1.

What is the best way a nurse can identify a patient when she is about to administer the
medications?
a. Check the chart of the patient and see whether the drug is present in the doctors order
b. Personally ask the patient his name
c. Check the name tag of the patient
d. None of the above
2. When is aspirin best administered?
a. Before meals
b. After meals
c. At night time
3. Any time You will be applying eye drops to Miss Lee. After checking all the necessary
information and cleaning the affected eyelid and eyelashes, you administer the ophthalmic
drops by instilling the eye drops:
a. Pressing the lacrimal duct
b. Into the outer third of the lower conjunctival sac
c. From the inner canthus going towards the outer canthus
d. Directly onto the cornea
4. During the administration of the medication using the IM route, the nurse should?
a. Slowly inject the needle and rapidly inject the medication in the selected site
b. Quickly inject the needle in the selected site and slowly inject the medication
c. Use a 45 degree angle to ensure that the medication passes the subcutaneous area
d. The nurse should clean the site starting from the periphery towards the center
5. Ear drops are prescribed for an infant with otitis media. The most appropriate method to
administer the ear drops to the infant is to:
a. Pull up and back on the pinna and direct the solution onto the eardrum
b. Pull down and back on the pinna and direct the solution onto the eardrum
c. Pull down and back on the pinna and direct the solution toward the wall of the ear canal
d. Pull up and back on the earlobe and direct the solution toward the wall of the ear canal
6. Nurse G is to instil otic solution into the clients ears. Above all, he avoids doing which?
a. Pulling the auricle backward and upward
b. Placing the tip of the dropper on the edge of the ear canal
c. Warming the solution to room temperature
d. Placing the client in side lying position
7. A nurse is educating on the use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which is the correct instruction?
a. Take several short shallow breaths after inhaling the drug
b. Cough before inhaling the drug
c. Hold the breath after inhaling the drug
d. Press the cartridge before inhaling the drug
8. You are about to administer a nasal spray, which among the following should you instruct the
client?
a. Instruct the client to tilt his head to the side for 5 mins
b. Tell the client that he can immediately do what he wishes
c. Instruct the client to tilt his head backward for atleast 5 mins
d. Instruct the client to keep his head straight for 5 mins
9. You are caring for a diabetic patient. After administering his insulin, the patient informs you
that he feels dizzy and you noticed he is having tremors. You suspected hypoglycaemia due to
the insulin. Which emergency drug are you expected to administer?
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. D50-50
d. None of the above
10. Before administering the insulin to a diabetic patient the nurse must first check the patients
blood sugar. How is this done?
a. By getting the capillary blood glucose of the patient
b. By allowing the patient to have a breath test
c. By checking the temperature of the patient
d. None of the above
11. A patient is about to undergo Heparin therapy, which lab result should the nurse check before
and after the therapy?
a. Prothrombin time
b. Culture and sensitivity
c. HDL levels
d. Partial Thromboplastin time
12. among the following lab results best indicates the status of the patients kidneys?
a. Blood sugar
b. Blood Urea Nitrogen
c. Hematocrit
d. HgbA1c
13. The physician prescribes 250 mg of a drug. The drug vial reads 500 mg/ml. how much of the
drug should the nurse give?

A. 2 ml
B. 1 ml
C. ml
D. ml
14. The most important instructions a nurse can give a patient regarding the use of the
antibiotic ampicillin prescribed for her are to
A. call the physician if she has any breathing difficulties.
B. take it with meals so it doesnt cause an upset stomach.
C. take all of the medication prescribed even if the symptoms stop sooner.
D. not share the pills with anyone else.
15. When counseling a patient who is starting to take MAO (monoamine oxidase) inhibitors such as
Nardil for depression, it is essential that they be warned not to eat foods containing tyramine, such
as:
A. Roquefort, cheddar, or Camembert cheese
B. grape juice, orange juice, or raisins
C. onions, garlic, or scallions
D. ground beef, turkey, or pork
16. A male client who has severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse Incharge knows the purpose of this therapy is to:
A. Prevent stress ulcer
B. Block prostaglandin synthesis
C. Facilitate protein synthesis
D. Enhance gas exchange
17. The physician prescribes a loop diuretic for a client. When administering this drug, the nurse
anticipates that the client may develop which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypervolemia
18. Nurse Oliver measures a clients temperature at 102 F. What is the equivalent Centigrade
temperature?
A.
40.1 C
B.
38.9 C
C.
48 C
D.
38 C
19. The physician orders dextrose 5 % in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing
delivers 15 drops/ml. Nurse John should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:
E. 30 drops/minute
F. 32 drops/minute
G. 20 drops/minute
H. 18 drops/minute
20. You are to apply a transdermal patch of nitroglycerin to your client. The following important
guidelines to observe EXCEPT:
A. Apply to hairlines clean are of the skin not subject to much wrinkling
B. Patches may be applied to distal part of the extremities like forearm
C. Change application and site regularly to prevent irritation of the skin
D. Wear gloves to avoid any medication of your hand
21. The nurse prepares an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. Which of the
following is the best action in order to prevent tracking of the medication
A. Use a small gauge needle
B. Apply ice on the injection site
C. Administer at a 45 angle
D. Use the Z-track technique
22. The nurse should immediately notify physician about the adverse effect of Ethambutol when the
client states:
A. I suddenly have difficulty hearing
B. My fingers and toes feel numb
C. My urine appears to be orange
D. My eyes are turning yellow
23. INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which of the
following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this complication?
A. Adhere to a low cholesterol diet
B. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (Vit B6)
C. Get extra rest
D. Avoid excessive sun exposure
24. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with TB. A nurse reviews
the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in the clients history, would require
physician notification?
A. Heart disease
B. Allergy to penicillin
C. Hepatitis B
D. Rheumatic fever

