GQB Ce PDF

GATE QUESTION BANK
for
Civil Engineering
By
GATE QUESTION BANK
Contents
Contents
#1.
#2.
Subject Name
Mathematics
Topic Name
Page No.
1-148
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Linear Algebra
Probability & Distribution
Numerical Methods
Calculus
Differential Equations
Complex Variables
Laplace Transform
1 28
29 57
58 73
74 112
113 131
132 143
144 148
Fluid Mechanics
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
#3.
Pressure and its Measurement

Hydrostatic Forces on Plane Surfaces
Kinematics of Flow
Fluid Dynamics
Flow Through Pipes
Impulse Momentum Equation and Its Application
Flow through Orifices and Mouth Pieces
Boundary Layer Flow
Viscous Flow
Dimensional Analysis
Impacts of jets and Turbines
Open Channel Flow
149
150 151
152 153
154 156
157 158
159
160
161
162 166
167
168
169
Hydrology & Irrigation
170 - 191
1
2
3
170 177
178
179 181
4
5
#4.
149 - 169
Hydraulics & Hydraulic Machinery

Irrigation
Water Requirements of Crops
Sediment, Transport and Design of Irrigation
Channels
Hydrology
182
183 191
4.Environmental Engineering
192 - 214
1
2
3
4
5
6
192 193
194 198
199 207
208 209
210 211
212 214
Quality Standards of Water

Water Supply and its Treatment
Waste Water Treatment
Sludge Disposal
Domestic Waste Water Treatment
Air Pollution
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, Keshava Krupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
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Page I
GATE QUESTION BANK
#5.
Structural Analysis
1
2
3
4
5
6
#6.
215 221
222 224
225 231
232
233
234 235
236 - 257
Simple Stress and Strain Relationship
Bending Moment and Shear Force Diagram
Thin Walled Pressure Vessel
Simple Bending Theory
Torsion
Column and Struts
Analysis of Statically Determinate Structures
236 241
242 246
247
248 251
252 253
254 256
257
258 - 277
Concrete Technology
Basic of Mix Design
Design of RCC structures
Analysis of Ultimate Load Capacity
Basic Elements of Pre-stressed Concrete
Design of Pre-Stressed Concrete Beams
Concrete Design
258 259
260 263
264
265 272
273 274
275 276
277
Steel
1
2
3
4
5
6
#9.
Trusses and Arches

Influence Line Diagram and Rolling Loads
Slope and Deflection Method
Degree of Static Indeterminacy
Force Energy Method
Matrix Method of Structural Analysis
RCC
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
#8.
215 - 235
Mechanics
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
#7.
Contents
278 - 290
Introduction
Plastic Analysis
Welded Connections
Design of Tension Member
Compression member
Beams
278 279
280 283
284 286
287
288
289 290
Geotechnical Engineering
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
291 325
Three Phase System, Fundamental

Definitions and Relationship
Index Properties and Soil Classification
Permeability and Seepage
Consolidation
Compaction
Stress Analysis
Stress Analysis
Surface Investigations
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291
292 295
296 300
301 304
305
306 309
310 311
312 313
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Page II
GATE QUESTION BANK
9
10
11
12
Contents
Earth Pressure
Stability of Slopes
Bearing Capacity
Pile Foundation
314 315
316 317
318 322
323 325
#10. Transportation & Surveying

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
326 - 358
Introduction to Transportation
Geometric design of highway
Traffic Characteristics
Traffic Signs and Signal Design
Intersection Design
Testing and Specifications of Paving Materials
Design of Rigid Flexible Pavements
Introduction
Measurement of Distance & Direction
Theodolite & Traversing
Leveling
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326
327 332
333 336
337 339
340 341
342 344
345 348
349 350
351
352 355
356 358
Page III
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Linear Algebra
ME 2005
1.
Which one of the following is an
Eigenvector of the matrix[
(A) [
(B) [ ]
2.
5.
]?
(C) [
(D) [
A is a 3 4 real matrix and Ax=B is an

inconsistent system of equations. The
highest possible rank of A is
(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
ME 2006
3.
Multiplication of matrices E and F is G.
Matrices E and G are
os
sin
E [ sin
] and
os
G
4.
sin
os
sin
os
os
sin
os
(C) [ sin
sin
os
sin
(D) [ os
os
sin
7.
Eigenvectors of 0
1 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Infinite
If a square matrix A is real and symmetric,

then the Eigenvalues
(A) are always real
(B) are always real and positive
(C) are always real and non-negative
(D) occur in complex conjugate pairs
ME 2008
8.
The Eigenvectors of the matrix 0
1 are
written in the form 0 1 and 0 1. What is

a + b?
(A) 0
Eigen values of a matrix

S
ME 2007
6.
The number of linearly independent
]. What is the matrix F?
os
(A) [ sin
(B) [
Match the items in columns I and II.

Column I
Column II
P. Singular
1. Determinant is not
matrix
defined
Q. Non-square
2. Determinant is
matrix
always one
R. Real
3. Determinant is
symmetric
zero
matrix
S. Orthogonal
4. Eigen values are
matrix
always real
5. Eigen values are
not defined
(A) P - 3 Q - 1 R - 4 S - 2
(B) P - 2 Q - 3 R - 4 S - 1
(C) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 5 S - 4
(D) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 2 S - 1
9.
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
The matrix [
] has one Eigenvalue

p
equal to 3. The sum of the other two
Eigenvalues is
(A) p
(C) p 2
(B) p 1
(D) p 3
1are 5 and 1. What are the
Eigenvalues of the matrix = SS?

(A) 1 and 25
(C) 5 and 1
(B) 6 and 4
(D) 2 and 10
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THE GATE ACADEMY PVT.LTD. H.O.: #74, KeshavaKrupa (third Floor), 30 Cross, 10 Main, Jayanagar 4 Block, Bangalore-11
Page 1
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
For what value of a, if any, will the

following system of equations in x, y and z
have a solution
x
y
x y z
x
y z
(A) Any real number
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) There is no such value
ME 2012
15.
(B) ( )
of the matrix is equal to the inverse of the

,M- . The value of x is
matrix ,Mgiven by
)
(A) (
(C)
( )
(B)
(D)
1 is
0
(A) 2
(B) 2 3
(C) 2 3
(D) 2
ME 2011
13. Consider the following system
equations:
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
The system has
(A) A unique solution
(B) No solution
(C) Infinite number of solutions
(D) Five solutions
14.
of
(D) ( )
+, the transpose
ME 2010
12. One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix
1 , one of the
(C) ( )
(A) ( )
ME 2009
For a matrix,M-
For the matrix A=0
normalized Eigenvectors is given as
16.
11.
Mathematics
x + 2y + z =4
2x + y + 2z =5
xy+z=1
The system of algebraic equations given
above has
(A) a unique algebraic equation of x = 1,
y = 1 and z = 1
(B) only the two solutions of ( x = 1,
y = 1, z = 1) and ( x = 2, y = 1, z = 0)
(C) infinite number of solutions.
(D) No feasible solution.
ME 2013
17. The Eigenvalues of a symmetric matrix
are all
(A) Complex with non zero positive
imaginary part.
(B) Complex with non zero negative
imaginary part.
(C) Real
(D) Pure imaginary.
18.
Choose correct set of functions, which are

linearly dependent.
(A) sin x sin x n os x
(B) os x sin x n t n x
(C) os x sin x n os x
(D) os x sin x n os x
ME 2014
19. Given that the determinant of the matrix
Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix

are always
(A) Positive
(C) Negative
(B) Real
(D) Complex
] is
12 , the determinant of
the matrix [
(A)
th
] is
(B)
th
(C)
th
(D)
Page 2
GATE QUESTION BANK
20.
One of the Eigenvectors of the matrix

0
21.
22.
2.
Consider a non-homogeneous system of

linear equations representing
mathematically an over-determined
system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) consistent having many solutions
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
(D) inconsistent having no solution
3.
Consider the matrices

,
- . The order of , (
1 is
(A) { }
(C) 2
(B) { }
(D) 2 3
Consider a 33 real symmetric matrix S

such that two of its Eigenvalues are
with respective Eigenvectors
x y
[x ] [y ] If
then x y + x y +x y
x y
equals
(A) a
(C) ab
(B) b
(D) 0
Which one of the following equations is a
correct identity for arbitrary 33 real
matrices P, Q and R?
(A) (
)
)
(B) (
)
(C) et (
et
et
)
(D) (
CE 2005
1.
Consider the system of equations (
)
is
s l r Let
(
)
(
) where
(
) e n Eigen -pair of an Eigenvalue
and its corresponding Eigenvector for
real matrix A. Let I be a (n n) unit
matrix. Which one of the following
statement is NOT correct?
(A) For a homogeneous n n system of
linear equations,(A
) X = 0 having
a nontrivial solution the rank of
(A
) is less than n.
(B) For matrix
, m being a positive
integer, (
) will be the Eigen pair for all i.
(C) If
=
then | | = 1 for all i.
(D) If
= A then is real for all i.
Mathematics
and
- will be
)
(C) (4 3)
(D) (3 4
(A) (2 2)
(B) (3 3
CE 2006
4.
Solution for the system defined by the set
of equations 4y + 3z = 8; 2x z = 2 and
3x + 2y = 5 is
(A) x = 0; y =1; z =
(B) x = 0; y = ; z = 2
(C) x = 1; y = ; z = 2
(D) non existent
5.
For the given matrix A = [
],
one of the Eigen values is 3. The other two

Eigen values are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2007
6.
The minimum and the maximum
Eigenvalue of the matrix [
]are 2
and 6, respectively. What is the other

Eigenvalue?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
7.
For what values of and the following

simultaneous equations have an infinite
of solutions?
X + Y + Z = 5; X + 3Y + 3Z = 9;
X+2Y+ Z
(A) 2, 7
(C) 8, 3
(B) 3, 8
(D) 7, 2
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Page 3
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
The inverse of the

(A)
(B)
0
0
m trix 0
(C)
(D)
0
0
The inverse of the matrix 0

is
is
( )
( )
( )
( )
The Eigenvalue of the matrix
CE 2012
[P] = 0
15.
(A)
(B)
11.
14.
CE 2008
9.
The product of matrices ( )
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) PQ
10.
1 is
1 are
and 8
and 5
(C)
(D)
CE 2009
12. A square matrix B is skew-symmetric if
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
CE 2011
13. [A] is square matrix which is neither
symmetric nor skew-symmetric and , is its transpose. The sum and difference of
these matrices are defined as
[S] = [A] + , - and [D] = [A] , - ,
respectively. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Both [S] and [D] are symmetric
(B) Both [S] and [D] are skew-symmetric
(C) [S] is skew-symmetric and [D] is
symmetric
(D) [S] is symmetric and [D] is skew
symmetric
i
i
i
i
i
i
The Eigenvalues of matrix 0

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
n
n
The following simultaneous equation

x+y+z=3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x + 4y + kz = 6
will NOT have a unique solution for k
equal to
(A) 0
(C) 6
(B) 5
(D) 7
Mathematics
1 are
2.42 and 6.86

3.48 and 13.53
4.70 and 6.86
6.86 and 9.50
CE 2013
16. There is no value of x that can
simultaneously satisfy both the given
equations. Therefore, find the le st
squares error solution to the two
equations, i.e., find the value of x that
minimizes the sum of squares of the
errors in the two equations.
2x = 3 and 4x = 1
17.
What is the minimum number of

multiplications involved in computing the
matrix product PQR? Matrix P has 4 rows
and 2 columns, matrix Q has 2 rows and
4 columns, and matrix R has 4 rows and 1
column. __________
CE 2014
18.
Given the matrices J = [

K
19.
] n
], the product K JK is
The sum of Eigenvalues of the matrix, [M]

is, where [M] = [
(A) 915
(B) 1355
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(C) 1640
(D) 2180
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Page 4
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
20.
The determinant of matrix [
Let A be a 4x4 matrix with Eigenvalues

5, 2, 1, 4. Which of the following is an
I
Eigenvalue of 0
1, where I is the 4x4
I
identity matrix?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
is ____________
21.
The
rank
of
the
matrix
] is ________________
CS 2005
1.
Consider the following system of
equations
in
three
real
variables x x n x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
This system of equation has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but a finite number of
solutions
(D) an infinite number of solutions
2.
What are the Eigenvalues of the following

2 2 matrix?
0
(A)
(B)
1
n
n
(C)
(D)
n
n
CS 2006
3.
F is an n x n real matrix. b is an n
real
vector. Suppose there are two nx1
vectors, u and v such that u v , and
Fu=b, Fv=b. Which one of the following
statement is false?
(A) Determinant of F is zero
(B) There are infinite number of
solutions to Fx=b
(C) There is an x 0 such that Fx=0
(D) F must have two identical rows
Mathematics
CS 2007
5.
Consider the set of (column) vectors
defined by X={xR3 x1+x2+x3=0, where
XT =[x1, x2, x3]T }. Which of the following is
TRUE?
(A) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a basis for
the subspace X.
(B) {[1, 1, 0]T, [1, 0, 1]T} is a linearly
independent set, but it does not span
X and therefore, is not a basis of X.
(C) X is not the subspace for R3
(D) None of the above
CS 2008
6.
The following system of
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Has unique solution. The only possible
value (s) for is/ are
(A) 0
(B) either 0 or 1
(C) one of 0,1, 1
(D) any real number except 5
7.
How many of the following matrices have

an Eigenvalue 1?
0
1 0
1 n 0
1 0
(A) One
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
CS 2010
8.
Consider the following matrix
A=[
]
x y
If the Eigen values of A are 4 and 8, then
(A) x = 4, y = 10
(C) x = 3, y = 9
(B) x = 5, y = 8
(D) x = 4, y = 10
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Page 5
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2011
9.
Consider the matrix as given below
[
13.
The value of the dot product of the

Eigenvectors corresponding to any pair of
different Eigenvalues of a 4-by-4
symmetric positive definite matrix is
__________.
14.
If the matrix A is such that
Which one of the following options

provides the CORRECT values of the
Eigenvalues of the matrix?
(A) 1, 4, 3
(C) 7, 3, 2
(B) 3, 7, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
CS 2013
11. Which one of
x x
equal [
y y
z z
x(x
y(y
(A) |
z(z
x
(B) |
y
z
x y
(C) |
y z
z
x y
(D) |
y z
z
15.
The product of the non zero Eigenvalues

of the matrix
the following does NOT

]
CS 2014
12. Consider the following system of
equations:
x
y
x
z
x
y
z
x
y
z
The number of solutions for this system is
__________.
is __________.
16.
) x
) y
|
) z
x
|
y
z
x
y
y
z |
z
x
y
y
z |
z
],
Then the determinant of A is equal to

__________.
CS 2012
10. Let A be the 2
2 matrix with elements

and
.
Then the Eigenvalues of the matrix
are
(A) 1024 and
(B) 1024 and
(C) n
(D)
n
Mathematics
Which one of the following statements is

TRUE about every n n matrix with only
real eigenvalues?
(A) If the trace of the matrix is positive
and the determinant of the matrix is
negative, at least one of its
eigenvalues is negative.
(B) If the trace of the matrix is positive,
all its eigenvalues are positive.
(C) If the determinant of the matrix is
positive, all its eigenvalues are
positive.
(D) If the product of the trace and
determinant of the matrix is positive,
all its eigenvalues are positive.
ECE 2005
1.
Given an orthogonal matrix
A= [
]. ,
(A) [
th
th
th
is
Page 6
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) [
(C) [
(D) [
Let, A=0
3.
(A) 0
(B) 1
1 and
Then (a + b)=
(A)
(B)
= 0
(C)
(D)
Given the matrix 0
The rank of the matrix [
2.
6.
Mathematics
Eigenvector is
(C) 0
(B) 0 1
(D) 0
(C) 2
(D) 3
ECE 2007
7.
It is given that X1 , X2 M are M nonzero, orthogonal vectors. The dimension
of the vector space spanned by the 2M
vector X1 , X2 XM , X1 , X2 XM is
(A) 2M
(B) M+1
(C) M
(D) dependent on the choice of X1 , X2
XM.
ECE 2008
8.
The system of linear equations
4x + 2y = 7, 2x + y = 6 has
(A) a unique solution
(B) no solution
(C) an infinite number of solutions
(D) exactly two distinct solutions
1 the
(A) 0 1
ECE 2006
4.
For the matrix 0

corresponding
0
to
the
9.
All the four entries of the 2 x 2 matrix

p
p
P = 0p
p 1 are non-zero, and one of
its Eigenvalues is zero. Which of the
following statements is true?
(A) p p
p p
(B) p p
p p
(C) p p
p p
(D) p p
p p
Eigenvector
1 is
(A) 2
(B) 4
5.
1 , the Eigenvalue
(C) 6
(D) 8
The Eigenvalues and the corresponding

Eigenvectors of a 2 2 matrix are given
by
Eigenvalue
Eigenvector
=8
v =0 1
=4
v =0
ECE 2009
10. The Eigen values of the following matrix
are
The matrix is
(A) 0
(C) 0
(B) 0
(D) 0
(A) 3, 3 + 5j, 6 j
(B) 6 + 5j, 3 + j, 3 j
(C) 3 + j, 3 j, 5 + j
(D) 3, 1 + 3j, 1 3j
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Page 7
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2010
11. The Eigenvalues of a skew-symmetric
matrix are
(A) Always zero
(B) Always pure imaginary
(C) Either zero or pure imaginary
(D) Always real
ECE 2011
12. The system of equations
x y z
x
y
z
x
y
z
has NO solution for values of
given by
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE 2014
16. For matrices of same dimension M, N and
scalar c, which one of these properties
DOES NOT ALWAYS hold?
(A) (M )
M
(M)
(B) ( M )
(C) (M N)
M
N
(D) MN NM
17.
A real (4 4) matrix A satisfies the

equation
I where is the (4 4)
identity matrix. The positive Eigenvalue
of A is _____.
18.
Consider the matrix
ECE\EE\IN 2012
13.
Given that A = 0
1 and I = 0
the value of A3 is
(A) 15 A + 12 I
(B) 19A + 30
(C) 17 A + 15 I
(D) 17A +21
(C) 2
(D) 3
Let A be a m n matrix and B be a n m

matrix. It is given that
) determinant
Determinant(I
(I
) where I is the k k identity
matrix. Using the above property, the
determinant of the matrix given below is
[
(A) 2
(B) 5
19.
The determinant of matrix A is 5 and the

determinant of matrix B is 40. The
determinant of matrix AB is ________.
20.
The system of linear equations
(A) 0
(B) 1
15.
[
]
Which is obtained by reversing the order
of the columns of the identity matrix I .
Let
I
J where
is a nonnegative real number. The value of for
which det(P) = 0 is _____.
1,
ECE 2013
14. The minimum Eigenvalue of the following
matrix is
[
Mathematics
)4 5
)h s
(A) a unique solution

(B) infinitely many solutions
(C) no solution
(D) exactly two solutions
21.
]
(C) 8
(D) 16
th

NOT true for a square matrix A?
(A) If A is upper triangular, the
Eigenvalues of A are the diagonal
elements of it
(B) If A is real symmetric, the Eigenvalues
of A are always real and positive
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th
Page 8
GATE QUESTION BANK
(C) If A is real, the Eigenvalues of A and

are always the same
(D) If all the principal minors of A are
positive, all the Eigenvalues of A are
also positive
22.
4.
An orthogonal set of vectors having a

span that contains P,Q, R is
The maximum value of the determinant

among all 22 real symmetric matrices
with trace 14 is ___.
EE 2005
1.
If R = [
] , then top row of
(A) ,
(B) ,
2.
(C) ,
(D) ,
5.
the Eigenvalues is equal to 2. Which of

the following is an Eigenvector?
3.
(C) [
(B) [
(D) [ ]
EE 2006
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 4
and 5.
] ,Q=[
] ,R=[
(B) [
] [
] [
(C) [
] [
] [
(D) [
] [
] [
(C) [ ]
(B) [
(D) [
EE 2007
6.
X = [x , x . . . . x - is an n-tuple non-zero
vector. The n n matrix V = X
(A) Has rank zero (C) Is orthogonal
(B) Has rank 1
(D) Has rank n
In the matrix equation Px = q, which of

the following is necessary condition for
the existence of at least one solution for
the unknown vector x
(A) Augmented matrix [P/Q] must have
the same rank as matrix P
(B) Vector q must have only non-zero
elements
(C) Matrix P must be singular
(D) Matrix P must be square
P=[
(A) [ ]
] , one of
] [
The following vector is linearly

dependent upon the solution to the
previous problem
(A) [
(A) [
is
-
For the matrix p = [
Mathematics
7.
The linear operation L(x) is defined by

the cross product L(x) = b x, where
b =[0 1 0- and x =[x x x - are three
dimensional vectors. The
matrix M
of this operation satisfies
x
L(x) = M [ x ]
x
Then the Eigenvalues of M are
(A) 0, +1, 1
(C) i, i, 1
(B) 1, 1, 1
(D) i, i, 0
8.
Let x and y be two vectors in a 3

dimensional space and <x, y> denote
their dot product. Then the determinant
xx
xy
det 0 y x
yy 1
] are
three vectors
th
th
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Page 9
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) is zero when x and y are linearly

independent
(B) is positive when x and y are linearly
independent
(C) is non-zero for all non-zero x and y
(D) is zero only when either x or y is zero
Statement for Linked Questions 9 and 10.
Cayley-Hamilton Theorem states that a
square matrix satisfies its own
characteristic equation. Consider a
matrix. A = 0
A satisfies the relation

(A) A + 3 + 2
=0
(B) A2 + 2A + 2 = 0
(C) (A+ ) (A 2) = 0
(D) exp (A) = 0
10.
equals
(A) 511 A + 510
(B) 309 A + 104
(C) 154 A + 155
(D) exp (9A)
EE 2008
11. If the rank of a (
) matrix Q is 4, then
which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and four linearly independent
columns
(B) Q will have four linearly independent
rows and five linearly independent
columns
(C) Q will be invertible
(D)
Q will be invertible
12.
13.
A is m n full rank matrix with m > n and

is an identity matrix. Let matrix
A+ = (
)
, then, which one of the
following statements is FALSE?
(A) A A+ A = A
(C) A+ A =
(B) (AA+ ) = A A+ (D) A A+ A = A+
14.
Let P be a
real orthogonal matrix. x
is a real vector [x x - with length
x
(x
x ) . Then, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(A)
x
x
where at least one
vector satisfies
x
x
(B)
x
x for all vectors x
(C)
x
x
where at least one
vector satisfies
x
x
(D) No relationship can be established
between x and
x
9.
The characteristic equation of a (

)
matrix P is defined as
() = | P| =
=0
If I denotes identity matrix, then the
inverse of matrix P will be
(A) (
I)
(B) (
I)
(C) (
I)
(D) (
I)
Mathematics
EE 2009
15. The trace and determinant of a
matrix are known to be 2 and 35
respe tively Its Eigenv lues re
(A) 30 and 5
(C) 7 and 5
(B) 37 and 1
(D) 17.5 and 2
EE 2010
16. For the set of equations
x
x
x
x =2
x
x
x
x =6
The following statement is true
(A) Only the trivial solution
x
x
x
x = 0 exists
(B) There are no solutions
(C) A unique non-trivial solution exists
(D) Multiple non-trivial solutions exist
17.
th
An Eigenvector of
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,
th
th
] is
-
Page 10
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2011
18.
The matrix[A] = 0
22.

true for all real symmetric matrices?
(A) All the eigenvalues are real.
(B) All the eigenvalues are positive.
(C) All the eigenvalues are distinct.
(D) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero.
23.
Two matrices A and B are given below:

p
q pr qs
p q
[
]
0
1
r s
pr qs r
s
If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank
of matrix B is
(A) N
(C) N
(B) N
(D) N
1 is decomposed
into a product of a lower triangular

matrix [L] and an upper triangular matrix
[U]. The properly decomposed [L] and [U]
matrices respectively are
(A) 0
(B) 0
(C) 0
(D) 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
1 and 0
EE 2013
19.
The equation 0
1
1
1
1
x
1 0x 1
IN 2005
1.
Identify which one of the following is an
0 1 has
(A) No solution
x
(B) Only one solution 0x 1
Eigenvector of the matrix A = 0
0 1.
(A) [ 1 1]T
(B) [3 1]T
(C) Non zero unique solution

(D) Multiple solution
20.
A matrix has Eigenvalues 1 and 2. The

corresponding Eigenvectors are 0
0
Mathematics
2.
1 respectively. The matrix is

1
(C) 0
(B) 0
(D) 0
EE 2014
21. Given a system of equations:
x
y
z
x y
z
Which of the following is true regarding
its solutions?
(A) The system has a unique solution for
any given and
(B) The system will have infinitely many
solutions for any given and
(C) Whether or not a solution exists
depends on the given and
(D) The system would have no solution
for any values of and
(C) [1 1]T
(D) [ 2 1]T
Let A be a 3 3 matrix with rank 2. Then

AX = 0 has
(A) only the trivial solution X = 0
(B) one independent solution
(C) two independent solutions
(D) three independent solutions
1 and
(A) 0
1?
IN 2006
and 4
A
system of linear simultaneous
equations is given as Ax=B where
[
] n
[ ]
3.
The rank of matrix A is

(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
4.
Which of the following statements is true?

(A) x is a null vector
(B) x is unique
(C) x does not exist
(D) x has infinitely many values
th
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Page 11
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
For a given
that
0
matrix A, it is observed
0
1 n
10.
Then matrix A is
2 1 1 0 1 1
(A) A
1 1 0 2 1 2
1 1 1 0 2 1
(C) A
1 2 0 2 1 1
0 2
(D) A
1 3
7.
12.
Let A be an nn real matrix such that

= I and y be an n- dimensional vector.
Then the linear system of equations Ax=Y
has
(A) no solution
(B) a unique solution
(C) more than one but finitely many
independent solutions
(D) Infinitely many independent
solutions
IN 2009
8.
The matrix P =[
Let P 0 be a 3 3 real matrix. There exist

linearly independent vectors x and y such
that Px = 0 and Py = 0. The dimension of
the range space of P is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
IN 2010
11. X and Y are non-zero square matrices of
size n n. If
then
(A) |X| = 0 and |Y| 0
(B) |X| 0 and |Y| = 0
(C) |X| = 0 and |Y| = 0
(D) |X| 0 and |Y| 0
1 1 1 0 2 1
(B) A
1 2 0 2 1 1
IN 2007
6.
Let A = [ ]
i j n with n
= i. j. Then the rank of A is
(A)
(C) n
(B)
(D) n
Mathematics
] rotates a vector
A real n n matrix A = [ ] is defined as

i
i j
follows: {
otherwise
The summation of all n Eigenvalues of A is
(A) n(n
)
(B) n(n
)
(C)
)(
(D) n
IN 2011
13.
The matrix M = [
Eigenvalues
. An Eigenvector
corresponding to the Eigenvalue 5 is
,
- . One of the Eigenvectors of
the matrix M is
(A) ,
(C) ,
(B) ,
(D) ,
IN 2013
14. The dimension of the null space of the
matrix [
about the axis[ ] by an angle of

(A)
(B)
9.
(C)
(D)
] has
(A) 0
15.
] is
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
One of Eigenvectors corresponding to the

two Eigenvalues of the matrix 0
The Eigenvalues of a (2 2) matrix X are

2 and 3. The Eigenvalues of matrix
(
I) (
I) are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A) [
] 0
(B) 0 1 0
th
th
1 is
(C) [ ] 0 1
j
j
(D) [ ] 0 1
j
1
1
th
Page 12
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
IN 2014
16. For the matrix A satisfying the equation
given below, the eigenvalues are
, -[
(A) (
,)
(B) (1,1,0)
(C) (
)
(D) (1,0,0)
Answer Keys and Explanations

ME
1.
Now E F = G
[Ans. A]
[
4.
[Ans. B]
Given
sin
os
h r teristi equ tions is |

I|
(
)(
)(
)
Real eigenvalues are 5, 5 other two are
complex
Eigenvector corresponding to
is (
I)
(or)
( )
Verify the options which satisfies relation
(1)
Option (A) satisfies.
2.
os
[ sin
,E-
[Ans. A]
For S
matrix, if Eigenvalues are

then for
matrix,
the Eigenvalues will be , ,
For S matrix, if Eigenvalues are 1 and 5

then for
matrix, the Eigenvalues are 1
and 25.
5.
[Ans. A]
6.
[Ans. B]
0
in onsistent
No (
1 Eigenv lues re 2, 2
I)
I)
No. of L.I Eigenvectors

(
(no of v ri les)
/
I)
( )
( )
n ( )
( (
)
minimum of m n)
For inconsistence
( )
( )
he highest possi le r nk of is
3.
7.
[Ans. A]
(
I)
.
olving for , Let the symmetric and real
matrix be A = 0
Now |
[Ans. C]
os
Given , E = [ sin
and G = [
sin
os
1
|
)
Which gives (
Hence real Eigen value.
th
th
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Page 13
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. B]
12.
Let
eigenv lues re
Eigenve tor is x
13.
taking K
[
[
If
14.
[Ans. B]
Eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix
are always real
15.
[Ans. B]
1 eigenv lues v lue
Eigen vector will be .

Norm lize ve tor
[( )
) ]
16.
system will h ve solution
][
M
x
MM
[Ans. C]
The given system is
x
y z
x y
z
x y z
Use Gauss elimination method as follows
Augmented matrix is
, | -
[Ans. A]
iven M
( )
infinite m ny solutions
[Ans. B]
( )
11.
( )
[Ans. C]
Sum of the diagonal elements = Sum of
the Eigenvalues
1 + 0 + p = 3+S
S= p 2
x verify the options
[Ans. C]
10.
1 Eigenv lues re
Eigen vector corresponding to =2

is (
I)
x
.
/ .y/ . /
K
By simplifying
(
) 4
5 by
9.
[Ans. A]
Eigen vector corresponding to

is (
I)
x
.
/ .y/ . /
By simplifying
K
. / . / y t king K
Mathematics
| ]
x
Equating the elements x
th
th
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Page 14
GATE QUESTION BANK
nk ( )
nk ( | )
So, Rank (A) = Rank (A|B) = 2 < n (no. of
variables)
So, we have infinite number of solutions
17.
[Ans. C]
Suppose the Eigenvalue of matrix A is
(
i )(s y) and the Eigenvector is
x where s the onjug te p ir of
Eigenvalue and Eigenvector is n x.
So Ax = x
and x x
Taking transpose of equ tion
x
x
[( )
n is s l r ]
x
x x x
x x x x ,
x x x x
(x x) (
re s l r )
(x x)
( x x re Eigenve tors they

i
i
i
0
nnot e zero )
19.
[Ans. C]
We know that
os x
os x sin x
( ) os x
sin x ( ) os x
Hence 1, 1 and 1 are coefficients. They
are linearly dependent.
[Ans. A]
|
20.
[Ans. D]
0
1 eigen v lues
Eigenve tor is
verify for oth

n
21.
[Ans. D]
We know that the Eigenvectors
corresponding to distinct Eigenvalues of
real symmetric matrix are orthogonal.
x
y
x
y
[ ][ ] x y
x y
x y
y
x
22.
[Ans. D]
(
)
In case of matrix PQ
CE
1.
QP (generally)
[Ans. C]
If
=
i.e. A is orthogonal, we can
only s y th t if is n Eigenv lue of
then
also will be an Eigenvalue of A,
which does not necessarily imply that

| | = 1 for all i.
2.
[Ans. A]
In an over determined system having
more equations than variables, it is
necessary to have consistent unique
solution, by definition
3.
[Ans. A]
With the given order we can say that
order of matrices are as follows:
34
Y 43
33
(
) 33
P 23
So, |
(Taking 2 common from each row)

(
)
Hence Eigenvalue of a symmetric matrix

are real
18.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 15
GATE QUESTION BANK
32
P(
)
(23) (33) (32)
22
( (
)
) 22
4.
| ]
| ]
| ]
| ]
]
]
[Ans. A]
Inverse of 0
( )
( )
( )
( )
olution is non existent for above
system.
5.
Now for infinite solution last row must be

completely zero
ie 2=0 n
7=0
n
8.
Then by Gauss elimination procedure

[
| ]
[Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for given system is
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
= Trace (A)
+ + = Trace (A)
= 2 + ( 1) + 0 = 1
Now = 3
3+ + =1
Only choice (B) satisfies this condition.
1 is
(
)
0
9.
1
1
[Ans. B]
( ) P=(
(
)(
)
=(
) (I) =
10.
)P
[Ans. B]
A=0
Characteristic equation of A is
6.
7.
[Ans. B]
= Trace (A)
+ + =1+5+1=7
Now = 2, = 6
2+6+ =7
=3
(4
)( 5
) 2 5 =0
+
30 = 0
6, 5
11.
[Ans. A]
[
|=0
| ]
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to

an upper triangular matrix to find its
rank
th
[Ans. D]
x
[
| ] 6y7 [ ]
z
k
Using Gauss elimination we reduce this to
an upper triangular matrix to find its rank
th
th
Page 16
GATE QUESTION BANK
| ]
17.
[Ans. 16]
, , M trix , The product of matrix PQR is
, - , - , The minimum number of multiplications
involves in computing the matrix product
PQR is 16
18.
[Ans. 23]
k
[
| ]
| ]
Now if k
Rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 3
Unique solution
If k = 7, rank (A) = rank (A|B) = 2
which is less than number of variables
When K = 7, unique solution is not
possible and only infinite solution is
possible
12.
[Ans. A]
A square matrix B is defined as skewsymmetric if and only if
= B
13.
[Ans. D]
By definition A +
is always symmetric
is symmetri
is lw ys skew symmetri
is skew symmetri
14.
1 =(
,(
=
15.
0
)
i
i)(
i
-[
]
-
[Ans. 88]
The determinant of matrix is
[
20.
i -
[Ans. A]
Sum of Eigenvalues
= Sum of trace/main diagonal elements
= 215 + 150 + 550
= 915
Sum of the Eigenvalues = 17

Product of the Eigenvalues =
From options, 3.48 + 13.53 = 17
(3.48)(13.53) = 47
16.
19.
[Ans. B]
0
i)
i
][
K JK
[Ans. B]
0
Mathematics
Interchanging Column 1& Column 2 and

taking transpose
[Ans. 0.5]
0.5
th
th
th
Page 17
GATE QUESTION BANK
The characteristic equation of this matrix

is given by
|
I|
* (
= (
)+
(
21.
= 1, 6
The Eigenvalues of A are 1 and 6
( )
( )
3.
[Ans. D]
Given that Fu =b and Fv =b
If F is non singular, then it has a unique
inverse.
Now, u =
b and v=
b
Since
is unique, u = v but it is given
th t u
v his is
ontr i tion o
must be singular. This means that
(A) Determinant of F is zero is true. Also
(B) There are infinite number of
solution to Fx= b is true since |F| = 0
(C) here is n
su h the
is
also true, since X has infinite number
of solutions., including the X = 0
solution
(D) F must have 2 identical rows is false,
since a determinant may become
zero, even if two identical columns
are present. It is not necessary that 2
identical rows must be present for
|F| to become zero.
4.
[Ans. C]
It is given that Eigenvalues of A is
5, 2, 1, 4
I
Let P = 0
1
I
Eigenvalues of P : |
I|
I
|
|
I
(
)
I
I
I
Eigenvalue of P is
( 5 +1 ), ( 2+ 1), (1+ 1), (4+1 ),
( 5 1 ), ( 2 1 ),(1 1), (4 1)
= 4, 1, 2, 5, 6, 3,0,3
( )
]
( )
]
( )
no. of non zero rows = 2
[Ans. B]
The augmented matrix for the given
system is [
| ]
Using elementary transformation on above

matrix we get,
[
| ]
|
]
Rank ([A B]) = 3

Rank ([A]) = 3
Since
Rank ([A B]) = Rank ([A]) = number of
variables, the system has unique solution.
2.
)(
[Ans. 2]
[
CS
1.
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
0
th
th
th
Page 18
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
6.
[Ans. B]
|x
X= {x
x
x
+
= ,x x x - then,
{ [1, 1, 0]T , [1,0, 1 ]T } is a linearly
independent set because one cannot be
obtained from another by scalar
multiplication. However (1, 1, 0) and
(1,0, 1) do not span X, since all such
combinations (x1, x2, x3) such that
x1+ x2+ x3 =0 cannot be expressed as
linear combination of (1, 1,0) and
(1,0, 1)
| ]
) =0
= 1, 1
Only one matrix has an Eigenvalue of 1
which is 0
8.
[Ans. D]
|
|
x
y
(
)(
y)
When
(
y)
x
y
x
When
(
y)
x
y
x
x
y
Solving (1) & (2)
x
y
| ]
[Ans. A]
Eigenvalues of 0
|
Eigenvalues of 0
|
[Ans. D]
0
|
)(
)(
Eigenvalues of 0
Eigenvalues of A are
respectively
So Eigenvalues of
( )
)(
n ( )
n
| =0
)
)
)
=0
)
= i or 1
= 1 i or 1 + i
|= 0
(
(
Eigenvalues of the matrix (A) are the

roots of the characteristic polynomial
given below.
= 0, 0
( )
10.
=0,1
Eigenvalues of 0
( )
[Ans. A]
The Eigenvalues of a upper triangular
matrix are given by its diagonal entries.
Eigenvalues are 1, 4, 3 only
| =0
=0
9.
| =0
Correct choice is (A)
| ]
Now as long as 5 0,
rank (A) =rank (A|B) =3
can be any real value except 5. Closest
correct answer is (D).
7.
[Ans. D]
The augmented matrix for above system
is
[
Mathematics
) =0
th
th
th
Page 19
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
12.
[Ans. A]
p
q
nd
Since 2
& 3rd columns have been
swapped which introduces a ve sign
Hence (A) is not equal to the problem
15.
[
]
x
x
Let X = x
e eigen ve tor
x
[x ]
By the definition of eigenvector, AX =
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
[
] [x ]
[x ]
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
n x
x
x
x
x
x
(I) If
s yx
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
(2) If
Eigenv lue
Three distinct eigenvalues are 0, 2, 3
Product of non zero eigenvalues = 2 3
=6
16.
(
)
( )
no of v ri
nique solution exists
13.
14.
les
[Ans. 0]
The Eigenvectors corresponding to
distinct Eigenvalues of real symmetric
matrix are orthogonal
[
| |
ECE
1.
2.
[Ans. 0]
[Ans. A]
If the trace or determinant of matrix is
positive then it is not necessary that all
eigenvalues are positive. So, option (B),
(C), (D) are not correct
[Ans. C]
Since, ,
[Ans. A]
We know,
]
(
[Ans. 6]
Let A =
[Ans. 1]
x
y
x
z
x y z
x
y
z
ugmente m trix is [
Mathematics
16
0
)
th
=I
7=0
1
th
th
1
1
Page 20
GATE QUESTION BANK
b
1
, a
10
60
1 1 21 7

a+b =
3 60 60 20
Or 2a 0.1b=0, 2a
3.
7.
[Ans. C]
There are M non-zero, orthogonal vectors,
so there is required M dimension to
represent them.
8.
[Ans. B]
Approach 1:
Given 4x + 2y =7
and 2x + y =6
[Ans. C]
0
(A I)=0
( 4 ) (3 ) 2 4=0
2 + 20=0 = 5, 4
4 2 x 7
2 1 y 6

0 0 x 5
2 1 y 6

On comparing LHS and RHS
0= 5, which is irrelevant and so no
solution.
Approach 2:
4x + 2y =7
7
or 2x y=
2
2x+y=6
Since both the linear equation represent
parallel set of straight lines, therefore no
solution exists.
Approach 3:
Rank (A)=1; rank (C)=2,
As Rank (A)
rank (C) therefore no
solution exists.
x1
1 =0
x2
x + 2x = 0 x = 2x
x
x
1= 2
2 1
Putting = 5, 0
Hence, 0
4.
1 is Eigenvector.
[Ans. C]
1 We know th t it is Eigenvalue
Then Eigenvector is x
Verify the options (C)
5.
[Ans. A]
or m trix
We know
|I A|=0
9.
[Ans. C]
Matrix will be singular if any of the
Eigenvalues are zero.
|
|= 0
For = 0, P = 0
p
p
|p
p | =0
p p
p p
10.
[Ans. D]
Approach1: Eigenvalues exists as complex
conjugate or real
Approach 2: Eigenvalues are given by
2 I2
+32 =0
= 4, 8 (Eigenvalues)
For
= 4, ( I
)=0
)=0
v =0 1
For
= 8, ( I
v =0
6.
[Ans. C]
[
Mathematics
|
[
| =0
( )
th
)((
,
th
)=0
)
j
th
Page 21
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
12.
13.
[Ans. C]
Eigenvalue of skew symmetric matrix is
either zero or pure imaginary.
[Ans. B]
Given equations are x y z
x
y
z
and x
y
z
If
and
,
then x
y
z
have Infinite solution
If
and
, then
x
y
z
(
) no solution
x
y
z
If
n
x
y
z
will have solution
x
y
z
and
will also give solution
Then AB = [4]; BA
Here m = 1, n = 4
)
And et(I
et of , -
et(I
et of [
)
]
16.
[Ans. D]
Matrix multiplication is not commutative
in general.
17.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

Let e Eigenv lue of hen
e Eigenv lue of
A.
=I=
Using Cauchey Hamilton Theorem,
[Ans. B]
0
Mathematics
will
Characteristic Equations is
By Cayley Hamilton theorem
I
(
I)
I
14.
18.
| |
[Ans. A]
[Ans. *] Range 199 to 201

From matrix properties we know that the
determinant of the product is equal to the
product of the determinants.
That is if A and B are two matrix with
determinant | | n | | respectively,
then | | | | | |
| | | | | |
20.
[Ans. B]
)
]
| |
[Ans. B]
,
Let
[ ]
19.
| | Product of Eigenvalues = 0
Minimum Eigenv lue h s to e
15.
[Ans. *] Range 0.99 to 1.01

I
J
I
J
th
th
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Page 22
GATE QUESTION BANK
( )
( | )
no of v r
Infinitely many solutions
21.
les
cof. (A) = [
=[
whi h is re l symmetri m trix

h r teristi equ tion is |
I|
(
)
(not positive)
( ) is not true
(A), (C), (D) are true using properties of
Eigenvalues
EE
1.
Adj (A) =, of ( )-
[Ans. B]
onsi er
22.
Mathematics
Dividing by |R| = 1 gives
2.
[Ans. B]
]
j( )
| |
, of tor( )| |
| |=|
=[
Top row of
=,
[Ans. D]
Since matrix is triangular, the Eigenvalues
are the diagonal elements themselves
namely = 3, 2 & 1.
Corresponding to Eigenvalue = 2, let
us find the Eigenvector
[A - ] x = 0
x
x
[
][ ]
[ ]
x
Putting
in above equation we get,
x
[
][x ] [ ]
x
Which gives the equations,
5x
x
x =0
. . . . . (i)
x =0
. . . . . (ii)
3x = 0
. . . . . (iii)
Since eqa (ii) and (iii) are same we have
5x
x
x =0
. . . . . (i)
x =0
. . . . . (ii)
Putting x = k, we get
x = 0, x = k and 5x
k
=0
[Ans. *] Range 48.9 to 49.1

Real symmetric matrices are diagnosable
Let the matrix be
x
0
1 s tr e is
x
So determinant is product of diagonal
entries
So | |
x x
M ximum v lue of etermin nt
x
x
|
|
R= [
x = k
= 1(2 + 3) 0(4 + 2) 1 (6 2) = 1
Since we need only the top row of
, we
need to find only first column of (R)
which after transpose will become first
row adj(A).
Eigenvectorss are of the form

x
k
[x ] * k +
x
cof. (1, 1) = + |
|=2+3=5
= :1:0
cof. (2, 1) =
|= 3
=2:5:0
x
[ x ]=[ ] is an Eigenvector of matrix p.
x
cof. (2, 1) = + |
i.e. x x x = k : k : 0
|= +1
th
th
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Page 23
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
4.
[Ans. A]
Rank [P|Q] = Rank [P] is necessary for
existence of at least one solution to
x q.
5.
)(
7.
9.
= (x )
= x
[Ans. A]
1
|A | = 0
| =0
A will satisfy this equation according to

