happy people are poor.
80. Choose the correct spelling.
1) Vacume 2) Vaccume 3) Vacuum 4) Vacuume
(81-84): Read the following passage and answer the
questions given there under.
Snakes are wonderful creatures. They have no
legs at all. Then how do thy move about? They can
crawl on their bellies. They have no ears either. Don't
they listen to sound? You have seen a cobra raise the
front of its body, spreads its hood and hiss loudly
swaying its body to the rhythm of the music of the
charmer's pipe, haven't you? How then, can it dance
to the charmer's tune? It is simple. The cobra did not
listen to the music. But it merely looks at the charmer's
pipe and sways its body to the swing of the pipe.
81. Find the correct statement.
1) The charmer has to move the pipe to make the
snake dance.
2) The snake has to hiss to make the charmer
blow the pipe.
3) The charmer has to blow the pipe to make the
snake dance.
4) The charmer has to use long pipe to make the
snake dance.
82. The snakes are wonderful creatures because1) They enjoy by listening to the music.
2) It sways its body so as to bite the charmer.
3) They have no legs but still walk slowly on the
ground.
4) They have no ears but still dance by the
movement of the charmer's pipe.
83. The passage is about1) The music of the charmer.
2) The snakes and their dance.
3) The nature of snakes.
4) The charmer's pipe.
84. If the charmer stands still and blows the pipe1) The snake will enjoy the tune.
2) The snake will sways its body to the rhythm of
the music.
3) The snake will not dance.
4) The snake will listen to him.
85. Contextual and situational practice of structures
was proposed by1) Charles Fries
2) Michael West
3) Wilkins
4) Hornby
86. The first English dictionary1) Oxford Dictionary
2) A Table Alphabetical
3) Webster's Dictionary
4) Random House Dictionary
87. Study the following illustrations of phonetic transcription
/ px t /

/ p e t/
The above illustrations refer to 1) Synonyms
2) Homonyms
3) Minimal pairs
4) Hypernyms
88. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Writing is an encoding of thoughts
2) Writing is a recursive and spiral process
3) Writing is one of the modes of communication
4) All the above
89. "Look and say method of reading" was introduced
by 1) Comenius 2) Palmer 3) Dr. West 4) Hayes
90. Pupils try to understand some words which they
come across either in listening or in reading but
they don't need to use them. Such type of vocabulary is 1) Active vocabulary
2) Adhoc Vocabulary
3) Passive vocabulary
4) Need Vocabulary

--
D` -v E d--- . DE --i g o
--vEo EJth, D` -v, --v j-u
EpAh
1) 3:1
2) 1:1
3) 2:1
4) 2:3
92. (x + 1)2 - x 0.1 * (x + 1)2
1
x N
%Cl 100

1) 1
2) 1
3) 2
4) 2
93. a+b = 3, b+c = 8, c+a = 7 (7a + 3b + 8c) =
2) 37
3) 57
4) 63
1) 61
94. 14 .O., 7 .O. u-l- o
XOA = 30,
v %h- -a.
91.

(n2 + n 4)
3)
2

.......
.........
..........
-%
..........
..........
A
.....
....
..

j-uEo
X

\. (..O.x)
O
1) 150.5
2) 105.5
4) 155.1
3) 115.5
9
95. ju a2 .. -N- h a
16
.O. o hEo JT*,
--h ul (II) ?
3a
4a
a
a
1)
2)
3)
4)
4
3
3
4
96. x Nt .20 hC. uh
1
144 x Nt - 33
% *aC.
3
\ t?
1
2
2
1
1) 6
2) 6
3) 5
4) 5
3
3
3
3

97. ABC ~ DEF, BC, EF u G- X, Y.
AB
AX : DY = 4 : 3 DE

XOB = 120

120

(n2 n 4)
4)
2

30

1) 2 : 3
98. ABC

2) 3 : 4

3) 3 : 2

4) 4 : 3

BC, CA, AB
2
2
2
AB + BC + CA =

u G- P, Q, R.

4
3
2
2
2
2
2
2
1)
3 (AP + BQ + CR ) 2)
4 (AP + BQ + CR )
2
3
2
2
2
2
2
2
3)
3 (AP + BQ + CR ) 4)
2 (AP + BQ + CR )
99. 3cos + 4sin = 5, 3sin - 4cos = p,
1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

p = ?
4) 0

100. px + qx + r = 0

_---
-E x 16pr = ?

1) q

2) 3q

3) 2q

4) 4q

101.

--A-E Nu-n , v- uA CvAx --. C--vA-


v C Nu-n u 30. v- uAE
v C Nu-n u 25. vA--
C Nu-n u 5. --A-E Nu-n
u ?
1) 60
2) 45
3) 50
4) 55

y
102. x =
3, y = 4z, x + y + z = 19

x, y, z N-
) , ,
4) D-
3
f(x) = 2x + 3, g = { (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7)} Ey*i fog(4) = ?

1 4 12 3 2 12 3 4 3 3 4 12

) ,

103.