25. Nurse John noted signs of opioid toxicity in his patient taking in opioid analgesics for pain. He
expects to give which antidote?
a. Diazepam
b. Naloxone
c. Digibind
d. Epinephrine
26. Which drug will you question when dealing with a hypertensive patient with severe cough?
A. Metoprolol
B. Enalapril
C. Nifedipine
D. furosemide
27. A client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50
mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:
A. Should be taken in the morning
B. May decrease the clients energy level
C. Must be stored in a dark container
D. Will decrease the clients heart rate
28. A client with hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), a thyroid replacement
hormone. Which of the following statements made by the client would indicate additional teaching
is required?
A. I know I will be on this medication for the rest of my life.
B. I dont eat excessive amounts of cabbage or spinach.
C. I take my Synthroid with food
D. I take my Synthroid in the mornings
29. Acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with type 2
diabetes mellitus. During discharge planning, nurse Pauleen would be aware of the clients
understanding of the health teaching when he states:
A. If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some sugar, not dextrose.
B. The drug makes my pancreas release more insulin.
C. I should never take insulin while Im taking this drug.
D. Its best if I take the drug with the first bite of a meal.
30. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. Which of
the following would the nurse expect the physician to do?
A. Initiate insulin therapy
B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent
C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent
D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake
31. A 60-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the clinic for a follow- up
examination after being placed on a new agent to help her achieve tighter glycemic control. She
complains that she has suffered occasional abdominal cramps and diarrhea, adding that she has
recently been experiencing increased flatulence, which has become an embarrassing nuisance.
Which of the following agents best accounts for this patients complaints?
A. Acarbose (glucosidase inhibitor)
B. Chlorpropamide (sulfonylurea)
C. Glipizide (sulfonylurea)
D. Metformin (biguanide)
32. A 53-year-old woman with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department
complaining of vomiting, severe headache, dizziness, blurry vision, and difficulty breathing. She
says that she had been at a cocktail party when the symptoms began. Her skin is notably flushed
on physical examination. Which of the following medications is responsible for this reaction?
A. Acarbose (glucosidase inhibitor)
B. Glipizide (2nd gen sulfonylurea)
C. Glyburide (2nd gen sulfonylurea)
D. Tolbutamide (Sulfonylurea)
33. A client was diagnosed with DM 1. The primary health care provider prescribes an insulin regimen of
regular insulin and NPH insulin administered subcutaneously each morning. How soon after
administration will the onset of regular insulin begin?
A. Within 5 mins
B. 30 mins 1 hour
C. 1 1 hours
D. 4 8 hours
34. The antidote for Heparin is ______; as to oral Warfarin is _______.
A. Protamine sulfate; hemostan
B. Protamine sulfate; Vitamin K
C. Hemostan; Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K; Protamine Sulfate
35. The AP ordered a rapid-acting and intermediate insulin to be mixed and then administered
subcutaneously using an insulin syringe in the abdomen. Which action should be avoided?
A. Shake vigorously to ensure proper mixing
B. Refrigirate ONLY when opened
C. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia at PEAK hours
D. Rotate/Change the sites of injection
36. Which among the following health teachings should you instruct when giving first generation
sulfonylureas for patients with DM2?