Cayley Hamilton theorem
i.e.
I=0
Multiplying by
on oth si es we get
I=0
I
=0
10.
[Ans. A]
To calculate
Start from
derived above
I = 0 which has
I
x
(
xy
xx
x n xy yx
xy
x xy
y y | |y x y |
(x y)
x y
= Positive when x and y are linearly
independent.
[Ans. D]
A=0
[Ans. B]
hen n
n m trix
xx
x x
x x
x x
x x x x
x x
*
+
x x x x
x x
Take x common from 1st row,
x common from 2nd row
x common from nth row.
It h s r nk
[Ans. B]
xy
xx
| yx
[Ans. B]
The vector (
) is linearly
dependent upon the solution obtained in
,
Q.
No.
4
namely
and ,
We can easily verify the linearly
dependence as
8.
L(x) = |
Hence Eigenvalue of M : | M
Option (B), (C), (D) are not orthogonal
6.
M=[
[Ans. A]
We need to find orthogonal vectors, verify
the options.
Option (A) is orthogonal vectors
(
Mathematics
=[
x k
(
k
x
x
L(x) = M [x ]
x
Comparing both , we get,
x )
I)(
I)
I
I)
I
I)(
I)
I
(
th
th
I)
I
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Page 24
GATE QUESTION BANK
I
(
15.
[Ans. C]
Trace = Sum of Principle diagonal
elements.
16.
[Ans. D]
On writing the equation in the form of
AX =B
x
x
*
+ *x + * +
x
I)
(
I)
I
11.
12.
13.
[Ans. A]
If rank of (5 6 ) matrix is 4,then surely
it must have exactly 4 linearly
independent rows as well as 4 linearly
independent columns.
= A is correct
=A[(
)
-A
= A[(
)
Put
=P
Then A [
] = A. = A
Choice (C)
= is also correct since
=(
)
=
I
14.
Argument matrix C =*
[Ans. D]
If characteristic equation is
=0
Then by Cayley Hamilton theorem,
I=0
=
Multiplying by
on both sides,
=
I = (
I)
[Ans. D]
Choice (A)
Since
os
x in )
|| x || = x
(x in
|| x || = || x|| for any vector x
, *
nk ( )
nk( )
Number of variables = 4
Since, Rank (A) = Rank(C) < Number of
variables
Hence, system of equations are consistent
and there is multiple non-trivial solution
exists.
17.
[Ans. B]
Characteristic equation |
|
I|
(1 ) (
)(
)
Eigenve tors orrespon ing to

(
I)
x
[
] [x ] [ ]
x
2x
x
x
x
At x
x
x
x
x
x
At x
,x
[Ans. B]
Let orthogonal matrix be
os
in
P=0
1
in
os
By Property of orthogonal matrix A
I
x os
x in
So, x = [
]
x in
x os
|| x || =
(x
Mathematics
is
Eigenvectors = c[ ]{Here c is a constant}
os )
18.
th
[Ans. D]
, - ,L-, - Options D is correct
th
th
Page 25
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
20.
[Ans. D]
x
x
(i)
} (i) n (ii) re s me
x
x
(ii)
x
x
So it has multiple solutions.
p
q pr qs
[
]
pr qs r
s
hey h ve s me r nk N
IN
1.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. D]
Eigen value
Given:
Characteristic equation is,
Eigenvectors 0
1 n 0
Let matrix 0
x
Mathematics
|A
x
10
10
i.e., (1 ) (2 )
2
Thus the Eigenvalue are 1, 2.
If x, y, be the component of Eigenvectors
orrespon ing to the Eigenv lues
we
have
x
[A- I]X=0
1 0y1=0
I|= |
For =1, we get the Eigenvector as 0

Hence, the answer will be ,
Solving
0
21.
[Ans. B]
Since there are 2 equations and 3
variables (unknowns), there will be
infinitely many solutions. If
if
then x
y
z
x y
z
x z y
For any x and z, there will be a value of y.
Infinitely many solutions
22.
[Ans. A]
For all real symmetric matrices, the
Eigenvalues are real (property), they may
be either ve or ve and also may be
same. The sum of Eigenvalues necessarily
not be zero.
23.
[Ans. C]
p q
0
1
r s
( pplying p
q
r
s element ry tr nsform tions)
2.
[Ans. B]
AX=0 and (A) = 2
n=3
No. of linearly independent solutions
= n r
= 3
=1
3.
[Ans. C]
There are 3 non-zero rows and hence
rank (A) = 3
4.
[Ans. C]
Rank (A) = 3 (This is Co-efficient matrix)
Rank (A:b) =4(This is Augmented matrix)
s r nk( ) r nk (
) olution oes
not exist.
5.
[Ans. C]
We know
Hen e from the given
problem, Eigenvalue & Eigenvector is
known.
1
1
X1 , X2 , 1 1, 2 2
1
2
th
th
th
Page 26
GATE QUESTION BANK
We also know that
, where
11.
[Ans. C]
A null matrix can be obtained by
multiplying either with one null matrix or
two singular matrices.
12.
[Ans. A]
A=[ ]
i if i j
= 0 otherwise.
For n n matrix
1 1
P X1 X 2
1 2
0 1 0
& D= 1
0 2 0 2
Hence
1 1 1 0 2 1
A

1 2 0 2 1 1
6.
[Ans. B]
A= [
A=[
]=[
Hence, rank (A) =1
13.
[Ans. B]
Given
I
Hence rank (A) = n
Hence AX= Y will have unique solution
8.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. C]
Approach 1:
(
10
1
1
1
]
( )
By rank nullity theorem
Rank [A]+ nullity [A]= no. of columns[A]
Nullity [A]= 3
Nullity , -
)=0
Approach 2:
Eigenvalues of (
I) is = 1, 1/2
Eigenvalues of (X+5I) is = 3, 2
Eigenvalues of (
I) (X+5I) is =
,
10.
I)
|
)(
[Ans. B]
Dim of null space [A]= nullity of A.
|
(
I)
Now | I
- is also vector
Apply row operations

0
14.
[Ans. B]
If AX =
From this result [1, 2,
for M
For given A = [
Assume,
A
n
For diagonal matrix Eigenvalues are
diagonal elements itself.
n(n
)
Using elementary transformation
7.
Mathematics
15.
[Ans. A]
A=|
[Ans. D]
Characteristics equation |
th
th
th
I|
Page 27
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
|
j
j
j
x
] 0x 1
0 1
x
x
j
j
j
j
x
x
] 0x 1
0 1
x
16.
[Ans. C]
A[
]=[
| | |
]
|
| |
(
| two rows ounter lose thus | |
| |)
=Product of eigenvalues
Verify options
Options (C) correct answer
th
th
th
Page 28
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Probability and Distribution

ME - 2005
1.
A single die is thrown twice. What is the
probability that the sum is neither 8 nor
9?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2008
6.
A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the
probability of getting heads exactly 3
times?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
ME - 2009
7.
The standard deviation of a uniformly
distributed random variable between 0
and 1 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items

are chosen randomly from this lot. The
probability that exactly 2 of the chosen
items are defective is
(A) 0.0036
(C) 0.2234
(B) 0.1937
(D) 0.3874
ME - 2006
3.
Consider a continuous random variable
with probability density function
f(t) = 1 + t for 1 t 0
= 1 t for 0 t 1
The standard deviation of the random
variable is:
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
4.
A box contains 20 defective items and 80

non-defective items. If two items are
selected at random without replacement,
what will be the probability that both
items are defective?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2007
5.
Let X and Y be two independent random
variables. Which one of the relations
between expectation (E), variance (Var)
and covariance (Cov) given below is
FALSE?
(A) E (XY) = E (X) E (Y)
(B) Cov (X, Y) = 0
(C) Var (X + Y) = Var (X) + Var (Y)
(D)
(X Y )
( (X)) ( (Y))
8.
If three coins are tossed simultaneously,

the probability of getting at least one head
is
(A) 1/8
(C) 1/2
(B) 3/8
(D) 7/8
ME - 2010
9.
A box contains 2 washers, 3 nuts and 4
bolts. Items are drawn from the box at
random one at a time without
replacement. The probability of drawing
2 washers first followed by 3 nuts and
subsequently the 4 bolts is
(A) 2/315
(C) 1/1260
(B) 1/630
(D) 1/2520
ME - 2011
10. An unbiased coin is tossed five times. The
outcome of each toss is either a head or a
tail. The probability of getting at least one
head is________
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2012
11. A box contains 4 red balls and 6 black
balls. Three balls are selected randomly
from the box one after another, without
replacement. The probability that the
selected set has one red ball and two
black balls is
(A) 1/20
(C) 3/10
(B) 1/12
(D) 1/2
th
th
th
Page 29
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME - 2013
12. Let X be a normal random variable with
mean 1 and variance 4. The probability
(X
) is
(A) 0.5
(B) Greater than zero and less than 0.5
(C) Greater than 0.5 and less than 1.0
(D) 1.0
13.
The probability that a student knows the

correct answer to a multiple choice
the probability of obtaining red colour on

top face of the dice at least twice is _______
17.
A group consists of equal number of men

and women. Of this group 20% of the men
and 50% of the women are unemployed.
If a person is selected at random from this
group, the probability of the selected
person being employed is _______
18.
A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective

pieces in a day with associated
probability of 1/6, 2/3 and 1/6,
respectively. The mean value and the
variance of the number of defective pieces
produced by the machine in a day,
respectively, are
(A) 1 and 1/3
(C) 1 and 4/3
(B) 1/3 and 1
(D) 1/3 and 4/3
19.
A nationalized bank has found that the

daily balance available in its savings
accounts follows a normal distribution
with a mean of Rs. 500 and a standard
deviation of Rs. 50. The percentage of
savings account holders, who maintain an
average daily balance more than Rs. 500
is _______
20.
The number of accidents occurring in a

plant in a month follows Poisson
distribution with mean as 5.2. The
probability of occurrence of less than 2
accidents in the plant during a randomly
selected month is
(A) 0.029
(C) 0.039
(B) 0.034
(D) 0.044
question is . If the student dose not know

the answer, then the student guesses the
answer. The probability of the guessed
answer being correct is . Given that the
student has answered the questions
correctly, the conditional probability that
the student knows the correct answer is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ME - 2014
14. In the following table x is a discrete
random variable and P(x) is the
probability density. The standard
deviation of x is
x
1
2
3
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1
(A) 0.18
(C) 0.54
(B) 0.3
(D) 0.6
15.
16.
Box contains 25 parts of which 10 are

defective. Two parts are being drawn
simultaneously in a random manner from
the box. The probability of both the parts
being good is
( )
( )
( )
( )
Consider an unbiased cubic dice with

opposite faces coloured identically and
each face coloured red, blue or green such
that each colour appears only two times
on the dice. If the dice is thrown thrice,
Mathematics
CE - 2005
1.
NOT true?
(A) The measure of skewness is
dependent upon the amount of
dispersion
th
th
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Page 30
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) In a symmetric distribution the value

of mean, mode and median are the
same
(C) In a positively skewed distribution
mean > median > mode
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution
mode > mean > median
CE - 2006
2.
A class of first years B. Tech students is
composed of four batches A, B, C and D
each consisting of 30 students. It is found
that the sessional marks of students in
Engineering Drawing in batch C have a
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3.
The mean and standard deviation of the
marks for the entire class are 5.5 and 4.2
respectively. It is decided by the course
instruction to normalize the marks of the
students of all batches to have the same
mean and standard deviation as that of
the entire class. Due to this, the marks of a
student in batch C are changed from 8.5
to
(A) 6.0
(C) 8.0
(B) 7.0
(D) 9.0
3.
There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of

them are defective. Suppose 5 calculators
are randomly picked for inspection (i.e.
each has the same chance of being
selected). What is the probability that
only one of the defective calculators will
be included in the inspection?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2007
4.
If the standard deviation of the spot speed
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and
the mean speed of the vehicles is
33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in
speed is
(A) 0.1517
(C) 0.2666
(B) 0.1867
(D) 0.3646
Mathematics
CE - 2008
5.
If probability density function of a random
variable x is
x for
x
nd
f(x) {
for ny other v lue of x
Then, the percentage probability
P.
/ is
(A) 0.247
(B) 2.47
6.
(C) 24.7
(D) 247
A person on a trip has a choice between

private car and public transport. The
probability of using a private car is 0.45.
While using the public transport, further
choices available are bus and metro out of
which the probability of commuting by a
bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the
probability, (rounded upto two decimals)
of using a car, bus and metro, respectively
would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25
(B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00
(D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
CE - 2009
7.
The standard normal probability function
can be approximated as
(x )
|x | )
exp(
Where x = standard normal deviate. If
mean and standard deviation of annual
precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm
respectively, the probability that the
annual precipitation will be between
90 cm and 102 cm is
(A) 66.7%
(C) 33.3%
(B) 50.0%
(D) 16.7%
CE - 2010
8.
Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The
probability of two heads simultaneously
appearing is
(A) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/6
(D) 1/2
th
th
th
Page 31
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2011
9.
There are two containers with one
containing 4 red and 3 green balls and the
other containing 3 blue and 4 green balls.
One ball is drawn at random from each
container. The probability that one of the
balls is red and the other is blue will be
(A) 1/7
(C) 12/49
(B) 9/49
(D) 3/7
CE - 2012
10. The annual precipitation data of a city is
normally distributed with mean and
standard deviation as 1000mm and
200 mm, respectively. The probability
that the annual precipitation will be more
than 1200 mm is
(A) < 50 %
(C) 75 %
(B) 50 %
(D) 100 %
11.
14.
A traffic office imposes on an average 5

number of penalties daily on traffic
violators. Assume that the number of
penalties on different days is independent
and follows a poisson distribution. The
probability that there will be less than 4
penalties in a day is ____.
15.
A fair (unbiased) coin was tossed four

times in succession and resulted in the
following outcomes:
(i) Head
(iii) Head
(ii) Head
(iv) Head
The prob bility of obt ining T il when
the coin is tossed again is
(A) 0
(C)
(B)
(D)
16.
An observer counts 240 veh/h at a

specific highway location. Assume that
the vehicle arrival at the location is
Poisson distributed, the probability of
having one vehicle arriving over a
30-second time interval is ____________
In an experiment, positive and negative

values are equally likely to occur. The
probability of obtaining at most one
negative value in five trials is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2013
12. Find the value of such that the function
f(x) is a valid probability density function
____________________
(x
)(
f(x)
x)
for
x
otherwise
CE - 2014
13. The probability density function of
evaporation E on any day during a year in
a watershed is given by
f( )
mm d y
Mathematics
CS - 2005
1.
Box P has 2 red balls and 3 blue balls and
box Q has 3 red balls and 1 blue ball. A
ball is selected as follows: (i) select a box
(ii) choose a ball from the selected box
such that each ball in the box is equally
likely to be chosen. The probabilities of
selecting boxes P and Q are 1/3 and 2/3
respectively. Given that a ball selected in
the above process is red, the probability
that it comes from box P is
(A) 4/19
(C) 2/9
(B) 5/19
(D) 19/30
2.
Let f(x) be the continuous probability

density function of a random variable X.
The probability that a X b , is
(A) f(b a)
(C) f(x)dx
otherwise
The probability that E lies in between 2
and 4 mm/day in a day in the watershed
is (in decimal) ______
(B) f(b)
th
th
f( )
(D) x f(x)dx
th
Page 32
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS - 2006
3.
For each element in a set of size 2n, an
unbiased coin is tossed. The 2n coin
tosses are independent. An element is
chosen if the corresponding coin toss
were head. The probability that exactly n
elements are chosen is
(A) ( n )
(C) ( n )
(D)
(B) ( n )
CS - 2007
Linked Data for Q4 & Q5 are given below.
Solve the problems and choose the correct
answers.
Suppose that robot is placed on the
Cartesian plane. At each step it is easy to
move either one unit up or one unit right,
i.e if it is at (i,j) then it can move to either
(i+1,j) or (i,j+1)
4.
How many distinct paths are there for the
robot to reach the point (10,10) starting
from the initial position (0,0)?
(C) 210
(A)
20
(D) None of these
(B) 2
5.
Suppose that the robot is not allowed to

traverse the line segment from (4,4) to
(5,4). With this constraint, how many
distinct paths are there for the robot to
reach (10,10) starting from (0,0)?
(A) 29
(B) 219
(C) . / .
(D) .
6.
/
. / .
Suppose we uniformly and randomly

select a permutation from the 20!
ermut tions of
Wh t is
the probability that 2 appears at an
earlier position than any other even
number in the selected permutation?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) none of these
Mathematics
CS - 2008
7.
Let X be a random variable following
normal distribution with mean +1 and
variance 4. Let Y be another normal
variable with mean of 1 and variance
unknown
If (X
)
(Y ) the
standard deviation of Y is
(A) 3
(C)
(B) 2
(D) 1
8.
Aishwarya studies either computer

science or mathematics every day. If she
studies computer science on a day, then
the probability that she studies
mathematics the next day is 0.6. If she
studies mathematics on a day, then the
probability that she studies computer
science the next day is 0.4. Given that
Aishwarya studies computer science on
Monday, what is the probability that she
studies computer science on Wednesday?
(A) 0.24
(C) 0.4
(B) 0.36
(D) 0.6
CS - 2009
9.
An unbalanced dice (with 6 faces,
numbered from 1 to 6) is thrown. The
probability that the face value is odd is
90% of the probability that the face value
is even. The probability of getting any
even numbered face is the same. If the
probability that the face is even given that
it is greater than 3 is 0.75, which one of
the following options is closest to the
probability that the face value exceeds 3?
(A) 0.453
(C) 0.485
(B) 0.468
(D) 0.492
CS - 2010
10. Consider a company that assembles
computers. The probability of a faulty
assembly of any computer is p. The
company
therefore
subjects
each
computer to a testing process. This
testing process gives the correct result for
any computer with a probability of q.
What is the probability of a computer
being declared faulty?
th
th
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Page 33
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11.
12.
pq+(1 p)(1 q)
(1 q)p
(1 p)q
pq
What is the probability that a divisor of

is a multiple of
?
(A) 1/625
(C) 12/625
(B) 4/625
(D) 16/625
If the difference between the expectation
of the square if a random variable ( ,x -)
and the square if the exopectation of the
random variable ( ,x-) is denoted by R,
then
(A) R = 0
(C) R
(B) R< 0
(D) R > 0
CS - 2011
13. A deck of 5 cards (each carrying a distinct
number from 1 to 5) is shuffled
thoroughly. Two cards are then removed
one at a time from the deck. What is the
probability that the two cards are
selected with the number on the first card
being one higher than the number on the
second card?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
14.
Consider a finite sequence of random

values X = [x1, x2 xn].Let
be the
me n nd x be the standard deviation of
X. Let another finite sequence Y of equal
length be derived from this as yi, a*xi+b,
where a and b are positive constants. Let
y be the me n nd y be the standard
deviation of this sequence. Which one of
the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Index position of mode of X in X is
the same as the index position of
mode of Y in Y.
(B) Index position of median of X in X is
the same as the index position of
median of Y in Y.
(C) y
x + b
(D) y
x + b
15.
Mathematics
If two fair coins flipped and at least one of

the outcomes is known to be a head, what
is the probability that both outcomes are
heads?
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(D) 2/3
CS - 2012
16. Suppose a fair six sided die is rolled
once. If the value on the die is 1,2, or 3 the
die is rolled a second time. What is the
probability that the some total of value
that turn up is at least 6?
(A) 10/21
(C) 2/3
(B) 5/12
(D) 1/6
17.
Consider a random variable X that takes

values +1 and 1 with probability 0.5
each. The values of the cumulative
distribution function F(x) at x =
and
+1 are
(A) 0 and 0.5
(C) 0.5 and 1
(B) 0 and 1
(D) 0.25 and 0.75
CS - 2013
18. Suppose p is the number of cars per
minute passing through a certain road
junction between 5 PM and 6 PM, and p
has a Poisson distribution with mean 3.
What is the probability of observing
fewer than 3 cars during any given
minute in this interval?
e
(A) e
(C)
e
(B) e
(D)
CS - 2014
19. Suppose you break a stick of unit length
at a point chosen uniformly at random.
Then the expected length of the shorter
stick is ________ .
20.
th
Four fair six sided dice are rolled. The

probability that the sum of the results
being 22 is x/1296. The value of x is
____________
th
th
Page 34
GATE QUESTION BANK
21.
The security system at an IT office is

composed of 10 computers of which
exactly four are working. To check
whether the system is functional, the
officials inspect four of the computers
picked at random (without replacement).
The system is deemed functional if at
least three of the four computers
inspected are working.
Let the
probability that the system is deemed
functional be denoted by p. Then 100p =
_____________.
22.
Each of the nine words in the sentence

The quick brown fox jumps over the l zy
dog is written on
sep r te piece of
paper. These nine pieces of paper are kept
in a box. One of the pieces is drawn at
random from the box. The expected
length of the word drawn is _____________.
(The answer should be rounded to one
decimal place.)
23.
The probability that a given positive

integer lying between 1 and 100 (both
inclusive) is NOT divisible by 2, 3 or 5 is
__________.
24.
Let S be a sample space and two mutually

exclusive events A and B be such that
S If ( ) denotes the prob bility

of the event, the maximum value of
P(A) P(B) is _______
ECE - 2006
3.
A probability density function is of the
).
form (x)
e || x (
The value of K is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.5a
(B) 1
(D) A
4.
Three Companies X, Y and Z supply

computers to a university. The percentage
of computers supplied by them and the
probability of those being defective are
tabulated below
Company
% of
Probability
computers
of being
supplied
defective
X
60%
0.01
Y
30%
0.02
Z
10%
0.03
Given that a computer is defective, the
probability that it was supplied by Y is
(A) 0.1
(C) 0.3
(B) 0.2
(D) 0.4
ECE - 2007
5.
If E denotes expectation, the variance of a
random variable X is given by
(A) E[X2] E2[X]
(C) E[X2]
(B) E[X2] + E2[X]
(D) E2[X]
6.
An examination consists of two papers,

Paper1 and Paper2. The probability of
failing in Paper1 is 0.3 and that in Paper2
is 0.2.Given that a student has failed in
Paper2, the probability of failing in
paper1 is 0.6. The probability of a student
failing in both the papers is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.12
(B) 0.18
(D) 0.06
ECE - 2005
1.
A fair dice is rolled twice. The probability
that an odd number will follow an even
number is
2.
( )
( )
( )
( )
Mathematics
The value of the integral
x2
exp
8 dx is
2 0
(A) 1
(C) 2
(B)
(D)
I
th
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Page 35
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE - 2008
7.
The probability density function (PDF) of
a random variable X is as shown below.
(x)
exp( |x|)
exp( |x|) is
the probability density function for the
real random variable X, over the entire x
axis. M and N are both positive real
numbers. The equation relating M and N
is
8.
PDF
PDF
Mathematics
(A)
1
(B) 2M
x
11
The -1
corresponding
cumulative
0
distribution function (CDF) has the form
(A)
ECE - 2009
9.
Consider two independent random
variables X and Y with identical
distributions. The variables X and Y take
value 0, 1 and 2 with probabilities
(B)
and respectively. What is the
conditional probability
(x y
)
|x y|
(A) 0
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
CD
F
C
D
F
10.
0
1
-1
(C)
A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is the

probability that ONLY the first two tosses
will yield heads?
1
(A)
2
CDF 1
11.
1
1
1
1
0
0
1
10
1
(C)
2
2
(B)
(D)
N=1
(C) M + N = 1
(D) M + N = 3
CDF
CDF
1
1
th
10
10
1
C2
2
(D)
10
1
C2
2
A discrete random variable X takes values

from 1 to 5 with probabilities as shown in
the table. A student calculates the mean of
X as 3.5 and her teacher calculates the
variance of X as 1.5. Which of the
following statements is true?
k
P(X=k)
1
0.1
2
0.2
3
0.4
4
0.2
5
0.1
th
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Page 36
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) Both the student and the teacher are

right
(B) Both the student and the teacher are
wrong
(C) The student is wrong but the teacher
is right
(D) The student is right but the teacher is
wrong
ECE - 2010
12. A fair coin is tossed independently four
times. The prob bility of the event the
number of times heads show up is more
th n the number of times t ils show up is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE - 2011
13. A fair dice is tossed two times. The
probability that the second toss results in
a value that is higher than the first toss is
(A) 2/36
(C) 5/12
(B) 2/6
(D) 1/2
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
14. A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for
the first time probability that the number
of required tosses is odd , is
(A) 1/3
(C) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(D) 3/4
ECE - 2013
15. Let U and V be two independent zero
mean Gaussian random variables of
variances and respectively. The
probability ( V U) is
(A) 4/9
(C) 2/3
(B) 1/2
(D) 5/9
16.
Consider two identically distributed zeromean random variables U and V . Let the
cumulative distribution functions of U
and 2V be F(x) and G(x) respectively.
Then, for all values of x
(x))
(A) ( (x)
(B) ( (x)
(C) ( (x)
(D) ( (x)
Mathematics
(x)) x
(x)) x
ECE - 2014
17. In a housing society, half of the families
have a single child per family, while the
remaining half have two children per
family. The probability that a child picked
at random, has a sibling is _____
18.
Let X X nd X , be independent and

identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X is the largest} is _____
19.
Let X be a random variable which is

uniformly chosen from the set of positive
odd numbers less than 100. The
expectation, E[X], is __________.
20.
An unbiased coin is tossed an infinite

number of times. The probability that the
fourth head appears at the tenth toss is
(A) 0.067
(C) 0.082
(B) 0.073
(D) 0.091
21.
A fair coin is tossed repeatedly till both

head and tail appear at least once. The
average number of tosses required is
_______.
22.
Let X X and X be independent and

identically distributed random variables
with the uniform distribution on [0, 1].
The probability P{X
X
X } is ______.
23.
Let X be a zero mean unit variance

Gaussian random variable. ,|x|- is equal
to __________
24.
Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass

sequentially through two post-offices.
Each post-office has a probability
of
losing an incoming parcel, independently

of all other parcels. Given that a parcel is
lost, the probability that it was lost by the
second post-office is ____________.
(x))
th
th
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GATE QUESTION BANK
EE - 2005
1.
If P and Q are two random events, then
the following is TRUE
(A) Independence of P and Q implies that
probability (P Q) = 0
(B) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
+Probability (Q)
(C) If P and Q are mutually exclusive,
then they must be independent
(D) Probability (P Q) Probability (P)
2.
A fair coin is tossed three times in

succession. If the first toss produces a
head, then the probability of getting
exactly two heads in three tosses is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
EE - 2006
3.
Two f ir dice re rolled nd the sum r
of the numbers turned up is considered
(A) Pr (r > 6) =
(B) Pr (r/3 is an integer) =
(C) Pr (r = 8|r/4 is an integer) =
(D) Pr (r = 6|r/5 is an integer) =
EE - 2007
4.
A loaded dice has following probability
distribution of occurrences
Dice Value
Probability
1
2
6
If three identical dice as the above are
thrown, the probability of occurrence of
values, 1, 5 and 6 on the three dice is
(A) same as that of occurrence of 3, 4, 5
(B) same as that of occurrence of 1, 2, 5
(C) 1/128
(D) 5/8
Mathematics
EE - 2008
5.
X is a uniformly distributed random
variable that takes values between 0 and
1. The value of E{X } will be
(A) 0
(C) 1/4
(B) 1/8
(D) 1/2
EE - 2009
6.
Assume for simplicity that N people, all
born in April (a month of 30 days), are
collected in a room. Consider the event of
atleast two people in the room being born
on the same date of the month, even if in
different years, e.g. 1980 and 1985. What
is the smallest N so that the probability of
this event exceeds 0.5?
(A) 20
(C) 15
(B) 7
(D) 16
EE - 2010
7.
A box contains 4 white balls and 3 red
balls. In succession, two balls are
randomly selected and removed from the
box. Given that the first removed ball is
white, the probability that the second
removed ball is red is
(A) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(B) 3/7
(D) 4/7
ECE\EE\IN - 2012
8.
Two independent random variables X and
Y are uniformly distributed in the interval
,
-. The probability that max ,
- is
less than 1/2 is
(A) 3/4
(C) 1/4
(B) 9/16
(D) 2/3
EE - 2013
9.
A continuous random variable x has a
probability density function
+ is
f(x) e
x
. Then *x
(A) 0.368
(C) 0.632
(B) 0.5
(D) 1.0
th
th
th
Page 38
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE - 2014
10. A fair coin is tossed n times. The
probability that the difference between
the number of heads and tails is (n 3) is
(C)
(A)
(B)
(D)
11.
12.
13.
14.
IN - 2005
1.
The probability that there are 53 Sundays
in a randomly chosen leap year is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
2.
A mass of 10 kg is measured with an

instrument and the readings are normally
distributed with respect to the mean of
10 kg. Given that
Consider a dice with the property that the

probability of a face with n dots showing
up is proportional to n. The probability of
the face with three dots showing up is
_______________
Let x be a random variable with
probability density function
for |x|
f(x)
{
|x|
for
otherwise
The probability P(0.5 < x < 5) is_________
Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random
variable with density f(x) kx , where x
is measured in years. If the minimum and
maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2
years respectively, then the value of k
is__________
The mean thickness and variance of
silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and
0.02 respectively. The varnish insulation
is applied on both the sides of the
laminations. The mean thickness of one
side insulation and its variance are
0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the
transformer core is made using 100 such
varnish coated laminations, the mean
thickness and variance of the core
respectively are
(A) 30 mm and 0.22
(B) 30 mm and 2.44
(C) 40 mm and 2.44
(D) 40 mm and 0.24
Mathematics
exp .
/ d =0.6
and that 60per cent of the readings are

found to be within 0.05 kg from the mean,
the standard deviation of the data is
(A) 0.02
(C) 0.06
(B) 0.04
(D) 0.08
3.
The measurements of a source voltage are

5.9V, 5.7V and 6.1V. The sample standard
deviation of the readings is
(A) 0.013
(C) 0.115
(B) 0.04
(D) 0.2
IN - 2006
4.
You have gone to a cyber-cafe with a
friend. You found that the cyber-caf has
only three terminals. All terminals are
unoccupied. You and your friend have to
make a random choice of selecting a
terminal. What is the probability that
both of you will NOT select the same
terminal?
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
5.
Probability density function p(x) of a

random variable x is as shown below. The
value of is
p(x)
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
Page 39
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
Mathematics
Two dices are rolled simultaneously. The

probability that the sum of digits on the
top surface of the two dices is even is
(A) 0.5
(C) 0.167
(B) 0.25
(D) 0.125
measurements, it can be expected that the

number of measurement more than 10.15
mm will be
(A) 230
(C) 15
(B) 115
(D) 2
IN - 2007
7.
Assume that the duration in minutes of a
telephone conversation follows the
IN - 2011
12. The box 1 contains chips numbered 3, 6,
9, 12 and 15. The box 2 contains chips
numbered 6, 11, 16, 21 and 26. Two chips,
one from each box, are drawn at random.
The numbers written on these chips are
multiplied. The probability for the
product to be an even number is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
exponential distribution f(x) =
e ,x
The probability that the conversation will

exceed five minutes is
(A)
e
(C)
(B)
e
(D)
e
IN - 2008
8.
Consider a Gaussian distributed random
variable with zero mean and standard
deviation . The value of its cummulative
distribution function at the origin will be
(A) 0
(C) 1
(B) 0.5
(D)
9.
A random variable is uniformly

distributed over the interval 2 to 10. Its
variance will be
(A)
(C)
(B) 6
(D) 36
IN - 2009
10. A screening test is carried out to detect a
certain disease. It is found that 12% of the
positive reports and 15% of the negative
reports are incorrect. Assuming that the
probability of a person getting a positive
report is 0.01, the probability that a
person tested gets an incorrect report is
(A) 0.0027
(C) 0.1497
(B) 0.0173
(D) 0.2100
IN - 2013
13. A continuous random variable X has
probability density f(x) =
.
Then P(X > 1) is
(A) 0.368
(C) 0.632
(B) 0.5
(D) 1.0
IN - 2014
14. Given that x is a random variable in the
r nge ,
- with
prob bility density
function
the value of the constant k is
___________________
15.
IN - 2010
11. The diameters of 10000 ball bearings
were measured. The mean diameter and
standard deviation were found to be
10 mm and 0.05mm respectively.
Assuming Gaussian distribution of
The figure shows the schematic of

production process with machines A,B
and C. An input job needs to be preprocessed either by A or by B before it is
fed to C, from which the final finished
product comes out. The probabilities of
failure of the machines are given as:
Assuming independence of failures of the

machines, the probability that a given job
is successfully processed (up to third
decimal place)is ______________
th
th
th
Page 40
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
4.
[Ans. D]
The number of ways coming 8 and 9 are
(2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2),(3,6),(4,5),
(5,4),(6,3)
Total ways =9
So Probability of coming 8 and 9 are
[Ans. D]
5.
[Ans. D]
X and Y are independent
( ) ( ) ( ) re true
Only (D) is odd one
6.
[Ans. A]
Number of favourable cases are given by
HHHT
HHTH
HTHH
THHH
Total number of cases
= 2C1 2C1 2C1 2C1 =16
So probability of not coming these
2.
[Ans. B]
Probability of defective item =
Probability of not defective item = 1 0.1
= 0.9
So, Probability that exactly 2 of the
chosen items are defective
=
( ) ( )
3.
[Ans. B]
t(
t
6
t)dt
t
t
6
t(
Probability =
7.
Mean (t) = t f(t) dt
[Ans. A]
A uniform
function
t)dt
t)dt
= (t
=0
t )dt
1
density
Density function
1
a,x b
f(x) b a
a x,x b
0
t (
t)dt
Mean E(x)=
t)dt
x(F(x))
x a
ab
2
Variance = F(x)2 f(x)
x F(x) xF(x)
x a
x a
Put the value of F(x), we get

b
=
Standard deviation = v ri nce
=
and
0,x a
x a
f(x) f x dx
, axb
0
b a
xb
0,
t (
distribution
Variance = t f(t)dt
= t (
( oth defective)
S mple sp ce
( oth defective)
1
1
b
dx x.
dx
Variance x
ba
x a
x a b a
b
th
th
th
Page 41
GATE QUESTION BANK

b
x3 xL

3(b a) a 2 b a
b3 a3 (b2 a2 )2
3(b a) 4 b a 2
(b a)(b2 ab a2 ) (b a)2(b a)2
2
3(b a)
4 b a
4b2 4ab 4a2 3a2 3b2 6ab
12
2
2
b a 2ab
12
(b a)2
12
Standard deviation = v ri nce
Standard deviation =
8.
9.
[Ans. C]
Probability of drawing 2 washers, first
followed by 3 nuts, and subsequently the
4 bolts
10.
[Ans. D]
Required probability =
11.
[Ans. D]
Given 4R and 6B
,
-
12.
[Ans. C]
(b a)2
12
(b a)
12
Given: b=1, a=0
10
12
12
X=0
X=1
(X
) is
Below X
(X
) has to be less than 0.5 but
greater than zero
13.
( ) ( )
1 7
1
8 8
Alternately
From Binomial theorem
Probability of getting at least one head
pq
( )
. / . /
[Ans. D]
Let probability of getting atleast one head
= P(H) then
P (at least one head) = 1 P(no head)
P(H)=1 P(all tails)
But in all cases, 23=8
1 7
P (H) = 1
8 8
Alternately
Probability of getting at least one head
( )
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
A
event that he knows the correct
answer
B
event that student answered
correctly the question P(B) = ?
( )
( )
( )
he knows
correct nswer
1 7
(3 3 1)
2 8
th
th
e does not know

correct nswer
so he guesses
th
Page 42
GATE QUESTION BANK
= probability of one employed women

+probability of one employed man
( ) ( )
(
)
( )
( )
18.
14.
[Ans. D]
x
1
2
P(x) 0.3
0.6
(x)
x (x)
V(x)
x
(
15.
(x )
So from figure
Mean value = 1
V ri nce : me n x defective pieces
(x )
)
n(n
(
)
(
) (
)
(
)
, (x)-
(x) ( x (x))
) ( )
[Ans. A]
( )
19.
16.
[Ans. A]
3
0.1
(x)
x (x)
Mathematics
[Ans. *](Range 49 to 51)
[Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.27

p
q
orm l distribution
Given that
x x
z
ere x
, s x gre ter th n
z
)
ence prob bility (z
Using Binomial distribution

(x )
17.
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
[Ans. *] Range 0.64 to 0.66

Let number of men = 100
Number of women = 100
No. of employed men = 80% of men = 80
No. of employed women
= 50% of women = 50
Probability if the selected one person
being employed
e
dz
of s ving ccount holder

20.
th
[Ans. B]
Mean m = np = 5.2
th
th
Page 43
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE
1.
2.
(x
(x
me
p( defective in c lcul tors)
e
e
[Ans. D]
A, B, C are true
(D) is not true. Since in a negatively
skewed distribution
mode > median > mean
[Ans. D]
Let the mean and standard deviation of
the students of batch C be and
respectively and the mean and standard
deviation of entire class of first year
students be and respectively
Now given,
and
In order to normalise batch C to entire

class, the normalize score must be
equated
since Z =
Z =
4.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. B]
Given f(x) = x for
x
= 0 else where
(
x dx
= 2.469% = 2.47%
6.
[Ans. A]
Given
P(private car) = 0.45
P(bus 1 public transport) = 0.55
Since a person has a choice between
private car and public transport
P(public transport) = 1 P(private car)
= 1 0.45 =0.55
P(bus) = P(bus public transport)
(bus public tr nsport)
(public tr nsport)
= 0.55 0.55
= 0.3025 0.30
Now P(metro)
= 1 [P(private car) + P(bus)]
= 1 (0.45 + 0.30) = 0.25
P(private car) = 0.45
P(bus) = 0.30
and P(metro) = 0.25
7.
[Ans. D]
ere
cm;
(
x 102)
=
x = 8.969 9.0
[Ans. B]
Since population is finite, hypergeometric
distribution is applicable
25 Calculators
1 Defective
f(x)dx
P=
Equation these two and solving, we get
23 Non-defective
5 Calculators
The probability expressed in percentage
2 Defective
=0 1
Now Z =
3.
Mathematics
4 Non-defective
=P.
th
th
cm
/
th
Page 44
GATE QUESTION BANK
=P(
x
)
This area is shown below:
Mathematics
[
-0.44
)]
The shades area in above figure is given

by F(0) F ( 0.44)
=
( )
)(
= 0.5 0.3345
= 1.1655 16.55%
Closest answer is 16.7%
8.
13.
[Ans. 0.4]
(
f( )d
P(2 heads) =
9.
( )|
[Ans. C]
P(one ball is Red & another is blue)
= P(first is Red and second is Blue)
14.
=
10.
[Ans. A]
Given = 1000, = 200
We know that Z
When X= 1200, Z
Req. Prob = P (X
(Z
)
(
Z
Less than 50%
11.
[Ans. D]
(X
)
(X
( x
(X
x
x
x
15.
[Ans. B]
S * T+
n( )
( )
n(S)
16.
[Ans. *] Range 0.25 to 0.28

( t)
e
(n t)
n
no of vehicles
veh km
( )
( x
[Ans. 6]
f(x)dx
f(x)
[Ans. *] Range 0.26 to 0.27

Avg= 5
Let x denote penalty
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
(x
)
e
ew (x n)
x
e
e
e
)
p(x
e
( )
12.
[Ans. C]
x
otherwise
= 2.e
= 0.2707
)dx
x7
th
th
th
Page 45
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS
1.
P(R/ P).P(P)
P(R/ P).P(P) P(R/ Q)P(Q)
2/5 1 /3
4 /19
2/5 1 /3 3/ 4 2/3
2.
permutations of a word consisting of 10

s nd
Us
Applying formula of permutation with
limited repetitions we get the answer
as
[Ans. A]
P: Event of selecting Box P,
Q: Event of selecting Box P
P(P)=1/3, P(Q)=2/3
P(R/P)=2/5, P(R/Q)=3/4
P(P/R)=
5.
[Ans. D]
The robot can reach (4,4) from (0,0) in
8C ways as argued in previous problem.
4
Now after reaching (4,4) robot is not
allowed to go to (5,4)
Let us count how many paths are there
from (0,0) to (10,10) if robot goes from
(4,4) to (5,4) and then we can subtract
this from total number of ways to get the
answer.
Now there are 8C4 ways for robot to reach
(4,4) from (0,0) and then robot takes the
U move from ( ) to ( ) ow from
(5,4) to (10,10) the robot has to make 5
U moves nd moves in ny order
which can be done in 11! ways
= 11C5 ways
Therefore, the number of ways robot can
move from (0,0) (10,10) via (4,4) (5,4)
move is
8 11
8C
11C =
4
5

4 5
No. of ways robot can move from (0,0) to
(10,10) without using (4,4) to (5,4) move
is
20 8 11
ways
10 4 5
which is choice (D)
6.
[Ans. D]
umber of permut tions with in the
first position =19!
Number of permutations with in the
second position = 10 18!
(Fill the first space with any of the 10 odd
numbers and the 18 spaces after the 2
with 18 of the remaining numbers in 18!
ways)
[Ans. C]
If f (x) is the continuous probability
density function of a random variable X
then,
(
x b) P(
x b)
b
= f x dx
a
3.
4.
[Ans. A]
The probability that exactly n elements
are chosen
=The probability of getting n heads out of
2n tosses
=
) . /
=
=
) (
(Binomial formula)
)
[Ans. A]
Consider the following diagram
(3,3)
(0,0)
The robot can move only right or up as
defined in problem. Let us denote right
move by nd up move by U ow to
reach (3, 3), from (0,0) , the robot has to
m ke ex ctly moves nd U moves
in any order.
Similarly to reach (10, 10) from (0,0) the
robot h s to m ke
moves nd
U
moves in any order. The number of ways
this can be done is same as number of
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 46
GATE QUESTION BANK
umber of permut tions with in rd

position =10 9 17!
(Fill the first 2 place with 2 of the 10 odd
numbers and then the remaining 17
places with remaining 17 numbers)
nd so on until is in th place. After
that it is not possible to satisfy the given
condition, since there are only 10 odd
numbers v il ble to fill before the
So the desired number of permutations
which satisfies the given condition is
9.
[Ans. B]
It is given that
P (odd) = 0.9 P (even)
Now since P(x) = 1
P (odd) + P (even) = 1
0.9 P (even) + P (even) = 1
P(even) =
P(2) = P(4) = P(6) = P(even)

=
)
[Ans. A]
Given = 1, = 4
=2
and = 1,
is unknown
Given, P(X
) = P (Y 2 )
Converting into standard normal variates,
.z
/ = P (z
.z
/ = P (z
(z
) = P (z
)
(
8.
P(f ce
10.
= 0.75
= 0.75
( )
( )
f ulty
q
p
not
f ulty
decl red not f ulty

decl red f ulty
=3
decl red not f ulty
From above tree

(decl red f ulty)
th
=0.468
decl red f ulty
11.
[Ans. A]
The tree diagram of probabilities is
shown below
_____(i)
[Ans. C]
Let C denote computes science study and
M denotes maths study.
P(C on Monday and C on Wednesday)
= P(C on Monday, M on Tuesday and C on
Wednesday)
+ P(C on Monday, C on Tuesday and C on
Wednesday)
=1 0.6 0.4+ 1 0.4 0.4
= 0.24 + 0.16 = 0.40
)
(
Now since we know that in standard

normal distribution
P (z
) = P (z 1)
_____(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii) we can say that
=1
(0.5263)
= 0.1754
It is given that
P(even | face > 3) = 0.75
Which are clearly not choices (A), (B) or (C)

7.
= 0.5263
Now, it is given that P(any even face) is same

i.e. P(2) = P(4) = P(6)
Now since,
P(even) = P(2) or P(4) or P(6)
= P(2) + P(4) + P(6)
Now the probability of this happening is

given by =
(
Mathematics
pq
[Ans. A]
If
b c
Then, no. of divisors of
(x
)(y
)(z
)
iven
o of ivisors of
(
)(
(
)(
)
th
th
q)(
p)
Page 47
GATE QUESTION BANK
No. of divisors of
of
o of divisors of
(
)(
)
which are multiples
16.
equired rob bility

12.
13.
[Ans. C]
(x ) , (x)V(x)
Where V(x) is the variance of x,
Since variance is and hence never
negative,
[Ans. D]
y = a x is the correct expression
Since variance of constant is zero.
15.
[Ans. A]
Let A be the event of head in one coin. B
be the event of head in second coin.
The required probability is
*
) ( )+
(
)| )
( )
(
)
( )
(
)
(both coin he ds)
(
( )
( )
17.
[Ans. C]
The p.d.f of the random variable is
x
+1
P(x) 0.5 0.5
The cumulative distribution function F(x)
is the probability upto x as given below
x
+1
F(x) 0.5 1.0
So correct option is (C)
18.
[Ans. C]
e
(k)
k
P is no. of cars per minute travelling.
For no cars. (i.e. k = 0)
For no cars. P(0) e
So P can be either 0,1,2. (i.e. k = 0,1,2)
For k = 1, p(1)=e
For k = 2 , P(2)=
Hence
( )
e
( )
[Ans. B]
Required Probability
= P (getting 6 in the first time)
+ P (getting 1 in the first time and getting
5 or 6 in the second time)
4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
3 or 4 or 5 or 6 in the second time)
( )
[Ans. A]
+
The five cards are *
Sample space
ordered pairs
P (1st card = 2nd card + 1)
)( )( )( )+
*(
14.
Mathematics
e
( t le st one he d)
e
(
TT )
( )
( )
)
)
e
So required prob bility
th
th
th
Page 48
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. *] Range 0.24 to 0.27

The smaller sticks, therefore, will range in
length from almost 0 meters upto a
maximum of 0.5 meters, with each length
equally possible.
Thus, the average length will be about
0.25 meters, or about a quarter of the
stick.
20.
[Ans. 10]
22 occurs in following ways
6 6 6 4
w ys
6 6 5 5
w ys
24.
Mathematics
[Ans. 0.25]
( ) P(S) = 1
( )
( )
(
)
utu lly exclusive (
)
( )
( )
et ( ) x; ( )
x
P(A) P(B) = x(
x)
Maximum value of y = x (
x)
dy
(
x) x
dx
= 2x = 1
x
(max)
ximum v lue of y
equired prob bility
x
21.
ECE
1.
[Ans. *] Range 11.85 to 11.95

For functioning 3 need to be working
[Ans. D]
3 1
6 2
3 1
P(even number )
6 2
Since events are independent, therefore
1 1 1
P(odd/even)
2 2 4
P(Odd number)
(function)
p
22.
23.
2.
[Ans. *] Range 3.8 to 3.9

Expected length = Average length of all
words
[Ans. *] Range 0.259 to 0.261

Let A = divisible by 2, B = divisible by 3
and C = divisible by 5, then
n(A) = 50, n(B) = 33, n(C) = 20
n(
)
n(
)
n(
)
n(
)
P( )
( )
( )
( )
(
)
(
(
)
(
)
equired prob bility is
(
(
)
[Ans. A]
I
omp ring with
ut
rom
x
Put
dx
dx
dx
nd
x
in
equ tion
th
th
th
Page 49
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. C]
Probability of failing in paper 1, when

A
student has failed in paper 2, P 0.6
B
P x .dx 1
A P A B
We know that, P
P B
B
ax
Ke .dx 1
or
e dx
Mathematics
dx
( )
= 0.6 0.2
= 0.12
x x,for x 0
x for x 0
K K
1
a a
( )
7.
[Ans. A]
CDF: F x
PDF
dx
4.
[Ans. D]
. / ( )
P (Y/D) =
. / ( )
. / ( )
=
5.
For x<0, F x
. / ( )
[Ans. A]
var[x]= =E[(x x)2]
Where, x=E[x]
x= expected or mean value of X defining
8.
[Ans. A]
Given: Px x Me2|x| Ne3|x|
P x dx 1
Variance is a measure of the spread of

the values of X from its mean x.
Using relation , E[X+Y]= E[X]+E[Y]
And E[CX]=CE[X]
On var[x]= =E[(x x)2]
= ,Xx2
Me
2|x|
Ne3|x| dx 2 Me2|x| Ne3|x| dx 1

0
By simplifying
2
M N 1
3
= E[X2] [ ,X-]
[Ans. C]
Probability of failing in paper 1,
P (A) = 0.3
Probability of failing in paper 2,
P (B) = 0.2
1
2
1 x

x concave downwards
2 2
Hence the CDF is, shown in the figure (A).
xiP xi
6.
F 0
conc ve upw rds
xf x dx
x P x x x dx
dx
For x>0, F x F 0 x 1 dx
x 1
=0.4
E[X] =
9.
[Ans. B]
x+y=2
x y=0
=> x =1, y = 1
P(x=1,y=1) =
th
th
= 1/16
th
Page 50
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. C]
14.
Probability of getting head in first toss =

Probability of getting head in second toss
=
[Ans. C]
P(no. of tosses is odd)
(no of tosses is
P(no. of toss is 1) = P(Head in 1st toss)
and in all other 8 tosses there should
P(no. of toss is 3) = P(tail in first toss, tail

in second toss and head in third toss)
be tail always.
So probability of getting head in first two
tosses
(
)(
)(
) (
)
= (1/2)10
11.
Mathematics
P(no. of toss is 5) = P(T,T,T,TH)

. /
[Ans. B]
Both the teacher and student are wrong
Mean =
k
= 0.1 + 0.4 + 1.2 + 0.8 + 0.5
= 3.0
E(x2) =
k
etc
So,
P(no. of tosses in odd)
Variance(x)= E(x2) * (x)+ =10.2 9=1.2

12.
[Ans. D]
P(H, H, H, T) +P (H, H, H, H )
=
13.
. /
. /
15.
[Ans. B]
( V V)
( V
V )
*z
v
v+ Linear combination of
Gaussian random variable is Gaussian
(z )
and not mean till zero
because both random variables has mean
zero hence ( )
Hence Option B is correct
16.
[Ans. D]
F(x) = P{X x}
(x)
* X x+
x
2X
3
. / =
[Ans. C]
Total number of cases = 36
Favorable cases:
(1, 1)
(2, 1)
(3, 1)
(4, 1)
(5, 1)
(6, 1)
(1, 2)
(2, 2)
(3, 2)
(4, 2)
(5, 2)
(6, 2)
(1, 3)
(2, 3)
(3, 3)
(4, 3)
(5, 3)
(6, 3)
(1, 4)
(2, 4)
(3, 4)
(4, 4)
(5, 4)
(6, 4)
(1, 5)
(2, 5)
(3, 5)
(4, 5)
(5, 5)
(6, 5)
(1, 6)
(2, 6)
(3, 6)
(4, 6)
(5, 6)
(6, 6)
Total number of favorable cases
For positive value of x,

(x)
(x) is always greater than zero
For negative value of x
(x)
(x)is ve
ut , (x)
(x)- x
Then probability
th
th
th
Page 51
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
18.
[Ans. *] Range 0.65 to 0.68

et be different types of f milies nd S
be there siblings.
S
S S (siblings)
Probability that child chosen at random
having sibling is 2/3
(x)
et S
x f(x)
[Ans. C]
21.