1) 689

, ,

2) 969

3) 869

.(

41 a,

+
2

1 +a

1
1 a,

2 +
4

2) 3

540

3) 1

2) 10

109. C1(A, r1), C2(B, r2)


P
A(4, 3), B(7, 7), r1 = 3

3) 102

4)

4) 3
4

2
3
2
1

4) D-
. l P- v-h
1) \-- -u-
2) ud
3) vt-h
4) -N-
116. Nx- ~u \ pd--?
1) -- 2) c 3) NE- 4) ju
117. y u- D (\-) - EC
1) -Jy- vv-x , *ay -C
2) Nu-Jn u- x hE L-T-hC
3) --- j|-j--p -----C
4) u-v C--E N-- a--a
118. Et--t u-- NJ-N ---
u- C?
1) C-u h
2) vc-E-
3) J- - *
4) " K~
119. J-u- -Jo-t--E --- K-~
1) -u EJt K-~ 2) v--% K-~
3) -j-c-E K-~
4) jFo
120. Nu-Jn vu ~ D, ED -E -- u- C?
1) J-Q- u
2) *-
3) El- -
4) G-* C-
--u--Y
121. -x 100 .O. E
Ja ---h-- 1 uC. --
E -vh- -?(.-O.--)
115

1) 25

2) 15

3) 35

4) 24

. j* -C - 1
NE J h ?
1) 5 O.
2) 4.9 O. 3) 5.2 O. 4) 10 O.
123. - p x p vA-G ~
1) Nu vA-G
2) E vA-G
3) zy N
4) jFo
124. uh P- u E- px
d. --h C lEo 2 -x
y, lEo 3 -x y No.
u ?(-y-E -
352 -O.)
1) 770 O. 2) 704 O. 3) 880 O. 4) 900 O.
R = 3
125. \
*-*
v- h
R = 6
+ _
-\.
4V
122

D-
k = ?

1
2

4) 10

2) 2 A

3) 3 A

4) 1.5 A

. q_ , v < v- p

4) 4

-- %h --- l u pJz----o.
P E-N?
21 23
29 27
P
1) (
,

)
2
)
(

4
4
5
4 )
B
A
29 23
29 27
3) (
4 ,
5 ) 4) (
5 ,
5 )
110. X - -~ -C-- 30 h
2x ay +3 = 0 -- C.
X, Y --- EpAh

1) 3 : 1 2) 3 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 3
111. E- o v h 10 Ox. v F
Nj 103 O. - v u-
n y- ?

1)
2)
3)
4)
3
6
4
12
112. n ---u- n *, l-
2 - a h ?
2
(n2 + n + 4)
(n n + 4)
1)
2)
2
2
--x

1
2) 1
11 4

114. A. A1 = A 1 . A = I
1 (A1)T. A T = AT. (A 1)T =
1
2) (AT) = (A 1)T
3) 1, 2

1) 4 A

=
108. Lt
n10
n
10

[ 43 21]
3) [1 2 ]
4
3
1
11

1)

126

(2n + 1) (2n + 2) (2n + 3) ..... (2n + 10)

1) 2

vA-] =
Ey*h

1 a

k 6
3x2+

1) 2

)
)
)

1
1 + a,

2 +

14 a

N
h

-
)
x

2 +

3
107

(
(
(

4) 700

- o _ ax2+ax+b = 0
(x - 1) Th 1 --E a N
4
9
2
3
2)
3)
4)
1)
9
4
3
2
105. v--E 15 .O./.
A * B v--E v--*C.
N- A v- 2 %
T_-x -E-. N-
?
26
28
5
2
2) 14
3) 14 4) 14
1) 14
33
33
33
33
106. x2 - x + a < 0 x o
1 --p) C?
(a <
4
104.

113. A, B 2 2
1 2
A. 4 3
1
1
(B.A )
B1 =

1) 0.4 mm Hg

2) 0.5 mm Hg

3) 4 mm Hg

4) 0.02 mm Hg

127

. - -i u --C?
1) E-vA % u
2) E--vA % u
3) E-vA M u 4) E--vA M u
128. CH2Cl2 + Cl2 A + HCl; \ 'A' N?
1) CH2Cl3

2) CHCl3

3) CCl4

4) CHCl2

129.

A --i _ C?
1) v-j 2) Lj o 3) Gu-N- 4) D-
130. 10 v CaCO3 E u
1) 1
2) 0.1
3) 10
4) 0.01
131. q E--C
1) U v
2) -
3) vj f
4) h f
132. q -E F - u
1) 6
133

2) 3

3) 7

4) 2

. @ \ -n?
1) -J 2) tF 3) v 4) vG
134. j <E x a--
-- -E-.

~-Eo E-J---E --Eo


L?
1) v-
2) 2, 4 - D
4) - -
3) PM-v--
135. C-- u--- Nv
1)
2) -
3) Cl 4) ~
136. p- E C?
1) ~---v-R
2) -{ v-R
3) --
4) --R
137. p N-v-- v-G t C?
1) j-q
2) j-q
3) -- t
4) D-
138. - %-u-u C?
1) -- 2) u- 3) -- 4) v--
139. j v- C h_ 'A.
- h h h a -- -?
1) A

2) B

3) A, O

4) AB

140

. --J{ E
1) J
2)
3) *\
4) u
141. v y * G h ?(.--K- x)
1) 4
2) 9.45 3) 4.5
4) D-
142. o \ --H- C?
1) j - 2) vq 3) j 4) v--
143. \ --- u - g-v
1) 2030C 2) 10-15C 3) 30-40C 4) 25-35C
144. x j x a uC
1) 2) j- 3) --G-x 4) ~
145. Nu-n G--, h, jJ, -u,
-n u - u v-R --J
N
1) jc-E N
2) QJ{ N
3) -v lA
4) E lA
146. N v o-p-, x--- E-h-E
--E --- -- C?
1) Cq*
2) -l
3) - p
4) x d
147. NE- ~u pd--
1) l-- *-
2) p- \E -J-
3) -p -- Jh-
4) L-- J--
148. u N-- ---E O Lp lA?
1) --lA
2) -v %h lA
3) -v lA
4) E lA
149. \, - v--J N
1) y-J
2) v-J
3) s-J
4) jO-J
150. Ny--F-, v---- -Lq u-i