A. Increase fluid intake

B. You must take it with food
C. Avoid foods high in tyramine such as cheese
D. Avoid taking in any alcohol-containing food or beverage
37. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is
given for fever, headache and cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi
38. A DOH approved herbal shrub growing wild in vacant lots and waste land; Matured branches are
planted; The flowers are blue and bellshaped. The small fruits turn black when ripe.
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi
39. Which of the following should the nurse monitor in order to detect possibility of Neuroleptic
Malignant Syndromein patients taking in antipsychotic drugs?
A. Increasing temperature
B. Decreasing respiration
C. Sudden increase BP and decrease in respiration
D. Nausea
40. The mother of a patient with Parkinsons is questioning the doctors order when she notes that his
sons urine turns dark when he takes in Levodopa. The nurse should:
A. Immediately report it to the physician
B. Discontinue the medication
C. Do not do anything
D. Instruct that it is a harmless side effect of the drug
41. A conscious DM 2 patient suddenly demonstrated symptoms of hypoglycaemia. Which of the
following should you administer first?
E. Glucagon 1 gm SQ or IM
F. D50-50 IV.
G. 3-4 commercially prepared glucose tablet
H. Insulin

Situation: Nurse Lanie is monitoring a child being hydrated with D5 in 0.45 NaCl 500ml incorporated
with 10 meqs of Potassium Chloride to run for 6 hours using a micro set. Answer the next three
questions based on this situation:
42. How many cc will she give the child hourly?
a. 75ml/hr
b. 83ml/hr
c. 93ml/hr
d. 110ml/hr
43. What is the rate of flow of the infusion using a micro set?
a. 55 mcgtts/min
b. 63 mcgtts/min
c. 73 mcgtts/min
d. 83 mcgtts/min
44. How much potassium will the child receive in 45 minutes?
a. 0.8 meq
b. 1.25 meq
c. 1.15 meq
d. 1.5 meq
45. Rhona, a 2 year old female was prescribed to receive 62.5 mg suspension three times a day.
The available dose is 125 mg/ml. which of the following should nurse Edwin prepare for each
oral dose?
a. 5 ml
b. 1.25 ml
c. 2.5ml
d. 10 ml
46. Randy is diagnosed with amoebiasis and is to receive Metronidazole (Flagyl) tablets 1.5g daily
in 3 divided doses for 7 consecutive days. Which of the following is the correct dose of the drug
that the client will receive per oral administration?
a. 1000 mg tid
b. 500 mg tid
c. 1500 tid
d. 250 tid
47. A patient is to receive an IV of Lactated Ringers, 1000 cc to run for 8 hours. The drip factor is
10 gtt/cc. How many drops per minute should you regulate the IV?
a. 24 gtt/min
b. 12 gtt/min
c. 21 gtt/min
d. 30 gtt/min

48. The doctor ordered diazepam (Valium) 10 mg PO bid for a patient. Diazepam is available in 15
mg extended-release capsules, 5 mg/ ml vial and 5 mg/ 5 ml oral solution. What will the nurse
administer?
a. 2 ml
b. 10 ml
c. 10 mg
d. 2 mg
49. The doctor ordered phenobarbital sodium (Luminal Sodium) 60 mg PO in divided doses tid. The
available dosage forms are 30 mg/ ml injection vials, 16 mg capsules, 20 mg/ 5 ml elixir and 15
mg tablets. The therapeutic level is 15 to 40 mcg/ml. The patient's phenobarbital level is 0.035
mg/ml. What should the nurse do? (2 pts)
a. Hold the medication because of a potential overdose
b. Administer 2 ml via deep injection
c. Administer 4 tablets per schedule
d. Administer 5 ml elixir per schedule
50. A patient weighing 88 lbs. must be given cefotaxime sodium (Claforan) 180 mg/ kg IM. The
drug stock is 500 mg/ ml vial. The nurse will give:
a. 6 ml
b. 8 ml
c. 12 ml
d. 14 ml
51. The doctor ordered diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 40 mg PO TID for a patient Benadryl 12.5
mg/5ml is available. How much would the patient have received in 24-hours?
a. 16 mg
b. 3.2 ml
c. 16 ml
d. 48 ml
52. The doctor ordered a medication for a patient 50 mg/ kg weight. The patient weighs 110 lbs.
What is the total dose in grams that the patient should receive?
a. 2
b. 2.5
c. 1.5
d. 3
53. The physician writes an order of Heparin 900 units/hr. the label on the IV bag reads: Heparin
10,000 units in 500 ml D5W. How many ml/hr will deliver the dose? (2 pts)
a. 45 ml/hr
b. 40 ml/hr
c. 50 ml/hr
d. 60 ml/hr
54. A lidocaine drip is infusing at 30 ml/hr on an infusion device. The drug is mixed 2g in 500ml
D5W. How many mg/min is the patient receiving?
a. 1 mg/min
b. 2 mg/min
c. 4 mg/min
d. 5 mg/min
55. Give Ceclor 45mg/kg/day PO in 3 divided doses for a patient who weighs 66 lbs. A 75 ml stock
medication is labelled Ceclor 125mg/ml. How many mL would the nurse administer per dose?
(2 pts) 5 ml
a. 4.2 ml
b. 3.6 ml
c. 2 ml
56. Order: Amoxicillin 0.25 g PO every 8 hrs. Available: Amoxicillin 125 mg tablets. How many
tablets will the nurse give in 24 hours?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
57. Your order reads ceftizoxime 1 g IV piggyback every 8 hours. The pharmacy supplies it in 100
mL D5W. You need to infuse it over 30 minutes. With a drop factor of 10, what drip rate will you
set?
a. 33 gtts/min
b. 35 gtts/min
c. 25 gtts/min
d. 40 gtts/min
58. Your order reads labetalol 40 mg IV push every 10 minutes until blood pressure is lower than
140/90 mmHg. You have labetalol 5 mg/mL available. How should you prepare the correct
dose?
a. 5 ml
b. 10 ml
c. 6 ml