Let the first toss be head.
Let x denotes the number of tosses(after
getting first head) to get first tail.
We can summarize the even as
Event(After
x
Probability
getting first H)
T
1
1/2
HT
2
1/2 1/2=1/4
HHT
3
1/8
nd so on
II)gives
)S
(x)
i.e. The expected number of tosses (after
first head) to get first tail is 2 and same
can be applicable if first toss results in
tail.
Hence the average number of tosses is
22.
20.
(I
(II)
(I)
f(x)
(x)
[Ans. *] Range 0.32 to 0.34

This is a tricky question, here, X X X
independent and identically distributed
random variables with the uniform
distribution
, -.
So,
they
are
equiprobable. So X X or X have chances
being largest are equiprobable.
So, [P {X is largest}] or [P {X is largest}]
or [P {X is largest}] =1
and P {X is largest} = P {X is largest} =
P {X is largest}
[Ans. *] Range 49.9 to 50.1

Set of positive odd number less than 100
is 50. As it is a uniform distribution
x (x)
*X is l rgest +
19.
Mathematics
[Ans. *] Range 0.15 to 0.18

X
X
X
X
X
X
et z X
X
X
(X
)
X
X
(z
)
Pdf of z we need to determine. It is the
convolution of three pdf
(z
23.
th
dz
[Ans. *] Range 0.79 to 0.81

|x|
,|x|-
e dx
th
th
Page 52
GATE QUESTION BANK
|x| exp 4
x exp 4
x exp 4
x
x
x exp 4
[ exp (
24.
|x| exp 4
pr(P Q) pr(P) + pr(Q)

(D) is true
since P Q P
n(P Q) n(P)
pr(P Q) pr(P)
5 dx
5 dx
5 dx
2.
[Ans. B]
P(A|B) =
5 dx
5 dx
x ) dx]
( he d in tosses nd first toss in he d)

= P(HHT) + P(HTH)
4/5
Parcel is
sent to R
4/5
1/5
Required probability =
R
3.
parcel
Parcel is lost
is
[Ans. C]
If two fair dices are rolles the probability
distribution of r where r is the sum of the
numbers on each die is given by
r
P(r)
Parcel is lost
that
)
( )
Also, P(first toss is head) =
Parcel is sent to
Probability
P(2 heads in 3 tosses | first toss is

head)
( he ds in tosses nd first toss in he d)
(first toss is he d)
[Ans. *] Range 0.43 to 0.45

Pre flow diagram is
1/5
Mathematics
lost
2
Probability that parcel is lost by
3
Probability that parcel is lost by
provided that the parcel is lost
4
5
EE
1.
6
[Ans. D]
(A) is false since of P & Q are
independent
pr(P Q) = pr(P) pr(Q)
which need not be zero.
(B) is false since
pr(P Q)
= pr(P) + pr(Q) pr(P Q)
(C) is false since independence and
mutually exclusion are unrelated
properties.
7
8
9
10
11
12
th
th
th
Page 53
GATE QUESTION BANK
The above table has been obtained by

taking all different all different ways of
obtaining a particular sum. For example, a
sum of 5 can be obtained by (1, 4), (2, 3),
(3, 2) and (4, 1).
P(x = 5) = 4/36
Now let us consider choice (A)
Pr(r > 6) = Pr(r 7)
P(1, 5, 6) =
P(3, 4, 5) =
P(1, 2, 5) =
Choice (C) P(1, 5 and 6) =

5.
is correct.
[Ans. C]
x is uniformly distributes in [0, 1]
Probability density function
=
=
Mathematics
f(x) =
Choice (A) i.e. pr(r > 6) = 1/6 is wrong.

Consider choice (B)
pr(r/3 is an integer)
= pr(r = 3) + pr (r = 6) + pr (r = 9)
+ pr (r = 1)
=1
f(x) = 1 0 < x < 1

Now E(x ) = x f(x)dx
x
dx
=
=
6.
[Ans. B]
Let N people in room. So no. of events that
at least two people in room born at same
date
Choice (B) i.e. pr (r/3) is an integer

= 5/6 is wrong.
Consider choice (C)
Now,
pr(r/4 is an integer) = pr(r = 4)
+ pr (r = 8) + pr (r = 12)
=
=
Solving, we get N = 7
7.
[Ans. C]
(II is red|I is white)
(II is red nd I is white)
(I is white)
(I is white nd II is red)
(I is white)
8.
[Ans. B]
pr(r = 8) =
pr(r = 8 | r/4 is an integer) =
=
Choice (C) is correct.
4.
[Ans. C]
Dice value
1
2
Probability
and
is the entrie
rectangle
The region in which maximum of {x, y} is
less than
is shown below as shaded
region inside this rectangle
5
6
th
th
th
Page 54
GATE QUESTION BANK

(
12.
Mathematics
[Ans. *] Range 0.35 to 0.45

(
dx
x|
dx
dx
x|
13.
p .m x,x y-
f(x)dx

f(x) dx
by property
kx dx
k
9.
14.
[Ans. A]
(x
)
,e
10.
e dx
e -
, e -
[Ans. B]
Let number of heads = x,
Number of tails n x
ifference x (n x)or (n
x n or n
x
If x n n
x
n
x
If n
IN
1.
x)
[Ans. D]
=52 weeks and 2 days are extra. Out of
7, (SUN MON) (or) (SAT SUN) are

favorable.
So, Probability of this event=
2.
or x
[Ans. C]
Since the reading taken by the instrument
is normally distributed, hence
P(x
x )
Where,
[Ans. *] Range 0.13 to 0.15
Let proportionality constant = k
( dot) k ( dots)
k
( dots)
k
( dots)
k ( dots)
k
( dots)
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
rob bility of showing dots
[Ans. D]
Since leap chosen will be random, so, we
assume it being the case of uniform
probability distribution function.
Number of days in a leap year=366 days
As x and n are integers, this is not

possible
Probability 0
11.
Now
.dx
e n of the distribution
St nd rd devi tion of the
distribution.
exp(
)dx
where, n=x 10 (
kg)
and from the data given in question
dx
On equating, we get 0.05=0.84

k
th
th
th
Page 55
GATE QUESTION BANK
3.
[Ans. D]
Mean=
(
[Ans. B]
By definition of Gaussian distribution,
total area under the curve =1. Hence half
of the area =0.5
9.
[Ans. A]
V
(closest answer is 0.2)
4.
8.
=5.9 V.
[Ans. C]
( )
P(x)=
Mean =
( )
x (x)dx =
Var(x)= (x
1 2
3 3
5.
Mathematics
[Ans. A] ]
(x
(x)dx
) dx =
10.
[Ans. C]
Probability of incorrect report
11.
[Ans. C]
mm
mm
Then probability
P(x)dx 1
x dx = 6
Area under triangle =
c
1
2
6.
[Ans. A]
Probability that the sum of digits of two
dices is even is same either both dices
shows even numbers or odd numbers on
the top of the surface
( )
( )
( )
Where
( )
Probability of occurring even
number of both the dices
( )
Probability of occurring odd
number of both the dices
(
(X
where x
mm
)
( )
So, number of measurement more than

10.15mm
P Total number of measurement
( )
12.
7.
nd (
[Ans. A]
f(x) dx=P
or
or e
.dx =P
[Ans. D]
For the product to be even, the numbers
from both the boxes should not turn out
to be odd simultaneously.
( )
( )( )
or P = .
th
th
th
Page 56
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. A]
f(x)dx
e |
14.
15.
e dx
[Ans. 2]
For valid pdf
Mathematics
dx
pdf dx
;k
[Ans. *] Range 0.890 to 0.899

Probability that job is successfully
processed = (
)(
)
th
th
th
Page 57
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Numerical Methods
ME 2005
1.
Starting from x = 1, one step of Newton
Raphson method in solving the equation
x +3x 7=0 gives the next value (x) as
(A) x=0.5
(C) x = .5
(B) x= . 0
(D) x=2
2.
With a 1 unit change in b, what is the

change in x in the solution of the system
of equation
= 2 .0
0.
=
(A) Zero
(C) 50 units
(B) 2 units
(D) 100 units
ME 2006
3.
Match the items in columns I and II.
Column I
Column II
(P) Gauss-Seidel
(1) Interpolation
method
(Q) Forward
(2) Non-linear
Newton-Gauss
differential
method
equations
(R) Runge-Kutta
(3) Numerical
method
integration
(S) Trapezoidal
(4) Linear algebraic
Rule
equation
(A)
2
(B)
2
(C)
2
(D)
2
4.
Equation of the line normal to function

)
f(x) = (x
(A) y = x 5
(B) y = x 5
at (0 5) is
(C) y = x
(D) y = x
5
5
ME 2007
5.
A calculator has accuracy up to 8 digits
2
after decimal place. The value of
sinxdx
0
when evaluated using this calculator by

trapezoidal method with 8 equal
intervals, to 5 significant digits is
(A) 0.00000
(C) 0.00500
(B) 1.0000
(D) 0.00025
ME 2010
6.
Torque exerted on a flywheel over a cycle
is listed in the table. Flywheel energy (in
J per unit cycle) using impsons rule is
Angle (degree)
Torque (N-m)
0
0
60
1066
120
323
180
0
240
323
300
55
360
0
(A) 542
(C) 1444
(B) 992.7
(D) 1986
ME 2011
7.
The integral
dx, when evaluated by
using impsons / rule on two equal

subintervals each of length 1, equals
(A) 1.000
(C) 1.111
(B) 1.098
(D) 1.120
ME 2013
8.
Match the correct pairs.
Numerical
Order of Fitting
Integration Scheme
Polynomial
. impsons
/
1. First
Rule
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second
. impsons /
3. Third
Rule
(A) P 2 , Q 1, R 3
(B) P 3, Q 2 , R 1
(C) P 1, Q 2 , R 3
(D) P 3, Q 1 , R 2
ME 2014
9.
Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing
the interval of integration into three equal
sub intervals, the definite integral
|x|dx is ____________
th
th
th
Page 58
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
The value of .
( )
value approximate
estimate?
calculated using
the Trapezoidal rule with five sub

intervals is _______
11.
The definite integral
12.
The real root of the equation

5x
2cosx
= 0 (up to two decimal
accuracy) is _______
13.
Consider
an
equation
= t
.If x =x at t = 0 , the
CE 2005
Linked Answer Question 1 and 2
Give a>0, we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
Raphson Method for f(x) = 0.
2.
The Newton Raphson algorithm for the

function will be
(A) x
= (x
(B) x
= (x
x )
(C) x
= 2x
ax
(D) x
=x
in
the
(C)
(D)
CE 2007
4.
The following equation needs to be
numerically solved using the NewtonRaphson method
x3 + 4x 9 = 0 the iterative equation for
the purpose is (k indicates the iteration
level)
differential
increment in x calculated using RungeKutta fourth order multi-step method

with a step size of t = 0.2 is
(A) 0.22
(C) 0.66
(B) 0.44
(D) 0.88
1.
(A)
(B) 0
value)
is evaluated
using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of

1. The correct answer is _______
ordinary
Mathematics
For a = 7 and starting with x = 0.2 the

first two iteration will be
(A) 0.11, 0.1299
(C) 0.12, 0.1416
(B) 0.12, 0.1392
(D) 0.13, 0.1428
CE 2006
3.
A 2nd degree polynomial f(x) has values of
1, 4 and 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2 respectively.
5.
(A) x
(B) x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
Given that one root of the equation

x
10x + 31x 30 = 0 is 5, the other
two roots are
(A) 2 and
(C) and
(B) 2 and
(D) 2 and
CE 2008
6.
Three values of x and y are to be fitted in
a straight line in the form y = a + bx by
the method of least squares. Given
x = 6, y = 2 x =
and xy =
the values of a and b are respectively
(A) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 1
(B) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 2
CE 2009
7.
In the solution of the following set of
linear equation by Gauss elimination
using partial pivoting 5x + y + 2z = 34;
4y 3z = 12; and 10x 2y + z = 4; the
pivots for elimination of x and y are
(A) 10 and 4
(C) 5 and 4
(B) 10 and 2
(D) 5 and 4
The integral f(x) dx is to be estimated

by applying the trapezoidal rule to this
data. What is the error (define as true
th
th
th
Page 59
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
8.
The table below given values of a function
F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals
of 0.25.
x
0 0.25
0.5 0.75 1.0
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function
between the limits 0 to using impsons
rule is
(A) 0.7854
(C) 3.1416
(B) 2.3562
(D) 7.5000
CE
9.
2011
The square root of a number N is to be
obtained by applying the Newton
Raphson iterations to the equation
x
= 0. If i denotes the iteration
index, the correct iteration scheme will be
(A) x
= (x
CE 2013
12. Find the magnitude of the error (correct
to two decimal places) in the estimation
of following integral using impsons
Rule. Take the step length as 1.___________
(x
10.
= (x
1.
Consider
(D) x
= (x
he error in
xe dx
f(x)|
for a continuous
is 2
3.
CE 2012
The estimate of .
1
to an accuracy of at least 106
3
The Newton-Raphson iteration

1
R
x n 1 x n can be used to compute
2
xn
the
(A) square of R
(B) reciprocal of R
(C) square root of R
(D) logarithm of R
0 .
The values of
and ( ) are 19.78 and
500.01, respectively. The corresponding
error in the central difference estimate
for h = 0.02 is approximately
(A) .
0
(C) .5
0
(B) .0
0
(D) .0
0
11.
using the trapezoidal rule is

(A) 1000e
(C) 100e
(B) 1000
(D) 100
function estimated with h=0.03 using the

central difference formula
f(x)|
series
CS 2008
2.
The minimum number of equal length
subintervals needed to approximate
= (x
the
= 0.5 obtained from the NewtonRaphson method. The series converges to

(A) 1.5
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.4
(B) 2
(C) x
0) dx
CS 2007
(B) x
Mathematics
obtained using
impsons rule with three point function

evaluation exceeds the exact value by
(A) 0.235
(C) 0.024
(B) 0.068
(D) 0.012
CS 2010
4.
Newton-Raphson method is used to
compute a root of the equation
x
13 = 0 with 3.5 as the initial value.
The approximation after one iteration is
(A) 3.575
(C) 3.667
(B) 3.677
(D) 3.607
th
th
th
Page 60
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2012
5.
The bisection method is applied to
compute a zero of the function
f(x) = x
x
x
in the interval
[1,9]. The method converges to a solution
after ___________ iterations.
(A) 1
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 7
CS 2013
6.
Function f is known at the following
points:
x
f(x)
0
0
0.3 0.09
0.6 0.36
0.9 0.81
1.2 1.44
1.5 2.25
1.8 3.24
2.1 4.41
2.4 5.76
2.7 7.29
3.0 9.00
he value of f(x)dx computed using
the trapezpidal rule is
(A) 8.983
(C) 9.017
(B) 9.003
(D) 9.045
CS 2014
7.
The function f(x) = x sin x satisfied the
following equation:
( ) + f(x) + t cos x = 0.
The value of t is _________.
8.
In the Newton-Raphson method, an initial

guess of
= 2 made and the sequence
x x x
.. is obtained for the function
0.75x
2x
2x
=0
Consider the statements
(I) x = 0.
(II) The method converges to a solution
in a finite number of iterations.
Which of the following is TRUE?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9.
Mathematics
Only I
Only II
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
With respect to the numerical evaluation

of the definite integral,
= x dx
where a and b are given, which of the
following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) The value of K obtained using the
trapezoidal rule is always greater
then or equal to the exact value of
the defined integral
(II) The value of K obtained using the
impsons rule is always equal to the
exact value of the definite integral
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
ECE 2005
1.
Match the following and choose the
correct combination
Group I
Group II
(A) Newton1. Solving nonRaphson
linear equations
method
(B) Runge-Kutta
2. Solving linear
method
simultaneous
equations
(C) impsons
3. Solving ordinary
Rule
differential
equations
(D) Gauss
4. Numerical
elimination
integration
method
5. Interpolation
6. Calculation of
Eigen values
(A) A-6, B-1, C-5, D-3
(B) A-1, B-6, C-4, D-3
(C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(D) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
th
th
th
Page 61
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
ECE 2007
2.
The equation x3 x2+4x 4=0 is to be
solved using the Newton-Raphson
method. If x=2 is taken as the initial
approximation of the solution, then the
next approximation using this method
will be
(A) 2/3
(C) 1
(B) 4/3
(D) 3/2
ECE 2014
6.
The Taylor expansion of
is
ECE 2008
3.
The recursion relation to solve x=
using Newton-Raphson method is
(A)
=e
(B)
=
e
7.
Match the application to appropriate

numerical method.
Application
Numerical
Method
P1:Numerical
M1:Newtonintegration
Raphson Method
P2:Solution to a
M2:Runge-Kutta
transcendental
Method
equation
P3:Solution to a
M : impsons
system of linear
1/3-rule
equations
P4:Solution to a
M4:Gauss
differential equation
Elimination
Method
(A) P1M3, P2M2, P3M4, P4M1
(B) P1M3, P2M1, P3M4, P4M2
(C) P1M4, P2M1, P3M3, P4M2
(D) P1M2, P2M1, P3M3, P4M4
8.
The series
(C) X n 1 1 X n
(D) X n 1
e X n
1 e X n
X2n e Xn 1 X n 1
X n -e Xn
ECE 2011
4.
A numerical solution of the equation
f(x) = x x
= 0 can be obtained
using Newton Raphson method. If the
starting value is x = 2 for the iteration,
the value of x that is to be used in the next
step is
(A) 0.306
(C) 1.694
(B) 0.739
(D) 2.306
ECE 2013
5.
A polynomial
f(x) = a x
a x
a x
a x a
with all coefficients positive has
(A) No real root
(B) No negative real root
(C) Odd number of real roots
(D) At least one positive and one
negative real root
sin x
(A) 2
..
(B) 2
..
(C) 2
..
(D) 2
..
2 cos x
converges to
(A) 2 ln 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) e
EE 2007
1.
The differential equation
is
discretised using Eulers numerical

integration method with a time step
T > 0. What is the maximum permissible
value of T to ensure stability of the
solution of the corresponding discrete
time equation?
(A) 1
(C)
(B) /2
(D) 2
th
th
th
Page 62
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
EE 2008
2.
Equation e
= 0 is required to be
solved using ewtons method with an
initial guess x =
. Then, after one
step of ewtons method estimate x of
the solution will be given by
(A) 0.71828
(C) 0.20587
(B) 0.36784
(D) 0.00000
EE 2013
7.
When the Newton Raphson method is
applied
to
solve
the
equation
f(x) = x
2x
= 0 the solution at the
end of the first iteration with the initial
guess value as x = .2 is
(A) 0.82
(C) 0.705
(B) 0.49
(D) 1.69
3.
EE 2014
8.
The function ( ) =
is to be
solved using Newton-Raphson method. If
the initial value of is taken as 1.0, then
the absolute error observed at 2nd
iteration is ___________
A differential equation dx/dt = e u(t)

has to be solved using trapezoidal rule of
integration with a step size h = 0.01 sec.
Function u(t) indicates a unit step
function. If x(0)= 0, then value of x at
t = 0.01 s will be given by
(A) 0.00099
(C) 0.0099
(B) 0.00495
(D) 0.0198
EE 2009
4.
Let x
7 = 0. The iterative steps for
the solution using Newton aphsons
method is given by
(A) x
= (x
(B) x
=x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
=x
(x
EE 2011
5.
Solution of the variables
and
for the
following equations is to be obtained by
employing the Newton-Raphson iterative
method
equation(i) 0x inx
0. = 0
equation(ii) 0x
0x cosx
0. = 0
Assuming the initial values
= 0.0 and
= .0 the jacobian matrix is
0
0.
0
0.
(A) *
(C) *
+
+
0
0.
0
0.
0 0
0
0
(B) *
(D) *
+
+
0
0
0
0
6.
IN 2006
1.
For k = 0
2
. the steps of
Newton-Raphson method for solving a
non-linear equation is given as
2
5
x k 1 x k xK 2 .
3
3
Starting from a suitable initial choice as k
tends to , the iterate tends to
(A) 1.7099
(C) 3.1251
(B) 2.2361
(D) 5.0000
IN 2007
2.
Identify the Newton-Raphson iteration
scheme for finding the square root of 2.
3.
(A) x
(x
(B) x
= (x
(C) x
(D) x
= 2
The polynomial p(x) = x + x + 2 has

(A) all real roots
(B) 3 real and 2 complex roots
(C) 1 real and 4 complex roots
(D) all complex roots
Roots of the algebraic equation

x
x
x
= 0 are
)
(A) (
(C) (0 0 0)
(
(B)
j j)
(D) (
j j)
th
th
th
Page 63
GATE QUESTION BANK
IN 2008
4.
It is known that two roots of the
nonlinear equation x3 6x2 +11x 6 = 0
are 1 and 3. The third root will be
(A) j
(C) 2
(B)
j
(D) 4
IN 2013
8.
While numerically solving the differential
equation
with
x(0) = 0 and the constant

0 is to be
numerically integrated using the forward
Euler method with a constant integration
time step T. The maximum value of T such
that the numerical solution of x converges
is
(C)
(A)
(B)
2xy = 0 y(0) =
using
Eulers predictor corrector (improved

Euler Cauchy )method with a step size
of 0.2, the value of y after the first step is
(A) 1.00
(C) 0.97
(B) 1.03
(D) 0.96
IN 2009
5.
Mathematics
IN 2014
9.
The iteration step in order to solve for the
cube roots of a given number N using the
Newton- aphsons method is
(D) 2
(A) x
=x
(B) x
= (2x
(C) x
=x
(D) x
= (2x
x )
)
x )
)
IN 2010
6.
The velocity v (in m/s) of a moving mass,
starting from rest, is given as
=v
t.
Using Eulers forward difference method

(also known as Cauchy-Euler method)
with a step size of 0.1s, the velocity at 0.2s
evaluates to
(A) 0.01 m/s
(C) 0.2 m/s
(B) 0.1 m/s
(D) 1 m/s
IN 2011
7.
The extremum (minimum or maximum)
point of a function f(x) is to be
determined by solving
( )
= 0 using the
Newton-Raphson method.
Let f(x) = x
x and x = 1 be the initial
guess of x. The value of x after two
iterations (x ) is
(A) 0.0141
(C) 1.4167
(B) 1.4142
(D) 1.5000
th
th
th
Page 64
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
y = sin ( ) =
2
[Ans. C]
By N-R method ,
=x
f(x) = x
f( ) =
x =x
( )
( )
y = sin (
x =
y = sin( ) = 0
5
y = sin ( ) =
y = sin (
f (x) = x
f ( )= ,
=1
) = 0.70 0
)=
7
y = sin ( ) =
(0.5) = .5
y = sin (
2.
[Ans. C]
Given x y = 2
(i)
.0 x 0.0 y = b
(ii)
Multiply 0.99 is equation (i) and subtract
from equation (ii); we get
( .0
0. )x = b (2 0. )
0.02x = b
.
0.02x = b
x =
0.02
[Ans. D]
4.
[Ans. B]
Given f(x) = (x
2
)
f (x) = (x
)=0
f(x)dx = [(y
6.
[(0
0)
0.70 0
[(0
2(0.70 0
0.70 0
0=0
y )]
7.
[Ans. C]
x
y=
1
1
h
dx = (y
= (
= .
8.
( 0
0)
2(
2.7 /unit cycle.
Slope of normal = 3
( roduct of slopes = 1)
Slope of normal at point (0, 5)
y 5 = (x 0)
y= x 5
[Ans. A]
b a 2
0
h=
=
=
n
y = sin(0) = 0
[Ans. B]
ower = = Area under the curve.
h
(y
= [(y
y )
y
y )
=
)
2(y
)]
sinx dx =
0.70 0
y )
2(y
Slope of tangent at point (0, 5)

2
) / =
m = (0
5.
0.70 0
Trapezoidal rule
= 50 units
3.
0.70 0
55)
2 )]
2
y
2
y )
[Ans. D]
By the definition only
y = sin ( ) = 0.70 0
th
th
th
Page 65
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. *] Range 1.10 to 1.12
By intermediate value theorem roots lie

be between 0 and 1.
et x = rad = 57. 2
By Newton Raphson method
f(x )
x
=x
f (x )
2x sin x
2 cos x
x
=
5 2 sin x
x = 0.5 2
x = 0.5 25
x = 0.5 2
|x|dx is
h
ydx = [y
2
2(y
0.33
y ]
0.33
|x|dx =
.)
0.33
0.333
2(0.
0.
)]
13.
= . 0
10.
[Ans. *] Range 1.74 to 1.76

2.5
h=
= 0.
5
y
2y
2y
. ln (x)dx = [
2y
y
=
[ln(2.5)
2ln( . )
= .75
11.
2(ln2. )
2y
2 ln( . )
CE
1.
[Ans. *]Range 1.1 to 1.2
h=
x
y
2(y
iven in question
0
1
1
2
1
0.5
dx = [y
x
2
t
x =
2
t|
x = 0.0
0. = 0.
= 2t
t|
To calculate using N-R method

Set up the equation as x =
rapezoidal rule
y
)dt
[Ans. C]
dx by trapezoidal rule
x
f(x)dx = [y
[Ans. D]
The variation in options are much, so it
can be solved by integrating directly
dx
= t
dt
dx = ( t
ln( )]
2ln( .7)
Mathematics
..y
i.e. = a
)]
a=0
i.e. f(x) =
2
3
0.33
a=0
Now f (x) =
f(x ) =
f (x ) =
2(y )]
For N-R method

= [
2
= .
0.
0.5]
=x
x
12.
[Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.56

Let f(x) = 5x 2 cos x
f (x) = 5 2 sin x
f(0) =
f( ) = 2.
=x
)
(
Simplifying which we get

x
= 2x
ax
th
th
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Page 66
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
For a = 7 iteration equation
Becomes x
= 2x
7x
with x = 0.2
x = 2x
7x = 2 0.2 7(0.2) = 0.12
and x = 2x
7x = 2 0.12 7(0. 2)
= 0.1392
[Ans. A]
f(x) = 1, 4, 15 at x = 0, 1 and 2
respectively
f(x)dx = (f
2f
f )
and
= 30
= 5
5 =
5 ( ) =
ince = from (i)
5 ( )
=
=5
=
olving for and
(5 ) =
5
=0
= 2 and =
Alternative method
5
1
0
31
0
0
5
25
30
1
5
6
0
(x 5)(x
)=0
5x
(x 5)(x 2)(x
)=0
x=2 5
x )dx
+ =
2=
[Ans. A ]
Given f(x) = x
x
=0
f (x) = x
Newton Raphson formula is
= (i)
Also
Error = exact Approximate value
4.
= 5
Now exact value f(x)dx
2x
x
Approximate value by rapezoidal ule

= 12
Since f(x) is second degree polynomial, let
f(x) = a0 + a x + a x
f(0) = 1
a
0 0=
a =
f(1) = 4
a
a
a =
1+ a
a =
a
a =
f(2) = 15
a
2a
a = 5
2a
a = 5
2a
a =
Solving (i) and (ii) a =
and a =
f(x) = 1 x + 4 x
= *x
[Ans. A]
Given
x 10 x + 31x 30 = 0
One root = 5
Let the roots be and of equation
ax + bx + cx + d = 0
f(x)dx = (1 + 2(4) + 15) = 12
(3 points Trapezoidal Rule)

Here h = 1
= (
f(x )
f (x )
(x
x
)
( x
)
x
x
x
( x
)
=x
=x
5.
Mathematics
6.
[Ans. D]
Y = a + bx
Given
n= x =
and xy =
th
th
y = 2 x = 14
th
Page 67
GATE QUESTION BANK
Normal equations are

y = na bx
xy = ax bx
Substitute the values and simply
a= b=2
7.
9.
5
[0
0
| 2]
0
[0
5
=
0.
= 0.7 5
2f
0.25(
0.
0.
0.5)
2x
2x
[x
11.
[Ans. D]
Exact value of .
| 2]
dx = .0
Using impsons rule in three point

form,
b a
.5 0.5
h=
=
= 0.5
n
2
So,
x 0.5 1 1.5
y 2
1 0.67
=
=
0.5
]
[2
0. 7
= .
So, the estimate exceeds the exact value by
Approximate value Exact value
= 1.1116 1.0986
=0.012(approximately)
12.
[Ans. *](Range 0.52 to 0.55)

Using impsons ule
X
0
1
2
3
Y
10
11
26
91
(x
f )
2
[Ans. D]
Error in central difference formula is
(h)
This means, error
If error for h = 0.03 is 2
0
then
Error for h = 0.02 is approximately
(0.02)
2
0
0
(0.0 )
10.
[Ans. A]
I = h(f
f(x )
f(x )
=x
=x
So the pivot for eliminating x is a = 10

Now we eliminate x using this pivot
as follows :
0
2
[0
| 2]
5
2
5
0
2
0
2]
[0
0
2
/2
Now to eliminate y, we need to compare
the elements in second column at and
below the diagonal element Since a = 4
is already larger in absolute value
compares to a = 2
The pivot element for eliminating y is
a = 4 itself.
The pivots for eliminating x and y are
respectively 10 and 4
8.
[Ans. A]
x
[Ans. A]
The equation is
5x + y + 2z = 34
0x + 4y 3z = 12
and 10x 2y + z =
The augmented matrix for gauss
elimination is
5
2
[0
| 2]
0
2
Since in the first column maximum
element in absolute value is 10 we need
to exchange row 1 with row 3
Mathematics
= [( 0
4
266
0)dx
2
2(2 )
)]
= 2 5.
The value of integral
th
th
th
Page 68
GATE QUESTION BANK
(x
0) dx = *
=2
x
5
0x+
3.
[Ans. A]
=
8 = 4 +9
=
4.
= = 1.5
[Ans. A]
Here, the function being integrated is
f(x) = xe
f (x) = xe + e = e (x + 1)
f (x) = xe + e + e = e (x + 2)
Since,
both
are
increasing
functions of x, maximum value of f ( ) in
interval 1
2, occurs at = 2 so
(
)|
(2
max |f
=e
2) = e
Truncation Error for trapezoidal rule
= TE (bound)
= .5
5.
(b a) max |f ( )| 1
(2 1) [e (2 + 2)]
e
(
= 57 7
)=5
f(x )
2
oot lies between and
x =(
)=2
f(x ) 0
2
After ' ' interations we get the root
x =(
6.
[Ans. D]
h
f(x)dx = [f(0)
2
=
0
[
.
.
0.
f( )
2(0.0
0.
. . 7.2 )
2(f )]
]
5 . ]
= 9.045
h=
Now, No. of intervals,
[Ans. B]
f( ) = 5
f( ) = 5
72
)
)
f(
0 f(
0
= . 07
is number of subintervals
max |f ( )|
[Ans. D]
y=x
dy
= 2x
dx
f(x)= x
max |f ( )|
2 = + R
=R
=
So this iteration will compute the square
root of R
Now putting
2 =
=x =
= +
Where
(x
2=+
, x = 0.5
when the series converges x
= 1000 e
At convergence
x
=x =
=
Given x
2.
)/
[Ans. C]
5
Magnitude of error
= 2 5.
2 . = 0.5
CS
1.
Mathematics
=
th
th
th
Page 69
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
9.
ECE
1.
2.
[Ans. ]
Given (x) + f(x) + t cos x = 0
and f(x) = x sin x
f (x) = x cos x + sin x
f (x) = x ( sin x) + cos x + cos x
= 2 cos x x sin x
= 2 cos x f (x)
2 cos x f (x) + f(x) +t cos x = 0
2 cos x = tcos x t = 2
[Ans. A]
f(x) = 0.75x
2x
2x
f (x) = 2.25x
x 2
x =2 f = 2 f =
f
x =x
=0
f
f = f = 2
f
x =x
=2
f
f = 2 f =
f
x =x
=0
f
Also, root does not lies between 0 and 1
So, the method diverges if x = 2
nly ( )is true.
x1 2
3.
1 x n
4.
x1 x 0
e x n
1 e x n
f(x )
f (x )
=x
f(2) = (2
) = 2
f (2) =
=2
and
= .
5.
[Ans. D]
f(x) = a x
a x
a x
a x a
If the above equation have complex roots,
then they must be in complex conjugate
pair, because its given all co-efficients are
positive ( they are real )
So if complex roots are even no. (in pair)
then real roots will also be even.
ption ( )is wrong
From the equation
( 0)
roduct of roots =
As no. of roots = 4,
Product of roots < 1
either one root 0
(or)
Product of three roots < 0
ption ( )is rong.
Now, take option (A),
Let us take it is correct .
Roots are in complex conjugate pairs
=
Product of roots
0
| | | |
0 which is not possible
ption (A) is wrong
orrect answer is option ( )
4=0
f x0
f ' x 0
x x 4x0 4
3x02 2x0 4
3
0
e
e
[Ans. C]
[Ans. C]
By definition (& the application) of
various methods
Next approximation x1 x0
8 4
12 3
[Ans. C]
Given : f(x)= x e
By Newton Raphson method,
f(x )
x
x
=x
=x
f (x )
[Ans. C]
For value of K if trapezoidal rule is used
then the value is either greater than
actual value of definite integral and if
impsons rule is used then value is exact
Hence both statements are TRUE
[Ans. B]
y(t) =x3 x2 + 4x
x0 = 2
Mathematics
2
0
th
th
th
Page 70
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
[Ans. A]
sin x 2 cos x
x
= (x
)
7.
[Ans. B]
8.
[Ans. D]
2(
2
x
as e =
EE
1.
Now put
x
2
Put x =
as given,
x = [e ( 2)
]/e
= 0.71828
[Ans. C]
=e
.. = e
u(t)
x
2
. . x in
t
[Ans. D]
Here,
x = e u(t) dt = f(t) dt
At t = 0.01, x = Area of trapezoidal
=
x
f(x y) =
=(
)x
h
4.
5.
=*
6.
0x cos x
0x sinx
20x
0sinx
]
0cosx
0
0
is
0
+
0
[Ans. D]
x
x
x
=0
(x
)(x
)=0
x
=0 x
=0
x=
x= j
=x
The matrix at x = 0 x =
( )
f(x ) = e
f(x ) = e
=[
( )
[Ans. B]
u(x x ) = 0x sin x
0. = 0
v(x x ) = 0x
0x cosx
0. = 0
The Jacobian matrix is
u
u
x
x
v
v
[ x
x ]
[Ans. A]
Here
f(x) = e
f (x) = e
The Newton Raphson iterative equation is
=x
= *x
2
o maximum permissible value of is 2 .
i.e. x
[Ans. A]
since h = here
= x
=x
= 0.0099
or stability |
f(0.0 )] =
= [f(0)
Eulers method equation is

x = x h. f(x y )
x
x
= x h(
)
2.
i=0
x =
3.
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 71
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. C]
x =x
=
.2
Hence, it will have atleast 5 (0+1)= 4

complex roots.
f(x )
f (x )
( .2)
2( .2)
( .2)
2
4.
[Ans. C]
Approach- 1
Given, x3 6x2 + 11x 6 = 0
Or (x 1)(x 3)(x 2) = 0
x= 1, 2, 3.
= 0.705
8.
[Ans. *] Range 0.05 to 0.07

Clearly, x = 0 is root of the equation
f(x) = e
=0
f (x) = e and x = .0
Using ewton raphson method
(e .
)
f(x )
x =x
=
=
f (x )
e.
e
and x = x
f(x )
=
f (x ) e
=
(e
Approach- 2
For ax3 +bx2 + cx +d = 0
If the three roots are p,q,r then
Sum of the roots= p+q+r= b/a
Product of the roots= pqr= d/a
pq+qr+rp=c/a
)
e
5.
[Ans. D]
dx
x
=
dt
f(x, y) =
e
= 0. 7 0.
= 0.0
Absolute error at 2nd itteration is
|0 0.0 | = 0.0
IN
1.
=x
h
=(
[Ans. A]
As k xk+1 xk
xk = x
h (x y ) = x
)x
2.
3.
h(
or stability |
x = x
x =5
x =5
Mathematics
= 1.70
[Ans. A]
Assume x =
f(x) = x
=0
f(x )
x
=x
= [x
f (x ) 2
6.
[Ans. A]
dv
=v t
dt
t
v dv
=v t
dt
0 0 0 0+0 0. = 0
0.1 0 0+0.1 0. = 0.0
7.
[Ans. C]
f(x) = x
x
f (x) = x
= g(x)
x = initial guess
g (x) = x
g (x )
x =x
g (x )
2
]
x
[Ans. C]
Given p(x) = x + x + 2
There is no sign change, hence at most 0
positive root ( rom escartes rule of
signs)
p( x) = x
x+2
There is one sign change, hence at most 1
negative root ( rom escartes rule of
signs)
th
th
th
Page 72
GATE QUESTION BANK
=
x =x
= .5
= .
= .5
g(x )
g (x )
0.75
7
8.
[Ans. D]
dy
= 2xy x = 0 y = h = 0.2
dx
y =y
h. f(x y )
(0.2)f(0 ) =
=
and y = y
[f(x y ) f(x y )]
(0. )[f(0 ) f(0.2 )]
=
= 0.
is the value of y after first step, using
Eulers predictor corrector method
9.
[Ans. B]
For convergence
x
Mathematics
= x =x x=
x =
(2x
x=
th
th
th
Page 73
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Calculus
ME 2005
1.
ME 2006
The line integral of the vector

function ( ) 2xyz + xz +
ky from
the origin to the point P (1,1,1)
(A) is 1
(B) is Zero
(C) is 1
(D) cannot be determined without
specifying the path
2.
be
(A)
(B)
8.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Changing the order of the integration in

the double integral I =
What is q?
(A)
(C) X
(D) 8
)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
10.
(A) 0
(B)
is equal to
11.
(C)
(D) 1
The area of a triangle formed by the tips

of vectors a , b and c is
(A)
)(
(D) Zero
(B)
|(
Stoke theorem connects

(A) A line integral and a surface integral
(B) Surface integral and a volume
integral
(C) A line integral and a volume integral
(D) Gradient of function and its surface
integral
(C)
(D)
(C) 2 (
ME 2007
(B) 2
6.
1 and t is a real number,
Let x denote a real number. Find out the