1) ---t- 2) ~ut- 3) EJl-d


4) pd
KEY
14; 24; 31; 41; 53; 63; 73; 83; 91; 101;
113; 121; 132; 142; 154; 161; 173; 184;
192; 201; 213; 222; 234; 244; 254; 263;
272; 282; 291; 304; 313; 322; 334; 341;
352; 363; 374; 382; 393; 404; 412; 423;
432; 444; 454; 462; 472; 484; 491; 502;
511; 523; 534; 541; 553; 562; 573, 581;
592; 601; 612; 624; 631; 641; 654; 661;
672; 684; 693; 703; 714; 721; 732; 743;
751; 762; 773; 781; 793; 803; 811; 824;
833; 843; 854; 862; 873; 884; 891; 903;
912; 922; 931; 943; 951; 962; 974; 981;
994; 1002; 1011; 1021; 1031; 1041; 1052;
1061; 1073; 1081; 1094; 1101; 1112;
1121; 1133; 1143; 1151; 1163; 1173;
1184; 1192; 1202; 1211; 1222; 1234;
1243; 1252; 1261; 1272; 1282; 1291;
1302; 1313; 1323; 1333; 1341; 1352;
1363; 1371; 1382; 1393; 1404; 1412;
1424; 1433; 1443; 1451; 1464; 1471;
1482; 1493; 1502.

(- --- -v-o-v-Eo --E -X-vt-v


-P~- n -E-- -%- --C-*-C)
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31 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-II MODEL GRAND TEST


-u-q -- j-q -N--

v-o-: 150

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N -- -v-o- --.)
--
lo d-d --C. x
TL, -E l- - -E-p-Ah- --E O-x-?

91.

1) 2 : 1
92.

2) 3 : 1

3) 3 : 2

4) 7 : 5
16

f--
d-C?

1
3
1) 6
2) 7
4
4
70
93. 1

3
3) 6
4

q-x
4) 32

* o ux _ *J
1 u ?

1) 10%
94.

2) 20%

3) 25%

4) 30%

35 O. o --v- v
d 9 .O./ -J J-hE
-C?
1) 50 . 2) 52 . 3) 55 . 4) 56 .
AB N-AE * ~ C?

95.

1) {x / x A, x B}

2) {x / x A, x B}

3) {x / x A, x B}
96.

4) {x/ x A, x B}

C- -- N-AE *C C?
J v-- NA 2) J--u NA
u NA
4) v- NA
v gj - vAEo EJt-.
vA, -v j-u EpAh ?

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2)

3 : 2

3) 4 :

4)

3 : 4

%h JC 4 * 8 J-T E j-u
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1) 2 x
2) 3 x
3) 4 x
4) p
12 .O. o - vA J-%h
ul ?

98.

99.

4 2

1) 2) 4 2
3
100. 2 = x +

4 3
3)
3

1
1+
1

4) 4 3

x N C?

3 +
4

12

17

1)
101.

2)

13

17

3)

18

21
4)
17

17

uh Eo ,x o. u
, x u 140. _ o -E-x o?

48

1) 26

2) 27

3) 28
1
a
a

= 10 2
N ?
a

10
2) 2
3) 7 2
4) 14

102. a +

1)
103.

, E -- -i
N

1) 30
104.

4) 29

2) 45

3) 75

4) 90

v > , u-- EpAh


-> u ?
1) 5

2) 7

3) 9

7:2

4) 10

105.

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?
1) - f .
2) E-G
3) j--
4) .. --
106. ab = ba, a, b N, a b u-N -- a + b
N ?

1) 2
2) 6
x
x
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107. (x x ) = x
1)

2)

3) 8

3)

4)

108.

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p?
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4) q
109. C-- J-g u C?
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110.

2) 26

3) 27

4) 28

2
2
2
(0.03) + (0.21) + (0.065)

2
2
2

=?

(0.003) + (0.021) + (0.0065)

1) 0 1
111.

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2) 0.01
3) 10
4) 100
D`----v vA Eo 20% * E
ju -- ?

1) 42
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2) 44

113

3) 45

10

2) 200%

36
1) 144

3) 300%

20

9
2) 146

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J-%h v
2) --%h v
3) -y-v
4) -v
115. lA y-- -p -N----a?
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2) a- lA
3) Cl lA
4) D-
116. - >q, , , u> \yq
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1) v-
2) v-P-~
3) \ %-A
4) -t
117. -Cy vA ?
1)
2) xd
3) 1, 2
4) D-
118. _ vA--C-* - - 8

1) ~v u-
2) L-N-
3) v-z-
4) --*-v
119. iv*-j J- J
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1) d
2) U
3) 1, 2
4) --
120. 't-v- T_- vo v u?
1) u-
2) ~h
3) u-u vo
4) Fo
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--u--Y

121

. ~ t-i *a ---E Eo
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2) O \
3) vA-@-- lA
4) Jo- L-q
122. -- L h y ?
1) u
2) h
3) h -E d 4) h
123. -n u-E v C?
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2)
3) _/--
4)
124. F ~- ET o h T--x
E--E N?
1) A V-h t 2) A --h
3) A v--
4) A -g --h
125. C- -\ n E-C?
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126. u Eo v
?
1) u---v
2) u--N
3) vN
4) D-
127. g-v l vU Lq-, vU ---
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4) 400%

16
?