d. 8 ml
59. You have on hand diazepam (Valium) 5 mg/mL. You need to administer 8 mg IV push stat. to a
patient having a seizure. How much should you draw into the syringe?
a. 2.2 ml
b. 1.6 ml
c. 1.2 ml
d. 3 ml
60. The public health nurse is providing follow-up care to a client with TB who does not regularly take
his medication. Which nursing action would be most appropriate to this client?
a. Ask the Ask the clients spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medications.
b. Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications regularly.
c. Notify the physician of the clients non-compliance and request a different prescription.
d. Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly.
61. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis drugs can cause damage to the eighth cranial nerve?
a. Streptomycin
b. Isoniazid
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol hydrochloride
62. The client experiencing eighth cranial nerve damage will most likely report which of the following
symptoms?
a. Vertigo
b. Facial paralysis
c. Impaired vision
d. Difficulty swallowing
63. A client is diagnosed with active TB and started on triple antibiotic therapy. What signs and
symptoms would the client show if therapy is inadequate?
a. Decreased shortness of breath
b. Improved chest x-ray
c. Non-productive cough
d. Positive acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample after 2 months of treatment
64. INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which of the
following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this complication?
a. Adhere to a low cholesterol diet
b. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (Vit B6)
c. Get extra rest
d. Avoid excessive sun exposure
65. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with TB. A nurse reviews
the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in the clients history, would require
physician notification?
a. Heart disease
b. Allergy to penicillin
c. Hepatitis B
d. Rheumatic fever
66. The nurse should include which of the following instructions when developing a teaching plan for
clients receiving INH and rifampicin for treatment for TB?
a. Take the medication with antacids
b. Double the dosage if a drug dose is forgotten
c. Increase intake of dairy products
d. Limit alcohol intake
67. A female client must take streptomycin for tuberculosis. Before therapy begins, the nurse should
instruct the client to notify the physician if which health concern occurs?
a. Decreased hearing acuity
b. Increased appetite
c. Impaired color discrimination
d. Increased urinary frequency
68. Which of the following statements is the primary preventive measure for PTB?
a. Provide public health nursing and outreach services
b. BCG vaccination of newborn, infants and grade 1 or school entrants
c. Make available medical, laboratory and x ray facilities
d. Educate the public in mode of spread and methods of control
69. A TB patient undergoing therapy complains of joint pain and muscle ache. The nurse notes that
this is because of:
e. Hypocalcemia due to the effects of Pyrazinamide
f. Hypocalcemia due to the effects of Rifampicin
g. Hyperuricemia due to the effects of Isoniazid
h. Hyperuricemia doe to the effects of Pyrazinamide
70. When joint pain and muscle ache occurs in a TB patient during the course of the therapy, the nurse
should:
i. Discontinue drug causing joint pains and muscle ache
j. Do not do anything since it is an expected side effect of a TB drug
k. Administer NSAID PRN for joint pain and muscle ache
l. Give antacids before giving medication

71. The TB patient complains of orange staining of his clothes every after he sweats, the nurse notes
that it is an expected side effect of which drug?
m. Rifampicin
n. Isoniazid
o. Pyrazinamide
p. Ethambutol
72. All are true about furosemide, except:
q. Loop diuretic
r. Promotes sodium loss
s. Promotes potassium reabsorption
t. None of the above
73. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The
nurse understands that this medication spares elimination of which element?
u. Sodium
v. Potassium
w. Vitamin K
x. Albumin
74. A patient has been taking spironolactone for the treatment of HPN. Which food should you instruct
the patient to avoid?
y. Milk
z. Cereals
aa. Tea
ab. Banana