INCORRECT statement
+ represents the set if all
(A) S *
real numbers greater then 3
+ represents the empty
(B) S *
set
+ represents the
(C) S *
union of set A and set B
+ represents the set
(D) S *
of all real umbers between a and b,
where and b are real number
leads to
(A) 4y
(B) 16y
(C) 0
(D)
dt is:
9.
4.
By a change of variables
x(u,v) = uv, y(u,v) = v/u is double
integral, the integral f(x,y) changes to
f(uv, u/v) ( ). Then, ( )
(A) 2 v/u
(C) v
(B) 2 u v
(D) 1
I = (
2x2 7x 3
, then limf(x) will
x 3
5x2 12x 9
Assuming i =
The right circular cone of largest volume

that can be enclosed by a sphere of 1 m
radius has a height of
3.
5.
If f( x ) =
7.
th
th
)
(
)|
|
)
th
Page 74
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
If
y (2) =
(A) 4 or 1
(B) 4 only
13.
, then
14.
17.
The divergence of the vector field

) (
) is
(x y) (
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
21.
Let
(D)
What is
(C) 1
(D) 1/ln2
ME 2009
22. The area enclosed between the curves
y 2 4x and x2 4y is
(A)
(B) 8
23.
(C)
(D) 16
The distance between the origin and the

point nearest to it on the surface
The directional derivative of the scalar
z2 1 xy is
function f(x, y, z) = x2 2y 2 z at the
(A) 1
point P = (1, 1, 2) in the direction of the

vector
is
(A) 4
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 1
(B)
24.
0
(A)
(B)
traversed in a counter-clockwise sense is

Y
B
X
The value of
(A)
(B)
A path AB in the form of one quarter of a

circle of unit radius is shown in the figure.
2
x+2y=2
(C)
(D) 2
Integration of x y on path AB
Consider the shaded triangular region P

shown in the figure. What is xydxdy?
y
at x=2, y=1?
(A) 0
(B) ln2
Which of the following integrals is

unbounded?
(C)
(A)
18.
20.
The length of the curve
(B)
16.
In the Taylor series expansion of ex about

x = 2, the coefficient of (x 2)4 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The minimum value of function y = x2 in

the interval [1, 5] is
(A) 0
(C) 25
(B) 1
(D) Undefined
between x = 0 and x = 1 is
(A) 0.27
(C) 1
(B) 0.67
(D) 1.22
15.
19.
(C) 1 only
(D) Undefined
ME 2008
Mathematics
(C)
(D) 1
(C)
(D)
25.
is
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 1

at a point (1,1,1) is
equal to
(A) 7
(C) 3
(B) 4
(D) 0
th
th
Page 75
GATE QUESTION BANK
ME 2010
26. Velocity vector of a flow field is given as
. The vorticity vector at

(1, 1, 1) is
(A) 4
(B) 4
27.
The function
(A)
o
o
(C)
(D)
(B)
o
o
except at x = 3/2
(C)
o
o
except at x = 2/3
(D)
o
o
28.
29.
ME 2012
33. Consider the function ( )
in the
interval
. At the point x = 0,
f(x) is
(A) Continuous and differentiable.
(B) Non continuous and differentiable.
(C) Continuous and non differentiable.
(D) Neither continuous nor
differentiable.
R
R
R
R
34.
R
R
ME 2011
30. If f(x) is an even function and is a positive
real number, then ( )dx equals
31.
What is
(A)
(B)
32.
36.
For the spherical surface

the unit outward
normal vector at the point
is
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
is
(A)
(B)
(D)
37.
has
(C)
equal to?
A series expansion for the function

(A)
( )
(C) 0
(D) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
At x = 0, the function f(x) =

(A) A maximum value
(B) A minimum value
(C) A singularity
(D) A point of inflection
R except at x = 3
(D)
/ is
35.
The parabolic arc

is
revolved around the x-axis. The volume of

the solid of revolution is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A) 0
(B)
.
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2

(A)
(B)
Mathematics
The area enclosed between the straight

line y = x and the parabola y = in the
x y plane is
(A) 1/6
(C) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(D) 1/2
ME 2013
38. The following surface integral is to be
evaluated over a sphere for the given
steady velocity vector field
defined with respect to a
cartesian coordinate system having i, j and
k as unit base vectors.
(
(D)
th
th
)
th
Page 76
GATE QUESTION BANK
Where S is the sphere,

and n is the outward unit normal vector to
the sphere. The value of the surface
integral is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
39.
45.
If a function is continuous at a point,

(A) the limit of the function may not exist
at the point
(B) the function must be derivable at the
point
(C) the limit of the function at the point
tends to infinity
(D) the limit must exist at the point and
the value of limit should be same as
the value of the function at that point
The value of the definite integral

( )
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
46.
Divergence of the vector field

(
) is
(A) 0
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 6
(C) 3
(D)Not defined
47.
ME 2014
40.
is
(A) 0
(B) 1
41.
Which one of the following describes the

relationship among the three vectors
(A) The vectors are mutually

perpendicular
(B) The vectors are linearly dependent
(C) The vectors are linearly independent
(D) The vectors are unit vectors
42.
/ is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
43.
)
)
)
(
(A) 3
(B) 0
48.
(C) 1
(D) 2

is
(
(C) (
(B) (
(D) .
(A)
)
/
).
Where, c is the square cut from the first

quadrant by the lines x = 1 and y = 1 will
(
G
h o
o h
h
line integral into double integral)
(A)
(C)
(B) 1
(D)
(
(
CE 2005
1.
Value of the integral (
(C) 1
(D) 2
Curl of vector
(A) (
(B) (
(C)
(D)
44.
Mathematics
2.
A rail engine accelerates from its

stationary position for 8 seconds and
travels a distance of 280 m. According to
the
Mean
Value
theorem,
the
speedometer at a certain time during
acceleration must read exactly.
(A) 0 kmph
(C) 75 kmph
(B) 8 kmph
(D) 126 kmph
The best approximation of the minimum

value attained by
(100x) for
is _______
th
th
th
Page 77
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2006
3.
What is the area common to the circles
o
2
(A) 0.524 a
(C) 1.014 a2
(B) 0.614 a2
(D) 1.228 a2
4.
The directional derivative of

f(x, y, z) = 2 + 3 + at the point
P (2, 1, 3) in the direction of the vector
a=
k is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2007
5.
Potential function is given as
=
. When will be the stream
function () with the condition
= 0 at x = y = 0?
(A) 2xy
(C)
(B)
+
(D) 2
6.
Evaluate
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
7.
10.
12.
transformed to
(A)
(B)
9.
(C)
(D) 18
parabola is y = 4h
(A)
(D)
(C)
= 0 by substituting
(C)
where x is the
horizontal coordinate and y is the vertical

coordinate with the origin at the centre of
the cable. The expression for the total
length of the cable is
= 0 can be
(D)
14.
The
is
(A) 2/3
(B) 1
The inner (dot) product of two vectors

and is zero. The angle (degrees)
between in two vectors is
(A) 0
(C) 90
(B) 30
(D) 120
(C) 40.5
(D) 54.0
(B) 2
+
is
CE 2010
13. A parabolic cable is held between two
supports at the same level. The horizontal
span between the supports is L. The sag at
the mid-span is h. The equation of the
CE 2008
+
For a scalar function

f(x, y, z) =
the directional
derivative at the point P(1, 2, 1) in the
is
direction of a vector
(A)
(B)
A velocity is given as
= 5xy + 2 y2 + 3yz2 . The divergence
The equation
The value of (
(A) 13.5
(B) 27.0
CE 2009
11. For a scalar function
f(x, y, z) = + 3 + 2 the gradient at
the point P (1, 2, 1) is
(A) 2 + 6 + 4
(C) 2 + 12 + 4
(D)
(B) 2 + 12 4
of this velocity vector at (1 1 1) is

(A) 9
(C) 14
(B) 10
(D) 15
8.
Mathematics
15.
th
(C) 3/2
(D)
Given a function
( )
The optimal value of f(x, y)
th
th
Page 78
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3

(B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3
(D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3
CE 2013
21.
CE 2011
16.
22.
(C) a
(D) 2a
A particle moves along a curve whose

parametric equation are :
and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y
and z show variations of the distance
covered by the particle (in cm) with time
t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
of the particle (in cm ) at t = 0 is
___________
25.
If {x} is a continuous, real valued random

variable defined over the interval
(
) and its occurrence is defined
by the density function given as:
(C) 1
(D)
CE 2012
19. For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the
sketch,
and
R
.
The area of the parallelogram is
Q
(C) 1
(D)
24.
magnitudes a and b respectively. | |

will be equal to
(A)
( )
(C)
+ ( )
(B) ab
(D) ab +
R
P
( )
wh
the statistical attributes of the random

variable {x}. The value of the integral
(A) ad bc
(B) ac+bd
With reference to the conventional

Cartesian (x, y) coordinate system, the
vertices of a triangle have the following
coordinates:
(
)
( ) (
)
( )
(
)
( ). The area of the
triangle is equal to
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
If and are two arbitrary vectors with
(C) ad + bc
(D) ab cd
dx is
(A) 1
(B) 0.5
The infinity series
(A) sec
(B)
(C) 1
(D) 8/3
23.
(A) 0
(B)
20.
(A)
(B)
Wh ho
h
o such that
the function defined below is continuous
?
f(x)={
18.
The value of
(A) 0
(B) 1/15
CE 2014
(A) 0
(B) a/2
17.
Mathematics
26.
(C) o
(D)
(C)
(D)
The expression
(A) log x
(B) 0
th
th
(C) x log x
(D)
th
Page 79
GATE QUESTION BANK
CS 2005
1.
Let G(x)
CS 2010
1
g(i)x i where |x|<1.
2
(1 x) i 0
What is g(i)?
(A) i
(B) i+1
(C) 2i
(D) 2i
CS 2007
2.
Consider the following two statements
about the function f(x) =|x|:
P: f(x) is continuous for all real values of x
Q: f(x) is differentiable for all real values
of x
Which of the following is true?
(A) P is true Q is false
(B) P is false Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true
(D) Both P and Q are false
CS 2008
3.
4.
x sinx
equals
Lim
x x cosx
(A) 1
(C)
(B) 1
(D)
Let
P=
7.
What is the value of

(A) 0
(B)
4
3
2
curve 3x 16x 24x 37 is
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 1
(D) 3
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C)
(D) 1
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) i
(D) i
CS 2012
9.
Consider the function f(x)= sin(x) in the
interval x , -. The number and
location(s) of the local minima of this
function are
(A) One , at
(B) One , at
(C) Two , at and
(D) Two , at and
CS 2013
10. Which one the following function is
continuous at x =3?
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
CS 2014
11. Let the function
( )
CS 2009
6.
/ ?
A point on a curve is said to be extreme if

it is a local minimum or a local maximum.
The number of distinct extrema for the
CS 2011
8.
Given i = , what will be the
evaluation of the definite integral
where k is a positive integer. Then

(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
5.
Mathematics
(
(
Where
evaluates to
o
o (
o (
)
)
)
)
(
(
)|
)
1 and ( ) denote the
derivation of f with respect to . Which of

the following statements is/are TRUE?
(I) There exists
(C) ln2
(D)
ln 2
.
th
th
h h
th
( )
Page 80
GATE QUESTION BANK
(II) There exists

.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
13.
14.
(A)
h h
( )
I only
II only
Both I and II
Neither I nor II
(B)
A function f (x) is continuous in the

interval [0, 2]. It is known that
f(0) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = 1. Which one
of the following statements must be true?
(A) There exists a y in the interval (0,1)
such that f(y) = f(y + 1)
(B) For every y in the interval (0, 1),
f(y) = f(2 y)
(C) The maximum value of the function
in the interval (0, 2) is 1
(D) There exists a y in the interval (0, 1)
such that f(y)
(
)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2006
2.
As x is increased from
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
dx = , then the value of k
is equal to_______.
15.
3
The integral sin d is given by
3.
1
2
2
(B )
3
(A)
(B)
, the
The value of the integral given below is
to
e
1 ex
monotonically increases
monotonically decreases
increases to a maximum value and
then decreases
decreases to a minimum value and
then increases
function f x
If and are 4 dimensional subspace

of a 6 dimensional vector space V, then
the smallest possible dimension of
is ____________.
If
Mathematics
4
3
8
(D)
3
(A)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2005
1.
The derivative of the symmetric function
drawn in given figure will look like
(C)
P ds , where P is a vector, is
4.
equal to
(A) P dl
(C) P dl
(B) P dl
(D)
Pdv
P , where P is a vector, is equal to
5.
2
(A) P P P
2
(B) P P
th
th
th
(C) 2P P
(D) P 2P
Page 81
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2007
6.
For the function
, the linear
approximation around = 2 is
(A) (3 x)
(B) 1 x
ECE 2008
12. Consider points P and Q in the x y plane,
with P=(1,0) and Q=(0,1). The line
Q
integral 2 xdx ydy along the
(C) 3 2 2 1 2 x e2
(D)
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
semicircle with the line segment PQ as its

diameter
(A) is 1
(B) is 0
(C) is 1
(D) depends on the direction (clockwise
or anticlockwise) of the semicircle
For x <<1, coth(x) can be

approximated as
(A) x
(C)
(B) x2
(D)
Consider the function f(x) =
x 2.
The maximum value of f(x) in the closed
interval [ 4,4] is
(A) 18
(C) 2.25
(B) 10
(D) Indeterminate
13.
In the Taylor series expansion of

exp(x)+sin(x) about the point x= the
coefficient of (x )2 is
()
(A)
()
(C)
()
()
(B)
(D)
14.
Which of the following functions would

have only odd powers of x in its Taylor
series expansion about the point x=0?
(A) sin(x3)
(C) cos(x3)
2
(B) sin(x )
(D) cos(x2)
15.
The value of the integral of the function

g(x, y)=4x3+10y4 along the straight line
segment from the point (0,0) to the point
(1,2) in the x y plane is
(A) 33
(C) 40
(B) 35
(D) 56
16.
For real values of x, the minimum value of

the function f(x)=exp(x)+ exp( x) is
(A) 2
(C) 0.5
(B) 1
(D) 00
17.
Consider points P and Q in the x-y plane,

with P=(1, 0) and Q= (0, 1).
Which one of the following function is

strictly bounded?
(A)
(C) x 2
x
(B) e
(D)
lim
sin / 2
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
0
is
(C) 2
(D) not defined
The following Plot shows a function y

which varies linearly with x. The value of
2
the integral I ydx is

1
Y
3
2
) along
(
the semicircle with the line segment PQ as
its diameter
(A) Is
(B) Is 0
(C) Is 1
h
1
1
Mathematics
(A) 1.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.0
(D) 5.0
th
th
th
Page 82
GATE QUESTION BANK
(D) Depends on the direction

(clockwise or anti-clockwise) of the
semicircle
ECE 2009
18. The Taylor series expansion of
sinx
at x is given by
x
(A) 1
.....
3!
21.
the value of the integral
.....
3!
(A) 3V
(B) 5V
(C) 1
3!
.....
(D) 1
19.
3!
.....
If a vector field is related to another

, which
vector field through =
of the following is true? Note: C and
refer to any closed contour and any
surface whose boundary is C.
(A) =
(B) =
(C)
(D)
ECE 2010
20. If
, then over the

path shown in the figure is
(A) 0
(B)
is
(C) 10V
(D) 15V
ECE\IN 2012
23. The direction of vector A is radially
outward from the origin, with
where
and K is
constant. The value of n for which
. A = 0 is
(A) 2
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) 0
ECE\EE 2012
24. The maximum value of
( )
in the interval
[1,6] is
(A) 21
(C) 41
(B) 25
(D) 46
ECE 2013
25. The maximum value of unit which the
approximation
holds to within
10% error is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
26.
, then has a
maximum at
minimum at
maximum at
minimum at
ECE 2011
22. Consider a closed surface S surrounding a
volume V. If is the position vector of a
point inside S, with the unit normal of S,
(B) 1
If
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Mathematics
is
(A) 0
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3
(C) 1
(D) 2
th
th
th
Page 83
GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
Consider a vector field ( ) The closed

loop line integral can be expressed
as
) over the closed
(A) (
surface boundary by the loop
(B) ( )dv over the closed volume
bounded by the loop
(C) ( )dv over the open volume
bounded by the loop
) over the closed surface
(D) (
bounded by the loop
ECE 2014
28. The volume under the surface
z(x, y) = x+y and above the triangle in
the x-y plane defined by
{0 y x and 0 x 12} is______
29.
30.
For
function ( )
(A)
o
(B)
o
The value of
the maximum value of the

occurs at
(C)
(D)
o
.
(A)
(B)
31.
The maximum value of the function

( )
(
)
(wh
)
occurs at x =____.
32.
The maximum value of

( )
0 x 3 is ______.
33.
34.
The magnitude of the gradient for the

function (
)
at the
point (1,1,1) is_______.
35.
The directional derivative of

( )
(
) ( )in the direction
of the unit vector at an angle of with

y axis, is given by ________________.
EE 2005
1.
For the scalar field u =
in the interval
, magnitude
of the gradient at the point (1, 3) is

(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
2.
For the function f(x) =

, the
maximum occurs when x is equal to
(A) 2
(C) 0
(B) 1
(D) 1
3.
If S =
, then S has the value

(C)
(D) 1
(A)
(B)
/ is
(C)
(D)
Mathematics
EE 2006
4.
A surface S(x, y) = 2x + 5y 3 is
integrated once over a path consisting of
the points that satisfy
(x+1)2+ (y 1)2 = . The integral
evaluates to
(A) 17
(C) /17
(D) 0
(B) 17/
5.
The expression V = R (
for the volume of a cone is equal to
For a right angled triangle, if the sum of

the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side
is kept constant, in order to have
maximum area of the triangle, the angle
between the hypotenuse and the side is
(A) 12
(C) 60
(B) 36
(D) 45
th
(A) R (
(B) R (
(C)
(D)
th
R) h
R )
th
Page 84
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2007
6.
EE 2010
The integral
equals
(A)
(B) 0
) o
EE 2009
8.
f(x, y) is a continuous function defined
over (x, y) [0, 1] [0, 1]. Given the two
constraints, x > and y > , the
volume under f(x, y) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
9.
10.
11.
a minimum
a discontinuity
a point of inflection
a maximum
Divergence of the three-dimensional

radial vector field is
(A) 3
(C)
(B) 1/r
(D)
(
)
13.
The value of the quantity P, where
(A) 0
(B) 1
, is equal to
(C) e
(D) 1/e
EE 2011
14. The two vectors [1, 1, 1] and [1, a,
where a = .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A cubic polynomial with real coefficients

(A) can possibly have no extrema and no
zero crossings
(B) may have up to three extrema and
upto 2 zero crossings
(C) cannot have more than two extrema
and more than three zero crossings
(D) will always have an equal number of
extrema and zero crossings
has
12.
)
(
At t = 0, the function ( )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C) (1/2) o
(D) (1/2)
EE 2008
7.
Consider function f(x)= (
) where
x is a real number. Then the function has
(A) only one minimum
(B) only two minima
(C) three minima
(D) three maxima
(D)
Mathematics
15.
],
/, are
orthonormal
orthogonal
parallel
collinear
The function f(x) = 2x

has
(A) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
x=5
(B) a maxima at x = 1 and a minima at
x= 5
(C) only a maxima at x = 1
(D) only a minima at x = 1
EE 2013
16. Given a vector field
, the line integral
F(x, y) = (
)
(
)
line integral over the straight line from

(
) = (0, 2) to (
) = (2, 0)
evaluates to
(A) 8
(C) 8
(B) 4
(D) 0
evaluated along a segment on the x

axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
(A) 2.33
(C) 2.33
(B) 0
(D) 7
17.
th
The curl of the gradient of the scalar field

defined by
(A)
th
th
Page 85
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B)
(C) (
(
(D)
19.
20.
21.
23.
( )
Where f and
v are scalar and vector fields respectively.
If
h
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24.
The minimum value of the function

( )
0 in the
interval ,
- is
(A) 20
(C) 16
(B) 28
(D) 32
EE 2014
18. Let ( )
. The maximum value of
the function in the interval (
) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The line integral of function
, in the
counterclockwise direction, along the
circle
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Minimum of the real valued function
(
) occurs at x equal to
( )
(A)
(C) 1
(B)
(D)
IN 2005
1.
A scalar field is given by f = x2/3 + y2/3,
where x and y are the Cartesian
coordinates. The derivative of f along the
line y = x directed away from the origin,
at the point (8, 8) is
To evaluate the double integral

.
( )
substitution u = (
/ dy, we make the

) and
. The
2.
( ) (
( ) (
( ) (
(A)
(B)
A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s,

is traveling along x-axis with velocity
o . /
(D)
f(t) defined over [0,1],

(A)
(B) 0
3.
( )
is
(C) f(1)
(D) f(0)

(A) 2
(B) does not exist
(C)
(D)
is
2
(t) has a constant magnitude,

If a vector R
then
4.
(A) R
22.
(C)
Given a real-valued continuous function
integral will reduce to

( ) (
Mathematics
(B) R
5.
(C) R
(D) R
If f =
+
+
where ai (i = 0 to n) are constants,
At t = 3 s, the difference between the

distance covered by the particle and the
magnitude of displacement from the
origin is _________
then
is
(A)
(B)
th
th
(C) nf
(D) n
th
Page 86
GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
The plot of a function f(x) is shown in the

following figure. A possible expression for
the function f(x) is
f(x)
(B) once differentiable but not twice

(C) twice differentiable but not thrice
(D) thrice differentiable
11.
0
(A)
(C)
(B)
. /
(D)
. /
IN 2006
7.
The function
(
) is
approximated as
where is in
radian. The maximum value of for
which the error due to the approximation
is within
(A) 0.1 rad
(C) 0.3 rad
(B) 0.2 rad
(D) 0.4 rad
()
( )
(A) (
()
))
(B) (
()
))
()
))
()
))
()
(D) (
) ( )
( ))
( ))
13.
The expression
(A)
(B) x
14.
Given y =
(A)
(B)
10.
dx dy is.
(C)
(D)
Consider the function f(x) =

, where x
is real. Then the function f(x) at x = 0 is
(A) continuous but not differentiable
for x > 0 is equal to

(C)
(D)
+ 2x + 10, the value of
is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 12
(D) 13
15.
(A) Indeterminate
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D)
IN 2009
16. A sphere of unit radius is centered at the
origin. The unit normal at a point (x, y, z)
on the surface of the sphere is
(A) (x, y, z)
(C) .
/
(B) .
IN 2007
9.

(C)
(D)
is.
IN 2008
12. Consider the function y = x2 6x + 9. The
maximum value of y obtained when x
varies over the interval 2 to 5 is
(A) 1
(C) 4
(B) 3
(D) 9
The solution of the integral equation

()
(C)
For real x, the maximum value of

(A) 1
(B) e 1
8.
Mathematics
(D) .
IN 2010
17. The electric charge density in the region
R:
is given as
( )
, where x and y are in
meters. The total charge (in coulomb)
contained in the region R is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 0
th
th
th
Page 87
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
The integral
evaluates to
(A) 6
(B) 3
19.
/ sin(t) dt
23.
A scalar valued function is defined

as ( )
, where A is a
symmetric positive definite matrix with
dimension n n ; b and x are vectors of
dimension n1. The minimum value of
( ) will occur when x equals
)
(A) (
(C) .
/
)
(B) (
(D)
24.
Given
()
()
o .
(C) 1.5
(D) 0
The infinite series

( )
converges to
(A) cos (x)
(B) sin(x)
(C) sinh(x)
(D)
IN 2011
20.
The series
for
(A)
(B)
Mathematics
The
o w
(A) A circle
(B) A multi-loop closed curve
(C) Hyperbola
(D) An ellipse
converges
(C)
(D)
IN 2013
21. For a vector E, which one the following
statement is NOT TRUE?
(A)
E
E
o o
(B) If
E
E is called conservative
(C) If
E
E is called irrotational
(D)
E
E
-rotational
IN 2014
22. A vector is defined as
are unit vectors in

Where
Cartesian (
) coordinate system.
The surface integral f.ds over the
closed surface S of a cube with vertices
having the following coordinates:
(0,0,0),(1,0,0),(1,1,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1),
(1,0,1),(1,1,1),(0,1,1) is________
th
th
th
Page 88
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
[Ans. A]
Since, potential function of is xyz

(
) (
)
(
)
2.
[Ans. D]
o
0 o
9.
[Ans. B]
10.
[Ans. B]
(
For V to be max
Applying L hospital rule

(
[Ans. A]
(
This is of the form . /
Hence, h
3.
. /
=
|
=
=
11.
4.
[Ans. A]
(
After changing order

5.
[Ans. A]
I= (
=2
)
( )( )( )
= 2
6.
[Ans. A]
A Line integral and a surface integral is
connected by stokes theorem
7.
[Ans. B]
Now Area vector will be perpendicular to

plane of
i.e.
will be the required unit vector.
And option (A), (D) cannot give a vector
product
)|
|( ) (
12.
Applying Hospital rule, we get

I=
[Ans. A]
[Ans. B]
Given:
I=
8.
[Ans. B]
Let the vectors be
For
0 1
]
th
th
th
Page 89
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
14.
But y is always greater than x.

Hence y= 4 only.
[Ans. B]
Since interval given is bounded, so
minimum value of functions is 1.
= 0
L = (
Now by partial fractions,

(a3 8) = (a 2)(a2+2a+4)
) |
L=
[Ans. D]
To see whether the integrals are bounded
or unbounded, we need to see that the
o
h
h
interval of integration. Let us write down
the range of the integrands in the 4
options,
Thus, (D) , i.e.,
[Ans. B]
h
19.
o
(
). (
( )
( )
( )
( )
Coefficient of (x- )
Now f(x)= ex
(x)= ex
(a)= ea
( )
Hence for a=2,

20.
[Ans. D]
div {(
(
Hence directional derivative is

(grad (x2+2y2+z)).
[Ans. C]
Taylor series expansion of f(x) about a is
given by
( )
dx is unbounded.
along a vector
(2x
Let x= a3 a=2
A (0,1); B (0,1); C (0, ); D (0, )
16.
[Ans. B]
L=
=1.22
15.
)
1
).dx
= (
=
18.
= (
[Ans. D]
h
Mathematics
)
(
)}
(
)
=3
21.
[Ans. C]
=
Hence at (1,1,2),
Directional derivative =
17.
[Ans. A]
I = .dx dy
The limit of y is form 0 to
and limit
of x from 0 to 2
I =
( )
(
(
)(
/
th
th
)
)
th
Page 90
GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
[Ans. A]
Given:
23.
y 2 4x
x2 4y
(0,0)
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Short method:
Take a point on the curve z = 1, x = 0,
y=0
Length between origin and this point
)
(
)
(
) =1
(
This is minimum length because all
options have length greater than 1.
(4,4)
24.
x4
4x
16
[Ans. B]
Y
or x4 64x
or x(x 64) 0
3
or x3 64
or x 4
y 4
x = cos
y=sin
Required area = .
Path is x2 y 2 1
R e
2 x3
2 x3 2
3 12 0
(x y)2 1 2sin cos

2
cos2
(1 sin2)d
2 0
4
64
(4)3 2
3
12
32 16 16

3 3
3
Alternately
For point where both parabolas cut each
other
1 1
1
2 2 2 2
Alternately
=
Given: x2 y 2 1
Put x=cos , and y=sin
y2 4x, x2 4y
x y
x 4 4x
2
or x4 64x
or x3 64
x 4,0 ,(4,0)
)
2
cos2
1 1

2 0
2 2 2
Required area
4
x2
dx
0 4
1
2
4x
0
cos2 sin2 2sin cos

= 1 sin2
or x2 8 x
2 x3 16
2 x3 2
3 12 0 3
25.
[Ans. C]
F 3xzi 2xyj yz2k

th
th
th
Page 91
GATE QUESTION BANK
3z 2x 2yz
At point (1, 1, 1), divergence =3+2 2=3

26.
30.
||
31.
(
27.
[Ans. C]
differentiable for all x

since at
29.
[Ans. B]
33.
[Ans. C]
The function is continuous in [ 1, 1]
It is also differentiable in [ 1, 1] except at
x = 0.
Since Left derivative = 1 and
Right derivative = 1 at x = 0
34.
[Ans. B]
o
R, except at
Using this standard limit, here a = 1 then

= ( ) /2 =1/2
h
35.
[Ans. D]
( )
( )
( )
( )
f(x) has a point of inflection at x =0.
36.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. D]
,
[Ans. D]
R, and
value towards the left and right side of
28.
( )
32.
y is continuous for all x
( )
Standard limit formulae
[Ans. D]
[Ans. D]
If f(x) even function
||
* +
[Ans. D]
Mathematics
Volume from x = 1 to x = 2,
th
th
)
th
Page 92
GATE QUESTION BANK
38.
37.
[Ans. A]
By Gauss Divergence theorem,
( )
The unit outward normal vector at point

P is
(
Mathematics
(Surface Integral is transformed to

volume Integral)
( )
( )
( )
[Ans. A]
The area enclosed is shown below as
shaded
( )
( )
(
The coordinates of point P and Q is

obtained by solving
y = x and y = simultaneously,
i.e. x =
)
(
Now, x = 0
which is point Q(0,0)
and x = 1
which is point
P(1,1)
So required area is
39.
[Ans. C]
( ) ( )
Using Integration by parts
Here,
f=ln(x) and dg=
and g=
* +
o
( ) ( )
* +
[
th
th
( )
]
)
th
Page 93
GATE QUESTION BANK
40.
[Ans. A]
o
So the minimum value is
[Differentiating both
o
o
Hospital method]
o w
45.
[Ans. B]
G
[Ans. D]
o
o
o
( )
( )
( )
otherwise it is said to be discontinuous.

So the most appropriate option is D.
o
46.
. /
41.
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
Div
Vectors are linearly dependent

42.
[Ans. B]
(
)
)
( )
,
o ( )( )
( )
o ( )( )
43.
47.
-
ho
[Ans. B]
Let
(
o (
[Ans. A]
[
[
]
)
48.
)]
()
[
,
(
44.
)
(
(
)
)
)]
(
,
(
[Ans. B]

)]
,
[Ans. *] Range 1.00 to 0.94

h
o
th
th
]
-
th
Page 94
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE
1.
a =2a cos i.e, cos
[Ans C]
G
theorem is
((
(
)
)
( )
= y and
,
=
)-
=
=
. /
. /
[Ans. D]
Since the position of rail engine S(t) is
continuous and differentiable function
according to Lagranges mean value
theorem more
( )
o )
o
(t) = v(t) =
*
(
( )
)+
m/sec
kmph
= 126 kmph
Where v(t) is the velocity of the rail
engine.
3.
= 2y
=
2.
h o
I=
= xy
Here I = (
)
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
h
o h
r=2acos
(i) r = a represents a circle with centre
(
)

(ii) r = 2acos represents a circle
symmetric about OX with centre at
( )

The circles are shown in figure below. At
h
o o
o

P
y Q
3
4.
[Ans. C]
f = 2 +3
= 4xi + 6yj + 2zk

At P (2, 1, 3)
Directional derivation
(
)
(
)
( )
( )
( )
( )
5.
[Ans. A]
Potential function,
th
th
th
Page 95
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Integrating
[Ans. D]
Put
wh
Mathematics
( )
Now given equation is

.. (ii)
6.
[Ans. B]
Let I()
= (
dx ( )
=
) [ from eqn(i)]
Then Integrating by parts we get,
o )1
=
dI =
Integrating, I =
( )
() ( )
+C=0
C=
()
( )
Now substitute in eqn (ii) we get

h
h
I(0) =
But from equation (i), I(0) =
dx
dx =
h
h
Which is the desired form

7.
[Ans. D]
=5 +2
+ 3y
( )
9.
[Ans. C]
=0

If = 0
= 5y + 4y + 6yz
At(1, 1, 1)
div ( ) = 5.1 + 4.1 + 6.1.1
= 15
is the correct transformation.
o
Since P and Q are non-zero vectors
o
0
th
th
th
Page 96
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
[Ans. A]
Since the limit is a function of x. We first
integrate w.r.t. y and then w.r.t. x
)
[Ans. D]
Length of curve f(x) between x = a and
x = b is given by
13.
Mathematics
+
Here,
= 8h
Since
and y = h at x =
* ( )
*
4h ( )
(As can be seen from equation (i), by

substituting x = 0 and x = L/2)
( )+
(Length of cable)
ho
11.
[Ans. B]
f = + 3 +2
f = grad f = i
+j
[Ans. A]
15.
[Ans. A]
( )
+k
= i(2x) + j(6y) + k(4z)

The gradient at P(1, 2, 1) is
= i(21) + j(62) + k(4 ( ))
= 2i + 12j 4k
12.
14.
[Ans. B]
(
Putting,
o
(
Given,
/ is the only stationary point.

*
+
.
th
th
th
Page 97
GATE QUESTION BANK
Since the limit is in form of
+
.
ho
and get
+
.
Since,
Also since, r=0

(
= 8 > 0, the point
minimum equal to
Since ( )
I=
( )

R

R
[Ans. B]
Let I =
o -
[Ans. A]
Area = | |

R (
So the optimal value of f(x, y) is a
16.
,
19.
)
o
o ()
[Ans. A]
The minimum value is

(
18.
, we can use
Since,
We have either a maxima or minima at
.
Mathematics
20.
[Ans. B]
21.
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
( )
(i) + (ii) 2I =
2I =
2I = |
I = a/2
17.
[Ans. C]
For a function f(x) to be continuous,
at x=a
( )
( )
o
(
If f(x) is continuous at x=
. /
th
th
th
Page 98
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Substituting the values we get

(
)
(
)
(
)
|
|
24.
[Ans. 12]
o )
( )
o ( )
( )
[
22.
Magnitude of acceleration
[Ans. C]
(
)
(
25.
)
[Ans. B]
We have
( )
, ow
( )
=1+0=1
Hence correct option is (C)
23.
( )
( )
[Ans. A]
(4, 3)
a
(2, 2)
b
( )
0.5
(1, 0)
0.5
o wh
o ordinate points are
given is given by
th
th
th
Page 99
GATE QUESTION BANK
26.
[Ans. A]
Use L hospital Rule
=
4.
=1
[Ans. A]
P=
= log x
[Ans. B]
1
1 x
n 1 r
r 0
Cr x
1 x
r 0
r 0
r 0
Cr x
r 0
i 0
5.
[Ans. D]
y = 3 16
= 12
24
48
+ 37
48 x = 0
x (12 48x 48 ) = 0
x = 0 or 12 48x 48 = 0
4x 4 = 0
()
g(i) =i+1
x=
=2
[Ans. A]
f(x)= |x|
Continuity: In other words,
f(x) = x o
x for x< 0
Since,
=
=0 ,
f (x) is continuous for all real values of x
Differentiability:
96x
48
= 36
Now at x = 0
=
48
At 2 also
0 (using
calculator)
There are 3 extrema in this function
( )
6.
( )
[Ans. D]
Since ( )
R h
So |x| is continuous but not differentiable
at x=0
3.
(since r is a dummy variable, r can be

replaced by i)
r 1 x r i 1 x i
1)
w h
(
2 1 r
r 1 Cr x r r 1 C1 x r
Putting n=2,
2.
=
Q=
w h a =1, l=2k 1
P= (
CS
1.
Mathematics
I =
=
= (
)
(
Since tan (A B) =
[Ans. A]
=
th
th
th
Page 100
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
(
(
)
)
9.
(
(
)
)
At
At
= ln ( sec ) ln (sec 0)
= ln ( )
= ln (
. /
. /
value
10.
)0=
[Ans. B]
(
8.
) [
[Ans. A]
*(
) +
) +
.
11.
[Ans. C]
By Mean value theorem
12.
[Ans. A]
Define g(x) = f(x) f(x + 1) in [0, 1]. g(0)
is negative and g(1) is positive. By
intermediate value theorem there is
(
)
h h g(y) = 0
That is f(y) = f(y + 1)
Thus Answer is (A)
13.
[Ans. 2]
*
w
+
*
w +
For min
maximum non common
elements must be there
*
+
must be common to any 2 elements
of V1
(
)minimum value = 2
o
o
+
[
-(
, f(x) =
For x = , f(x) = 3 1 = 2
For x = 3, f(x) = 2
(
) (
) = f(3)
[Ans. D]
gives minimum
( )
For x =
7.
gives maximum
value
)-
( )
=,
[Ans. B]
f(x) = sin x
( )
o
( )
o

th
th
th
Page 101
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
[Ans. 4]
Mathematics
(
)
o
o ()
Hence option (A) is correct
o
o
)
ECE
1.
[Ans. C]
dy
0 for x< 0
dx
dy
0 for x> 0
dx
o
Substituting the limits
o ()
o ( )
2.
[Ans. A]
Given,
f x
f ' x
1 e .e e
1 e
3.
= x cos
2x
ex
1 ex
Let cos = t
At
o
o
o
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
= o ( ) o
=
LHS = I + II =
15.
ex
1 ex
th
th
th
Page 102
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given, f x x2 x 2
df x
4.
0
dx
2x 1=0
1
x
2
[Ans. A]
o h o
(
d2f x
= 2 ve
dx2
So it shows only minima for interval
[ 4, 4], it contains a maximum value that
will be at x= 4 or x=4
f( 4)=18 and f(+4)=10
5.
6.
[Ans. D]
From vector triple product
(
)
(
)
(
)
Here,
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
( )
[Ans. D]
y f x ; x 0,
[Ans. A]
( )
f x0
x x0 f ' x0 x x 0
e (x 2)(e )
x 2
2
f '' x0
2
2
For strictly bounded, 0 limy

x 0
......
or 0 lim y
x
2
So, y e x is strictly bounded
e ......
2
x 2
e2 3 x
......
(Neglecting higher power of x)
7.
9.
10.
lim
0
ex e x
ex e x
x x 2 x3
e 1 ..........
1 2 3
11.
e x 1
[Ans. B]
Two points on line are ( 1, 0) and (0, 1)
Hence line equation is,
y y1
y 2
x c
x 2 x1
y x c
x x 2 x3
..........
1 2 3
ex e x
ex e x
sin /2
1 sin /2
lim
0 2
/2
1 sin /2 1
= lim
2 0 /2 2
[Ans. C]
coth (x)=
[Ans. A]
x2 x 4
..........
2 4
x3 x5
x ..........
3 5
1
y x 1 ( )
2
5
I ydx x 1 dx 2.5
2
1
1
1
x
(Neglecting x2 and higher order)
or cot h (x)=
(Since at x=1,y=2)
th
th
th
Page 103
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
[Ans. B]
Taking f(x, y)= xy, we can show that,
xdx+ydy, is exact. So, the value of the
integral is independent of path
15.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given : g x,y 4x3 10y 4
The straight line can be expressed as
y=2x
Then g(x,y)=4x3+ 10 (2x)4
(0, 1)
4
I 4x3 10 2x dx 4x3 160x 4 dx
4x 4 160 5
=
x 33
5
4
0
(1, 0)
[Ans. A]
f(x)= +
(x)=
=0 x=0
(x)= +
>0 x R.
Hence minimum at x=0
f(0)=1+1=2
Alternatively:
For any even function the maxima &
minima can be found by
A.M. >= GM
=> exp(x) + exp( x) 2
Hence minimum value = 2
17.
[Ans. B]
[ |
13.
16.
| ]
[Ans. B]
Let f(x) ex sinx
o
f x f a x a f ' a
x a
2!
f '' a
where, a=
f x f x f '
Coefficient of (x )2 is
2!
f ''
f ''
f '' e sinx |at x e
Coefficient of (x )2=0.5 exp ()

14.
[Ans. A]
o
Thus, (
( )w
o ( )w
o ( )w
)w
h
h
h
[ |
| ]
o
ow
ow
ow
ow
th
th
th
Page 104
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
21.
[Ans. D]
sinx = x
= (x )
y=
or
19.
sin x = (x )
or
=1
)
(
= 1
)
(
....
(
)
...
....
( )
....
Therefore, at
22.
23.
[Ans. A]
. /
* +
)
)
25.
[Ans. B]
( )
)]
(
(
)]
[Ans. C]
( )
, ( )
( )
( )
are the stationary points

( )
( )
( )
and f(2) = 25 and f(4)=21
M
o ( ) , f(6)=41
. /
24.
]
]
. /
along PQ y =1 dy =0]
( )
and is the position vector)
has a maximum.
[Ans. D]
Apply the divergence theorem
[Ans. C]
= [
Since
[Ans. D]
o h o
=
According Stokes Theorem

=
20.
[Ans. A]
....
sin (x )
or
Mathematics
th
th
th
Page 105
GATE QUESTION BANK
30.
[Ans. C]
E o
E o
31.
[Ans. *] Range
( )
(
)
( )
=1+1+1
=3
[Ans. D]
o h o
h
integral of a
vector around a closed path L is equal

to the integral of curl of over the open
32.
33.
)
)
)
)
[Ans. C]
Let x (opposite side), y (adjacent side)
and z (hypotenuse side) of a right angled
triangle
29.

Maximum value is 6
( )
( )
(
(
(
(

Volume under the surface
(
)
( )
h
28.
to 0.01
( )
[Ans. D]
27.
26.
Mathematics
Given
)(
[Ans. A]
o
( )
( )
o
0(
( )
( )
Since ( ) is negative, maximum value of
f(x) will be where ( )
o
( )
( )
oh
( (
(
th
th
)(
))
)
th
Page 106
GATE QUESTION BANK
By trial and error method using options
34.
Now at x = 2
(2) =
(
)
=
(
)
= 2
<0
At x = 2 we have a maxima.
3.
[Ans. *] Range 2.99 to 3.01
At (1, 1),
Given unit vector,
=3
5.
[Ans. D]
We consider options (A) and (D) only
because which contains variable r.
By integrating (D), we get
, which is volume of cone.
6.
[Ans. D]
By property of definite integral
)
( )
(
On simplification we get option (D)
[Ans. C]
Grad u =
At (1, 3) Grad u =
,( )
7.
[Ans. B]
f(x) = (
)
(x) = 2(
)
=4x(
) =0
x = 0, x = 2 and x = 2 are the stationary
points.
(x) = 4[x(2x) +(
) ]
= 4[2
= 4 [3
= 12
(0) =
< 0, maxima at x = 0
(2) =(12)
= 32 > 0, minima at x =
( 2) =12(
)
= 32 > 0; minima at x =
There is only one maxima and only two
minima for this function.
=
2.
[Ans. D]
)
)
4.
So, directional derivative

(
)
(
EE
1.
[Ans. C]
=
(
At (1, 1, 1)
| |
35.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
f(x) =
(x) =
( )
=
(
)
Putting ( (x) = 0
(
)=0
(
)=0
x = 0 or x = 2 are the stationary points.
Now,
(
) (
(x) =
)(
)
=
(
(
))
=
(
)
(
)=2
At x = 0,
(0) =
Since (x) = 2 is > 0 at x = 0 we have a
minima.
th
th
th
Page 107
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. A]
13.
Mathematics
[Ans. B]
P=
= ,
=, (
= (
1
0
9.
10.
[Ans. D]
=(
)
(
(
) = (0, 2)
(
) = (2, 0)
Equation of starting line
[Ans. C]
f(x) =
( )
( )
So the equation f(x) having only maxima
at x = 1
16.
[Ans. B]
11.
17.
.(
[Ans. A]
Div ( )
=.
= 1+1+1= 3
)
) /
||
/(
||
(
(
=0
is undefined
Discontinuous
12.
o
( )
But at
[Ans. D]
[Ans. B]
(
Along x axis ,y=0,z=0

The integral reduces to zero.
y = 2 x , dy = dx
=(
(
)
Putting

) =1
15.
)
y = 2 x and dy = dx
[Ans. B]
Dot product of two vectors
=1+a+ =0
So orthogonal
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
14.
)-
18.
th
[Ans. A]
( )
o
M
th
) (
) (
(
( )
th
) (
) (
)
(
Page 108
)
)
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. B]
23.
[Ans. A]
( )

( )
( )
24.
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
)(
(
( )
( )
( )
)( )(
)
)
20.
[Ans. C]
( )
( )
(
)
For number of values of
)
o
( ) (
( ) (
( )
IN
1.
o
.
Unit vector along y = x is
/.
)
o . /
. /
2.
[Ans. D]
Using L Hospital Rule., numerator
becomes =
From the graph, distance at
0 . /1
[Ans. 2]
(
22.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. B]
( )
( )
( )
M
21.
Mathematics
3.
()
= ( )
[Ans. B]
Given integral is, I=
Let f(x) = so curve of 1/
th
th
th
will be
Page 109
GATE QUESTION BANK

f(x)
Mathematics
( )
The possible expression for f(x) is

.
7.
-1
[Ans. B]
Error,
This curve will be discontinuous at x=0

o
w
o
For error to be minimum

(
4.
[Ans. A]
(t) =x (t) +y (t) +
Let R
z (t)
|R( ) =K (constant)
i.e., (t) + (t) + (t) = constant.