3) 154

u - 2000 S
u (HH) 2000 x\ d
Kh --h -C. O v-v--
50 d- --.
|: 50 \- / j vU.
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4) 46

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x N ?

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4) 260

H----H
-d-u u q- -{ (H-) vB vO u-xE -,
-d d Kh Ey- ' J-
b2012 --- N- C.
d: 1) - \I
2) - \ II: N-: - u

--: 150 -E-N--


1) -4C

2) 4C

3) -40C 4) 0C
128

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4) g
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3) --E
4)
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2) HNO3

3) H2SO4 4) H3PO4

131

. T_-x EC
1) - x
2) --E j p
3)
4) v y
132. Hx* - t N?
1) CaCl2

2) CaOCl2 3) CaClO3 4) CaO2Cl2

133

. @--Y vA--C-* Y-h ?


1) J-d-
2) Lo-
3) \
4) M--
134. t-u (Suicidal bags) E E
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1) j- -
2) j- -
3) v
4) Jh-
135. v- x u--n C?
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3) u 4) v-
136. v-h @N Eo V?
1) 100
137

2) 110

3) 125

4) 120

. Cy H \ -T
q

1) 2, 4-D

2) IBA

3) IAA

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145. 'h N -\- C ~u-E
CC?
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2) NE-
3) y
4) 2, 3
146. -u v-z l-A -C* Jh N
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1) x-x
2) v Ey-
3) vR
4) u J-
147. sd x E C vuNa?
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2) _
3) -
4) ----J-
148. v--- h h-- v---h?
1) ux
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3) E- -x
4) jFo
149. j - - Jh-.
1) --l -
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1) NCTE

2) UGC

3) DEO

4)

v---u-

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2) y
3) v--x
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139. u-i d C?
1) q
2) sK
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140. -J- uh C?
1) -L
2) -L
3) uq
4) uq
141. J--- -- K g-v- a
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3) ~- 4) 2, 3
142. \x J -\- x --
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3) p 4) v
143. ---i G \- lA pAh

-, p-Ld - (d -, \ -, vK -, vT--a -)
3) - \III
4) -d (Md--p)
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----
913; 921; 931; 944; 953; 961; 972; 983;
994; 1004; 1011; 1024; 1032; 1043;
1052; 1062; 1074; 1081; 1092; 1103;
1112; 1123; 1131; 1142; 1152; 1164;
1172; 1183; 1193; 1203; 1214; 1221;
1234; 1243; 1253; 1262; 1273; 1281;
1293; 1302; 1314; 1322; 1333; 1342;
1352; 1364; 1371; 1384; 1392; 1401;
1411; 1424; 1433; 1443; 1454; 1463;
1473; 1482; 1493; 1501.

( vo--vEo j----E ~u P~
n E- % -C-*C)

-n v-L p--
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d Kh --h -C.
vF -: 103
N-: >-F-J81 (u- 36), yL
v/ --q17 (u- 8), --5
(u- 2).
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: >-F-J N--E d- 25,
N d- 27 x N--.
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N x - L.
: 30 x N--.
-j J>-Z- -*--J --D: W 20
-j: www.hpcl.co.in

31 - 2012

-- j---

TET- 2012 PAPER-II MODEL GRAND TEST


--Y -N-
(1

v-o-: 150

--* 90 - j-q, --- d-


N -- -v-o- --.)
--Y
91. ---- E To y DN C?
1) \-
2) u
3)
4) o
92. y --N ~- o y- N?
1) --
2) p---
3) Nu-y-
4) D-
93. --- --N Et-* C C?
1)
2)
3) 4)
94. %Ah -~- lA C?
1)
2) C- Et
3) -u Et
4) jFo
95. u --
1) Ah
2) --
3)
4) Fo
96. J Nx x v- E C?
1)
2) J
3) -T-
4) p--u
97. v- A-l Nu vEo - \ p ?
1) y
2)
3) -Z
4) Nb-y
98. --- ---J wj-- EJt-*
jy-_ C?
1) N --
2)
3)
4) A-A
99. --- up v o v C?
1) N
2) E
3)
4) %-pA
100. C-- --y--E -- E-C?
1) b
2) Nu p
3) vNq y- 4) F-TJ
101. v-- lj 'G-d- -F- \
C?
1) -J\-
2) t--Qt
3) jH-J
4) \
102. F N-J -Eo -?
1) hg
2) p
3) Qg
4) p-q
103. j-j ~-o x v -?
1) x
2) Q x
3) -Q--g---
4) j--Eo--x
104. v-v-- E X- >x p -
E -h?
1) --
2) --
3) x----
4) v--
105. L j \ JTC?
1) -M-v
2) -
3) Qt
4) jL
106. u
t-v- h- vE
\o?
1) A
2) ..
3) - -yA
4) uq-x
107. v-v-- A v< lh \ C?
1) --A
2) -dv
3)
4) --
108. v v--N C?
1) T -Jh
2) XX
3) --v-Jh
4) -
109. wjh v -- Jl
V - Jz-?
1) -Jo
2) --
3) v---
4) -
110. 'vc---N v - ?
1) y--
2) u --b
3) E-\
4) N \
111. --T-J j E % EJt-*
V ?
1) -
2) v-- h
3) n
4) -
112. '% --J v-h ?
1) ~-v
2) -
3) Nu-A
4) pA
113. C- -ju vC?
1) -y
2) h--y
3) Pp-
4) y

-h -\-: 150

--: 150 -E-N--

114.