75. Which among the following is not true about Tetanus Toxoid?
a. It is a formaldehyde treated toxin
b. It is slow acting

c. Promotes active immunization

d. Promotes passive immunization

76. Which among the following is true about anti-tetanus serum?

a. It requires skin testing
b. Slow acting

c. Has very low risk for allergic

reactions
d. All of the above

77. Which among the following is the best way in doing skin testing?
a. 0.1 ml of the solution in a 1:10 dilution should be injected subcutaneously
b. 0.1 ml of the solution in a 1:10 dilution should be injected subcutaneously into the
abdomen
c. 0.1 ml of the solution in a 1:10 dilution should be injected intradermally into the outer
aspect of the forearm
d. 0.1 ml of the solution in a 1:10 dilution should be injected intradermally into the inner
aspect of the forearm
78. Which of the following is correct as to the rate of the absorption of drugs from the fastest to
the slowest?
1. Syrup
2. Elixir
3. Tablets
4. Suspension
5. Liquid
a. 5-2-1-4-3
b. 5-4-2-1-3
c. 5-2-4-1-3
d. 5-4-3-2-1
79. The main site of metabolism is the:
a. Stomach
b. Liver

c. Small intestine
d. Kidney

80. The main site of absorption is the:

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine

c. Liver
d. Brain

81. It refers to the time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response
a. Onset
b. Peak

c. Duration
d. Indication

82. It refers to the time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response

a. Onset
b. Peak

c. Duration
d. Indication

83. This refers to the use of the drug for treating a particular disease
a. Onset
b. Peak

c. Duration
d. Indication

84. What do you call the condition when a patient requires a higher dose of a drug to produce the
effects that lower doses once provided?
a. Dependence
b. Tolerance

c. Addiction
d. None of the above

85. An alcoholic patient had withdrawal symptoms when he suddenly stopped drinking alcohol.
This may be a sign of?
a. Dependence
b. Tolerance

c. Cumulative effect
d. Placebo

86. A patient who had an allergic reaction to food was given diphenhydramine. The patient asks
you that he feels sleepy and you said this is an expected or predictable reaction to the drug.
This is an example of what drug effect?
a. Adverse effect
b. Idiosyncratic

c. Side effect
d. None of the above

87. This refers to unintentional adverse effect that is treatment-induced

a. Adverse effect
b. Idiosyncratic

c. Side effect
d. None of the above

88. What type of medication action causes an unpredictable side-effect where the patient may
over react or under react with certain medications
a. Side effect
b. Allergic reaction

c. Idiosyncratic effect
d. Drug tolerance

89. Term used to describe the time during which the medication is present in concentration great
enough to produce a therapeutic response
a. Onset
b. Duration

c. Plateu
d. Trough

90. Type of medication order that is carried out until the one who prescribed it cancels the order
a. Single dose
b. PRN order

c. Routine order
d. Stat order

91. Type of medication order that is carried out when needed or is necessary
a. Single dose
b. PRN order

c. Routine order
d. State order

92. A patient suddenly had cardiac arrest, the doctor ordered epinephrine, an emergency drug.
What type of medication order is this?
a. Single dose
b. PRN order

c. Routine order
d. Stat order

93. Which among the following topical drugs are best applied to wet areas of the skin?
a. Ointment
b. Cream

c. Petrolatum
d. None of the above

94. What is your nursing consideration when administering a suspension drug?

a. Shake the bottle sideways by holding the lid with the index finger and the bottom with the
thumb
b. Shake the bottle by placing the it in between the palms of both hands and move hands
forward and back in an alternating manner

c. Do not shake the bottle because it can destroy the drug

d. Shake the bottle in any way you want
95. Which among the following suspension drugs does not require shaking before administering?
a. Emulsion
b. Water-based

c. Gel
d. None of the above

96. What should you instruct when giving lozenges for a patient with sore throat?
a. Allow the drug to melt in the mouth for 3 mins and swallow after
b. Do not swallow the drug and just allow it to dissolve in the mouth
c. You may choose to swallow or allow the drug to dissolve in your mouth
d. None of the above
97. How should you position the patient when giving a suppository?
a. Left side-lying with knees flexed and the knees of patient facing the nurse
b. Right side-lying with knees flexed and the back of patient facing the nurse
c. Right side-lying with knees flexed and the knees of patient facing the nurse
d. Left side-lying with knees flexed and the back of patient facing the nurse

98.