On analyzing the given (A) option, we find
(t)
that R
( )
[Ans. C]
Given :
f=
+
where,
G
o
+
(i=0 to n) are constant.
+(n 1)
=0+
(n 1)
+n
+
[Ans. B]
( )
8.
[Ans. B]
()
( )
When
( )
( )
Differentiating the above equation

()
,
()
When
( )
When
( )
6.
will give constant magnitude,
= ,
= nf
=
and
so first differentiation of the integration will

be zero.
5.
( ) -
)
From equation (i)
And when
th
th
th
Page 110
GATE QUESTION BANK
()
()
()
()
()
This is Leibnitz linear equation

Integrating factor I.F =
the solution is
()
15.
[Ans. C]
By definition
16.
[Ans. A]
Unit vector=
and
Mathematics
17.
=xi+yj+zk
[Ans. C]
R:
Y
( )
1
1
- o
9.
[Ans. D]
10.
[Ans. A]
This is a standard question of
differentiability & continuity
11.
Area =
[Ans. C]
y=
=(
).(cos x + sin x) = 0
Or x =
y will be maximum at x =
=
[Ans. C]
y(2) =
y(5) =
( )
18.
y=
19.
coulomb.
[Ans. B]
We know that
() (
14.
. /
........
( )
( )
[Ans. C]
y=
y=
[Ans. B]
Given y = x2 + 2x + 10
20.
[Ans. B]
(
For a G.P to converge

(
21.
= 2x + 2
|
( )wh
[Ans. B]
Expansion of sin x
In a G.P
13.
Total charge =
tan x = 1
12.
+1
22.
[Ans. D]
.E=0 is not irrational (it is solenoidal)
[Ans. 1]
From Gauss divergence theorem, we have

th
th
th
Page 111
GATE QUESTION BANK
/dxdydz
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
24.
[Ans. D]
o .
23.
th
th
th
Page 112
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Differential Equations
ME 2005
1.
If x
xy
n y
7.
what is y
(A) e
(B) 1
2.
3.
then
(D) degree 2 order 2

ME 2007
The solution of
(C)
(D)

and 3.
The complete solution of the ordinary
y
y
p
qy
s
x
x
y
Then, p and q are
(A) p =3, q = 3
(C) p =4, q = 3
(B) p =3, q = 4
(D) p =4, q = 4
Which of the following is a solution of the
y
y
p
q
y
x
x
(A)
(C) x
(B) x
(D) x
For
+4
+ 3y =
, the particular
integral is:
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
5.
6.
ME 2008
8.
It is given that
+ 2y + y = 0, y (0) = 0,
y(1) = 0. What is y (0.5)?
(A) 0
(C) 0.62
(B) 0.37
(D) 1.13
9.
Given that x + 3x = 0, and x(0) = 1,

x (0) = 0, what is x(1)?
(A) 0.99
(C) 0.16
(B) 0.16
(D) 0.99
ME 2009
10.
(B) (1+ x)
(D) (1
)= 0 has
with the
(A) y
(C) y
(B) y
(D) y
The Blasius equation,
, is a
(A) second order non-linear ordinary

(B) third order non-linear ordinary
(C) third order linear ordinary
(D) mixed order non-linear ordinary
x)
The partial differential equation
ME 2010
(C) (1 x)
The solution of x
condition y
11.
(A) (1+ x)
(D) 2 x 2
(B) x 1
The solution of the differential equation

2
dy
2xy e x with y (0) = 1 is:
dx
with initial value
y (0) = 1 is bounded in the interval

(C) x 1,x 1
(A) x
ME 2006
4.
ME 2011
12. Consider
the
differential
equation
y x. The general solution with
(A) degree 1 order 2

(B) degree 1 order 1
(C) degree 2 order 1
constant c is
(A) y
th
th
t n
t n
th
Page 113
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B) y
t n (
(C) y
t n ( )
(D) y
t n(
17.
the
differential
y
with the boundary
(B) s n ( )
(D)
u
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
differential
equation
is a
linear equation of order 2

non linear equation of order 1
linear equation of order 1
non linear equation of order 2
subjected to the boundary conditions

u(0) = 0 and u(L) = U, is
(A) u
(C) u
(
)
)
(D) u
t
t
y and
x
,y-
x
+ ,y-
x
,y-
x
+ ,y-
x
+ ,y-
x
+ ,y-
x
,yt
x
,yt
os x
constant, is
(A) y s n x
(B) t n (
(C)
os (
(D) t n (
y with c as a
x
y is
Consider two solution x(t) = x t and

x t
x t of the differential equation
x t
x t
t
su t t
t
x t
x
|
t
x t
|
t
t
s
(A) 1
(B) 1
20.
x t
x t
| t
(C) 0
(D)
The solution of the initial value problem

xy y
ME 2014
16. The matrix form of the linear system
x
__________
The wronskian W(t) =|
where k is a constant,
The general solution of the differential
The solution to the differential equation
(B) u
with
s n( )
19.
partial
at x
equation
equation
conditions of y(0) =0 and y(1) = 1. The

complete solution of the differential
equation is
(A) x
(C)
s n( )
ME 2013
14. The
If y = f(x) is the solution of

the boundary conditions y
18.
ME 2012
13. Consider
x
Mathematics
is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2005
1.
Transformation to
substituting v = y
linear form by
of the equation
+ p(t)y = q(t)y ; n > 0 will be
th
(A)
+ (1 n)pv = (1 n)q
(B)
+ (1 n)pv = (1+n)q
(C)
+ (1+n)pv = (1 n)q
(D)
+ (1+n)pv = (1+n)q
th
th
Page 114
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
The solution of
7.
y
in the range
(A)
(B)
y
x
( os x
( os x
(C)
( os x
(D)
( os x
xy
= x y with the condition that y = 1 at

x = 0 is
is given by
(B) In(y) =
s n x)
s n x)
8.
s n x)
given that at x = 1,
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D) y =
CE 2008
9.
The general solution of

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
+ y = 0 is
y = P cos x + Q sin x
y = P cos x
y = P sin x
y=Psn x
Solution of
(A) x
(B) x
at x = 1 and y = is
y
y
(C) x
(D) x
y
y
CE 2009
11. Solution of the differential equation
3y
= 0.25 y is to be
solv us ng t b w r
mpl t Eul rs
method with the boundary condition y = 1 at
x = 0 and with a step size of 1. What would
be the value of y at x = 1?
(A) 1.33
(C) 2.00
(B) 1.67
(D) 2.33
+4
A body originally at 600C cools down to

C in 15 minutes when kept in air at a
temperature of 250C. What will be the
temperature of the body at the end of 30
minutes?
(A) 35.20C
(C) 28.70C
0
(B) 31.5 C
(D) 150C
y = 0 is
5.
(C) In(y) =
(A) y =
s n x)

x
The solution for the differential equation
( )
CE 2006
3.
A spherical naphthalene ball expanded to
the atmosphere losses volume at a rate
proportional to its instantaneous surface
area due to evaporation. If the initial
diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the
diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months,
the ball completely evaporates in
(A) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(B) 9 months
(D) Infinite time
4.
Mathematics
+ 2x = 0 represents a family of
(A) Ellipses
(B) Parabolas
(C) circles
(D) hyperbolas
CE 2010
12. The order and degree of the differential
equation
+ 4 ( )
respectively
(A) 3 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
CE 2007
6.
The degree of the differential equation
= 0 are
(C) 3 and 3
(D) 3 and 1
+ 2x = 0 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
13.
The solution to the ordinary differential

equation
(A) y =
(B) y =
(C) y =
(D) y =
th
th
+
+
+
+
+
6y = 0 is
th
Page 115
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
The partial differential equation that can

be formed from z = ax + by + ab has the
form (w t p
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
n q
Mathematics
ECE 2006
3.
For the differential equation
d2 y
k2y 0
dx2
the boundary conditions are

(i) y=0 for x=0 and
(ii) y=0 for x=a
The form of non-zero solutions of y
(where m varies over all integers) are
m x
y
sn
z = px + qy
z = px + pq
z = px + qy + pq
z = qx + pq
CE 2011
15. The solution of the differential equation
+ = x, with the condition that y = 1 at
os
m x
x = 1, is
(A) y =
(C) y = +
(B) y = +
(D) y =
CE 2012
16. The solution of the ordinary differential
equation
y=0 for the boundary
ECE 2007
4.
d2 y
y y 2 under the boundary
dx2
conditions
(i) y=y1 at x=0 and
(ii) y=y2 at x=, where k, y1 and y2 are
constants, is
condition, y=5 at x = 1 is
(A) y
(C) y
(B) y
(D) y
CE 2014
17. The
integrating
for
the
equation
k2
differential
s
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
ECE 2005
1.
A solution of the following differential
equation is given by
2x
3x
(C) y e e
2x
3x
(B) y e e
2x
3x
(D) y e e
The following differential equation has
y
y
y
y
xp( x ) y
xp x
y
s n x
y
xp x
y
(A)
t
(B) x t
x t
x t
(C) x t
(D) x t
t
t
ECE 2009
6.
The order of the differential equation
3
d2 y dy
4
t
y e is
dt 2 dt
d2 y
dy
2
4
y 2 x
2
dt
dt
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
y
y
y
y
2x
3x
(A) y e e
y
y
y
y
ECE 2008
5.
Which of the following is a solution to the
d2 y
dy
5 6y 0
2
dx
dx
2.
(A) 1
(B) 2
degree=2, order=1
degree=1, order=2
degree=4, order=3
degree=2, order=3
th
th
(C) 3
(D) 4
th
Page 116
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
Match each differential equation in Group

I to its family of solution curves from
Group II.
Group I
Group II
1. Circles
dy y
P.
dx x
2. Straight Lines
dy
y
Q.
dx
x
3. Hyperbolas
dy x
R.
dx y
S.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
dy
x
dx
y
P-2, Q-3, R-3, S-1

P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-1
P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-3
P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-2
x with the initial condition
A function n x satisfies the differential

equation
where L is a
constant. The boundary conditions are:

n
and n
. The solution to
this equation is
(A) n x
xp x
(B) n x
xp x
(C) n x
xp x
(D) n x
xp x
ECE 2011
10. The solution of the differential equation
y y
(A) x
(B) x
t is
(A) x
(C) xt
(B) x
(D) x
ECE\IN 2012
12. Consider the differential equation
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
wt y t |
n
|
l v lu o
(A)
(B)
y
s ng Eul rs rst or r m t o
with a step size of 0.1, the value of y
is
(A) 0.01
(C) 0.0631
(B) 0.031
(D) 0.1
9.
ECE\EE\IN 2012
11. With initial condition x(1) = 0.5, the
solution of the differential equation,
num r
ECE 2010
8.
Consider a differential equation
y x
Mathematics
is
(C) y
(D) y
y
|
t
(C)
(D) 1
ECE 2013
13. A system described by a linear, constant
coefficient,
ordinary,
first
order
differential equation has an exact solution
given by y t or t
when the forcing
function is x(t) and the initial condition is
y(0). If one wishes to modify the system
so that the solution becomes 2y(t) for
t > 0, we need to
(A) Change the initial condition to y(0)
and the forcing function to 2x(t)
(B) Change the initial condition to 2y(0)
and the forcing function to x(t)
(C) Change the initial condition to
j y(0) and the forcing function to
j x(t)
(D) Change the initial condition to
2y (0) and the forcing function to
2x(t)
ECE 2014
14. If the characteristic equation of the
y
has two equal roots,
t n t v lu s o
(A) 1
(B) 0,0
th
th
r
(C) j
(D) 1/2
th
Page 117
GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
16.
17.
18.
Which ONE of the following is a linear

non-homogeneous differential equation,
where x and y are the independent and
dependent variables respectively?
(A)
xy
(C)
(B)
xy
(D)
If z
EE 2011
3.
With K as a constant, the possible solution
for the first order differential equation
is
xy
(A) x
(C) x
(B) y
(D) y
If a and b are constants, the most general

solution of the differential equation
x
x
x
s
t
t
(A)
(C)
bt
(B)
bt
(D)
With initial values y(0) = y (0) = 1, the
solution of the differential equation
tx
EE 2005
1.
The solution of the first order differential
qu t on x t
3x(t), x (0) = x is
(A) x (t) = x
(C) x (t) = x
(B) x (t) = x
(D) x (t) = x
EE 2013
4.
A function y
x
x is defined over
an open interval x = (1,2). At least at one
point in this interval ,
(A) 20
(B) 25
x
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.
x
x
x
x
t
t
t
t
, the solution is
(C) 30
(D) 35
(B) s n t
os t
(C) s n t
os t
(D) os t
Consider
the
differential
equation
Which of the following is a solution to this

differential equation for x > 0?
(A)
(C) x
(D) ln x
(B) x
with initial conditions

|
t
is exactly
EE 2014
5.
x
x w t n t l on t ons x
t
x
n
|
s
t
(A) t
t
EE 2010
2.
For the differential equation
x
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
xy ln xy then
Mathematics
IN 2005
1.
The general solution of the differential
equation (D2 4D +4)y = 0, is of the form
(given D = d/dx), and C1 and C2 are
constants
(A) C1e2x
(C) C1e2x + C2 e2x
(B) C1e2x + C2
(D) C1e2x + C2x
th
th
th
Page 118
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
urv s or w
t
urv tur t
3
any point is equal to cos w r s t
angle made by the tangent at that point
with the positive direction of the x-axis,
r
gv n
, where y and y
are the first and second derivatives of y

with respect to x)
(A) circles
(C) ellipses
(B) parabolas
(D) hyperbolas
IN 2006
3.
For an initial value problem
y
y
y
y
n y
various solutions are written in the
following groups. Match the type of
solution with the correct expression.
Group 1
Group 2
P. General solution
1. 0.1ex
of homogeneous
equations
Q. Particular integral 2.
(A cos 10 x
+ B sin 10 x)
R. Total solution
3.
cos 10 x +
x
satisfying boundary 0.1e
conditions
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1
4.
A linear ordinary differential equation is

given as
d2 y
dy
3 2y (t)
2
dt
dt
Where (t) is an impulse input. The
solut on s oun by Eul rs orw r difference method that uses an
integration step h. What is a suitable
value of h?
(A) 2.0
(C) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(D) 0.2
Mathematics
IN 2007
5.
The boundary-value problem y
y
y
y
w ll
v non-zero
solut on
n only t v lu s o r
(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)
IN 2008
6.
Consider the differential equation
= 1 + y2. Which one of the following
can be a particular solution of this
differential equation?
(A) y = tan (x + 3) (C) x = tan (y + 3)
(B) y = tan x + 3
(D) x = tan y + 3
IN 2010
7.
Consider
y
the
differential
equation
with y(0)=1. The value of
y(1) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
IN 2011
8.
y
y y
with boundary conditions
y(0) = 1, y(1) = 0. The value of y(2) is
(A) 1
(C)
(B)
(D)
IN 2013
9.
The type of the partial differential
equation
is
(A) Parabolic
(B) Elliptic
10.
th
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Nonlinear
The maximum value of the solution y(t) of

the differential equation y t
y t
with initial conditions y
and
y
, for t
is
(A) 1
(C)
(B) 2
(D)
th
th
Page 119
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
IN 2014
11. The figure shows the plot of y as a
function of x
The function shown is the solution of the

differential equation (assuming all initial
conditions to be zero) is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
|x|
th
th
th
Page 120
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
4.
[Ans. D]
x y
y
xy
x
lnx
x
lnx
x
omp r ng w g t
ow
y(I.F.) =
x y
olv ng bov
utt ng x
x
2.
3.
[Ans. B]
The given differential equation may be
written as
y
y
y
ux l ry qu t on s
lnx
x
Substituting D=2, we get
x
x
n t v lu o
t n n t v lu o y t
5.
[Ans. B]
First order equation,
sy
dy
Py Q,
dx
Where P = 2x and Q =
Since P and Q are functions of x, then
Integrating factor,
[Ans. C]
Given equation is
y
p
qy
x
x
p
q y
p
q
ts solut on s
y
um o roots p
p
ro u t o roots q
q
[Ans. C]
Given equation is
y
y
p
q
x
x
p
q
ut p
n q
y
I.F. = e Pdx e x
Solution is
y
yex x c
Since, y
(1 + x) e
y
6.
,c=1
x2
[Ans. A]
Order: The order of a differential equation
is the order of the highest derivative
appears in the equation
Degree: The degree of a differential
equation is the degree of the highest
order differential coefficient or derivative,
when the differential coefficients are free
from radicals and fraction.
The general solution of differential
qu t on o or r n must nvolv n
arbitrary constant.
th
th
th
Page 121
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
y
( )y x
x
x
Standard form
y
y
x
Where P and Q function of x only and
solution is given by
[Ans. C]
v n
y
y
x
y
x
nt gr t ng
y
nx
and x
[Ans. A]
y
y y
A.E is, D2+2D+1 =0
2=0
m 1
The C.F. is (C1+C2x)e-x
P.I. = 0
ow y
n y
Given condition
y
m ns t x
11.
[Ans. B]
is third order (
is linear, since the product
) and it
is not
allowed in linear differential equation

12.
os t
[Ans. D]
y
x
y
y
t n
10.
[Ans. D]
x
x
Auxiliary equation is
m2 + 3 = 0
i.e. m =
x
os t
sn t
x
os t
s n t
At t = 0
1=A
0=B
x = os t
x x x
yx
r or yx
9.
olut on y x
x
8.
x
x
Where, integrating factor (I.F)

r
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
Given differential equation is
y
x
y x
x
th
y
t n.
th
y x
x
x
x
th
Page 122
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. A]
17.
y
y
x
x
y
x
x
y
n y
Choice (A) satisfies the initial condition as
well as equation as shown below
y x
y
n y
y
lso
x
x
y
x
18.
y
y
x
x
y
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
o y x is the solution to this equation with
given boundary conditions
14.
[Ans. D]
15.
[Ans. B]
m
m
u
u
At x=0,
At x=L,
(
y
x
y
x
y
x
tx
y
y
tx
x
y
x
tx
y
[Ans. D]
y
os x y
x
Let x y z
y
z
x
x
z
os z
x
z
os z
x
z
s
( ) z
x
z
os ( )
Integrating
z
t n( )
x
z
t n( )
x
x
t n(
)
n
19.
u x
Solving we get u = U(
16.
Mathematics
[Ans. A]
x
x
y
t
y
x
y
t
So by observation it is understood that,
x
x
,y- *
+ ,yt
y
)
[Ans. A]
Since the determinant of wronskian
matrix is constant values for, therefore it
is same for both t=0 and t=
t
20.
x t
x t
t
[Ans. B]
y
x x
y
y
ln ( )
x
y
x t
t
x t
ln y
ln
v ny
n
th
y
th
th
Page 123
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE
1.
y
tx
x
[Ans. A]
Given
+ p(t)y = q(t) y
n
y
3.
Multiplying by (1 n) y we get
v
p t
n y
q t
t
Now since y
= v we get
v
n pv
n q
t
Where p is p (t) and q is q(t)
t
Where, V =
4 r
sn x
os
x
sn
x
os x
sn x
os x
r )
t
utt ng r
r
t
dr = kdt
Integration we get
r = kt + C
At t = 0, r = 1
1= k0+C
C=1
r = kt + 1
Now at t = 3 months r = 0.5 cm
0.5 = k 3 + 1
r
r
t
t
Substituting in (i) we get
os x
sn x)
y
(
( os x
[Ans. A]
[Ans. A]
y
y
y
x
x
y
y
( )
x
This is a linear differential equation
+ p(t) y = q(t) y ; n > 0
Given, v = y
v
y
n y
t
t
y
v
t
n y
t
Substitution in the differential equation
we get
2.
Mathematics
n solv ng g v s
t
sn x
t = 6 months
y
os
sn
4.
sn x
os x
[Ans. A]
Given
y
x
xy x
x
y
x
xy x
x
Dividing by x
os x
sn x
sn x
os x
th
th
th
Page 124
GATE QUESTION BANK
y
x
( )y (
)
x
x
x
Which is a linear first order differential of
the form
y
y
x
Integrating factor = I.F =
=
y I.F = .(I.F)dx
x
yx
(
)x x
x
Now at x = 1, y = 0
Hence, here the degree is 1, which is

power of
7.
[Ans. D]
y
x y
x
This is variable separable form
= x dx
y
y
tx
log y
C
x y
y
5.
8.
x
[Ans. B]
=
y +1=0
0) (Newtons law of cooling)
t
=
ln = kt +

C.

C.
Given = 250C
Now t t
60 = 25 + C.e0
C = 35
At t
m nut s
40 = 25 + 35
y
y
y
0.25hy
y
+y =0
Putting k = 0 in above equation
0.25h y
y +y =0
Since, y = 1 and h = 1
0C
=
Now at t = 30 minutes
y =2
6.
y
x
[Ans. C]
y
y y
tx
x
h=1
Iterative equation for backward (implicit)
Euler methods for above equation would
be
y
y
x
y
y
y
y
0.25 y
log y
i.e. 0
Mathematics
= 25 + 35 (
= 25 + 35 ( ) (s n
[Ans. B]
Degree of a differential equation is the
power of its highest order derivative after
the differential equation is made free of
radicals and fractions if any, in derivative
power.
= 31.
th
th
th
Page 125
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
12.
[Ans. A]
+y=0
10.
13.
x x
C=2
Solution is
y
x
[Ans. D]
y y
x n y
x x
This is a linear differential equation of the
form
y
y
wt
n
x
x
x
IF = Integrations factor
x x
y
x
( )
( )
x
(
x x
Solution is
y (IF) =
x
y. x = xx x
yx = x x
y
)
15.
x
x
y
[Ans. C]
y
y
x
x
Auxiliary equation is
+D6=0
(D 2) = 0
D = 3 or D = 2
Solution is y =
[Ans. C]
Z = ax + by + ab
z
p
x
z
q
b
y
Substituting a and b in (i) in terms of p
and q we get z = px + qy + pq
[Ans. A]
y y
y
y
/
0( )
y 1
x
x
The order is 3 since highest differential
14.
x +y =4
y
x
y y
is
3y
y
)
x
Removing radicals we get
At x = 1, y =
11.
The degree is 2 since power of highest

differential is 2
[Ans. D]
y
x
x
y
y dy = x dx
y y
[Ans. A]
y
x
+1=0
E sm
m
General solution is
y=
[ cos (1 x) + sin (1 x)]
= cosx + sinx
= P cosx + Q sinx
Where P and Q are some constants
Mathematics
Which is the equation of a family of ellipses
yx =
th
th
+C
th
Page 126
GATE QUESTION BANK
y=
sin ka=0
m x
Now y(1) = 1
ot
solut on s y
17.
m1 =
m x
1
k
x/k
x/k
C.F. = C1e C2 e
[Ans. D]
x/k
x/k
y2
y= C1e C2 e
At y=y1, x=0
y1 = C1+ C2+y2
At y=y2 , x= Hence C1 must be zero
y1 = C2+y2
C2 =y1 - y2
[Ans. B]
d2 y
dy
5 6y 0
2
dx
dx
A.E. is D2 5D 6 0
D=2,3
2x
3x
Hence, solution is y e e
2.
sn
[Ans. D]
k2D2y= y y2
y 2
2 1
D 2 y 2
k
k
[Ans. D]
y
y
x
y
y
y
Particular integral (P.I) =

=
ECE
1.
x
4.
16.
Mathematics
y=(y1 y2) exp + y2

k
5.
[Ans. B]
x t
x t
t
(D +3) x(t) = 0
[Ans. B]
3
d2 y
dy
2
4
y 2 x
dt
dt 2
So, x t ke3t ,
Hence x t 2e3t is one solution (for
Order of highest derivative=2

Hence, most appropriate answer is (B)
3.
[Ans. A]
Given, Differential equation,
some boundary / initial condition)

6.
[Ans. B]
The order of a differential equation is the
order of the highest derivative involving
in equation, so answer is 2.
The degree of a differential equation is
the degree of the highest derivative
involving in equation, so answer is 1.
7.
[Ans. A]
d2 y
k2y 0
dx2
Auxilary equation is
y
Let y
os x
sn x
At x=0, y = 0 A=0
y
sn x
At x=a, y=0 B sin ka=0
B0 otherwise y=0 always
P.
log y log x log

y
xw
s qu t on o str g t l n
th
th
th
Page 127
GATE QUESTION BANK
Q.
log y
y
log x
y y
y
8.
yp rbol
x x
9.
12.
x
[Ans. D]
t
t t
xt
[Ans. D]
Approach 1:
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
Converting to s-domain
s y s
sy
y
sy s
y s
s
s
y s
s
s
y s
s
s
n nv rs
pl
tr ns orm
y t
t
u t
y t
t
t
y t
|
t
The solution is, n x
Approach 2:
y t
y t
y t
t
t
t
Applying Laplace Transform on both
sides
y
s y s
sy
|
t
(sy s
y
) y s
s y s
s
sy s
y s
s
s
y s
s
s
s
s
[Ans. C]
y t
n x
m
Auxiliary equation m
olut on n x
Since, n
Given y
ln y
When
y
y
Since, n
must be zero)
Therefore
10.
xt
r l
y
old y +0.1 ( ) new
x
y
x y
0 0
0+0
0+0.10=0
=0
0. 0
0.1+0
0+0.10.1=0.01
1 =0.1
0. 0.0 0.2+0.01 0.01+0.210.1
2 =0.21
1
=0.031
The value of y at x= 0.3 is 0.031.
x
x=1
Using initial condition, at t = 1, x = 0.5
ypr bol
Equ t on o
[Ans. B]
y x
y x
x
x y
ol s xt
qu t on o
y y
x
x x
S.
[Ans. C]
t
log
qu t on o
R.
11.
Mathematics
and
x
(hence
t
t
y t
t
t
t
y
y t
|
t
th
th
th
Page 128
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. D]
Let the differential equation be
y t
y t
x t
t
Apply Laplace transform on both sides
y t
{x t }
2
y t 3
t
sy s
y
y s
x s
s
y s
x s
y
x s
y
y s
s
s
Taking inverse Laplace on both sides
x s
{y s }
2
3 y
{
}
s
s
y t
x t
y
So if we want
y t as a solution both
x(t) and y(0) has to be multiplied by
.
Hence change x(t) by
x t and y(0) by
y
14.
15.
[Ans. A]
y
y
y
x
x
The auxiliary equation is
m
m
then either
m
or m
i.e., roots of the equation are equal to
or
17.
18.
EE
1.
xy ln xy
z
x
ox
xy
z
y
[Ans. B]
x
x
x
t
t
Pre auxiliary equation is
m
m
Pre roots of AE are m
Repeated roots are present.
So, most general solution in
n t
bt
[Ans. *] Range 0.53 to 0.55
E m
m
m
olut ons s y
bx
y
bx
b
s ng y
y
n
gv s
n b
y
x
tx
y
[Ans. A]
v n x t
i.e.
x (t)
x
[Ans. A]
t
xy
is a first order linear
equation non
xy
t
x
lnx =
t
x
Putting
x
Now putting initial condition x(0) = x
x
x
Solution is x = x
i.e. x(t) = x
omog n ous
0 is a first order linear
equation (homogeneous)
r non l n r qu t ons
16.
z
y
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
z xy ln xy
z
y ln xy xy
y y ln xy y
x
xy
z
x ln xy xy
x x ln xy x
y
xy
z
ox
xy ln xy xy
x
2.
[Ans. B]
x
x
t
t
th
th
x
th
Page 129
GATE QUESTION BANK
Auxiliary equation m
m
m
m
(m+4)(m+2)=0
m= 2, 4
x(t) =
x(0) = 1 1=
w subst tut y
t
IN
1.
(1)
On solving (1) & (2), we get
[Ans. B]
y
x
x
p n nt rv l
x
y
x
x
y
x
x
Value is in between 20 and 30
So it is 25
[Ans. C]
x
x
gv n
t
x
os t
sn t
x
n
x
sn t
os t
t
x
|
t
x
os t
sn t
2.
[Ans. C]
x y
xy
y
y
x
[Ans. B]
v n
os
y
n
y
now y t n
Equating equations (i) and (ii) and using

equation (iii) in equation (ii), we get
y os = os
y= .x
Which is equation of a parabola.
3.
[Ans. A]
A.E.
D= 1+ 10i
C.F =
(A cos10 x + B sin 10 x)
x
4.
[Ans. C]
5.
[Ans. C]
6.
[Ans. A]
Given
6.
s ts
m
m
m
Since there is double root at 2, so general
solution of the given differential equation
would be
+
and
5.
Integrate on both sides
4.
x(
[Ans. A]
y
[Ans. C]
x(t)= 2
3.
nx
n
Mathematics
= 1 + y2
Integrating
y
y
x
= x
Or t n y = x + c
Or y = t n x
th
th
th
Page 130
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. C]
y
y
x
Auxiliary equation, m + 1 = 0
m= 1
C.F =
10.
[Ans. C]

is
y
x
Now, y
and y
, placing these
values
We get,
and
y
s nx
11.
[Ans. A]
Given partial differential equation is
x
s nx
os x
So, y
os x s n x
or m x m
y
s nx
os x
s nx
os x
x
y
os x s n x
y
or x
m xm
y m x
os
sn
9.
os x
y
y
8.
[Ans. D]
y t
y t
y
y
y=
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
By back tracking, from option (D)
y
|x| x or x
x
= x or x
Integrating
y
x x or x
x
x x or x
x
t
We know that
y
(x y
or
x
or x
is said to be
Parabolic if
Hyperbolic if
El ps
Compare the given differential equation
with standard from A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
Parabolic
th
th
th
Page 131
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Complex Variables
ME 2007
1.
If
x y and (x, y) are functions with
continuous second derivatives, then
x y + i (x, y)
can be expressed as an analytic function
of x + i (i = ), when
(A)
ME 2014
6.
The argument of the complex number

where i =
7.
+
(D)
(A) 2i
(B) 4i
An analytic function of a complex variable

z x + i y is expressed as
z
u x y +iv x y
where i
f u(x,y)= 2xy, then
v(x,y) must be
(A) x + y + onst nt
(B) x
y + onst nt
(C) x + y + onst nt
(D) x
y + onst nt
9.

z = x + i y is expressed as
f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y),
where i =
. If u (x, y) = x y , then
expression for v(x, y) in terms of x, y and
a general constant c would be
(A) xy +
(C) 2xy +
ME 2009
3.
z = x + iy is expressed as
x y
2
2
y
2
y
(C)
x2
2
x y
(D)
ME 2010
4.
The modulus of the complex number
(B)
) is
(A) 5
(B)
(C) 1/
(D) 1/5
traversed in
8.
(C) 2i
(D) 0
f(z) = u(x, y) +iv(x, y) where i = 1 .

If u = xy, the expression of v should be
is evaluate
counter clock wise direction. The integral

is equal to
(A) 0
4
4
ME 2008
2.
The integral z z evaluated around
the unit circle on the complex plane for
z
is
x y
along the circle x + y
(C)
(B)
The integral y x
(B)
(A)
, is
10.
(D)
If z is a complex variable, the value of

is
(A)
i
(B)
0.511+1.57i
(C)
i
(D) 0.511+1.57i
ME 2011
5.
The product of two complex numbers
1 + i and 2 5i is
(A) 7 3i
(C) 3 4i
(B) 3 4i
(D) 7 + 3i
th
th
th
Page 132
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2005
1.
Which one of the following is NOT true for
complex number and ?
(A)
(B) |
(C) |
(D) |
2.
=|
|| |+| |
|| | | |
| +|
|
2| | + 2| |
+
+
z z
z being a complex variable. The value of I

will be
(A) I = 0: singularities set =
(B) I = 0: singularities set
=,
CE 2011
6.
For an analytic function,
f(x + iy) = u(x, y)+iv(x, y), u is given by
u = 3x 3y . The expression for v
considering K to be a constant is
(C) 6x 6y+k
(A) 3y
3x + k
(D) 6xy +k
(B) 6y 6x + k
CE 2014
Consider likely applicable of

u hys
integral theorem to evaluate the following
integral counter clockwise around the
unit circle c.
s
7.
i
i
ECE 2006
1.
The value
of
2.
dz is
(A)
4i
(C)
(B)
(D) 1
(C)
(D)
the
contour
i
i
integral
z in positive sense is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
For the function of a complex variable

W = In Z (where, W = u + jv and
Z = x + jy), the u = constant lines get
mapped in Z-plane as
(A) set of radial straight line
(B) set of concentric circles
(C) set of confocal hyperbolas
(D) set of confocal ellipses
/2: singul riti s s t

{ n n
2
}
CE 2006
3.
Using Cauchys is integral theorem, the
value of the integral (integration being
taken in counter clockwise direction)
can be expressed as
(A)
(B)
(C) I
Mathematics
ECE 2007
3.
If the semi-circular contour D of radius 2
is as shown in the figure, then the value of
the integral
is
CE 2009
4.
The analytic function f(z) =

singularities at
(A) 1 and 1
(B) 1 and i
5.
has
j2
(C) 1 and i
(D) i and i
j2
dz
(A) j
(B) j
(where C is a closed curve given by

|z| = 1) is
(A) i
(C)
(B)
(D) i
th
th
(C)
(D)
th
Page 133
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE 2008
4.
The residue of the function
1
f z
at z=2 is
2
2
z 2 z 2
5.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE 2014
11. C is a closed path in the z-plane given by
|z|=3. The value of the integral
(
12.
The equation sin(z)=10 has

(A) no real or complex solution
(B) exactly two distinct complex
solutions
(C) a unique solution
(D) an infinite number of complex
solutions
is given by
(A) 2
(B) 2 +
, then
ECE 2010
7.
The residues of a complex function
z
and 1
(B)
and
(C)
where C is the
contour |z-i/2| = 1 is
(A) 2i
(C) t n z
(B)
(D) i t n z
EE 2011
2.
A point z has been plotted in the complex
plane, as shown in figure below.
nit ir l
(D)
and
and
ECE 2011
8.
where is the circle |z|
is given by
(A) 0
(C) 4/5
(B) 1/10
(D) 1
Given f (z)
nit ir l
lm
nit ir l
lm
nit ir l
y
lmlm
nit ir l
. If C is a
counterclockwise path in the z plane

such that |z+1| =1, the value of
(A)
(B)
lm
ECE\EE\IN 2012
9.
If x =
then the value of x is
(C) x
(A)
(D) 1
(B)
+ j2
j2
at its poles are
(A)
10.
(C) 4
(D) 4
The real part of an analytic function z

where z x + jy is given by
cos().
The imaginary part of z is
(A)
os x
(C)
sin x
(B)
sin x
(D)
sin x
The value of
(C) 2j
(D) 2j
+ j2
j2
EE 2007
1.
If f(z) =
) z is
(A) 4
(B) 4
ECE 2009
6.
Mathematics
z z is
2
(C)
(D) 2
th
th
th
Page 134
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2013
3.
z evaluated anticlockwise around
the circle |z
(A) 4
(B)
4.
i|
2 where i
(C) 2 +
(D) 2 +2i
Square roots of i, where i =

(A) i, i
(B)
os (
) + i sin (
, is
, are
IN 2005
1.
Consider the circle |
| 2 in the
complex plane (x, y) with z = x + iy. The
minimum distant form the origin to the
circle is
(C) 4
(A) 2 2
(B) 4
(D) 2
2.
Let
, where z is a complex number
not equal to zero. The z is a solution of
(C) z
(A) z
(D) z
(B) z
os ( ) + i sin ( )
(C)
os ( ) + i sin ( )
os ( ) + i sin ( )
(D) os ( ) + i sin (
os (
6.
7.
All the values of the multi-valued complex

function , where i
are
(A) purely imaginary.
(B) real and non-negative.
(C) on the unit circle.
(D) equal in real and imaginary parts.
Integration of the complex function
z
IN 2006
3.
The value of the integral of the complex
function
) + i sin ( )
EE 2014
5.
Let S be the set of points in the complex
plane corresponding to the unit circle.
{z: |z|
} . Consider the
(That is,
function f(z)=zz* where z* denotes the
complex conjugate of z. The f(z) maps S to
which one of the following in the complex
plane
(A) unit circle
(B) horizontal axis line segment from
origin to (1, 0)
(C) the point (1, 0)
(D) the entire horizontal axis
, in the counter clockwise
Mathematics
f(s)
3s 4
(s 1)(s 2)
Along the path s 3 is

(A) 2j
(B) 4j
(C) 6j
(D) 8j
IN 2007
4.
For the function
of a complex variable
z, the point z=0 is

(A) a pole of order 3
(B) a pole of order 2
(C) a pole of order 1
(D) not a singularity
5.
Let j =
(A) j
(B) 1
.Then one value of

(C)
is
(D)
IN 2008
6.
A complex variable
x+j
has its
real part x varying in the range
to + . Which one of the following is
the locus (shown in thick lines) of 1/Z in
the complex plane?
direction, around |z 1| = 1, is
(A) i
(C) i
(B)
(D) 2i
th
th
th
Page 135
l xis
m gin ry
xis
m gin ry
xis
The value of
l xis
where the contour
of integration is a simple closed curve

around the origin, is
(A) 0
(C)
(D)
(B) 2j
8.
If z = x+jy, where x and y are real. The

value of | | is
(A) 1
(C)
(D)
(B)
9.
One of the roots of the equation =j,

where j is positive square root of 1, is
(A) j
(C)
j
(D)
IN 2009
+j
pl n
(Note:
l xis
(B)
z is.
l xis
7.
Mathematics
IN 2010
10. The contour C in the adjoining figure is
described by x + y
. The value of
m gin ry
xis
m gin ry
xis
GATE QUESTION BANK
(A) 2j
(B) 2j
(C) 4j
(D) 4j
IN 2011
11. The contour integral /
with C as
the counter-clockwise unit circle in the zplane is equal to
(A) 0
(C) 2
(B) 2
(D)
th
th
th
Page 136
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics

ME
1.
2.
4.
[Ans. B]
By definition C-R equation holds
[Ans. A]
f(z)=
has simple pole at z = 0
Residue of f(z) at z = 0
lim
z z
lim
os z
z z 2i (residue at z = 0)
2i
2i
3.
[Ans. B]
+ 4i
+ 2i
2i
+ 2i
+ i + 4i
+4
Modulus =
[Ans. C]
Given u=xy
For analytic function
u v
x y
and
5.
[Ans. A]
+i
2
2
i + 2i
6.
7.
y x
8.
+ 2i + i
i
r os
x
r sin
r sin
r os
[Ans. C]
u
v
x
y
v
2y
y
2y
+ x
v
2
y + x
v
u
v
y
x
2x
x
2x
+
x
2
x
x
z2
C
2
Where C is a constant,
z
v
m0 i + 1
2
(x2 y 2 2ixy)
m i
or v
x y
y = r sin x
y r os
or
Integrating, w i
[Ans. C]
u u
i
x y
dw
y ix
dz
Replacing x by z and y by 0, we get
dw
0 iz
dz
Where, z = x + iy
dw = izdz
[Ans. C]
+i
+i
i
i
+i
2i
i
+ i
2
+i
rg (
) t n ( )
i
u
v
y
x
By Milne Thomson method

Let w = u + iv
dw u v
i
dz x x
+ 2i
y 2 x2
2
th
th
th
Page 137
GATE QUESTION BANK
y
y
9.
10.
[Ans. B]
z
ln z|
z
[Ans. B]
s
z
os z
The poles are at z = n + /2
=
/2 /2 + /2
None of these poles lie inside the unit
circle |z| =1
Hence, sum of residues at poles = 0
Singularities set = and
2i [sum o r si u s o t z t th
poles]
2 i
[Ans. C]
iv n u x
y
v
v
v
x+
y
x
y
v
u v
u
y
x x
y
u
u
v
x+
y
y
x
2y x + 2x y
rm ont ing y t rms only llow
v 2 xy +
3.
z z
ln i
ln
ln + ln i
ln
ln
z
os
z i
z
i
ln i ln z
i
(
2
ln
+ ln i
+ i sin
i sin /2
=|
z=
pplying
z
z
u hys int gr l th or m, using

i
.2i ( )/
2i
Now,
ln
i.e.
[Ans. C]
(A) is true since
[Ans. A]
u hys int gr l th or m is
f(a) =
CE
1.
2.
x
x + onst nt
Mathematics
i
.2i 0( )
1/
i
.2i 0( )
1/
4i
(B) is true by triangle inequality of

complex number
(C) is not true since |
|| | | |
(D) is true since
| + |2 = ( + )
+
= ( + ) (z + z )
= z + z + z + z
i
And |
|2 = ( + )
4.
4i
[Ans. D]
z
z
z
z + z
z i z+i
The singularities are at z = i and i
5.
[Ans. C]
= ( + ) (z z )
= z + z
z + z
ii
Adding (i) and (ii) we get
| + |2 + |
|2 = 2 z + 2 z
= 2| | + 2| |
th
th
os 2z
2z
z
*
+
*z
th
Page 138
GATE QUESTION BANK
in
is point with in |z|=1(the
los
urv
w
n us
integral theorem and say that
7.
[Ans. B]
2
i
z
+i
Multiplying by conjugates
2
i
i
+i
i
2i + i
2 +
+ i
2
+
i
u hys
os 2z
[2i ( )] wh r z
2
2
z
[Notice that f(z) is analytic on all points
inside |z|
]
2
[2i
os 2
/2
)
2i
6.
[Ans. D]
f = u + iv
u = 3x2 3y2
For f to be analysis, we have CauchyRiemann conditions,
u
v
i
x
y
u
v
ii
y
x
From (i) we have
u
v
x
x
y
v
ECE
1.
x +
1
1
z 4 z 2j z 2j
2
Pole (0, 2) lies inside the circle |z j|=2

y u hys nt gr l ormul
z
z +4
|z j| 2
2j
2j 2j 2
2.
[Ans. B]
iv n
log
1
y
u iv loge x iy log x2 y 2 i tan 1
2
x
x
v
+ x
2
i.e. v = 3x2 + f(x) iii
Now applying equation (iii) we get
u
v
y
x
[ x+
[Ans. D]
Given ,
x y
Mathematics
Since, u is constant, therefore

1
log x2 y 2 c
2
x +y
Which is represented set
of concentric circles.
3.
[Ans. A]
s
y
x
x
By integrating,
f(x) = 6yx 3x2 + K
Substitute in equation (iii)
v= 3x2 + 6yx 3x2 + K
v
yx + K
2j sum o r si u
Singular points are s =