'--y Go -u-V ?
PII
2) {
3) --y t
4) - --t
115. Z-- - - C?
1) Pa -u
2) p -u
3) u -u
4) -u
116. X- >x E Xt --Eo EJt-*
--Q ?
1) p-
2) C--Q-
3) N--- V 4) N--- A V
117. O--v J n N?
1)
2) s
3) s 4) --
118. 'J vA -?
1) v
2) ----A-
3) --- A
4) f Jp
119. C- v--vA NC E-C?
1) Z-A --
2) vA--L -
3) u--C-
4) v-y-C-
120. u- -O- ?
1) x
2) -q
3) y--
4) -x
121. Z--A -C* J--E-Eo Jh-.
1) v-d a
2) v-d p L
3) v-d - -Lq -
4) v-d - p B-
122. u v-P- E C?
1) -v
2) u
3) -u
4) y--y
123. p %-u- E-C Jd- C?
1)

3)

P-
-Kb--
--Jt un
l -C-*
v- C?

4)
129.

1) 20

2) 22

1)

3) 24

4) 26

130.

n--Y N?
1) - hE LT
2) - h, h
3) x h
4) D-
131. 'C Fq x K - vu-s
o?
1) d
2) v
3) v
4)
132. 'E 1977 --v-y
JaC?
1) NREP
133.

2) RLEGP

3) JGSY

4) SGRY

--v o v-R -C-?


1) 5

2) 4

3) 3

4) 2

134.

vy - N-F-AE J--d--E 1962


v-v-y J u-~- N p---C?
1)
2)

D v-R -h ?
1) .-. -
2) -v- -
3) X-o-- -y 4) o Nl
135. J-T --C. C
i ?
1)
2) u-
3)
4) D-
136. Et -- i vu-s x
EhC?
1)
2) -J
3) j
4)
137. C- - h C?
1) v
2) v
3) p
4) Y
138. NQ Ey -~ h ?
1) u u
2) Jy
3) d u
4) -v u
139. u- y Nu-Jn G-%-ClE
K~---E \ OC?
1) c-
2) -
3) - --t
4) jFo
140. -u-- 3 -E u p E \o Y-h ?
1) dH
2) xq
3) p
4)
141. 'h * - v l-AE
J* Eyh?
1) - 2) E- 3) vD-% 4) Jp
142. NuJn 'ju J -E -@-N
L E Eg---- C -E
-C-*C?

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: v K~ y ---h.
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1) 17

2) 18

3) 19

4) 20

124.

- u u p- vA--C-
o-?
1) ~ lA
2) vu~ lA
3) vu-~, J-- -~
4) Fo
125. o \--- ** N/ N-
C?
1) t N-
2) xu N
3) - N 4) --- N
126. -B- u-n v---d Z?
1)
2) v-v-
3) -n
4) -
127. v-d, jd C-- J-CE -Jo-Jt-*
u - C?
1) 42

2) 43

3) 44

4) 45

128.

--E -- -d-u -
o-@ (-----) --- qx
v--E --h -C.
1) x - u o--
--J-NA: 2 -q-. x u: 40
2) Jd-- q @ o--
--J-NA: -q. x u: 20
|-: -A. : 15 * 25 --x.
: --N J -.
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vT--a- jq, -

---E E--Jq vT--a- jq


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c
2) -
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143. v--J - NuJn -J v
JE ch a-- C ~uEo C-hC?
1) c
2) --
3) NE-
4) ju
144. N---oE - - h, -- - --E --T N?
1) vu v- o
2) -R
3) JM
4) x-u-
145. C- 'y-u-hu N?
1) vq 2) dx 3) -*-v- 4) --
146. '- -Lq vo u oC ?
1) -u
2) q
3) --
4) d--
147. yf Ny-N-u-- -E C-
C?
1) ~ t--
2) d--
3) u--~ u-
4) jFo
148. -- ?
1) -*-
2) -** Eg--
3) -Eo -J-
4) EE Eg--
149. u-x A-v- C?
1)
2) Jv
3) FA 4) n-Y
150. --Y N- --p l-AE
J* --C?
1) Jp
2) -v
3) -v 4) -KA
3)

----
911; 923; 932; 944; 954; 964; 971; 982;
992; 1004; 1011; 1022; 1031; 1042;
1051; 1062; 1072; 1083; 1091; 1102;
1114; 1121; 1132; 1141; 1153; 1161;
1172; 1183; 1193; 1203; 1212; 1223;
1231; 1242; 1252; 1263; 1272; 1281;
1293; 1302; 1312; 1321; 1332; 1343;
1352; 1362; 1372; 1382; 1392; 1402;
1411; 1422; 1431; 1443; 1451; 1461;
1472; 1483; 1492; 1503.