Only s= +1 lies inside the given contour
lim s 1 f s
Residues at s= +1 = S1
1
1
lim s 1 2
S 1
S 1 2
th
th
th
2j ( )
2
Page 139
GATE QUESTION BANK
4.
[Ans. A]
Residue of z=2 is
d
2
lim z 2 f z
z 2 dz
7.
X(z) =
Poles are Z= 0, Z =1, Z=2
Residue at Z=0 is lim
Residue at Z =1 is lim
Residue z =2 is lim
2 i
)
2 i
8.
[Ans. A]
z+4
z + 4z +
2 im
2 i
2 i
iz
log
2 i
2
2 i + i
2
9.
log i + log(
iz log + i (
2n)
2
+log
iz i (
2n) + log
2
z (
2n) ilog(
2
+
z
10.
z+
z
F z
2 j r si u o
Residue at z = 0 ( 2- order )
i log i
i i
2
x log x
i log
[Ans. C]
z z
2j
z+
z+
where f (z) =1
11.
log y
z
+
ty
log y
(
2
infinite number of complex solutions
sin z
has infinite no. of complex
solutions
[Ans. D]
f(z) = +
+ z
z
z
z + 4z +
z+2 +
2 j will be outside the unit circle
o th t int gr tion v lu is z ro
log y
[Ans. A]
iz
6.
[Ans. C]
2 i
+
F(z
2j
2i
ut m
m
z+
[Ans. D]
sin z
(z
d 1
2
1
lim
lim
2
3
z 2 dz
z
32
z 2
z 2
5.
Mathematics
[Ans. C]
s z
lim
2j
z + 2j
4+ j
2j[ 4 + j
th
th
th
+ 2j
Page 140
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
EE
1.
[Ans. B]
Suppose that z
u x y + iv x y is
analytic then, u and v satisfy the Cauchy
Riemann equation
u
v
u
v
n
x
y
y
x
r u xy
os x
u
v
sin x
x
y
u
v
os x
y
x
v
sin x
z +
2 i
2.
+
o / is outside the unit circle is IV
quadrant
3.
[Ans. A]
z
4
z +4
|z i| 2
z +4
z
4
z
2i
For z
2i
Residue at z +2i
4 4
+2i
z + 2i
+4i
t z 2i li insi
tz
2i li outsi
z
4
o
2i sum o r si u
z +4
2i 2i
4
4.
[Ans. B]
Let + i
i
Squaring both sides we get
+2 i
i
Equating real and imaginary parts
[Ans. B]
Pole (z=i) lies inside the circle. |z-i/2|=1.
Hence
z+i z
2 i i , wh r
z
z
2i
[Ans. D]
Let
+ i
Since Z is shown inside the unit circle in I
quadrant, a and B are both +ve and
+
ow
+ i
i
+
Since
wh n
2
wh n
+
o
+i
in
qu
r nt
wh n
| |
in
) +(
Mathematics
2
2
i
i
+i ( )
2
2
i
i
i
2
2
2
i
i
i
+i
+ i( )
+
2
2
2 2
i
+( )
2
2
os ( ) + i sin ( )
4
4
th
th
th
Page 141
GATE QUESTION BANK
or
5.
os ( ) + i sin ( )
4
4
[Ans. C]
z
zz
}
n s {z: |z|
z
All point of s will be mapped on the
point (1, 0)
6.
[Ans. B]
z
log z i log
z
r l n Non-negative
7.
[Ans. C]
x x
lim z
IN
1.
2.
int gr tion
2i
z+
2
2
o |z |
king
z |z|
|z|
z
uis o th ir l
y
4
[Ans. C]
z
z
Multiply both the side by z, we get
z
z z
|z|
z
|z|
|z| wh r is ngl o z
|z|
since
is a real quantity so in order to
satisfy above equation
has to be real
quantity = 1 and
, (where n =
+2 )
z
z
r
+
2 x
z
lim
z+
quir
2i r s (f(a)) where a is a
singularity in contour c
|z
|
r
n
pol s o z
z
nly z
li s insi |z
s(
y
x
x
|z|
Mathematics
/2
z
3.
[Ans. C]
X X
-2 -1
Cx y y
(Cx (
-3
[Ans. A]
|
+ i | 2
Radius of the circle is 2 and centre is at
+ i
Cx
y(n) n n
y(n)
)y(n))
3s
4
1
2
C3 =
F(s)
C3
.
CC3
(sC 1)(s 2) s 1 s 2
y(n) 3 3
y(n)
y(n)
dz
2
+ i
By Formula,
y y
( (
Since, both
n n
contour,
) )
xy
For distance to be min. The point P will be

on the line passes through origin and
centre of the circle.
Slope of line OP = Slope of line OC
z a 2 j
the poles are enclosed by
therefore
Value of integral=2j + 2 2j
4.
[Ans. B]
Expand by Laurent series
th
th
th
Page 142
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. D]
10.
tx
log
log
2j
11.
x +
x +
2j
[sum o r si
2
o pol
4j
j
j
x +
lim {
x +
j
ption
z
j
j 2[ j
( + +
+
+ ) z
z 2z
z
The only pole of z is at z
, which lies
within |z|
z z 2i (residue)
Note: Residue of z at z
is coefficient
of z i.e. 1, here.
x j
x +
x+j
[Ans. C]
z
[Ans. B]
x+j
7.
log (
j
2
j j
2
log
6.
log (
z=
Pole z
j
Residue at z
log x
[Ans. D]
Mathematics
s tis y th
ov
on itions
[Ans. A]
u hys int gr l ormul is
Here a = 0, then f(0) = sin 0 = 0
8.
[Ans. D]
z x + iy
p | |= |
= |
9.
|
|=
|=
[Ans. B]
Given x3 = j = e+j/2
x
os
+ j sin
+j
2
2
th
th
th
Page 143
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mathematics
Laplace Transform
ME 2007
1.
If F (s) is the Laplace transform of
function f (t), then Laplace transform of
ME 2014
6.
Laplace transform of
is
The Laplace transform of
f (t) dt is
0
(A)
F (s)
(B)
F (s) f (0)
(C) sF (s) f (0)

(D)
ME 2009
2.
The inverse Laplace transform of

is
(A)
(B)
1
2
(C) 1
(D)
ME 2010
3.
The Laplace transform of a function
. The function
(B)
is
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2012
4.
The inverse Laplace transform of the
function F(s)
is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
ME 2013
5.
The function
equation
satisfies the differential

and the auxiliary
conditions,
Laplace transform of
. The
is given by
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2009
1.
Laplace transfrm of the function
f(x) = cosh(ax) is
(A)
(C)
(D)
ECE - 2005
1.
In what range should Re(s) remain so
that the Laplace transform of the function
exists.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
ECE 2006
2.
A solution for the differential equation
x(t)+2x(t)= (t) with initial condition
x( )=0 is
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
ECE 2008
3.
Consider the matrix P = *
+ . The
value of eP is
(A) *
(B) [
(C) [
(D) [
th
th
th
Page 144
GATE QUESTION BANK
ECE - 2010
4.
The trigonometric Fourier series for the
waveform f(t) shown below contains
Mathematics
The numerical value of

(A)
(B)
is
(C)
(D)
ECE 2013
9.
A system is described by the differential
equation
=x(t). Let x(t)
be a rectangular pulse given by

,
(A) Only cosine terms and zero value for

the dc component
(B) Only cosine terms and a positive
value for the dc component
(C) Only cosine terms and a negative
value for the dc component
(D) Only sine terms and a negative value
for the dc component.
5.
Assuming that y(0) = 0 and

the Laplace transform of y(t) is
Given
[
then the value of K is

(A) 1
(C) 3
(B) 2
(D) 4
10.
ECE 2011
6.
If
then the initial
and final values of f(t) are respectively

(A) 0, 2
(C) 0, 2/7
(B) 2, 0
(D) 2/7, 0
The maximum value of the solution y(t) of

the differential equation y(t) +
with initial condition
and
(A) 1
(C)
(B) 2
(D)
ECE 2014
11. The unilateral Laplace transform of
. Which one of the following
is the unilateral Laplace transform of
?
ECE/EE/IN 2012
7.
The unilateral Laplace transform of f(t) is
. The unilateral Laplace transform
8.
of t f(t) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
EE 2005
12. For the equation
(t) + 3 (t) + 2x(t) = 5, the solution
x(t) approaches which of the following
values as t
?
(A) 0
(C) 5
(D) 10
(B)
th
th
th
Page 145
GATE QUESTION BANK
EE 2014
13.
14.
Let
be
the
transform of signal x(t). Then,

(A) 0
(C) 5
(B) 3
(D) 21
Laplace
is
Mathematics
[
Let g: [
be a function
[ ] where [x]
defined by g(x)
represents the integer part of x. (That is,
it is the largest integer which is less than
or equal to x). The value of the constant
term in the Fourier series expansion of
g(x) is_______

ME
1.
5.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
From definition,
We know
2.
Taking Laplace transformation on both

sides
[
]
[ ]
( )
( )
[Ans. C]
1
1
1
1

(s2 s) s(s 1) s (s 1)
(
( )
)
(
[
3.
[Ans. A]
[
6.
[Ans. D]
[
Matching coefficient of
in numerator we get,
s and constant
CE
1.
4.
[Ans. B]
It is the standard result that
L (cosh at) =
ECE
1.
[Ans. A]
[
[Ans. D]
{
}
{
th
th
th
Page 146
GATE QUESTION BANK
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
(t) + 2x (t) = (t)
Taking Laplace transform of both sides ,
we get
sX(s) X(0) + 2X(s) = 1
1
X(s) =
s2
From Inverse Laplace transform gives, we
get
[
]
[Ans. D ]
eP=
[
Therefore, the trigonometric Fourier

series for the waveform f(t) contains only
cosine terms and a negative value of the
dc component.
5.
[Ans. D]
0 1
and P =
2 3
s 1
=
2 s+3
Where
Mathematics
s 3 1
s 1 s 2 2 s
1
s 3
s 1 s 2
=
s 1 s 2
s 1 s 2
s 1 s 2
6.
[Ans. B]
Using initial value theorem:
eP
2
1
s 1 s 2
2 2
s 1 s 2
1
1
s 1 s 2
2
1
s 2 s 1
=[
4.
=2
[Ans. C]
Since f(t) is an even function, its
trigonometric Fourier series contains
only cosine terms
*
[
7.
[Ans. D]
)]
th
th
th
Page 147
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Mathematics
[Ans. D]
For t =
Taking Laplace transform on both the
sides. We have,
+ sin
11.
[Ans. D]
By Laplace transform property,
9.
]
[
12.
[Ans. B]
Writing in terms of Laplace transform
[Ans. B]
=5
By taking Laplace transform
(
X(s) =
13.
[Ans. B]
(
(
14.
10.
[Ans. 0.5]
[Ans. D]
Value of constant term = 0.5
th
th
th
Page 148
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Pressure and its Measurement

CE 2005
1.
The reading of differential manometer of a Venturimeter, placed at
to the horizontal is 11cm. If
the venturimeter is turned to horizontal position, the manometer reading will be
(A) Zero
(C) 11cm
(D) 11 cm
(B)
cm
Answer Keys & Explanations

1.
[Ans. C]
The manometer reading of a venturimeter does not depend upon the inclination of venturimeter
with the horizontal.
th
th
th
Page 149
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Hydrostatic Forces on Plane Surfaces

CE 2005
1.
Cross section of an object (having same
section normal to the paper) submerged
into a fluid consists of a square of sides 2
m and triangle as shown in the figure. The
object is hinged at point P that is one
meter below the fluid free surface. If the
object is to be kept in the position as
shown in the figure, the value of x should
be
2m
CE 2014
4.
Three rigid buckets, shown as in the
figures (1), (2) and (3), are of identical
heights and base areas. Further, assume
that each of these buckets have negligible
mass and are full of water. The weights of
water in these buckets are denoted as
d
respectively. Also, let the
force of water on the base of the bucket
be denoted as F F
d F respectively.
The option giving an accurate description
of the system physics is
1m
2m
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 4 m
(D) 8 m
ALL THREE BUCKETS HAVE THE SAME BASE AREA

(1)
CE 2009
2.
Water (
) flows with a
flow rate of 0.3 /sec through a pipe AB
of 10m length and of uniform cross
section. The end B is above and A and
the pipe makes an angle of
to the
horizontal for a pressureof 12 kN/
at
the end B, the corresponding pressure at
the end A is
(A) 12.0 kN/
(C) 56.4 kN/
(B) 17.0 kN/
(D) 61.4 kN/
(3)
(2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
dF
dF
dF
dF
F
F
F
F
F
F
F
F
CE 2012
3.
If a small concrete cube is submerged
deep in still water in such a way that the
pressure exerted on all faces of the cube
is p, then the maximum shear stress
developed inside the cube is
(A) 0
(C) p
(D) 2p
(B)
th
th
th
Page 150
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. A]
The vertical force on the surface bounded
by square and triangle would be
respectively,
(
)
F
for squ re edge d ti g t
fro
)
F
x(
for i li ed edge of
triangle and acting at x/3 from P
Taking moment of both the forces about
P, we get
x
F
F
x
(
)
)
x(
x
x
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
P
P
P
Maximum shear stress,
4.
[Ans. D]
Force on base of Bucket, F

hA
Base area of all buckets is same
So, F
F
F
Weight of water,
i e
o
[Ans. D]
Applyi g Ber oullis equ tio betwee A
and B, we get
B
10m
z
300
z = 10 sin 300
z = 5 cm
p
p
p
p
z
g
=p + z
= 12 + 9.879 x 5
= 12 + 49.4
= 61.4 kN/m2
th
th
th
Page 151
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Kinematics of Flow
CE 2005
1.
An inert tracer is Injected continuously
from a point in an unsteady flow field. The
locus of locations of all the tracer particles
at an instance of time represents
(A) Streamline
(B) Pathline
(C) Stream tube
(D) Streakline
2.
A stream function is given by:
x y + (x + 1) y
The flow rate across a line joining point
A(3,0) and B(0,2) is
(A) 0.4 units
(C) 4 units
(B) 1.1 units
(D) 5 units
3.
The ir ul tio G rou d

ir le of
radius 2 units for the velocity field
u = 2x + 3y and v = 2y is
(A)
u its
(C)
u its
(B)
u its
(D)
u its
6.
A particle moves along a curve whose

parametric equations are: x t
t
y
e and z = 2 sin (5t), where x, y
and z show variations of the distance
covered by the particle (in cm) with time
t (in s). The magnitude of the acceleration
of the particle (in
s ) at t = 0 is
__________
CE 2006
4.
The velocity field for Flow is given by:
= (5x + 6y + 7z) + (6x + 5y + 9z) +
( x
y z) and the density varies as
exp( 2t). In order that the mass is
overed the v lue of should be
(A) 12
(C) 8
(B) 10
(D) 10
CE 2014
5.
A plane flow has velocity components,
u
v=
and w = 0 along x, y and z
direction respectively, where T (
) and
T(
) are constants having the
dimension of time. The given flow is
incompressible if
(A) T
T
(C) T
(B) T
(D) T
th
th
th
Page 152
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. D]
2.
[Ans. C]
The rate of flow is the difference in value
of stream function at points A and B
|
Q = |
= 2 ( ) 0 + (3 +1) ( ) = 0
= 2 ( ) 2 + (0 +1) ( ) = 4
|
Q |
= 4 units
3.
4.
[Ans. 12]
x t
t
y
e
z
si ( t)
dx
t
dt
d x
t
dt
dy
e
(
dt
e
d
dt
dz
os (
dt
d z
dt
[Ans. B]
Circulation = Vorticity Area
v
u
(
) Are
x
y
(
)
( )
u its
e
t)
si
tt
Magnitude of acceleration at t = 0
s
[Ans. C]
The continuity equation is given by
(u)
( )
(w)
ow
e
t
u
v
w

x
y
z
5.
6.
[Ans. D]
For a flow to exist
u
v
x
y
T
T
T
T
th
th
th
Page 153
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Dynamics
CE 2006
1.
The necessary and sufficient condition for
surf e to be lled s free surf e is
(A) No stress should be acting on it
(B) Tensile stress acting on it must be
zero
(C) Shear stress acting on it must be zero
(D) No point on it should be under any
stress
CE 2014
5.
An incompressible homogeneous fluid is
flowing steadily in a variable diameter
pipe having the large and small diameters
as 15 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the
velocity at a section at the 15 cm diameter
portion of the pipe is 2.5 m/s, the velocity
of the fluid (in m/s) at a section falling in
5 cm portion of the pipe is ___________
CE 2007
2.
At two points 1 and 2 in a pipeline the
velocities are V and 2V, respectively. Both
the points are at the same elevation. The
fluid de sity is The flow
be
assumed to be incompressible, inviscid,
steady and irrotational. The difference in
pressures and at points 1 and 2 is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
6.
A venturimeter, having a diameter of

7.5 cm at the throat and 15 cm at the
enlarged end, is installed in a horizontal
pipeline of 15 cm diameter. The pipe
carries an incompressible fluid at a steady
rate of 30 litres per second. The
difference of pressure head measured in
terms of the moving fluid in between the
enlarged and the throat of the
venturimeter is observed to be 2.45 m.
Taking the acceleration due to gravity as
9.81
s , the coefficient of discharge of
the venturimeter (correct up to two
places of decimal) is ______________
7.
Group I lists a few devices while Group II

provides information about their uses.
Match the devices with the corresponding
use.
Group I
Group II
P. Anemometer 1. Capillary potential of
soil water
Q. Hygrometer
2. Fluid velocity at a
specific point in the
flow stream
P. Pitot Tube
3. water vapour content
of air
S. Tensiometer
4. Wind speed
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE 2011
3.
For a body completely submerged in a
fluid, the centre of gravity (G) and centre
of Buoyancy (O) are known. The body is
considered to be in stable equilibrium is
(A) O does not coincide with the centre of
mass of the displaced fluid
(B) G coincides with the centre of mass of
the displaced fluid
(C) O lies below G
(D) O lies above G
CE 2013
4.
For a two dimensional flow field, the
stre
fu tio
is give
s
=
) . The magnitude of
discharge occurring between the stream

lines passing through points (0,3) and
(3,4) is :
(A) 6
(C) 1.5
(B) 3
(D) 2
th
th
th
Page 154
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
Fluid Mechanics
A venturimeter having a throat diameter

of 0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate
of a horizontal pipe having a diameter of
0.2 m. For an observed pressure
difference of 2 m of water head and
coefficient of discharge equal to unity,
assuming that the energy losses are
negligible, the flow rate (in
/s) through
the pipe is approximately equal to
(A) 0.500
(C) 0.050
(B) 0.150
(D) 0.015

1.
[Ans. C]
2.
[Ans. B]
Applying Ber oullis equ tio we get
+
( )
+z=
FB
O
Balloon
G
W
+z
FB
=
=
3.
Fig (ii)
Fig (i)
he vily lo ded so th t its G is lower th

its O s show i Figure (i) let
weight of balloon acting down and FB is
buoyant force action vertically up. For
equilibrium of the balloon FB = W.
if the balloon is distributed in clockwise
dire tio s show i figure (ii) the FB
d o stitute
ouple ti g i the
anti clock wise direction and brings the
system in the original position.
Conclusion:
When FB =W and centre of buoyancy (O)
is above centre of gravity (G), the body
completely submerged in a fluid is said to
be in stable equilibrium.
[Ans. D]
A submerged body is said to be in stable
equilibrium, if it comes back to its original
position after a slight disturbance. The
relation position of the centre of gravity
(G) and centre of buoyancy (O) of a
determines the stability of a sub merged
body.
The position of G and O in case of
completely sub merged body are fixed.
Figure below shows a balloon submerged
in air with bottom portion.
4.
[Ans. B]
u its
th
th
th
Page 155
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
Fluid Mechanics
[Ans. *] (Range 22 to 23)

Using equation of continuity
A
A
s
6.
[Ans. *] Range 0.93 to 0.96
l
s
gh
C
7.
[Ans. D]
8.
[Ans. C]
Given
Dia of throat d = 0.1 m
Dia of pipe D = 0.2 m
Pressure difference
Coefficient of discharge C
Discharge
A
) and A
se
th
th
th
Page 156
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Flow Through Pipes

CE 2012
1.
The circular water pipes shown in the
sketch are flowing full. The velocity of
flow (i
s) i the br h pipe is
dia = 4m
P
Q
V = 6 m/s
V = 5 m/s
R
V= ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
dia = 2 m
(C) 5
(D) 6
CE 2013
2.
A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter
connects two reservoirs. The difference
between water levels in the reservoirs is
8 m. The Darcy Weisbachfriction factor
of the pipe is 0.04. Accounting for
frictional, entry and exit losses, the
velocity in the pipe (in m/s) is:
(A) 0.63
(C) 2.52
(B) 0.35
(D) 1.25
CE 2014
3.
An incompressible fluid is flowing at a
steady rate in a horizontal pipe. From a
section, the pipe divides into two
horizontal parallel pipes of diameters
d
d d (where d
d ) that run for
a distance of L each and then again join
back to a pipe of the original size. For
both the parallel pipes, assume the head
loss due to friction only and the
Darcy Weisbach friction factor to be the
same. The velocity ratio between the
bigger and the smaller branched pipes is
_________
4.
A straight 100 m long raw water gravity

main is to carry water from an intake
structure to the jack well of a water
treatment plant. The
required flow
through this water main is 0.21
s.
Allowable velocity through the main is
0.75 m/s. assume f = 0.01, g = 9.81 m/ .
The minimum gradient (in cm/100 m
length) to be given to this gravity main so
that the required amount of water flows
without any difficulty is _________
th
th
th
Page 157
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. B]
3.
[Ans. 2]
d
4 mm
4 mm
V = 5 m/s
V = 6 m/s
Since pipes are in parallel

So, head loss will be same
f
f
d
g d
g
d
d
d
d
2 mm
( )
( )
( )
2.
4.

s
Allowable velocity = 0.75 m/s
f = 0.01
g = 9.81
d
[Ans. A]
Applyi g Ber oullis theore
t e try d
exit.
p
p
losses
g
Hence both reservoirs are at atmospheric
pressure, and mean velocity is same at
entry and exit.
|
| h
fl
|
|
g
g
gd
d
flv
gd
i i u
g
gr die t
Hence, answer is 4.8.
h
l
g
Upon solving
u
s
th
th
th
Page 158
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Impulse Momentum Equation and Its Application

CE 2005
1.
A tank and a deflector are placed on a
frictionless trolley. The tank issues water
jet (mass density of water = 1000
kg/m3), which strikes the deflector and
turns by 45. if the velocity of jet leaving
the deflector s 4 m/s and discharge is
0.1
/s, the force recorded
by the
spring will be
CE 2007
2.
A horizontal water jet with a velocity of
10m/s and cross sectional area of 10 mm2
strikes a flat plate held normal to the flow
direction. The density of water is
1000 kg/ . The total force on the plate
due to the jet is
(A) 100 N
(C) 1 N
(B) 10 N
(D) 0.1 N
Spring
Tank
Jet of water
Deflector
Trolley
(A) 100N
(B) 100 N
(C) 200 N
(D) 200 N

1.
[Ans. D]
Force in spring will be the force in
horizontal direction.
F
os
os
2.
[Ans. C]
The force is given by
F
F
x
x
F
x(
th
th
th
Page 159
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Flow through Orifices and Mouth Pieces

CE 2010
1.
Match List 1( Devices) with List II (Uses) and select the answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I
A. Pitot tube
B. Manometer
C. Venturimeter
D. Anemometer
List II
1. Measuring pressure in a pipe
2. Measuring velocity of flow in a pipe
3. Measuring air and gas velocity
4. Measuring discharge in a pipe
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(A) 1
2
4
3
(B) 2
1
3
4
(C) 2
1
4
3
(D) 4
1
3
2

1.
[Ans. C]
th
th
th
Page 160
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Boundary Layer Flow

CE 2006
1.
The thickness of the laminar boundary
layer on a flat plate at a point A is 2cm
and at a point B, 1m downstreams of A, is
3cm. What is the distance of A from the
leading edge of the plate?
(A) 0.50 m
(C) 1.00 m
(B) 0.80 m
(D) 1.25m
CE 2008
2.
The flow of water
(mass density = 1000kg/
and
kinematic viscosity =
/s) in a
commercial pipe, having equivalent
roughness
as 0.12 mm, yields an
average shear stress at the
pipe boundary = 600 N/ . The value of
( bei g the thi
ess of l i r
sub-layer) for this pipe is
(A) 0.25
(C) 6.0
(B) 0.50
(D) 8.0

1.
[Ans. B]
Laminar boundary layer thickness,
2.
[Ans. D]
We know that
v
But
th
th
th
Page 161
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Viscous Flow
CE 2006
1.
The flow of glycerin (kinematic viscosity
v=5
s) in an open channel is
to be modeled in a laboratory flume using
water (v =
/s) as the flowing
fluid. If both gravity and viscosity are
important. What should be the length
scale (i.e ratio of prototype to model
dimensions) for maintaining dynamic
similarity?
(A) 1
(C) 63
(B) 22
(D) 500
Common Data for Question 2 and 3
An upwards flow of oil (mass density
800 kg/ , dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/m-s)
takes place under laminar conditions in
an inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as
shown in the figure. The pressure at
sections 1 and 2 are measured as
p = 435 kN/
and p = 200 kN/
2
5m
2.
3.
The discharge in the pipe is equal to

(A) 0.100
/s
(C) 0.144
/s
(B) 0.127
/s
(D) 0.161
/s
If the flow is reversed, keeping the same
discharge, and the pressure at section 1 is
maintained as 435 kN/ , the pressure at
section 2 is equal to
(A) 488 kN/
(C) 586 kN/
(B) 549 kN/
(D) 614 kN/
CE 2007
4.
Flow rate of a fluid (density = 1000 kg/ )
in a small diameter tube is 800 m /s. The
length and the diameter of the tube are 2 m
and 0.5 mm, respectively. The pressure
drop in 2 m length is equal to 2.0 MPa. The

viscosity of the fluid is
(A) 0.025 N-s/
(C) 0.00192 N-s/
(B) 0.012 N-s/
(D) 0.00102 N-s/
CE 2008
Statements for Linked answer questions
5&6
An automobile with projected area 2.6
is running on a road with a speed of
120 km per hour. The mass density and
the kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2
kg/
and 1.5
/s respectively.
The drag coefficient is 0.30
5.
The drag force on the automobile is
(A) 620N (B) 600N (C) 580N (D) 520N
6.
The metric horse power required to

overcome the drag force is
(A) 33.23
(C) 23.23
(B) 31.23
(D) 20.23
CE 2009
7.
Water flows through a 100 mm diameter
pipe with a velocity of 0.015 m/sec. If the
kinematic viscosity of
water is
1.13
/sec the friction factor of
the pipe materials is
(A) 0.0015
(C) 0.037
(B) 0.032
(D) 0.048
CE 2011
8.
A single pipe of length 1500 m and
diameter 60 cm connect two reservoirs
having a difference of 20m in their water
levels. The pipe is to be replaced by two
pipes of the same length and equal
di eter d to o vey
%
ore
discharge under the same head loss. If the
friction factor is assumed to be the same
for all the pipes the v lue of d is
approximately equal to which of the
following options ?
(A) 37.5 cm
(C) 45.0 cm
(B) 40.0 cm
(D) 50.0 cm
th
th
th
Page 162
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2012
9.
A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at
the base and has a side slope of 4
horizontal to 3 vertical. The bed slope is
0.002. the channel is lined with smooth
Concrete (
i gs
) The
hydraulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow
of 3.0 m is
(A) 20.0
(C) 3.0
(B) 3.5
(D) 2.1
10.
11.
13.
A rectangular open channel of width 5.0m

is carrying a discharge of 100
/s. The
Froude number of the flow is 0.8. The
depth of flow ( in m) in the channel is
(A) 4
(C) 16
(B) 5
(D) 20
Fluid Mechanics
With reference to a standard Cartesian

(x, y) plane, the parabolic velocity
distribution profile of fully developed
laminar flow in x-direction between two
parallel, stationary and identical plates
that are separated by distance, h, is given
by the expression
h dp
y
u
[
( ) ]
dx
h
I this equ tio the y = 0 axis lies
equidistant between the plates at a
distance h/2 from the two plates, p is the
pressure variable and is the dynamic
viscosity term. The maximum and
average velocities are, respectively
(A) u
du
(B) u
The top width and the depth of flow in a

triangular channel were measured as 4m
and 1m, respectively. The measured
velocities on the centre line at the water
surface, 0.2m and 0.8m below the surface
are 0.7 m/s, 0.6 m/s and 0.4m/s,
respectively. Using two point method of
velocity measurement, the discharge ( in
/s) in the channel is
(A) 1.4
(C) 1.0
(B) 1.2
(D) 0.8
du
(C) u
u
u
du
(D) u
du
u
u
CE 2014
12. The dimension for kinematic viscosity is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
th
Page 163
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics

1.
[Ans. C]
Equating Reynolds number and Froude
number, we get
=
= (v )
=
But
Here, CD = 0.30, A = 2.6m2

V = 120 kmph
(
F
=2
=(
= 0.0159
6.
+ 5sin
7.
Reynolds number, Re =
16.19 = 0.127
/s
= 1327.43 < 2000
Hence flow is laminar
+ 5 sin
= 614.48 kN/
4.
= 614 kN/
8.
[Ans. D]
Figure blow shows a single pipe which
connects two reservoirs.
[Ans. C]
Applying Hazen-Poiseuille equation, the
drop in pressure is given by
But
[Ans. D]
[Ans. D]
When the flow is reversed, then
+
V = 16.19 m/s
Q = AV
=
)
(
w tt
3,
[Ans. C]
Power required to overcome the drag =
Drag force velocity
[Ans. B]
Applyi g Ber oullis equ tio betwee
(1) and (2)
=
FD = 520 N
=
=
3.
[Ans. D]
The drag force on the automobile may be
given as
F
C A
v =
2.
5.
(1)
20m
60 cm
D
(2)
datum
Q1
V1
L=1500m
)
s
Let V1 = velocity of water flow in single

pipe (m/s)
Q1 = Discharge in single pipe ( /S)
hf = Head loss due to friction in single
pipe (m)
s
)
s
s
th
th
th
Page 164
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
[where f
Substitute (1) & (3) in (2),
Fri tio f tor]
gD
From continuity equation
Fluid Mechanics
)
d (
Obtain d = 0.497 m = 49.7 cm say 50 cm
epl e
Fro
9.
Ber oullis equ tio

h
[Ans. D]
3V
10m
h
for uniform diameter pipe ]
[
h
f
4H
A
A
* D +
Where D = 0.6 m
f
3v
4H
(B
y)y
D
y
B
(
( )
( )
f
In case of two pipes of the same length
d equ l di eter d (p r llel pipe
system), discharge in each pipe will be
the same. As the discharge in each parallel
pipe is same, hence velocity will also be
dame in parallel pipe, given 25%
10.
[Ans. A]
5m
20m
B = 5m
Q = 100
Fr = 0.8
y=?
2Q2
Q2
d
Q2
2Q2
/s
gy
A
L1=L2= 1500m
( )
h
Agy
gd
epl e
y
y
d
(
11.
gd
d
d
f
[Ans. C]
Area of flow =
Aver ge velo ity

( )
th
th
th
Page 165
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
s
A
12.
[Ans. C]
Di e sio s of re
13.
since in SI unit
s since
[Ans. A]
h/2
h/2
Velocity for a laminar flow between two

parallel plates is given as
h dp
y
u
( )[
( ) ]
dx
h
E d o ditio u u
ty
h dp
u
( )
dx
Discharge, dQ = Area velo ity
dQ =
( )[
h
h
dp
( ) (
dx
(
( ) ] (dy
y
) dy
h
dp
)
dx
A
dp
)
( ) (h
dx
h dp
( )
dx
( )
( )
th
th
th
Page 166
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Dimensional Analysis
CE 2007
1.
A 1 : 50 scale model of a spillway is to be
tested in the laboratory. The discharge in
the prototype is 1000
/s. The
discharge to be maintained in the model
test is
(A) 0.057
/s
(C) 0.57
/s
(B) 0.08 /s
(D) 5.7 /s
CE 2013
3.
Group I contains dimensionless
parameters and Group II contains the
ratios.
Group I
Mach
Number
Group II
P.
1.
Ratio of inertial
force and
gravitational force
Q. Reynolds 2.
Ration of fluid
Number
velocity and
velocity of sound
R.
Weber
3.
Ratio of inertial
Number
force and viscous
force
S.
Froude 4.
Ratio of inertial
Number
force and surface
tension force
The correct match of dimensionless
parameters in Group I with ratios in
Group II is:
(A) P 3, Q 2, R 4, S 1
(B) P 3, Q 4, R 2, S 1
(C) P 2, Q 3, R 4, S 1
(D) P 1, Q 3, R 2, S 4
CE 2008
2.
A river reach of 2.0 km long with
maximum flood discharge of 10000
/s
is to be physically modeled in the
laboratory where maximum available
discharge is 0.20
/s. For a
geometrically similar model based on
equality of Froude number, the length of
the river reach (m) in the model is
(A) 26.4
(C) 20.5
(B) 25.0
(D) 18.0

1.
[Ans. A]
Froude model law will be applicable in
this case.
=(
= 0.057
3.
/sec
=1
[ gr = 1]
Vr =
Now, we have
x
Lm = 26.4 m
[Ans. C]
1. Froude number lined inertial force to
gravitational force
2. Reynolds number is ratio of inertial
forces to viscous force
3. Mach number classifier force as
subsonic sonic are supersonic
depending upon ratio of velocity of
fluid velocity and velocity of sound
4. Weber number is ratio of inertial
force to surface tension force
[Ans. A]
According to Froude Model law
( )
)
= 1000 x( )
2.
x
th
th
th
Page 167
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Impacts of jets and Turbines

CE 2007
1.
A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10 m/s and cross sectional area of 10
strikes a flat
plate held normal to the flow direction. The density of water is 1000 kg
. The total force on the
plate due to the jet is
(A) 100 N
(C) 1 N
(B) 10 N
(D) 0.1 N

1.
[Ans. C]
The force is given by
F=
F
F
th
th
th
Page 168
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Fluid Mechanics
Open Channel Flow

CE 2007
1.
The flow rate in a wide rectangular open
channel is 2.0
s per meter width. The
h
el bed slope is
The
i gs
roughness coefficient is 0.012. The slope
of the channel is classified
(A) Critical
(C) Mild
(B) Horizontal
(D) Steep
CE 2010
2.
A mild sloped channel is followed by
steep-sloped channel. The profiles of
gradually varied flow in the channel are
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2011
3.
The flow in a horizontal, frictionless
rectangular open channel is supercritical.
A smooth hump is built on the channel
floor. As the height of hump is increased,
choked condition is attained. With further
increase in the height of the hump, the
water surface will
(A) Rise at a section upstream of the
hump
(B) Drop at a section upstream of the
hump
(C) Drop at the hump
(D) Rise at the hump

1.
[Ans. D]
The critical depth for a rectangular
channel is given by
y
( )
q
( )
(
)
g
si g
i gs equ tio we get
(y )
(y )
y
For steep slopes y
2.
[Ans. D]
3.
[Ans. B]
The height of the hump attains its
maximum value at the choked condition.
Increasing the height of hump after
chocked condition results in hydraulic
jump formation in case of super critical
flow. Thus height of water surface will
drastically changes upstream and
downstream of hump.
th
th
th
Page 169
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Hydraulics & Hydraulic Machinery

CE 2005
1.
A horizontal bed channel is followed by a
steep bed channel as shown in the figure.
The gradually-varied profiles over the
horizontal and steep beds are
5.
A launching apron is to be designed at

downstream of a weir for discharge
intensity of 6.5 m sm. For the design of
launching aprons the scour depth is taken
two times of Lacey scour depth. The silt
factor of the bed material is unity. If the
tailwater depth is 4.4m, the length of
launching apron in the launched position
is
(C) 5 m
(A) 5m
(B) 4.7 m
(D) 55 m
Horizontal bed
Steep bed
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
3.
H
H
H
H
and S
and S
and S
and S
respectively
respectively
respectively
respectively
Critical depth at a section of a rectangular

channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy at
that section is
(A) 0.75 m
(C) 1.5 m
(B) 1.0 m
(D) 2.25 m
7.
Identify the FALSE statement from the

following the specific speed of the pump
increase with
(A) Increase in shaft speed
(B) Increase in discharge
(C) Decrease in gravitational
acceleration
(D) Increase in head
8.
A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular

horizontal, frictionless channel. What
would be the pre-jump depth if the
discharge per unit width is 2 m /s/m and
the energy loss is 1m?
(A) 0.2
(C) 0.8m
(B) 0.3m
(D) 0.9m
9.
A very wide rectangular channel is

designed to carry a discharge of 5 m /s
per meter width. The design is based on
the mannings equations with the
roughness coefficient obtained from the
grain size using Stricklers equation and
results in a normal depth of 1.0m by
A partially open sluice gate discharge

water into a rectangular channel. The tail
water depth in the channel is 3m and
Froude number is
. If a free hydraulic
jump is to be formed at downstream of

the sluice gate after the vena contracta of
the jet coming out from the sluice gate,
the sluice gate opening should be
(co-efficient of contraction C = 0.9)
(A) 0.3 m
(C) 0.69 m
(B) 0.4 m
(D) 0.9 m
4.
CE 2006
6.
A channel with a mild slope is followed by
a horizontal channel and then by a steep
channel. What gradually varied flow
profiles will occur?
(A) M , H , S
(C) M , H , S
(B) M , H , S
(D) M , H , S
A triangular irrigation lined canal carries

a discharge of 25 m /s at bed slope =
If the side slopes of the canal are 1 : 1 and
Mannings coefficient is 0.018, the central
depth of flow is equal to
(A) 2.98 m
(C) 4.91 m
(B) 3.62 m
(D) 5.61 m
th
th
th
Page 170
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
mistake, however, the engineer used the

grain diameter in mm in the Strickers
equation instead of in meter, What should
be the correct normal depth?
(A) 0.32m
(C) 2.00m
(B) 0.50m
(D) 3.20m
CE 2007
10. There is a free overfall at the end of a long
open channel. For a given flow rate, the
critical depth is less than normal depth.
What gradually varied flow profile will
occur in the channel for this flow rate?
(A) M
(C) M
(B) M
(D) S
11.
A triangular open channel has a vertex

angle of 90 and carries flow at a critical
depth of 0.30m. The discharge in the
channel is
(A) 0.08 m /s
(C) 0.15m /s
(B) 0.11 m /s
(D) 0.2m /s
Statement for linked answer questions
12 & 13
A rectangular open channel needs to be
designed to carry a flow of 2.0 m /s
under uniform flow conditions. The
Mannings roughness coefficient is 0.018.
The channel should be such that the flow
depth is equal to half width and the
Froude number is equal to 0.5
12.
The bed slope of the channel to be

provided is
(A) 0.0012
(C) 0.0025
(B) 0.0021
(D) 0.0052
13.
Keeping the width, flow depth and

roughness the same. If the bed slope of
the above channel is doubled. The
average boundary shear stress under
uniform flow conditions is
(A) 5.6 N/m
(C) 12.3N/m
(B) 10.8 N/m
(D) 17.2N/m
CE 2008
14. A person standing on the bank of a canal
drops a stone on the water surface. He
notices that the disturbance on the water
surface is not traveling upstreams. This is
because the flow in the canal is
(A) Sub-critical
(C) Steady
(B) Super-critical
(D) Uniform
15.
Common data questions 15, 16 and 17

A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries
a discharge of 16.0 m /s under uniform
flow condition with normal depth of 1.60
m. Manning's 'n' is 0.015.
The longitudinal slope of the channel is
(A) 0.000585
(C) 0.000385
(B) 0.000485
(D) 0.000285
16.
A hump is to be provided on the channel

bed. The maximum height of the hump
without affecting the upstream flow
condition is
(A) 0.50 m
(C) 0.30 m
(B) 0.40 m
(D) 0.20 m
17.
The channel width is to be contracted.

The minimum width to which the channel
can be contracted without affecting the
upstream flow condition is
(A) 3.0 m
(C) 4.1 m
(B) 3.8 m
(D) 4.5 m
18.
A weir on a permeable foundation with

downstream sheet pile is show in the
figure below. The exit gradient as per
Khoslas method is
Weir
5m
Floor
10 m
Downstream
Sheet Pile
(A) 1 in 6.0
(B) 1 in 5.0
th
th
4m
(C) 1 in 3.4
(D) 1 in 2.5
th
Page 171
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
Water emerges from an ogee spillway

with velocity = 13.72 m/s and depth =
0.3 m at its toe. The tail water depth
required to form a hydraulic jump at the
toe is
(A) 6.48 m
(C) 3.24 m
(B) 5.24 m
(D) 2.24 m
20.
The base width of an elementary profile

of a gravity dam of height H is b. The
specific gravity of the material of the dam
is G and uplift pressure coefficient is K.
The correct relationship for no tension at
the heel is given by
(A)
(B)
For a rectangular channel section, match

List I (Geometrical elements) with
List II (Proportions for hydraulically
efficient section) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I
List II
A. Top width
1. y /2
B. Perimeter
2. y
C. Hydraulic Radius
3. 2y
D. Hydraulic Depth
4. 4y
y is the flow corresponding to
hydraulically efficient section
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(A) 2
4
1
3
(B) 3
1
4
2
(C) 3
4
1
2
(D) 3
4
2
1
25.
The froude number of flow in a

rectangular channel is 0.8 if the depth is
flow is 1.5 m, the critical depth is
(A) 1.80 m
(C) 1.36 m
(B) 1.56 m
(D) 1.29 m
CE 2009
21. Direct step method of computation for
gradually varied flow is
(A) Applicable to non-prismatic channels
(B) Applicable to prismatic channels
(C) Applicable to both prismatic and
non-prismatic channels
(D) Not applicable to both prismatic and
non-prismatic channels
22.
24.
(C)
(D)
A rectangular open channel of width 4.5m

is carrying a discharge of 100m /sec. The
critical depth of the channel is
(A) 7.09 m
(C) 2.16 m
(B) 3.96 m
(D) 1.31 m
CE 2010
23. The flow in a rectangular channel is
subcritical. If width of the channel is
reduced at a certain section, the water
surface under no-choke condition will
(A) Drop at a downstream section
(B) Rise at a downstream section
(C) Rise at an upstream section
(D) Not undergo any change
CE 2011
26. A spill way discharges flood flow at a rate
of 9m /s per metre width. If the depth of
flow on the horizontal apron at the toe of
the spillway is 46 cm, the tail water depth
needed to form a hydraulic jump is
approximately given by which of the
following options?
(A) 2.54 m
(C) 5.77 m
(B) 4.90 m
(D) 6.23 m
27.
th
For given discharge, the critical flow

depth in an open channel depends on
(A) Channel geometry only
(B) Channel geometry and bed slope
(C) Channel geometry, bed slope and
roughness
(D) Channel geometry, bed slope,
roughness and Reynolds number
th
th
Page 172
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2013
28. For subcritical flow in an open channel,
the control section for gradually varied
flow profiles is
(A) At the downstream end
(B) At the upstream end
(C) At both upstream and downstream
ends
(D) At any intermediate section
29.
The normal depth in a wide rectangular

channel is increased by 10%. The
percentage increase in the discharge in
the channel is :
(A) 20.1
(C) 10.5
(B) 15.4
(D) 17.2
CE 2014
30. A horizontal jet of water with its crosssectional area of 0.0028 m hits a fixed
vertical plate with a velocity of 5 m/s.
After impact the jet splits symmetrically
in a plane parallel to the plane of the
plate. The force of impact (in N) of the jet
on the plate is
(A) 90
(C) 70
(B) 80
(D) 60
31.
A rectangular channel having a bed slope

of 0.0001, width 3.0 m and Mannings
coefficient n 0.015, carries a discharge of
1.0 m s. Given that the normal depth of
flow ranges between 0.76 m and 0.8 m.
The minimum width of a throat (in m)
that is possible at a given section, while
ensuring that the prevailing normal depth
is not exceeded along the reach upstream
of the contraction, is approximately equal
to (assume negligible losses)
(A) 0.64
(C) 1.04
(B) 0.84
(D) 1.24
32.
A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter

discharges a steady jet of water into the
atmosphere at a rate of 15 litres per
second. The diameter of inlet to the
nozzle is 100 mm. The jet impinges
normal to a flat stationary plate held close
to the nozzle end. Neglecting air friction
and considering the density of water as
1000 kg/m , the force exerted by the jet
(in N) on the plate is _________
33.
A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width is

carrying a discharge of 4 m /s.
Considering that acceleration due to
gravity as 9.81 m/s , the velocity of flow
(in m/s) corresponding to the critical
depth (at which the specific energy is
minimum) is _______

1.
[Ans. A]
2.
[Ans. D]
For rectangular channel,
E = 1.5y = 1.5 1.5 = 2.25m
3.
[Ans. C]
For hydraulic jump,
y
1
* 1 1 8F +
y
2
Given
y = 3m
F =
y = * 1
y = 0.62m
Sluice gate opening =
4.
.
.
= 0.69m
[Ans. C]
th
By Mannings equations, Q
25 =
th
)
th
Page 173
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
25 =
E = 1m
But energy loss E given in problem is
also 1m. Hence the assumed value of y ,
i.e. 0.3m is correct.
y = 4.91 m
5.
[Ans. C]
Laceys scour depth,
q
6.5
R 1.35 ( )
1.35 (
)
f
1
Scour depth =2R = 9.4m
D 2R 4.4 5m
9.
[Ans. D]
7.
[Ans. D]
The specific speed of a pump is given by
8.
[Ans. B]
4.7 m
6.
As per Sticklers equation. n
=(
Now, as per Mannings equation,

1
q
y
S
n
Correct depth of flow,
n
(
n
NQ H
[Ans. B]
We know that a rectangular channel,
y
y
0.74m
We know that hydraulic jump is formed
when supercritical flow changes to
subcritical flow, if the prejump depth and
post jump depth are y and y
respectively then y <y <y . Therefore
option (c) and (d) are ruled out.
From (i), we have
= [(
1 = 0.50m
10.
[Ans. B]
All free fall curves are zone II profiles.
Since the critical depth (y ) is less than
the normal depth (y ), therefore the slope
is mild. Thus, the gradually varied profile
is M
11.
[Ans. B]
The side slope of triangular open channel
given as z horizontal to 1 vertical.
When vertex angle is 90 , z = 1
90
Solving the above equation by taking

y = 0.3m which is option (b) and thus
calculating the value of y
8
0.3y 0.3
y
9.81
y + 0.3y
2.72 = 0
y = 1.51 m
We also known that
Now, y = *
E =
.
.
12.
.
.
for a triangular
channel
E =
E =
th
Q =
Q =
Q = 0.11 m /s
[Ans. B]
Given Q = 2 m3/s, n = 0.018, B = 2y, F = 0.5
We know that
th
th
Page 174
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
F=
16.
Where V is velocity of flow, D is hydraulic

radius
Now
D=
F=
1.6
Squaring both sides
0.25 =
.
1.74
.
Z
Z
y = 0.836m
Using Mannings equation, we get
1
Q
A R
S
n
1
2
2
0.836
0.018
0.836
(
) S
2
S = 0.0461
S = 0.0021
17.
[Ans. D]
The average shear stress, 0 RS0
Bed slope is doubled i.e. S0 = 2 0.0021
= 0.0042
0 = 9810
0.0042
0 = 17.22 N/m2
14.
[Ans. A]
15.
[Ans. A]
The velocity as per Mannings equation is
given by
18.
V= R
Here,
But
Q = AV
Q=A
16 = 9.6
.
.
R
.
S
1.04
9.6
3
y
2
3
16 6
*
+
2
9.81
1.74 1.35
0.39 0.4m
Z
[Ans. C]
If the channel is contracted, the depth of
flow at this location decreases. Thus
width of the channel can be decreased till
the specific energy becomes minimum. If
the channel is contracted further, the
depth of flow starts decreasing.
y+
1.6 +
1.74 =
1.74 =
)
.
= 2.557
b = 4.1m
[Ans. C]
The exit gradient may be given as
H
1
G
d
and
Here b = 10 m, d = 4 m, H = 5 m
b 10
2.5
d
4
1 1
2.5
and
1.85
2
5
1
G
4
1.85
1
G
3.4
1.04m
the
this
the
the
16
9.81
Where
Q = 16m3/s. n = 0.015, B =6.0m

A = 6.0 1.60 = 9.6 m2
R=
0.5 =
13.
[Ans. B]
When a hump is introduced on
channel bed the depth of flow at
location will reduce.
If Z is
maximum height of hump so that
depth of flow remains same, then
y+
0.5 =
y=*
S = 0.00059
th
th
th
Page 175
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
19.
[Ans. C]
Water depth required to form a hydraulic
jump may be given as
y
[ 1
2
0.3
2
[ 1
8
13.72
]
9.81 0.3
25.
3.24 m
20.
A
2y
P
2y
2y
y
2
Top width, T
B
2y
Perimeter, P B
2y
2y
2y
A
2y
Hydraulic depth, D
y
T
2y
Hydraulic radius, R
8V
]
gy
1
[Ans. A]
Tension will not be developed at the heel
with full reservoir, when
H
b
G
21.
[Ans. B]
22.
[Ans. B]
The critical depth for a rectangular
channel is given by
q
y
g
4y
[Ans. D]
Froude Number for a rectangular channel
is given by
F=
V = 0.8 9.81 1.5 = 3.07 m/s

Discharge per unit width of rectangular
channel is given by
q = Vy = 3.07 1.5 = 4.6 m3/s/m
Critical depth, yc = ( )
But q =
(
26.
4.6
)
9.81
1.29m
[Ans. C]
22.22 m sec
y2
.
.
3.69m
y1
23.
[Ans. A]
24.
[Ans. C]
Let the width of rectangular channel be B
and depth of flow be y.
Area of flow. A = By
Wetted perimeter, P = B + 2y
=
2y
For hydraulically most efficient section, P

should be minimum
dP
0
dy
A
2 0
y
A
2y
B
2y
B
2y
q
y
9m s m
0.46m
y y y
2 9
0.46 y
9.81
y
5.77 m
27.
y
0.46
[Ans. A]
y
) Q
( )
Constant
Depends on geometry only.