( vo--vEo E X -v-tv
P~ n E- % -C-*C)

-d-P~-

-v- --d-u- - -d
vE n --x-, -@ --x- q-x
v-E --h- --C.
q-: 1) --x- -- --N---, p--L-
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p-L-, -v-- -- d- -Ky.
-|--: --. --: 17 --* 24 --x.
3) -d -v-u-- --x- -- --N--- --
p--L- -Ky; 4) -d -v--u-- --x- - --d -v- -Ky.
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un- - --h ----a. --: 19
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un - ---C.)
--j-: www.frankfinn.com

--J-Eo ----x, -

vU, @ qx v-- W 2 Ey--o - -u u-n j (www.aplawcet.org) *


\x - --a.
2012 K~ L-- W 2
N --o.
Z \- -d Tb-u-,
-d >-F d J-N-AE 28
* 34 x .
vy -@x E--ho vd a-x
u- W 1 * -x h-E
C-- L-.
u @ vT--a- E--Jq
Hq (vT--a) q v--E Vj 1
v K~ (vU-) Ey---C. vT-a o-@ x
DE |. -j: www.angrau.net

www.eenadupratibha.net

-a.

--v- 4 - 2012

-- j---

1. If f(x+2y, x2y) = xy, then (

x2 y2
1)
2

f(x, y) =

y2

x2

2) b = 3(2, 3, 6)

4) b = 21 (2, 3, 6)

1) 90
2

y2

tan (x+2x+3y)

-h

2
Which one of the following is correct?

C- jC C?
I true, II false
I true, II true
I false, II true
) I false, II false

(I
(I
(I
(I

1)
2)
3)
4

-& -Cj,

1) b = 2 (2, 3, 6)

3) b = 6(2, 3, 6)


[ 2, 2])

uh

II. The period of tan (x + 2x + 3x) is

x2 y2
2)
4

3)
4)
6
8
2. f(x) = ax+b; g(x) = cx+d, (fog)(x) = (gof)(x)
1) f(a) = g(c)
2) f(b) = g(c)
3) f(d) = g(b)
4) f(c) = g(a)
3. If the vectors
a = (2, 3, 6) and
b are collinear

and b = 21, then

a = (2, 3, 6), b

b =
21
x2

(sinx+ cosx

u, II u)
u, II u)
u, II u)
u, II u)

3 + 2 cosA 3 1 + 2 sinA
10. +
12 sinA

3 2 cosA

)(

1) 3

4. P = (2, 0, 4), Q = (5, 3 3, 4),

2) 1

3) 0

2) 180

3) 270 4) 360
18. The edge of a variable
cube
is
increasing at the
rate of 3 cm per
sec. The rate of
increase of its volume when the edge of the cube is 10 cm.
long is:
3
10

- .O p -C. .O op
J- J :

1) 9 c.c./sec
3) 900 c.c./sec
9
19. 1+ i 3 =

4) 1

2) 90 c.c./ sec
4) 9000 c.c./sec

(N

1) 29 2) 23
3) 29 4) 23
20. tan 5 =
A tan + B tan3 + C tan 5

G-).

5. ( b
c ) (
c
a ) = 3 c

[ b
c

1) 2

c
a

2) 3

3) 4

4) 9

= (1, 1, 1), b = (1, 1, 1), c = (1, 1, 1),


6. If a
then match the following.

= (1, 1, 1), b = (1, 1, 1), c = (1, 1, 1)


a

C--E ---.
I

b c ] =
A) [ a

II

1) 6 2

b + b c
B) a
=
+ c a

2) 3

b + b. c + c.
a =
C) a.

D) [b c

c a

Correct match
A
B
1) 3
1
2) 3
1
3) 1
2
4) 2
4

b]
a

3) 4

4) 3 2
5) 16

(j )
C
4
2
5
3

12

D
2
5
4
1

-h)
)

10

11. (1 + tan1) (1+ tan2) (1 + tan3)...

C.Sadasiva Sastry

(1 + tan44) (1 + tan45) = 2n n =
1) 20
2) 21
3) 22
4) 23

2
12. 5 cos2 + 2 cos + 1 = 0,
2
(, ) =

3
1)
2) cos1
3
5

3
3) , cos1
4) , cos1
3
5
3
5
x

13. x = cot1 tan tan1 tan tan =


4 2

1) tan 2) cot 3) tan 4) cot

()

()

14. In ABC, (ABC


(a + b + c)(a + b c)(b + c a)(c + a b)

(vA-),

x
x
7. The period of 2 sin + 3 cos is (
4
3
1 24
2 12
3 8
4 4
8. sinx (1+ sinx) = 1

MATHEMATICS

a b]=

cos x + 3 cos x + 3cos x + cos x =


1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
9. Observe the following statements

I. The range of sinx + cosx is [ 2, 2]

=
2 2 2

4a b c
1
1
1)
2)
3) 2R2
4) 4R2
2R2
4R2
15. In ABC, (ABC
cosA + cosB =
C
2
4 sin
2
1) a + b = c
2) a + b = 2c
3) b + c = 2a
4) c + a = 2b
16. In ABC, (ABC
a: b : c = 4: 5: 6
1) 7r = R
2) 7r = 16R
3) 7R = 16r
4) 7R = r
17. In ABC (ABC

vA-),

vA-)

vA-),

r3 = r + r1 + r2 A + B + 2C =

(C v--- -E-)

HINTS - SOLUTIONS
1. f(x + 2y, x 2y) = xy
4.x.2y
=
8
(x + 2y)2 (x 2y)2
=
8
2
x y2
f(x, y) =
8
2. f [g(x)] = g [f(x)]
a (cx + d) + b = c (ax + b) + d
ad + b = cb + d
f(d) = g(b)
11. [(1+ tan1) (1 + tan44)] [1 + tan2)
(1+ tan43)] .... (1+ tan45) = 2n
(2) (2) .... (2) (23 factors) = 2n
223 = 2n
n = 23.

13. tan = tany x = 2y


2

x
y=
4
2

[ (

x
x
x
Ltx0 1 a 1 b 1 c 1
+ +
3
x
x
x

22. Given limit = e

D + E tan2 + F tan4
A+B+C
=
D+E+F
1) 2
2) 1
3) 1
4) 2
2

ex cos 2x
21. Lt

=
x0
x2
1
1
1)
2) 3) 2
4) 3
2
3
1/x
ax + bx +cx
=
22. Lt
x0
3
1) abc
2) (abc)1/2

4) (abc)2/3

3) (abc)1/3
n+1

n+1

3.2
4.5
23. Lt
=
n 5.2n + 7.5n
4
4
20
1)
2)
3)
7
7
7

20
4)
7

( )

( )

d
x4 + x2 +1
26. If
dx x2 x + 1

= Ax+B, then (

-)

[ ( )]

x4 + x2 + 1

26.
x2 x + 1
5

28.

k2 (k+1)2

x
2

(x2 + 1+ x) (x2 + 1x)

=
x2 + 1 x

= 22.5
=
4
k=1 4k
90

I
30. for x R, f (x) 0
Implies that fI(x) = 0 has no real roots
3x2 + 2ax + b = 0 has imaginary roots
Discriminant < 0 a2 < 3b

34. (1x)y = 1 x4n


x = 0 y = 1; y1 = 1

21

13
13
2)

13
3)

21
21
1 cos4x
32. f(x) = , x 0
8x2
= p,
x=0
is continuous at x = 0
(x = 0
p=
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
1)

13
4)
21

592

590

588

4) 4

584

586

i
+i
+i
+i
+i
33 =
582
580 578
576
574
i
+i +i
+i
+i
1) 2
2) 1
3) 0
4) 1

34. y = (1 + x) (1 + x2) (1 + x ) ....(1 + x2n)


(y1)
=
4

x=0

1) 1

2) 0

3) 1

4) 2

KEY
1-4; 2-3; 3-2; 4-4; 5-4; 6-2; 7-1; 8-2; 9-1;
10-3; 11-4; 12-4; 13-1; 14-2; 15-2; 16-3;
17-3; 18-3; 19-1; 20-3; 21-3; 22-3; 23-4;
24-2; 25- 3; 26-3; 27-2; 28-4; 29-3; 30-3;
31-3; 32-2; 33-2; 34-3.

-\ E--Jq

)]

1
= (abc) /3

24. y = tan1 tan

u N--E E:

l N*ao)

1 sinx
dy
1 + sinx
dx
1
1
1)
2)
3) 1
4) 1
2
2
dy
x+y
y
25. 3x + 3 = 3 =
dx
3x1
3y1
1) x
2) y
13
13
y
3
1
3x1
3) 3xy
4) 3xy y
x
13
13

24. y = tan1

l N-*ao)

- - -J-- -J - --?

R = (0, 2 3, 1), S = (2, 0, 1) are 4 points

4
PQ : RS =
1) 2 : 3
2) 1 : 2
3) 1 : 3
4) 3 : 2

1) A = B
2) A = 2B
3) 2A = B
4) A = B
3 sin x
27. f(x) = , x 0
5x
= 2k,
x=0
is continuous at x = 0 (x = 0
k=

3
1)
2)
3)
4)
10
10
5
5
5
3
3
3
3
1 + 2 + 3 +........ + k
28.
=
1 + 3 + 5 +......+ (2k 1)
k=1
1) 21
2) 21.5
3) 22
4) 22.5
v
29. V = log (tanx+tany) sin2x + sin2y.
x
v
=
y
1) 4
2) 3
3) 2
4) 1
30. A condition that x3 + ax2 + bx + c may have
no extremum is:
x3 + ax2 + bx + c
1) a2 3b
2) b2 3a
3) a2 < 3b
4) b2 < 3a
31. The distance of the point (2, 1, 1) from the
plane x 2y + 4z = 9 is:
x 2y + 4z = 9
(2, 1, 1)

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--j-: www.ipeindia.org.

For EAMCET Concepts, Online exams, Previous and Model papers with solutions click on...

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--v- 4 - 2012

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(-- -o-L- --u-, --Nd)
www.eenadupratibha.net

--E- 5 - 2012

-- j---

1. Two moles of an ideal gas at 300 K were


cooled at constant volume, so that the pressure is reduced to half the initial value. Then
as a result of heating at constant pressure
the gas has expanded till it attains the original pressure. Then the total heat absorbed
by gas, if R is the universal gas constant

-- -z-- 300 K l C.
- n --J- l,
u- x-a. y n--
l -, L x .
--o h gP (R y-vA
n)
1) 150 R Joules
2) 300 R Joules
3) 75 R Joules
4) 100 R Joules
2. 40 gm of water and an equal volume of alcohol (specific gravity is 0.8) are placed one
after another in the same calorimeter of
water equivalent 2 gm. They are found to