28.
th
[Ans. A]
th
th
Page 176
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
29.
[Ans. D]
Discharge Q = R S
So, E
( )
3
2
100
So, [
[for wide channels R = y/2]

Q
0.789 m
mannings formula
Q
( )
0.78
100
0.789 B
0.7893
g B
0.84m
17.2
32.
30.
31.
[Ans. C]
Force exerted in x direction
= rate of change of momentum in x
direction
i.e. F
A v
v
v
Herev
0ms x direction
F
1000 0.0028 5 5
70 N
[Ans. B]
n 0.015, Q
1m s, B 3.0m
Normal depth of flow ranges between
0.76m to 0.8 m
If prevailing normal depth of flow is not
exceeded, there must not be choking of
the section or it should be at boundary
condition of choking. So, width of section
should be such that there should be
critical flow corresponding to the
prevailing specific energy.
3 q
i. e. , ( )
2 g
q
100 mm
15
Force on plate,
F
a. v
1000
4
318.29 N
33.
0.03
21.22
[Ans. *] Range 2.45 to 2.55

Q = 4m s
B = 2.5 m
4
q
1.6 m s m
2.5
q
y
y
0.639
g
V
2g
0.639
2
0.639 g
= 2.504 m/s
. A. R s 1
. B. y . (
30 mm
At critical depth velocity head =
)
3 (
So [
]
2
g
21.22 m s
[Ans. *] (Range 318 to 319)

Q 15 10 m s
Velocity of jet, v
A
0.03
. 3y . (
).S
) . 0.0001
0.78 m
th
th
th
Page 177
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Irrigation
CE 2005
1.
On which of the canal systems, R.G.
Kennedy, executive engineer in the
Punjab Irrigation Department made his
observations for proposing his theory on
stable channels?
(A) Krishna Western Delta canals
(B) Lower Bari Doab canals
(C) Lower Chenab canals
(D) Upper Bari Doab canals
2.
Uplift pressure at points E and D (figure

A) of a straight horizontal floor of
negligible thickness with a sheet pile at
downstream end are 28% and 20%,
respectively. If the sheet pile is at
upstream end of the floor (figure-B), the
uplift pressures at points D and C are
E C
C
d
b
D
Figure-A
Figure-B
(A) 68% and 60% respectively
(B) 80% and 72% respectively
(C) 88% and 70% respectively
(D) 100% and zero respectively
Answer keys & Explanations

1.
[Ans. D]
2.
[Ans. B]
Uplift pressure at D ,
Uplift pressure at C ,
100
100
100
100
20
80
28
72
th
th
th
Page 178
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Water Requirements of Crops

CE 2005
1.
The culturable commanded area for a
distributary is 2 10 m . The intensity
of irrigation for a crop is 40%. If kor
water depth and kor period for the crop
are 14 cm and 4 weeks, respectively, the
peak demand discharge is
(A) 2.63 m s
(C) 8.58 m s
(B) 4.63 m s
(D) 11.58 m s
CE 2006
2.
In a cultivated area, the soil has porosity
of 45% and field capacity of 38%. For a
particular crop, the root zone depth is
1.0 m, the permanent wilting point is
10% and the consumptive use is
15 mm/d. If the irrigation efficiency is
60%, what should be the frequency of
irrigation such that the moisture content
does not fall below 50% of the maximum
available moisture?
(A) 5d
(C) 9d
(B) 6d
(D) 15d
CE 2007
3.
The consumptive use of water for a crop
during a particular stage of growth is
2.0 mm/day. The maximum depth of
available water in the root zone is
60 mm. Irrigation is required when the
amount of available water is 50% of the
maximum available water in the root
zone. Frequency of irrigation should be
(A) 10 days
(C) 20 days
(B) 15 days
(D) 25 days
4.
The culturable command area for a

distributed channel is 20,000 hectares.
Wheat is grown in the entire area and
the intensity of irrigation is 50%. The
kor period for wheat is 30 days and the
kor water depth is 120 mm. The outlet
discharge for the distributary should be
(A) 2.85 m s
(C) 4.63 m s
(B) 3.21 m s
(D) 5.23 m s
CE 2009
5.
An agricultural land of 437 ha is to be
irrigated for a particular crop. The base
period of the crop is 90 days and the
total depth of water required by the crop
is 105 cm. If a rainfall of 15 cm occurs
during the base period, the duty of
irrigation water is
(A) 437 ha/cumec (C) 741 ha/cumec
(B) 486 ha/cumec (D) 864 ha/cumec
CE 2010
Common Data for Question 6 and 7
The moisture holding capacity of the soil
in a 100 hectare farm is 18 cm/m. The
field is to be irrigated when 50 per cent of
the available moisture in the root zone is
depleted. The irrigation water is to be
supplied by a pump working for 10 hours
a day, and water application efficiency is
75 per cent. Details of crops planned for
cultivation are as follows:
Crop Root zone Peak rate of moisture
depth (m) use (mm/day)
X
1.0
5.0
Y
0.8
4.0
6.
The capacity of irrigation system
required to irrigate crop X in 36
hectares is
(A) 83 litres/sec
(C) 57 litres/sec
(B) 67 litres/sec
(D) 53 litres/sec
7.
The area of crop Y that can be irrigated

when the available capacity of irrigation
system is 40 liters/sec is
(A) 40 hectares
(C) 30 hectares
(B) 36 hectares
(D) 27 hectares
CE 2012
8.
Wheat crop requires 55 cm of water
during 120 days of base period. The total
rainfall during this period is 100 mm.
Assume the irrigation efficiency to be
60%. The area (in ha) of the land which
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Page 179
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
can be irrigated with a canal flow of

0.01 m s is
(A) 13.82
(C) 23.04
(B) 18.85
(D) 230.40
CE 2013
9.
The transplantation of rice requires 10 days
and total depth of water required during
transplantation
is
48
cm.
During
transplantation, there is an effective rainfall
( useful for irrigation) of 8 cm. the duty of
irrigation water (in hectares/cumec) is :
(A) 612
(C) 300
(B) 216
(D) 108
CE 2014
10. Irrigation water is to be provided to a
crop in a field to bring the moisture
content of the soil from the existing 18%
to the field capacity of the soil at 28%.
The effective root zone of the crop is
70 cm. If the densities of the soil and
water are 1.3 g/ cm and 1.0 g/ cm
respectively, the depth of irrigation water
(in mm) required for irrigating the crop is
________

1.
[Ans. B]
Area under crop = 2
Volume
But the moisture content should not fall

below 50%.
Depth of water required
0.5 0.331 0.165 m
Actual depth stored,
0.165 60
0.099m 99mm
100
Frequency of irrigation,
Actual depth stored 99
Consumptive use
15
6.63 d 6 d
10
0.8 10 m
Area
0.8 10
14 10
1.2 10 m
.
Discharge, Q
4.63 m sec
2.
[Ans. B]
Depth of maximum available moisture,
d
F
Field capacity,
weight of water retained by soil
weight of same area of soil
V
V
But
[Ans. B]
Consumptive use of water = 2.0 mm/day
Maximum depth of available water = 60
mm
If amount of available water is reduced by
50%, then irrigation is required for a
depth
50
60 30 mm
100
30
Frequency of irrigation
2
15 days
4.
[Ans. C]
Area to be irrigated = Culturable
command area intensity of irrigation
50
20.00
100
Field capacity
3.
n
Field capacity
0.45
0.38
0.45
1
0.38
0.38
0.331 m
0.1
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.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10,000 ha
Duty, D
7.
[Ans. D]
Moisture holding capacity of soil for crop
Y= 18 0.8 = 14.4 cm
Allowable depletion of moisture,
50
14.4 7.2cm
100
Consumptive use of water for crop
Y = 0.4 cm/day
.
Frequency of irrigation =
18 days
.
Thus 7.2 cm depth of water is to be
applied to the crop Y in the next 18 days.
.
Irrigation requirement
= 9.6 cm
.
Quantity of water required = Discharge
through pump
9.6
A 10
100
40 10
18 10 60 60
A 27 hectares
8.
[Ans. A]
Given, Base period, B = 120 days
55 10 45cm 0.45m
B
8.64 120
8.64 , D
2304
D
0.45
Area, A 2304 0.01 23.04
As efficiency of Irrigation is 60%
Then required area for wheat crop
60
23.04
13.82 ha.
100
9.
[Ans. B]
=2160 ha/cumec
Area to be irrigated
Outlet discharge
Duty of crop
=
5.
4.63 m s
[Ans. D]
Total depth of water required by the crop
= 105 cm
Contribution of rainfall during the base
period =15 cm
Delta,
105 15 90 cm
Duty of crop
864
ha/cumec
6.
[Ans. B]
Moisture holding capacity of soil = 18
cm/m
Root zone depth of crop X = 1.0 m
Moisture holding capacity of soil for crop
X = 18 1 = 18 cm
Allowable depletion of moisture,
50
18 9 cm
100
Consumptive use of water for crop,
X 0.5 cmday
Frequency of irrigation
18 days
Thus 9 cm depth of water is to be applied

to the crop X in the next 18 days.
Irrigation requirement,
Net water depth
Water application efficiency
9
12cm
0.75
Quantity of water required,
12
36 10
43200 m
100
Discharge through pump
43200
10 litres sec
18 10 60 60
litres
66.67
67litres sec
sec
Duty = 8.64
Duty = 8.64
hec cumec
Duty = 216 hec/cumec.

10.
[Ans. 91]
Given,
Root zone depth d = 70 cm
Field capacity F
28
Existing moisture content w = 18%
Density of soil = 1.3 gm/cm
Density of water = 1.0 gm/cm
Depth of irrigation water required,
d
d F
w
.
.
70
1.3
70
10 28
18
10
91mm
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Sediment, Transport and Design of Irrigation Channels

CE 2005
1.
Which one of the following equations
represents the downstream profile of
Ogee spillway with vertical upstream
face? (x, y) are the coordinates of the
point on the downstream profile with
origin at the crest of the spillway and H
is the design head.
(A)
0.5 ( )
(B)
0.5 ( )
(C)
2.0 ( )
(D)
2.0 ( )
CE 2008
3.
A stable channel is to be designed for a
discharge of Q m s with silt factor f as
per Laceys method. The mean flow
velocity (m/s) in the channel is obtained
by
(A) *
(C) *
(B) *
(D) 0.48
+
* +
.
.
.
CE 2007
2.
As per the Laceys method for design of
alluvial channels, identify the TRUE
statement from the following:
(A) Wetted perimeter increases with an
increase in design discharge.
(B) Hydraulic radius increases with an
increase in silt factor.
(C) Wetted perimeter decreases with an
increase in design discharge.
(D) Wetted perimeter increases with an
increase in silt factor.
CE 2009
4.
The depth of flow in a alluvial channel is
1.5m. If critical velocity ratio is 1.1 and
Mannings n is 0.018, the critical velocity
of the channel as per ennedys method is
(A) 0.713 m/s
(C) 0.879 m/s
(B) 0.784 m/s
(D) 1.108 m/s

1.
[Ans. A]
For a spillway having a vertical u/s face,
the d/s crest is given by the equation,
x .
2H .
y
H
x .
2H . y
H
.
H y
x .
2
H
.
x
y
.
H
2H
y
x .
0.5 ( )
H
H
2.
[Ans. A]
As per Laceys method of design of
alluvial channels,
P
4.75Q
3.
[Ans. A]
4.
[Ans. B]
The critical velocity as per ennedys
method is given by
V
0.55 my .
0.55 1.1 1.5 .
0.784 m s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Hydrology
CE 2005
1.
The intensity of rain fall and time interval
of a typical storm are
Time interval
Intensity of rainfall
(minutes )
(mm/minute )
0-10
0.7
10-20
1.1
20-30
2.2
30-40
1.5
40-50
1.2
50-60
1.3
60-70
0.9
70-80
0.4
The maximum intensity of rainfall for 20
minutes duration of the storm is
(A) 1.5 mm/minute
(B) 1.85 mm/minute
(C) 2.2 mm/minute
(D) 3.7 mm/minute
2.
3.
4.
Statement for Linked Answer Questions

2&3
A four hour unit hydrograph of a
catchment is triangular in shape with
base of 80 hours. The area of the
catchment is 720 km . The base flow and
index are 30 m /s and 1mm/h,
respectively. A storm of a 4 cm occurs
uniformly in 4 hours over the catchment.
The peak discharge of four hour unit
hydrograph is
(A) 40 m /s
(C) 60 m /s
(B) 50m /s
(D) 70 m /s
The peak flood discharge due to the storm
is
(A) 210 m /s
(C) 260 m /s
(B) 230 m /s
(D) 720 m /s
When the outflow from a storage
reservoir is uncontrolled as in a freely
operating spillway, the peak of outflow
hydrograph occurs at
(A) At point of inter section of the inflow

and outflow hydrographs
(B) A point, after the inter section of the
inflow and outflow hydrographs
(C) The tail of inflow hydrographs
(D) A point, before the inter section of
the inflow and outflow hydrographs
5.
Two observation wells penetrated into a

confined aquifer and located 1.5 km apart
in the direction of flow, indicate head of
45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient of
permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day
and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of
an inert tracer from one well to another is
(A) 416.7 days
(C) 750 days
(B) 500 days
(D) 3000 days
CE 2006
6.
During a 3 hour storm event, it was
observed that all abstractions other than
infiltration are negligible. The rainfall was
idealized as 3 one hour storms of
intensity 10 mm/hr, 20 mm/hr and
10 mm/hr respectively and the
infiltration was idealized as a Horton
curve, f = 6.8 + 8.7 exp( t) (f in mm/hr
and t in hr). What is the effective rainfall?
(A) 10.00 mm
(C) 12.43 mm
(B) 11.33 mm
(D) 13.63 mm
Common Data for Questions 7and 8
For catchment, the S curve (or S
hydrograph) due to a rainfall of intensity
1
cm/hr
is
given
by
Q
=
1 (1+t)exp( t)(t in hr and Q in m /s).
What is the area of the catchment?
(A) 0.01 km
(C) 1.00 km
(B) 0.36 km
(D) 1.28 km
7.
8.
What will be the ordinate of a 2 hour

unit hydrograph for this catchment at
t = 3 hour ?
(A) 0.13 m /s
(C) 0.27 m /s
(B) 0.20 m /s
(D) 0.54 m /s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
For steady flow to a fully penetrating well

in a confined aquifer, the drawdowns at
radial distances of r1 and r2 from the well
have been measured as s1 and s2
respectively , for a pumping rate of Q. The
transmissivity of the aquifer is equal to
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) 2 Q
11.
12.
(C) Increased peak with increased

time base
(D) Increased peak with reduced
time base
14.
A volume of 3 10 m of ground water

was pumped out from an unconfined
aquifer uniformly from an area of 5
.
The pumping lowered the water table
from initial level of 102 m to 99m. the
specific yield of the aquifer is
(A) 0.20
(C) 0.40
(B) 0.30
(D) 0.50
15.
An outlet irrigates an area of 20 ha. The

discharge (l/s) required at this outlet to
meet the
evapo-transpiration
requirement of 20 mm occurring
uniformly in 20 days neglecting other
field losses is
(A) 2.52
(C) 2.01
(B) 2.31
(D) 1.52
l ( )
( )
CE 2007
Common Data for Questions 10 and 11
Ordinates of a 1 hour unit hydrograph at
1 hour intervals, starting from time t = 0,
are 0, 2, 6, 4, 2, 1 and 0 m /s.
10. Catchment area represented by this unit
hydrograph is
(A) 1.0 km
(C) 3.2 km
(B) 2.0 km
(D) 5.4 km
Ordinate of a 3 hour unit hydrograph for
the catchment at t = 3 hour is
(A) 2.0 m /s
(C) 4.0 m /s
(B) 3.0 m /s
(D) 5.0 m /s
An isolated 4-hour storm occurred over a
catchment as follows:
Time
1st hr 2nd hr 3rd hr 4th hr
Rainfall
9
28
12
7
(mm)
The index for the catchment is 10 mm/h.
The estimated runoff depth from the
catchment due to the above storm is
(A) 10 mm
(C) 20 mm
(B) 16 mm
(D) 23 mm
CE 2008
13. A flood wave with a known inflow
hydrograph is routed through a large
reservoir. The outflow hydrograph will
have.
(A) Attenuated peak with reduced
time base
(B) Attenuated peak with increased
time base
CE 2009
One hour triangular unit hydrograph of a
watershed has the peak discharge of 60
m /sec.cm at 10 hour and time base of 30
hours. The index is 0.4 cm per hour and
base follow is 15 m /sec.
16. The catchment area of the watershed is
(A) 3.24 km
(C) 324 km
(B) 32.4 km
(D) 3240 km
17.
If these is rainfall of 5.4 cm in 1 hour, the

ordinate of the flood hydrograph at 15th
hour is
(A) 225 m /sec
(C) 249 m /sec
(B) 240 m /sec
(D) 258 m /sec
18.
The relationship among specific yield

(S ), specific retention (S ) and porosity
( ) of an aquifer is
(A) S
S
(C) S
S
(B) S
S
(D) S
S
2
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
19. A well of diameter 20 cm fully penetrates
a confined aquifer. After a long period
pumping at a rate of 2720 liters per
minute, the observations of drawdown
taken at 10 m and 100 m distances from
the center of the wall are found to be 3 m
and 0.5 m respectively. The transmissivity
of the aquifer is
(A) 676 m /day
(C) 526 m /day
(B) 576 m /day
(D) 249 m /day
20.
Match List-I with List-II and select the

correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I
A. Evapotranspiration
B. Infiltration
C. Synthetic Unit Hydrograph
D. Channel Routing
List-II
1. Penman method
2. Snyders method
3. Muskingum method
4. Hortons method
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
CE 2011
21. In an aquifer extending over 150 hectare,
the water table was 20 m below ground
level. Over a period of time the water
table dropped to 23 m below the ground
level. If the porosity of aquifer is 0.40 and
the specific retention is 0.15, what is the
change in ground water storage of
aquifer?
(A) 67.5 ha.m
(C) 180 ha.m
(B) 112.5 ha.m
(D) 450 ha.m
22.
23.
24.
A watershed got transformed from rural

to urban over a period of time. The effect
of urbanization on storm runoff
hydrograph from the watershed is to
(A) Decrease the volume of runoff
(B) Increase the time to peak discharge
(C) Decrease the time base
(D) Decrease the peak discharge
Common Data Questions for 23 and 24
The ordinates of 2- h unit hydrograph at 1
hour intervals starting from time t = 0,
are 0, 3, 8, 6, 3, 2 and 0 m /s. Use
trapezoidal
rule
for
numerical
integration, is required.
What is the catchment area represented
by the unit hydrograph?
(A) 1.00 km
(C) 7.92 km
(B) 2.00 km
(D) 8.64 km
A storm of 6.6 cm occurs uniformly over
the catchment in 3 hours. If index is
equal to 2mm/h and base flow is 5 m /s ,
what is the peak flow due to the storm?
(A) 41.0 m /s
(C) 53.0 m /s
(B) 43.4 m /s
(D) 56.2 m /s
CE 2012
25. The ratio of actual evapo transpiration
to potential evapo transpiration is in the
range
(A) 0.0 to 0.4
(C) 0.0 to 1.0
(B) 0.6 to 0.9
(D) 1.0 to 2.0
26.
th

26 & 27
The drainage area of a watershed is 50
km . The index is 0.5 cm/ hour and the
base flow at the outlet is 10 m s. One
hour unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm)
of the watershed is triangular in shape
with a time base of 15 hours. The peak
ordinate occurs at 5 hours.
The peak ordinate (in m /s/cm) of the
unit hydrograph is
(A) 10.00
(C) 37.03
(B) 18.52
(D) 185.20
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GATE QUESTION BANK
27.
For a storm of depth of 5.5 cm and

duration of 1 hour, the peak ordinate (in
m /s) of the hydrograph is
(A) 55.00
(C) 92.60
(B) 82.60
(D) 102.60
28.
Group I contains parameters and Group II

lists methods/ instruments.
Group I
Group II
P. Stream flow
1. Anemometer
velocity
Q. Evapo
2.
Penmans
transpiration
method
rate
R. Infiltration
3.
Hortonss
rate
method
S. Wind
4.
Current
velocity
meter
The correct match of Group I & Group II is
(A) P 1, Q 2, R 3, S 4
(B) P 4, Q 3, R 2, S 1
(C) P 4, Q 2, R 3, S 1
(D) P 1, Q 3, R 2, S 4
32.
30.
31.
A 1 hour rainfall of 10 cm magnitude at a

station has return period of 50 year. The
probability that 1 hour of rainfall of
magnitude 10 cm or more will occur in
each of two successive year is
(A) 0.04
(C) 0.02
(B) 0.2
(D) 0.0004
CE 2014
33. A conventional flow duration curve is a
plot between
(A) Flow and percentage time flow is
exceeded
(B) Duration of flooding and ground
level elevation
(C) Duration of water supply in a city
and proportion of area receiving
supply exceeding this duration
(D) Flow rate and duration of time taken
to empty a reservoir at that flow rate
34.
In reservoirs with an uncontrolled

spillway, the peak of the plotted outflow
hydrograph
(A) lies outside the plotted inflow
hydrograph
(B) lies on the recession limb of the
plotted inflow hydrograph
(C) lies on the peak of the inflow
hydrograph
(D) is higher than the peak of the plotted
inflow hydrograph
35.
An isolated 3-h rainfall event on a small

catchment produces a hydrograph peak
and point of inflection on the falling limb
of the hydrograph at 7 hours and 8.5
hours respectively, after the start of the
rainfall. Assuming, no losses and no base
flow
contribution,
the
time
of
concentration (in hours) for this
catchment is approximately
(A) 8.5
(C) 6.5
(B) 7.0
(D) 5.5
CE 2013
29. An isohyet is a line joining points of
(A) Equal temperature
(B) Equal humidity
(C) Equal rainfall depth
(D) Equal evaporation
30 & 31
At a station, storm I of 5 hour duration
with intensity 2 cm/ h resulted in a runoff
of 4 cm and Storm II of 8 hour duration
resulted in a runoff of 8.4 cm. assume that
the - index is the same of both the
storms.
The - index ( in cm/h) is :
(A) 1.2
(C) 1.6
(B) 1.0
(D) 1.4
The intensity of storm II ( in cm/h) is :

(A) 2.00
(C) 1.50
(B) 1.75
(D) 2.25
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GATE QUESTION BANK
36.
The Muskingum model of routing a flood

through a stream reach is expressed as
O
I
I
O , where k , k
and
are the routing coefficients for the
concerned reach, I and I are the inflows
to the reach, and O and O are the
outflows from the reach corresponding to
time steps 1 and 2 respectively. The sum
of , and
of the model is
(A) 1
(C) 0.5
(B)
0.5
(D) 1

1.
[Ans. B]
Maximum intensities of rainfall for two
consecutive 10min, are 2.2 mm/min and
1.5 mm/min
Maximum intensity for 20 min is,
.
Coefficient of permeability, K 30 m/day

Discharge velocity V = K.i
30 0.01667
0.5 m/day
Actual velocity or seepage velocity,
.
1.85 mm/min
2m/day
n = porosity = 0.25
3.
[Ans. B]
Area of UH = Area of catchment
unit depth
1
80 60 60
Q
2
720 10
0.01
Q
50 m /sec
time of travel, t
1.5
6.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. C]
Hydraulic gradient, I
750
[Ans. D]
[Ans. A]
Rainfall excess, R = P
t
= 4 0.1 4
3.6 cm
Peak of DRH = Peak of UH R
= 50 3.6
180 m /s
Peak of flood hydrograph = Peak of DRH
+ Base flow
180 30
210 m /s
4.
10
2
Intensity (m/hr)
2.
20
15.5
Hortons infiltration curve
1 2 3
Time (hr)
Hortons equation, f 6.8 8.7 e

At t =0 hr
f = 6.8 +8.7 e =15.5 mm/hr
At t = 1 hr
f = 6.8 +8.7 e =10 mm/hr
t = 2 hr
f = 6.8 +8.7 e =7.98 mm/hr
t = 3 hr
f = 6.8 +8.7 e =7.23 mm/hr
0.01667
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Page 187
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
The Hortons curve is super imposed on

the hyetograph. The hetched portion
indicates run off.
Area below the Hortons curve from
t = 1 hr to 3 hr is
9.
[Ans. A]
In a confined aquifer,
2 kb s
s
Q
log
Q
6.8
8.7e
2 T s
log ( )
dt
Transmissibility, T = kb
*6.8t
6.8
8.7e
+
1
3
8.7e
6.8
T
1
8.7e
19.97 3.60
16.37mm(equal to infiltration loss
from t = 1 hr to 3 hr)
Total rain fall depth = 20 1 10 1
(in 2ndhr and 3rdhr)
=30mm
Rain fall excess = 30 16.37
=13.63 mm
7.
8.
[Ans. B]
The saturation discharge four S curve
Q
Lim Q
Q 1m s
Rainfall intensity
cm
1
i
1
m s
hr 360000
catchment are i Q
1
catchment are
1 360000
catchment are 360000 m
0.36 km
[Ans. C]
The duration of S - curve =1hr
The ordinate of 2 - h OH is obtained by
the procedure.
Step 1: The ordinate of S - curve at t = 3h
S
1
1 3 e
0.8 m s
Step 2: The ordinate of S- curve at
t = 3 2 = 1h
S
1
1 1 e
0.26 m s
Step 3: S
S
0.8 0.26 0.54 m s
10.
Q. log ( )
2
[Ans. D]
Volume of UH = t. 0
1 60 60 0 2
6 4 2 1 0
54000 m
Area of UH = catchment area 0.01 m
54000 A 0.01
A 5.4 10 m
5.4 km
11.
[Ans. C]
Method of superposition is used to derive
3hr UH from the given 1hr UH as follows.
Time Ordinates
DRH Ordinate of
(h)
of 1 h
of 3
3h. UH
cm
UH( )
( )
in
0 hr
1 2
3h
hr hr
( )
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
12.
0
2
6
4
2
1
0
0
0 2 0
2
2 3 0.67
2
8
8 3 2.67
6
12
12 3 4
4
12
12 3 4
2
7
7 3 2.33
1
3
3 3 1
0
1
1 3 0.33
0
0 0
Thus at time t = 3 h, the ordinate of
3h UH is 4 m s
The ordinate of 3hr UH at t = 3 hr is 4m /sec
0
2
6
4
2
1
0
[Ans. C]
-index =
10
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28 12
Runoff
Time of rainfall excess
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Page 188
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
But precipitation in the 1st and 4th hours

is less than the -index i.e. the rainfall
during these two hours is ineffective
which means time of rainfall excess will
be 2 hrs.
40 Runoff
10
2
Runoff 20mm
17.
[Ans. B]
60 m S
Q
0
10
15
30
20
By interpolation, the ordinate of UH at

13.
[Ans. B]
15 hrs is :
14.
[Ans. A]
Area of the aquifer = 5 km = 5 10 m
Depth by which W.T is lowered = 102 99
=3m
Volume of soil involved = 5 10
3
15 10 m
Volume of water pumped out
= 3 10 m
Rainfall excess (R)=P

t
Ordinate of DRH at 15 hrs is : 45
255 m /s
Ordinate of flood hydrograph
= ordinate of DRH + Base flow
225 15 240m /s
Specific yield =
3 10
15 10
15.
16.
18.
[Ans. C]
19.
[Ans. D]
The transmissivity of a confined aquifer is
given by
0.2
[Ans. B]
Volume of water required for evapotranspiration,
20 10
20 10
10
4 10 litres
Dishcarge required at outlet,
4 10
20 24 60 60
2.31 liters sec
45 m /sec
T=
log
( )
log
= 249.4 m day
20.
[Ans. B]
21.
[Ans. B]
S
S
m
S
0.40 0.15
S
0.25
Specific yield,
[Ans. C]
Volume of UH (m = Area of catchment
m
unit depth m
1
30 60 3600 A 0.01
2
A 324 10 m
324 m
S
change in ground water storage
= volume of water extracted,
S
total volume of aquifer
0.25 150 23 20
112.5 ha. m
22.
th
[Ans. C]
th
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Page 189
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
23.
[Ans. C]
Volume of UH = t. O
1 60 60 0 3 8 6 3 2
0
79200 m
Area of UH (m
Area of catchment
(m
0.01 m
Area of catchment
=
7.92 10 m
7.92 km
24.
[Ans. A] (Required confirmation)

Ordinates of 2-h unit hydrograph are
given in the question. Therefore, the
ordinates of 3 hour unit hydrograph are
to be derived by method of S curve as
shown below.
Time
2S -Curve
S - Curve, SA
hr.
Addition (3) (2) + (3)
(1)
UH
(2)
0
0
0
1
3
3
2
8
0
8
3
6
3
9
4
3
8
11
5
2
9
11
6
0
11
11
7
11
11
8
11
9
11
SSA 3hr.U.H
S - Curve, SB
Curve, SB
Lagged
SB
by 3hr .
Lagged
by 3hr
0
0
3
2
8
5.34
0
9
6
0
3
8
5.34
3
8
3
2
8
9
2
1.33
9
11
0
0
11
Peak of 3hr. U.H = 6 m /sec

Peak of D.R.H = Peak of U.H
R
R cm
6.6
6 cm
Peak of D.R.H = 6 6 36 m /sec
Peak of storm hydrograph = 36 + Base flow
36 5
41 m /sec
25.
[Ans. C]
26.
[Ans. B]
Discharge
m s
QP
0
5hr
15hr
Time (hr)
Volume of UH = Area of catchment 0.01 m
1
15 60 60 Q
50 10
0.01
2
Q
18.52 m /sec
27.
28.
[Ans. D]
Rainfall excess, R = P
t
5.5 0.5 1 5 cm
Peak of DRH = Peak of UH R
18.52 5
92.6 m /sec
Peak of flood hydrograph
= Peak of DRH + BF
92.6 10 102.60 m /sec
[Ans. C]
29.
[Ans. C]
Isohyet joins points of same rainfall
depth.
30.
[Ans. A]
Storm I
D = 5h
i = 2 cm/hr
Runoff = 4cm
Storm II
D = 8h
i =?
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.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Run off = 8.4cm /hr

6
5
31.
Inflow hydrograph
Recession limb
Outflow hydrograph
1.2
[Ans. D]
Let intensity of storm II be P cm/hr
P 8 8.4
1.2
8
1.2 8 8.4
P
8
P 2.25 cm /hr
intensity 2.25 cm/hr
[Ans. D]
Return period of rainfall T=50 years
Probabilbity of occurrence once in 50
year,
1
p
0.02
5
Probability of occurrence in each of 2
Successive year p
0.02
0.004
33.
[Ans. A]
A typical flow duration curve loops like
[Ans. D]
In a small catchment
Time of concentration = Lag time of peak flow
= 7.0 1.5
= 5.5 hr
36.
[Ans. D]
Mean daily flow
32.
35.
Flow exceedence
percentile
A is best choice
34.
[Ans. B]
Outflow hydrograph is similar to inflows
hydrograph but with time lag
Peak of outflow hydrograph must lie on
recession limits of plotted inflow
hydrograph for uncontrolled spillway
since time lag will be very less
For controlled spillway, peak of outflow
hydrograph may lie on recession limits or
outside of plotted inflow hydrograph.
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Page 191
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Environmental Engineering
Quality Standards of Water

CE 2005
1.
If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1 the
hydrogen ion concentration will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE 2007
2.
The alkalinity and the hardness of a water
sample are 250mg/L and 350 mg/L as
CaCO3 respectively. The water has
(A) 350 mg/L carbonate hardness and
zero non-carbonate hardness
(B) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and
zero non-carbonate hardness.
(C) 250mg/L carbonate hardness and
350 mg/L non-carbonate hardness
(D) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and
100 mg/L non-carbonate hardness
CE 2009
Common Data for Q.No. 3 and 4
Following chemical species were reported
for water sample from a well:
Concentration
Species
(milli equivalent/L)
Chloride ( )
15
15
Sulphate (
)
05
Carbonate (
)
Bicarbonate (
)
30
12
Calcium (
)
18
Magnesium (
)
pH
8.5
3.
Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO3 is
(A) 1500
(C) 3000
(B) 2000
(D) 5000
4.
Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as

CaCO3 is
(A) 250
(C) 1750
(B) 1500
(D) 5000
CE 2010
Common Data for Q.No. 5 and 6
Ion concentration obtained for a
groundwater sample (having pH = 8.1)
are given below.
Ion
Ion
Atomic Weight
concentration
(mg/L)
Ca2+
100
Ca = 40
Mg2+
6
Mg = 24
+
Na
15
Na = 23
250
H = 1, C = 12 O
=16
45
S = 12
O = 16
39
CI = 35.5
5.
Total hardiness (mg/L as CaCO3) present
in the above water sample is
(A) 205
(C) 275
(B) 250
(D) 308
6.
Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO3)

present in the above water sample is
(A) 205 (B) 250 (C) 275 (D) 289
CE 2011
7.
Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of
total coliform as 106/100mL. After
chlorination, the MPN value declines to
/100mL. The percent removal (%R)
and log removal (log R) of total coliform
MPN is
(A) (%R) = 99.90; log R = 4
(B) (%R) = 99.90; log R = 2
(C) (%R) = 99.99; log R = 4
(D) (%R) = 99.99; log R = 2
CE 2014
8.
Some of the nontoxic metals normally
found in natural water are
(A) arsenic, lead and mercury
(B) calcium, sodium and silver
(C) cadmium, chromium and copper
(D) iron, manganese and magnesium
th
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Page 192
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
[Ans. D]
pH = log10 [ ]
4.1= log10 [ ]
= [ ] = [ ] = 7.94
[Ans. A]
Total alkalinity in water consists of
alkalinity caused by C
,H
and
A tittle negative alkalinity is also caused
by H+
t
ty ,
wt
[
wt
[Ans. D]
Carbonate hardness is equal to the total
hardness or alkalinity whichever is lesser.
In this case alkalinity (250 mg/L) is less
than total hardness (350 mg/L)
Carbonate hardness = 250 mg/L as
CaC
Non-carbonate hardness is total hardness
in excess of the alkalinity i.e.
Non-carbonate hardness,
= Total hardness alkalinity
= 350 250 = 100 mg/L as CaC
[Ans. A]
Total hardness is mg/l as CaC
=[
w
t of CaC
[
] combining weight of CaC
= 12 50 + 18 50 = 600 + 900 = 1500
[Ans. C]
Total alkalinity in mg/L as CaC
=[
] combining weight of CaC
+[
] combining weight of CaCO3+
{[
] combining weight of CaCO3
[H+] combining weight of CaCO3}
([
] and [ ] can be neglected for
lower values)
= 5 50 + 30 50 = 250 + 1500 = 1750
= 250
= 205 mg /L
Carbonate hardness is equal to the total

hardness or alkalinity whichever is less.
The carbonate hardness of sample will be
205 mg/L
N
r
t
rd ss,
= total hardness carbonate hardness
= 275 205 = 70 mg/L
7.
[Ans. C]
(
= 99.99%
8.
[Ans. D]
Silver, lead, mercury, cadmium are most
commonly present in industrial waste
water (effluent) and are toxic in nature
Also calcium, sodium are not metals.
Option D is most appropriate.
[Ans. C]
Total hardness
[
wt
wt
[
wt
wt
=6
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Page 193
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Water Supply and its Treatment

CE 2005
Statement for Linked Answer Q.No. 1 & 2
A city is going to install a rapid sand filter
after the sedimentation tanks. Use the
following data.
Design loading rate to the filter
200m3/m2d
Design flow rate 0.5m3/s
Surface area per filter box 50m2
1.
Surface area required for the rapid sand
filter will be
(A) 210
(C) 216
(B) 215
(D) 218
2.
The no. of filter required

(A) 3
(C) 6
(B) 4
(D) 8
3.

correct answer using the code given
below the lists
List I
List II
A. Release
1. Reduce high
valve
inlet pressure
to lower outlet
pressure
B. Check valve
2. Limit the flow
of water to
single direction
C. Gate valve
3. Remove air
from the
pipeline
D. Pilot valve
4. Stopping the
flow of water in
the pipeline
Codes
A
B
C
D
(A) 3
2
4
1
(B) 4
2
1
3
(C) 3
4
2
1
(D) 1
2
4
3
4.
List-I contains some properties of

water/waste water and List-II contains
list of some tests on water /waste water.
below the lists
List 1 (properties) List 2 (Test)
(A) Suspended
1) BOD
solid
concentration
(B) Metabolism of 2) MPN
Biodegradable
organics
(C) Bacterial
3) Jar test
concentration
(D) Coagulant
4) Turbidity
dose
Codes
A
B
C
D
(A) 2
1
4
3
(B) 4
1
2
3
(C) 2
4
1
3
(D) 4
2
1
3
5.
1 TCU is equivalent to the color produced

(A) 1 mg/L of chloroplatinate ion
(B) I mg/L of platinum ion
(C) 1 mg/L platinum in form of
chloroplatinate ion
(D) 1 mg/L of organo chloroplatinate
ion
CE 2007
Common Data Questions Q No 6 & Q No 7
A plain sedimentation tank with a length
of 20m, width of 10m and a depth of 3m is
used in a water treatment plant to treat
4 million litres of water per day(4 MLD).
The average temperature of water is
C. The dynamic viscosity of water is
1.002 10-3 N.s/m2 at
C. Density of
3
water is 998.2 kg/m . Average specific
gravity of particle is 2.65
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GATE QUESTION BANK
6.
What is the surface overflow rate in the

sedimentation tank?
(A) 20 m3/m2/day
(B) 40 m3/m2/day
(C) 67 m3/m2/day
(D) 133 m3/m2/day
7.
What is the minimum diameter of the

particle which can be removed with
100% efficiency in the above
sedimentation tank?
(A) 11.8 10-3 mm
(C) 50 10-3 mm
-3
(B) 16.0 10 mm
(D) 160 10-3 mm
list of titrants
Group I
Group II
P.
Alkalinity
1.
N/35.5 AgNO3
Q.
Hardness
2.
N/40 Na2S2O3
R.
Chloride
3.
N/50 H2SO4
S.
Dissolved
4.
N/50 EDTA
oxygen
The correct match of water quality
parameters in Group I with titrants in
Group II is:
(A) P 1, Q 2, R 3, S 4
(B) P 3, Q 4, R 1, S 2
(C) P 2, Q 1, R 4, S 3
(D) P 4, Q 3, R 2, S 1
CE 2011
8.
Consider the following unit processes
commonly used in water treatment; rapid
mixing (RM), flocculation (F), primary
sedimentation
(PS),
secondary
sedimentation (SS), chlorination (C) and
rapid sand filtration (RSF). The order of
these unit processes (first to last) in a
conventional water treatment plant is
(A) P F F

(B) P F
F
(C) P F F
(D) P
F F
CE 2012
9.
A town is required to treat
4.2
min of raw water for daily
domestic supply. Flocculating particles
are to be produced by chemical
coagulation. A column analysis indicated
that an overflow rate of 0.2 mm/s will
produce satisfactory particle removal in
a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m.
The required surface area (in m2) for
settling is
(A) 210
(C) 1728
(B) 350
(D) 21000
11.
A water treatment plant, having discharge

1
s has 14 filter to treat the water.
Each filter is having
area, but due
to backwashing activity 2 filters are non
operational. Calculate hydraulic loading
rate in
CE 2014
12. 16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5
km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The
chlorine at the rate of 32 kg/d is applied
at the entry of this pipe so that
disinfected water is obtained at the exit.
There is a proposal to increase the flow
through this pipe to 22 MLD from 16
MLD. Assume the dilution coefficient,
n = 1. The minimum amount of chlorine
(in kg per day) to be applied to achieve
the same degree of disinfection for the
enhanced flow is
(A) 60.50
(C) 38.00
(B) 44.00
(D) 23.27
13.
CE 2013
10. Some of the water quality parameters
are measured by titrating a water
sample with a titrant. Group-I gives a
list of parameters and Group-II gives the
th
The potable water is prepared from

turbid surface water by adopting the
following treatment sequence.
(A) ur d sur
w t r
u t
F
u t
d
t t
F tr t
Ds
t
t r
&
Supply
th
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Page 195
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(B)
ur d sur
w t rDs
t
F
u t
d
t t
F tr t
u t
t r
&
Supply
(C) ur d sur
w t r F tr t
d
t t
Ds
t
F
u t
u t
Storage & Supply