- gv- vv
- -
C-*- - p E d - - uC. y
n -g u- L J
CC. C , L -

1/ 2 x ,
n - - l
NPdg (R = yv- A n ).
1) R
2) 2 R
3) 3 R 4) 3.5 R
5 A hollow sphere of outer radius 10 cm and
inner radius 9 cm floats half submerged in a
liquid of specific gravity 0.8. Then specific
gravity of material of sphere is

10

.-O. -u ul, 9 .-O.


ul o x- NP-d- -y 0.8 o
v --J- E-N- L--C. --n NPd y
1) 1.5
2) 2
3) 4.5
4) 3

6. A small metal sphere falls down in a liquid


with terminal velocity when the viscous force

9 Unpolarised light of
intensity 32 Wm2
passes
through
three
polarizers
such that the transmission axis of the
last polarizer is
crossed with that of
first. The intensity
of final emerging light is 3 Wm2. The intensity of light transmitted by second polarizer
will be

32 Wm2

Bv o -v E A
-v - y v---uC.
, *J -v - ~
o. *J -vJ * A
Bv 3 Wm2 -vJ *
_-u Bv ?1) 32 Wm2
2) 12 Wm2

vGEb p . (l < < < l). vGb


j o B v-N --u
h, x p Np- u
l
l
l
l
1) f0 2) 3) 4f0 4) 8f0
l
l
l
l
13. For a certain organ pipe, three successive
resonance frequencies are observed at
425 Hz, 595 Hz and 765 Hz. The speed of
sound in air is 340 m/s. The pipe is a .......
pipe of length

-* - d -
u 425 Hz, 595 Hz, 765 Hz
d ......... d, E ......
(L yE = 340 m/s)
1) closed pipe of length 1 m
1 -O. ----o d
2) open pipe of length 1 m
1 -O. ----o --*- d
3) closed pipe of length 2 m
2 -O. ----o d
4) open pipe of length 2 m
1 -O. ----o --*- d

-
- Ev- - ?
cool from 60C to 55C in 2 min. and 1 min.
respectively. Then specific heat of alcohol is

-A--Y
on it and its weight are in the ratio
3:5. Then the density of sphere is

. --O -v-
*o v h
Eo CC. j E on ,
<L- v- j` u
EpAh 3:5 v
o --g--AE --T-. <L-
?
u- d = 5. <L--, u-
1) Equal to that of liquid v--v-
D = 10 d. v- Je Bv I0
2) Less than that of the liquid
j <L- - A- B-v
v v \
I0
3I0
I0
1)
2)
3) I0
4)
3) 3 times that of liquid v--v- 3 x
2
4
4
4) 2.5 times that of liquid
11. In Youngs double slit experiment how many
v v- 2.5 x
maximas can be obtained on a screen

3 A body cools from 70C to 50C in 10 min.


Its temperature at the end of next 10 min., if
the room temperature is 20C

h 70C * 50C x-E 10


EN- dC. J-- g-v 20C
10 EN- y h g-v ?
1) 36C 2) 38C 3) 40C 4) 48C

7. Stopping potential (V0) - Frequency () of


radiation graph for different emitter surfaces
A, B and C are as shown. Then

(including central maxima) on both sides of


central fringe if = 2000 A; distance
between slits d = 8000 A

E- -E{- (V0), -u ()
u NN - -C* U
v -E-A
a.
B
V0

-u

- -d-u

b) Work function of A < B < C

E v

c) Threshold wavelength of A > B > C

-j` u
1 a, b are only true

, G v u
2 b, c are only true

G, v u
3) a, c are only true , v
u
4) a, b, c are true , G, u
8

The frequency and intensity of light of a


source are doubled. Then consider the
following statements.

A -u, Bv-- d
h
A) The saturation photoelectric current
remains constant.

%h A Nu v
B) The max. KE of photoelectrons are
doubled.

A -Z- A-h dC
, G -- u
2) A is true B is false
u, G --u
3) A is false B is true
-u, G u
4) Both A and B are false , G -u
1) Both A and B are true

<L v- 2000 A
j` uo --g--A, <L- u-
d = 8000 A o-p u d- E j p Je
d u ?
1) 12
2) 9
3) 18
4) 4

a) Threshold frequency
of A < B < C

u-Mx- E C - -d-u
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t- d: W 23
--j-: http://ilidelhi.org/

40 -v--- F, --J- o
\ (NPd y 0.8) -E y
Eo 2 -v--- u -P o -JO- . N 60C * 55C
xE - 2 EN-, 1 EN C. \-- NP-dg ?
1) 0.59 Cal/gmC 2) 0.82 Cal/gmC
3) 1.2 Cal/gmC
4) 6.8 Cal/gmC

4. A given mass of a gas is compressed


isothermally until its pressure is doubled. It is
then allowed to expand adiabatically until its
original volume is restored and its pressure

is then found to be 1 2 times its initial pressure. Molar specific heat of a gas at constant
pressure is (R = Universal gas constant)

3 8 Wm2
4 4 Wm2
10
The maximum intensity in
Youngs double slit experiment is I0.
Distance between the slits d = 5
where is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity of
light in front of one of the slits on a
screen at a distance D = 10 d.

12 The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire of length l is f0. A bridge is now


introduced at a distance l from the centre
of the wire (l <<< l). The no.of beats
heard, if both sides of the bridge are set
into vibration in their fundamental modes
are nearly

14 The ratio of inductions at two points at distances 10 cm and 20 cm from the centre of
a magnet on axial line are 25:2. Then the
length of the magnet is

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