(D) ur d
sur
w t r
d
t t
F
u t
Coagulation D s
t
F tr t
t r
& upp y
14.
16.
A suspension of sand like particles in

water with particles of diameter
0.10 mm and below is flowing into a
settling tank at
s . Assume
g = 9.81
s , specific gravity of
particles = 2.65, and kinematic viscosity
of water =
/s. The
minimum surface area (in
) required
for this settling tank to remove particles
of size 0.06 mm and above with 100%
efficiency is _______________
17.
A surface water treatment plant

operates round the clock with a flow rate
of 35
/min. The water temperature is
and jar testing indicated an alum
dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a
Gt value of
producing optimal
results. The alum quantity required for
30 days (in kg) of operation of the plant
is ____________
18.
A conventional flow duration curve is a

plot between
(A) Flow and percentage time flow is
exceeded
(B) Duration of flooding and ground
level elevation
(C) Duration of water supply in a city
and proportion of area receiving
supply exceeding this duration
(D) Flow rate and duration of time taken
to empty a reservoir at that flow rate
For a sample of water with the ionic

composition shown in the figure below,
the carbonate and non - carbonate
hardness concentrations (in mg/ as
CaCO3), respectively are:
7
N
(A) 200 and 50

(B) 175 and 75
15.
3.5
(C) 75 and 175

(D) 50 and 200
A straight 100 m long raw water gravity

main is to carry water from an intake
structure to the jack well of a water
treatment plant. The required flow
through this water main is 0.21
/s.
Allowable velocity through the main is
0.75
m/s.
Assume
s . The minimum gradient
(in cm/100 m length) to be given to this
gravity main so that the required
amount of water flows without any
difficulty is ___________
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Page 196
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. C]
7.
t sur
D s
D s
[Ans. B]
wr t
d
r t
Settling velocity =
v u
r t
ut t
=
t
w
= 12960 seconds
s
2.
[Ans. C]
Let the velocity of particle which can be

removed with 100% efficiency be then
No. of filter =
100 = 100
( -1)
As per the options select 6 filters.
t rs >
3.
4.
5.
6.
[Ans. B]
Properties
Suspended solid
concentration
Metabolism of
biodegradable organics
Bacterial concentration
Coagulant dose
Test
Turbidity
MPN
Jar test
[Ans. D]
9.
[Ans. B]
Q=
/min
/s=
/min
10.
[Ans. B]
Alkalinity is measured by acid base
titration & hardness by EDTA.
P
So,
}
pt
s rr t
11.
[Ans. *]Range 143 to 145

ydr u
r t
s
=
/
= 0.2315
mm
8.
[Ans. A]
Surface overflow rate
= 20
1) d2
d = 2.58
d = 1.6
= 16
BOD
[Ans. C]
1 TCU is the colour produced by 1 mg of
platinum cobalt in the form of
choroplatinate ions dissolved in 1 litre of
distilled water
(2.65
[Ans. A]
All of these are pipe appurtenances which
are required for the proper functioning of
the pipeline.
= 0.2315
d y
/day
d y
th
th
th
Page 197
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
[Ans. A]
For disinfection, we have t
Where t = time required to kill all
organisms
c = concentration of disinfectant
n = dilution coefficient
k = constant
t
t
r
t
t
t
t
v
ty
d
d
d
u
16.
ds

s
s
r d
pp
ds
15.
p rd y
[Ans. *] Range 31.0 to 32.0

d
tp rd y
BL
= 31.21
d y
13.
[Ans. A]
14.
[Ans. B]
Carbonate hardness CH
s
N
r
t
rd ss N
t
rd s
r
t s
rd
ss
17.
[Ans. 37800]
Given Q = 35
Gt =
Alum dosage = 25 mg/ltr
Alum quantity for 30 days
18.
[Ans. A]
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Page 198
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Waste Water Treatment

CE 2005
1.
In a certain situation waste water
discharges into a river mixes with the river
water instantaneously and completely.
Following is the data available.
Waste water DO = 2.00 mg/L
Discharge rate = 1.10 m3/s
River water DO = 8.3 mg/L
Flow rate = 8.70 m3/s
Temperature = 20oC
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of
waste and river shall be
(A) 5.3 mg/L
(C) 7.6 mg/L
(B) 6.5 mg/L
(D) 8.4 mg/L
2.
Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of

(A) Total organic nitrogen
(B) Total organic and ammonia nitrogen
(C) Total ammonia nitrogen
(D) Total inorganic and ammonia
nitrogen
3.
In aerobic environment, nitrosomonas

convert
(A) N t N
(C) N t N
(B) N t N
(D) N t N
CE 2006
4.
A synthetic sample of water is prepared by
adding 100 mg Kaolinite (a clay mineral),
200 mg glucose, 168 mg NaCl, 120 mg
MgSO4, and 111 mg CaCl2 to 1 liter of pure
water. The concentration of total solids
(TS) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS)
respectively in the solution in mg/L are
equal to
(A) 699 and 599
(C) 699 and 199
(B) 599 and 399
(D) 699 and 399
[
[
.
Water pH is 7
Atomic weights: Ca:40;Mg: 24; Al: 27;
H: 1; C: 12; O: 16; Na: 23; Cl: 35.5
The total hardness of the sample in mg/L
as Ca
is
(A) 484
(C) 242
(B) 450
(D) 225
5.
6.
The non - carbonate hardness of the

sample in mg/L as
is
(A) 225
(C) 86
(B) 156
(D) 0
Common Data for Question for 7 & 8
In a rapid sand filter, the time for
reaching particle break through
is
defined as the time elapsed from start of
filter run to the time at which the
turbidity of the effluent from the filter is
greater than 2.5 NTU. The time for
reaching terminal head loss
is
defined as the time elapsed from the start
of the filter run to the time when head
loss across the filter is greater than 3m.
7.
The effect of increasing the filter depth

(while keeping all other condition same)
on and
s
(A)
increases and
decreases
(B) Both and
increases
(C)
decreases and
increases
(D)
t
and
decreases
8.
The effect of increasing the filer loading

rate (while keeping all other condition
same) on and
is
(A)
increases and
decreases
(B)
t
and
increase
(C)
decreases and
increases
(D) Both and
decreases
Linked Data for Q.No. 5 and Q.No. 6

A water contains the following dissolved
ions
[N
[
[
[
th
th
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Page 199
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
10.
To determine the BOD5 of a waste water

sample, 5, 10 and 50 mL aliquots of the
waste water were diluted to 300 mL and
incubated at
in BOD bottles for 5
days. The results were as follows.
S.No. Waste- Initial DO
water
DO,
after
volume, mg/L 5
mL
days,
mg/L
1.
5
9.2
6.9
2.
10
9.1
4.4
3.
50
8.4
0.0
Based on the data, the average D of
the waste water is equal to
(A) 139.5 mg/L
(C) 109.8 mg/L
(B) 126.5 mg/L
(D) 72.2 mg/L
The composition of a certain MSW sample
and specific weights of its various
components are given below:
Component Percent Specific
by
weight
weight (kg/ )
Food
50
300
Dirt and
30
500
Ash
Plastics
10
65
Wood and
10
125
Yard waste
Specific weight (kg/ ) of the MSW
sample is
(A) 319
(C) 209
(B) 217
(D) 199
CE 2007
Common Data Question Q No 11 & Q No 12
A completely mixed activated sludge
process is used to treat a wastewater flow
of 1 million litres per day (1 MLD) having
a BOD5 of 200 mg/L. The biomass
concentration in the aeration tank is 2000
mg/L and the concentration of the net
biomass leaving the system is 50 mg/L.
the aeration tank has a volume of 200 m3
11.
What is the hydraulic retention time of

the wastewater in aeration tank?
(A) 0.2h
(C) 10h
(B) 4.8h
(D) 24h
12.
What is the average time for which the

biomass stays in the system?
(A) 5h
(C) 2 days
(B) 8h
(D) 8 days
13.
The presence of hardness in excess of

permissible limit causes
(A) Cardio vascular problem
(B) Skin discolouration
(C) Calcium deficiency
(D) Increased laundry expenses
14.
50 g of
d 25 g of
are produced
from the decomposition of municipal
solid waste (MSW) with a formula weight
of 120 g.
What is the average per capita
greenhouse gas production in a city of 1
million people with a MSW production
rate of 500 ton/day?
(A) 104 g/day
(C) 208 g/day
(B) 120 g/day
(D) 313 g/day
CE 2008
15. Match group 1 (Terminology) with Group
2 (Definition / Brief Description) for
wastewater treatment system
Group 1
Group 2
P. Primary
1. Contaminant removal by
treatment
physical forces
Q. Secondary 2. Involving biological
treatment
and/or chemical reaction
R. Unit
3. Conversion of soluble
operation
organic matter to
biomass
S. Unit
4. Removal of solid
process
materials from incoming
wastewater
(A) P-4,Q-3, R-1, S-2
(B) P-4,Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3,Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-1,Q-2, R-3, S-4
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GATE QUESTION BANK
16.
The 5 day BOD of a wastewater sample

is obtained as 190mg/L (with k = 0.01
). The ultimate oxygen demand
(mg/L) of the sample will be
(A) 3800
(C) 272
(B) 475
(D) 190
17.
Group 1 lists estimation method of some

of the water and wastewater quality
parameter. Group 2 lists the indicators
used in the estimation methods. Match
the estimation method (Group 1) with the
corresponding indicator (group 2)
Group 1
Group 2
P.
Azide modified
1. Eriochrome
Winkler method
Black T
for dissolved
oxygen
Q.
Dichromate
2. Ferrion
method for
Chemical oxygen
demand
R.
EDTA titrimetric
3. Potassium
method for
chromate
hardness
S.
Mohr or
4. Starch
Argentometric
method for
chlorides
(A) P-3,Q-2, R-1, S-4
(B) P-4,Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4,Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-4,Q-2, R-3, S-1
18.
A wastewater sample contains 105.6

mmol/l of O ions at 250C. The pH of this
sample is
(A) 8.6
(C) 5.6
(B) 8.4
(D) 5.4
19.
A water treatment plant is required to

process 28800
d of raw water
(density = 1000 kg/
, kinematic
viscosity =
s). The rapid mixing
tank imparts a velocity gradient of
to blend 35 mg/L of alum with
the flow for a detention time of 2 minutes.
The power input (W) required for rapid
mixing is
(A) 32.4
(C) 324
(B) 36
(D) 32400
CE 2009
20. Match the following
Column 1
Column 2
P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling
Q. Secondary
2.
t
s w
settling tank
R. Activated
3. Aerobic
sludge
process
S. Trickling
4. Contact
filter
stabilization
The correct match of the column 1 with
column 2 is
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
21.
An aerobic reactor receives wastewater at

a flow rate of 500 m3/d having a COD of
2000 mg/L. The effluent COD is 400
mg/L. Assuming that wastewater contains
80% biodegradable waste, the daily
volume of methane produced by the
reactor is
(A) 0.224m3
(C) 224m3
(B) 0.2804m3
(D) 280m3
CE 2010
22. If the BOD3 of a wastewater sample is
75 mg/L and reaction rate constant k
(base e) is 0.345 per day, the amount of
BOD remaining in the given sample after
10 days is
(A) 3.12 mg/L
(C) 3.69 mg/L
(B) 3.45 mg/L
(D) 3.92 mg/L
CE 2011
23. Chlorine gas (8mg/L as Cl2) was added to
a drinking water sample. If the free
chlorine residual and pH was measured to
be 2 mg/L (as Cl2) and 7.5, respectively,
what is the concentration of residual OCI
ions in the water? Assume that the
chlorine gas added to the water is
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.
GATE QUESTION BANK
completely converted to HOCI and OCI.

Atomic Weight of Cl: 35.5
Given OCI + H+ HOCl, K = 107.5
(A) 1.408 105 moles/L
(B) 2.817 105 moles/L
(C) 5.634 105 moles/L
(D) 1.127 104 moles/L
24.
Total suspended particulate matter (TSP)

concentration in ambient air is to be
measured using a high volume sampler.
The filter used for this purpose had an
initial dry weight of 9.787 g. The filter
was mounted in the sampler and the
initial air flow rate through the filter was
set at 1.5 m3/min. Sampling continued
for 24 hours. The airflow after 24 hours
was measured to be 1.4 m3/min. The dry,
weight of the filter paper after 24 hour
sampling was 10.283 g. Assuming a linear
decline in the air flow rate during
sampling, what is the 24 hour average
TSP concentration in the ambient. Air?
3.
3.
(A)
(C)
3
3.
(B)
.
(D)
CE 2012
27. Assertion [a]: At a manhole, the crown
of the outgoing sewer should not be
higher than the crown of the incoming
sewer.
Reason [r]: Transition from a larger
diameter incoming sewer to a smaller
diameter outgoing sewer at a manhole
should not be made.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above
statements is
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not
the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
Common Data Question 28 and 29
An activated sludge system (sketched
below) is operating at equilibrium with
the following information.
Wastewater related data:
flow rate = 500 m3/hour,
influent BOD = 150 mg/L,
effluent BOD = 10 mg/L.
Aeration tank related data:
hydraulic retention time = 8 hours,
mean-cell-residence time = 240 hours,
volume = 4000
mixed liquor suspended solids,
= 2000 mg/L.
Linked Data Question for 25 & 26

The sludge from the aeration tank of the
activated sludge process (ASP) has solids
content (by weight) of 2%. This sludge is
put in a sludge thickener, where sludge
volume is reduced to half. Assume that
the amount of solids in the supernatant
from the thickener is negligible, the
specific gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and
the density is 1000 kg/
25.
What is the density of the sludge removed

from the aeration tank?
(A) 990 kg/
(C) 1011 kg/
(B) 1000 kg/
(D) 1022 kg/
26.
What is the solids content (by weight) of

the thickened sludge?
(A) 3.96%
(C) 4.04%
(B) 4.00%
(D) 4.10%
Influent
Aeration
Tank
Secondary Effluent
Clarifier
Sludge Recycle
Solids
Wasted
28.
th
The food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg

BOD per kg biomass per day) for the
aeration tank is
(A) 0.015
(C) 0.225
(B) 0.210
(D) 0.240
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GATE QUESTION BANK
29.
The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted

from the system is
(A) 24000
(C) 800
(B) 1000
(D) 33
33.
CE 2013
30. A student began an experiment for
determination of 5day,
BOD on
th
Monday. Since the 5
day fell on
Saturday,the final DO readings was taken
on next Monday. On calculation, BOD (i.e.
7 day,
)was found to be 150 mg/L.
What would be the 5 day,
BOD (in
mg/L)? Assume value of BOD rate
constant (k) at standard temperature of
as 0.23/day (base e)._____________
A waste water stream

w
s
ut
t
D
is joining a
small
river
(flow=12
/s,
ultimateBOD=5mg/l).
Both
water
streams get mixed up instantaneously.
Cross- sectional area of the river is 50
.
Assuming the de-oxygenation rate
constant,
K = 0.25/day, the BOD (in mg/l) of the
river water, 10 km downstream of the
mixing point is
(A) 1.68
(C) 15.46
(B) 12.63
(D) 1.37
CE 2014
31. The dominating microorganisms in an
activated sludge process reactor are
(A) aerobic heterotrophs
(B) anaerobic heterotrophs
(C) autotrophs
(D) phototrophs
32.
An effluent at a flow rate of 2670

/d
from a sewage treatment plant is to be
disinfected. The laboratory data of
disinfection studies with a chlorine
dosage of 15 mg/l yield the model
N
N
where N = number of
micro-organisms surviving at time t (in
min.) and N = number of microorganisms present initially (at t = 0). The
volume of disinfection unit (in
)
required to achieve a 98% kill of microorganisms is ______________
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GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. C]
D
2.
[Ans. A]
4.
[Ans. A]
Total solids
[Ans. C]
If filter depth is increased, the static head
of the filter increases thus it takes more
time to reach a head loss of 3 m. also, the
time required to reach a turbidity of 2.5
NTU will decrease as there will be a large
area for suspended particles to be
entrapped in it.
8.
[Ans. D]
If the filter loading increases, time for
reaching terminal head will decrease and
same will happen with the time of
reaching particle break through.
9.
[Ans. C]
BOD in mg/L = [initial DO Final DO]
dilution factor
[Ans. B]
The sum total of organic nitrogen and
ammonia nitrogen is called Kjeldahl
3.
7.
Fixed dissolved solids

= Total solid 100
= 699 100 = 599 mg/L
5.
[Ans. C]
Total hardness
wt
wt
[
wt
wt
v r
D
= 109.8 mg/L
[
(
6.
10.
[Ans. A]
Specific weight of the MSW sample
(
[Ans. C]
Carbonate hardness
wt
[
wt
s
Non carbonate hardness = Total hardness
Carbonate hardness
s
(
(
(
11.
)
)
)
[Ans. B]
The hydraulic retention time is given by
t = 24
Where V = vol of the aeration tank
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Q = quality of wastewater flow into the

aeration tank excluding the quality of
recycled sludge
where,
p[
p[
ut P
p
p
t=
12.
[Ans. D]
The Average time for which the biomass
stays in the system is known as sludge
age ( ) and it is given by
19.
=
=
= 8 days
13.
[Ans. D]
14.
[Ans. D]
We know that both
d
are
green house gases.
Total green house gases produced by
120 gm of MSW
is in mol/l.
[Ans. D]
The power input (W) required for rapid
mixing is expressed in terms of temporal
mean velocity gradient, G, expressed by
the equation
P
[ ]
P
r
dy
v s s ty
r w
water = kinematic viscosity density
N s
s
t = 2 minutes = 120 seconds
Discharge of raw water
s
Volume of water in tank,
500 ton of MSW will produce green house

gases
P
= 32400 watts
d y
Per capita average production of green
house gases
d y
d y
20.
[Ans. B]
21.
[Ans. D]
Q = 500 m3/day = 0.5 MLD
Influent COD: 2000 mg/L
Effluent COD: 400 mg/L
COD removed = 2000 400 = 1600 mg/L
Biodegrades in COD = 1600 0.8
= 1280 mg/L
d y
15.
[Ans. A]
16.
[Ans. C]
BOD of t days may be given as
Lt = L (1
)
[
d r d s
ssu d
t s
t v t s w st w t r w
L=
17.
[Ans. B]
18.
[Ans. D]
p[
p[
Gas
produced
Methane gas
0.9m3/kg
t
t t
d y
of VSS
s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
22.
[Ans. C]
The BOD at any instant is given by
Secondary Effluent
clarifies
Aeration
Tank
Solid
wasted
F
D
t r
= 0.225 kg Biomass per day
d ys
29.
u t
[Ans. C]
Sludge
age,
or
sludge
residence
Dr
since
is not given
is in days
23.
[Ans. B]
24.
[Ans. C]
Mass of solids,
v r
mg/day = 800 kg/day
wr t
30.
[Ans. *]Range 127 to 132

BOD5= (
)
D
Total airflow through the sampler during

24 hours
tr t
D
D
t r
25.
[Ans. C]
31.
[Ans. A]
26.
[Ans. A]
32.
27.
[Ans. D]
28.
[Ans. C]
Given,
Flow rate
ur
Influent BOD
t
Effluent BOD, = 10 mg/lit
[Ans. *] Range 49.0 to 51.0

N
N
w r
Nt = No.of micro org @ time t
No = No.of micro org @ time t = 0
For 98% kill means, 2% of bacteria
will remain
Hydraulic retention time
ur
d y
t sd s
Log (
Mean - cell resistance time,

= 240 hour = 10 day
M.L.S.S, (X) = 2000 mg/lit.
t = 26.97 min
Discharge,Q =
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Volume = Discharge
=
Volume = 50
33.
[Ans. C]
Du
s
t
s
ty
v r
w
s
t tr v
s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Sludge Disposal
CE 2005
1.
Match the following
List I
List II
A Thickening
1. Decrease in
of sludge
volume of sludge
by chemical
oxidation
B Stabilization 2. Separate of water
of sludge
by heat and
chemical
treatment
C Conditioning 3. Digestion of
of sludge
Sludge
D Reduction of 4. Separation of
sludge
water by
floatation or
gravity
Codes:
A
B C D
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
2.
4.
Direction: determine the correctness or

otherwise of the following Assertion [A]
and the Reason [R]:
Assertion: The crown of the outgoing
larger diameter sewer is always matched
with the crown of incoming smaller
diameter sewer
Reason: It eliminates backing up of
sewage in the incoming smaller diameter
sewer.
(A) Both [a] & [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not
the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
CE 2013
5.
A settling tank in a water treatment plant
is designed for a surface overflow rate of
30
sediment particles = 2.65, density of

water
,
dynamic
viscosity of water
Ns
,
d st
s w s v d
ppr x
t
minimum size of particles that would be
completely removed is :
(A) 0.01mm
(C) 0.03 mm
(B) 0.02 mm
(D) 0.04 mm
Bulking sludge refers to having

(A)
. Assume specific gravity of
< 0.3/d
(B) 0.3/d < F/M < 0.6/d

(C) F/M = zero
(D) F/M > 0.6/d
CE 2008
3.
Two biodegradable components of
municipal solid waste are
(A) Plastic and wood
(B) Cardboard and glass
(C) Leather and tin cans
(D) Food wastes and garden trimmings
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GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. C]
2.
[Ans. A]
3.
[Ans. D]
Biologically active or biodegradable
components of wastes oxidise by bacteria.
Food wastes and garden trimmings, both
are
organic
wastes
which
are
biodegradable.
4.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. B]
d
Surface overflow rate =

s
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Domestic Waste Water Treatment

CE 2005
1.
A Circular primary clarifier processes an
average flow of 5005
/d of municipal
waste water. The over flow rate is
35
/ /d. The diameter of clarifier
shall be
(A) 10.5 m
(C) 12.5 m
(B) 11.5 m
(D) 13.5 m
CE 2009
2.
A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats
wastewater in which 10%, 60% and 30%
of particles have settling velocities of 0.1
mm/s, 0.2 mm/s and 0.1mm/s
respectively. What would be the total
percentage of particles removed if
clarifier operates at a Surface Overflow
Rate (SOR) of 43.2
-d?
(A) 43%
(C) 86%
(B) 56%
(D) 100%
CE 2010
3.
A Coastal city produces municipal solid
waste (MSW) with high moisture content,
high organic materials. Low calorific
value and low inorganic materials. The
most effective and sustainable option for
MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting
(B) Dumping in sea
(C) Incineration
(D) Landfill
CE 2012
4.
A sample of domestic sewage is digested
with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid,
potassium dichromate and mercuric
sulphate in chemical oxygen demand
(COD) test. The digested sample is then
titrated with standard ferrous ammonium
sulphate (FAS) to determine the un
reacted amount of
(A) Mercuric sulphate
(B) Potassium dichromate
(C) Silver sulphate
(D) Sulphuric acid
5.
A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The

concentration of hydroxyl ions in the
water sample is
(A) 10 9.25 moles/L
(B) 10 4.75 moles/L
(C) 0.302 mg/L
(D) 3.020 mg/L
CE 2013
6.
Elevation and temperature data for places
are tabulated below:
Elevation, m
Temperature,
4
21.25
444
15.70
Based on the above data, lapse rate can be
referred as:
(A) Super adiabatic
(B) Neutral
(C) Sub adiabatic
(D) Inversion
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GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. D]
Area of clarifier =
=
= 146
D = 143
D =
2.
= D = 13.5m
[Ans. B]
Surface overflow rate
d = 43.2 m/d
s
It means that particles which have setting
velocities more that surface overflow rate
will be 100% removed.
t p r t
p rt s r
v d
3.
[Ans. A]
Incineration can be adopted when the
calorific value of the MSW is high. Landfill
can be adopted when the density of MSW
is high.
Since in the given MSW the quantity of
inorganic material is low. Its density is
less compositing can be adopted when the
MSW contains high organic content.
Barging the MSW into sea is now a days
generally not used and has becomes
obsolete
4.
[Ans. B]
5.
[Ans. C]
pH = 9.25
p0H = 14 9.25 =4.75
=
mol/l
/l
6.
[Ans. A]
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Air Pollution
is the overall efficiency of the system for
the same d ?
(A) 100%
(C) 80%
(B) 93%
(D) 65%
Percent of time
greater than stated
value
CE 2006
1.
The cumulative noise power distribution
curve at a certain location is given below.
100
50
The value of
(A) 90 dBA
(B) 80 dBA
2.
Noise Level, dBA 100
is equal to
(C) 70 dBA
(D) 60 dBA
The mean indoor airborne Chloroform

concentration in a room was
determined to be
0.4
Use the following data T = 293K, P = 1
Atmosphere, R = 82.05
atm/mol-K. Atomic weights: C = 12, H=1,
Cl = 35.5. This concentration expressed in
parts per billion (volume basic, ppbv) is
equal to
(A) 1.00 ppbv
(C) 0.10 ppbv
(B) 0.20 ppbv
(D) 0.08 ppbv
CE 2007
3.
The dispersion of pollutants in
atmosphere is maximum when
(A) Environment lapse rate is greater
than adiabatic lapse rate
(B) Environment lapse rate is less than
adiabatic lapse rate
(C) Environment lapse rate is equal to
adiabatic lapse rate
(D) Maximum mixing depth is equal to
zero
4.
CE 2008
5.
Two primary air pollutants are
(A) Sulphur oxide and ozone
(B) Nitrogen oxide and
peroxyacetylnitrate
(C) Sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon
(D) Ozone and peroxyacetylinitrate
CE 2009
6.
The reference pressure used in the
determination of sound pressure level is
(A) 20 P
(C) 10 P
(B) 20 d
(D) 10 d
7.
Particulate matter (fly ash) carried in

effluent gases from the furnaces burning
fossil fuels are better removed by
(A) Cotton bag house filter
(B) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
(C) Cyclone
(D) Wet scrubber
8.
Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
List II
A. Coriolis effect 1. Rotation of earth
B. Fumigation
2. Lapse rate and
vertical temp. profile
C. Ozone layer
3. Inversion
D. Max. mixing
4. Dobson
depth (mixing
height)
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(A) 2
1
4
3
(B) 2
1
3
4
(C) 1
3
2
4
(D) 1
3
4
2
Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are

in series. The fractional efficiencies of the
upstream and downstream ESPs for size
d are 80% and 65%, respectively. What
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
9.
According to the Noise pollution
(Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, of
the Ministry of Environment and Forests,
India, the day time and night time noise
level limits in ambient air for residential
area expressed in dB(A)
are
(A) 50 and 40
(C) 65 and 55
(B) 55 and 45
(D) 75 and 70
10.
An air parcel having

temperature
moves from ground level to 500 m
elevation in dry air following the
d
t
ps r t
r su t
temperature of air parcel at 500 m
elevation will be
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2011
11. Consider four common air pollutants
found in urban environment, N
Soot and . Among these which one is
the secondary air pollutant?
(A)
(C)
(B) N
(D)
t
CE 2014
12. The two air pollution control devices that
are usually used to remove very fine
particles from the flue gas are
(A) Cyclone and Venturi Scrubber
(B) Cyclone and Packed Scrubber
(C) Electrostatic Precipitator and Fabric
Filter
(D) Settling Chamber and Tray Scrubber
13.
The amount of
generated (in kg)
while completely oxidizing one kg of
to the end products is ____________

1.
[Ans. C]
is the sound pressure level in dB
which is exceeded for 40% of the gauging
time.
v u
t
= 22.4 L/mol
Given P
t
Now, slope of the given
y v
s p r
dr s w w
wt
in ppm =
pp v
pp v
3.
[Ans. A]
When the environment lapse rate is more
than the adiabatic lapse rate, a rising
parcel of warm lighter air (pollutants)
will continue to lift up; where as parcel of
P
r P
sp
pp
[Ans. D]
The relation between
and ppm is 1
ppm molecular mass of
p ut t
p ut t t v
P
P
Curve is a straight line, hence slope is

constant
2.
atmosphere;
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GATE QUESTION BANK
heavier cooler air will continue to come

down. In such circumstances the
environment is unstable and the
dispersion of pollutants will be rapid due
to marked vertical mixing of the air
4.
[Ans. B]
Given data:
Since the efficiency of upstream ESP is
80%, only 20% of the particulate are not
removed. These remaining particulates
will face the downstream ESP whose
efficiency is 65%.
Particulates removed by downstream
the Ministry of Environment & Forest,

India are tabulated below:
Category of
Day
Night
Area/Zone
time
time
Industrial
75
70
Area
Commercial
65
55
Area
Residential
55
45
Area
Silence
50
40
Zone
10.
[Ans. A]
Dry air cools at the rate of
per km
and it is called dry adiabatic lapse rate. In
saturated (wet)air, this rate is calculated
to be
per km and is known as wet
adiabatic lapse rate.
Resulting temperature of air
11.
[Ans. A]
Soot is a general term that refers to
impure carbon particles resulting from
the
incomplete
combustion
of
hydrocarbons. Soot, as an air borne
contaminant in the environment has
many different sources but they are all
result of some form of pyrolysis.
12.
[Ans. C]
13.

Oxidization reaction of CH4
i.e 1 mole of
2.75 is correct response
P
The two ESPs are connected in series,
therefore the overall efficiency =80 + 13
= 93%.
5.
6.
[Ans. C]
Sulphur dioxide carbon monoxide,
nitrogen oxides, lead, hydrocarbons,
allergic agents like pollens and spores and
radioactive substances are primary
pollutants.
Sulphuric
acid,
ozone,
formaldehydes & peroxyacylnitrates
(PAN) are secondary pollutants.
[Ans. A]
The sound pressure of the faintest sound
that can be heard by a normal healthy
individual is about 20 P . Hence, this
pressure is used as reference pressure in
determination of sound pressure level.
7.
[Ans. B]
8.
[Ans. D]
9.
[Ans. B]
Ambient air quality standards in respect
of Noise as per Noise pollution
(Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, of
th
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Page 214
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Trusses and Arches

CE 2005
Common Data for Q.No.1 & Q.No.2
A truss is shown in the figure. Members
are of equal cross section A and same
modulus of elasticity E. A vertical force P
is applied at point C
4.
The members EJ and IJ of a steel truss

shown in the figure below are subjected
to a temperature rise
. The
coefficient of thermal expansion of steel is
0.000012 pe
per unit length. The
displacement (mm) of joint E relative to
joint H along the direction HE of the truss,
is
P
C
3000 mm
L
B
2L
3000 mm
1.
Force in the member AB of the truss is

(A)
(B)
2.
(C)
(D)
Deflection of the point C is

(A) (
(B)
(C) (
(D) (
(A) 8
(B) 7
(A) 0.255
(B) 0.589
(C) 0.764
(D) 1.026
CE 2009
5.
The degree of static indeterminacy of a
rigidly jointed frame in a horizontal plane
and subjected to vertical load only, as
shown in figure below , is
Ends clamped to rigid wall
)
)
CE 2008
3.
The degree of static indeterminacy of the
rigid frame having two internal hinges as
shown in the figure below, is
I
H
J
3000 mm
(C) 6
(D) 5
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
CE 2010
6.
A three hinged parabolic arch having a
span of 20 m and rise of 5 m carries a
point load of 10 kN at quarter span from
the left end as shown in the figure. The
resultant reaction at the left support and
its inclination with the horizontal
respectively
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Page 215
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10 kN
CE 2014
9.
A box of weight 100 kN shown in the
figure is to be lifted without swinging. If
all forces are coplanar, the magnitude and
di ection () of force (F) with respect to
x axis should be
y
5m
5m
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
5m
10 m
9.01 kN and
9.01 kN and
7.50 kN and
2.50 kN and
40kN
90 kN
(A)
k nd
(B) F= 56.389kN and
(C)
k nd
(D)
k nd
L
R
10.
(A) Zero
(B)
(C) P
(D)
100kN
For the turss shown in the figure, the

force in the member QR is
Mathematical idealization of a crane has

three bars with their vertices arranged as
shown in the figure with a load of 80 kN
hanging vertically. The coordinates of the
vertices are given in parentheses. The
force in the member QR,
will be
P (0, 4)
80 kN
22.8
CE 2013
8.
The pin-jointed 2-D truss is loaded with a
horizontal force of 15 kN at joint S and
another 15 kN vertical force at joint U, as
shown. Find the force in member RS (in
kN) and report your answer taking
tension as positive and compression as
negative. __________
4m
104.0
Q (1, 0)
4m
4m
R
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15kN
4m
Structural Analysis
15kN
T
4m
11.
th
53.1
R (3, 0)
30 kN Compressive
30 kN Tensile
50 kN Compressive
50 kN Tensile
For the truss shown below, the member

PQ is short by 3 mm. the magnitude of
vertical displacement of joint R (in mm)
is _______________
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Page 216
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
R
3M
Structural Analysis
The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable,

shown in the figure neglecting its self
weight is
3m
3m
S
P
4M
4M
Cable
Cable
R
120 kN
(A) 120
(B) 75
(C) 60
(D) 45

1.
[Ans. C]
Since the truss is loaded symmetrically,
the reaction will be equal
Thus reaction at B =
Now considering joint equilibrium at B
in
(i)
co
From (i), we have
in
co
(
2.
(ii)
Assuming tensile forces as positive and

compressive forces as negative.
Member P
K
L
co
[Ans. A]
It is evident from the diagram that all the
interior members will carry zero force
BC
2L
Deflection at C,
Where K is the force in member when a
unit load is applied at C.
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Page 217
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
(
3.
[Ans. D]
The degree of static indeterminacy for a
rigid hybrid frame is given by
m
(j j )
Where,
m = total number of members = 9
tot l number of external reactions
=2+1+1=4
tot l number of released reactions
at hybrid joint
) (
)
(m
) (
Considering joint I
in
j = total number of rigid joints = 6

j = total number of hybrid joints = 2
(
)
(
)
Considering joint E
[Ans. *]
1
3000 mm
3000 mm
4.
Structural Analysis
The deflection at E in the direction HE is

given by
k
But only EJ and IJ subjected to
temperature change
k
3000 mm
mm
Note: None of the option is correct.
th
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Page 218
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
6.
[Ans. A]
Seeing the load pattern, it is to be treated
as space frame.
The number of reactions at each fixed
support of a rigid jointed space frame = 6
Hence total no. of reactions =
No. of equilibrium equations =6
Static indeterminacy = 12 6 =6
7.
Structural Analysis
[Ans. C]
Using method of joints and considering
joint S, we get
nd
(ten ile)
[Ans. A]
10 kN
5m
5m
5m
Considering joint R, we get
10 m
in
(comp )
Let the vertical reactions at left and right

support be
nd upwards
respectively. Taking moment about right
support, we get
co
(ten ion)
k
Let the horizontal reaction at left support
be H from left to right. Taking moment
about the crown from left, we get
k
e lt nt e ction
8.
[Ans. 0]
S
( )
k
Let the resultant reaction at the left
support makes and angle with the
horizontal
15 kN
15 kN
Q
15 kN
H=0
t n
t n (
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Page 219
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Take moment about V
40
o
x sin 53.13 = 40
x = 50 kN
Z = 30 kN
ie. Compressive
So, Force in RS = 0
9.
[Ans. A]
From (1)
90 sin
( )
From (2)
90 cos
( )
From (3)
in
From (1)
co
(5) / (6)
( )
( )
in
in
11.
co
( )
1
R
( )
From (5)
F = 56.389 kN
10.
[Ans. A]
At point

is short by 3 mm
We have to find out vertical displacement
of joint R in mm
( )
Let us apply unit load at R as shown
below
in
co
co
in
cot
co
Let force in PR be x and PQ be y and force

in QR be Z (all assumed to be tensile)
(
mm p
)
d
k
At point R:
th
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Page 220
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
Structural Analysis
[Ans. B]
3m
P
5m
3m
S
4m

5m
R
120 kN
Free body diagram

S
T
4m
5m
5m
120 kN
= 75 kN
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Page 221
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Influence Line Diagram and Rolling Loads

CE 2005
1.
below the lists
List I
List II
A. Slope deflection 1. Force
method
method
B. Moment
2. Displacement
distribution
method
C. Method of three
moments
D.
tigli no
second theorem
Codes
A
B
C
D
(A)
1
2
1
2
(B)
1
1
2
2
(C)
2
2
1
1
(D)
2
1
2
1
CE 2006
2.
Consider the beam ABCD and the
influence line as shown below. The
influence line pertains to
A
Internal hinge
L
L
6m
R
4.5m
(A) 2.47 mm
(B) 10.25 mm
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Tension
(A) PS
(B) RS
(C) PQ
(D) QS
CE 2008
5.
The span(s) to be loaded uniformly for
maximum positive (upward) reaction at
support P, as shown in the figure below, is
(are)
Q
(A) PQ only
(B) PQ and QR
Reaction at A,
Shear force at B,
Shear force on the left of C,
Shear force on the right of C,
CE 2007
3.
The right triangular truss is made
members having equal sectional area
1550 mm nd Yo ng mod l
MPa. The horizontal deflection
the joint Q is
Compression
2L
(C) 14.31 mm
(D) 15.68 mm
The influence line diagram (lLD) shown is

for the member
1
A
135 kN
of
of
of
of
(C) QR and RS
(D) PQ and RS
CE 2013
6.
Beam PQRS has internal hinges in spans
PQ and RS as shown. The beam may be
subjected to a moving distributed vertical
load of maximum intensity 4kN/m of any
length any where on the beam. The
maximum absolute value of the shear
force (in kN) that can occur due to this
th
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Page 222
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
loading just to the right of support Q shall

be:
P
Structural Analysis
0.75
P.
0.6
Q.
S
0.25
5m
5m
5m
20 m
(A) 30
(B) 40
5m
(C) 45
(D) 55
1.0
0.5
R.
CE 2014
7.
In a beam of length L, four possible
influence line diagrams for shear force at
a section located at a distance of
0.6
S.
0.5
from
(A) P
(B) Q
the left end support (marked as P, Q, R

and S) are shown below. The correct
influence line diagram is
(C) R
(D) S

1.
[Ans. C]
2.
[Ans. B]
3.
[Ans. D]
P
135 kN
Q
135 kN
1 kN
135 kN
180 kN
180 kN
A+R
6m
A+ P
co
4.5 m
= 225 kN
k
Tension (+), compression ( ) and
k
for each member
k
t n
in
and
co
Taking
k
k
Considering joint R and joint P
th
Member
PQ
225
1:67
7.5
QR
RP
4.5
th
th
Page 223
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
When a cut is made just to right of Q and

displacement are given such that
is
parallel to
As is very close to Q,
displacement of to the left will be zero
and that to right will be 1
mm
4.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. D]
With the help of Muller Breslau principle,
we can draw the ILD for reaction at P
P
Structural Analysis
Hence rope of
Slope of
or dinate at
Or dinate at
If UDL is loading span PR, we get max SF

just to the right of Q
k
ILD for vertical reaction at P
The reaction is positive between P and Q

and R and S respectively. Hence the spans
PQ and RS should be loaded uniformly for
maximum positive reaction at P.
6.
7.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. C]
P
5m 5m
R
20m
S
5m 5m
l o
0.25
( ) 0.25
ILD for SF to right of Q
th
th
th
Page 224
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Slope and Deflection Method

CE 2005
1.
All members of the frame shown below
have the same flexural rigidity El and
length L. if a moment M is applied at joint
B, the rotation of the joints is
M
B
El, L
El, L
CE 2007
Common Data Questions 4 and 5
A two span continuous beam having equal
spans each of length L is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load w per unit
length. The beam has constant flexural
rigidity.
4.
El, L
The reaction at the middle support is

(A) wL
(C)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
5.
CE 2006
2.
Carry over factor
for the beam
shown in the figure below is
C
B
A
Internal hinge
L
(A)
(B)
3.
(C)
(D) 1
Consider the beam AB shown in the figure

below. Part AC of the beam is rigid while
Part CB has the flexural rigidity El.
Identify the correct combination of
deflection at end B and bending moment
at end A, respectively
(D)
The bending moment at the middle

support is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2008
Statement for linked Answer Questions
6&7
Beam GHI is supported by three pontoons
as shown in the figure below. The
horizontal cross sectional area of each
pontoon is 8m2, the flexural rigidity of the
beam is 10000 kN-m2 and the unit weight
of water is 10kN/m3.
P = 48 kN
G
P
Pontoons
C
L
5m
5m
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
6.
When the middle pontoon is removed, the

deflection at H will be
(A) 0.2 m
(C) 0.6m
(B) 0.4m
(D) 0.8m
th
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Page 225
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
When the middle pontoon is brought back

to its position as shown in the figure
above, the reaction at H will be
(A) 8.6 kN
(C) 19.2 kN
(B) 15.7 kN
(D) 24.2 kN
Structural Analysis
3m
4m
S
2m
T
CE 2009
Statement for linked Answer Questions
8&9
In the cantilever beam PQR shown in the
figure below, the segment PQ has flexural
rigidity EI and the segment QR has
infinite flexural rigidity
W
EI
Rigid
Q
R
P
L
8.
(B)
9.
100kNm
2m
Q
12.
and
and
A uniform beam (EI = constant ) PQ in

the form of a quarter circle of radius R is
fixed at end P and free at the end Q, where
a load W is applied as shown. The vertical
downward displacement,
at the
loaded point Q is given by:
(C)
and
(D)
and
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2012
10. A simply supported beam is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of intensity w
per until length, on half of the span from
one end. The length of the span and the
flexural stiffness are denoted as l and EI,
respectively. The deflection at mid span
of the beam is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The deflection of the beam at R is

(A)
ind the value of (correct to 4 decimal

places).______________________
W
The deflection and slope of the beam at Q

are respectively
(A)
R
P
13.
A uniform beam weighing 1800 N is

supported at E and F by cable ABCD.
Determine the tension (in N ) in segment
AB of this cable (correct to 1 decimal
place). Assume the cables ABCD, BE and
CF to be weightless,----------------------A
D
1m
C
B
E
CE 2013
11. All members in the rigid jointed frame
shown are prismatic and have the same
flexural stiffness EI. Find the magnitude of
the bending moment at Q (in kNm) due to
the given loading.______________________
1m
F
2m
0.5 m
th
th
0.5 m 0.5 m
th
Page 226
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2014
14. For the cantilever beam of span 3 m
(shown below), a concentrated load of 20
kN applied at the free end causes a
vertical displacement of 2 mm at a section
located at a distance of 1 m from the fixed
end. If a concentrated vertically
downward load of 10 kN is applied at the
section located at a distance of 1 m from
the fixed end (with no other load on the
beam),
the
maximum
vertical
displacement in the same beam (in mm)
is __________
2 mm
1m
15.
16.
Structural Analysis
The beam of an overall depth 250 mm

(shown below) is used in a building
subjected to two different thermal
environments. The temperatures at the
top and bottom surfaces of the beam are
36C and 72C respectively. Considering
coefficient of thermal expansion ( )
per C, the vertical deflection
of the beam (in mm) at its mid-span due
to temperature gradient is ________
20kN
2m
Considering the symmetry of a rigid

frame as shown below, the magnitude of
the bending moment (in kNm) at P
(preferably
using
the
moment
distribution method) is
(A) 170
(B) 172
(C) 176
(D) 178
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Page 227
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis

1.
[Ans. B]
3.
[Ans. A]
Part AC of the beam is rigid. Hence C will
act as a fixed end. Thus the deflection at B
will be given as
For AB,
tiffne
fo
tiffne
fo
tiffne
But the bending moment does not depend

on the rigidity or flexibility of the beam.
t
2L = 2PL
4.
[Ans. C]
W per limit length

B
Total stiffness of the joint

l
l
l
l
C
L
Rotation of joint B =
2.
0.5 0.5
Initial F.E.M
[Ans. D]
Carry over factor
Balancing
Carry over
Final F.E.M
A
B
L
et
For
ppl moment t
take moment @ C = 0
M/L (upward)
(do n
g in
B
L
d)
Take moment at A: Take moment at C,
f om ight ide
Carry over factor =
ot l
th
th
th
Page 228
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Hint: The given continuous beam can be

treated as two symmetrical propped
cantilevers.
Each span
( It is a standard case,
which can be remembered)

5.
[Ans. B]
6.
[Ans. B]
The reaction at the ends are zero as there
are hinges to left of G and right of I. Hence
when the middle pontoon is removed, the
beam GHI acts as a simply supported
beam
Also, we have
Q+Q+R=P
2Q + R = 48
l o (
)
e of c o
pontoon x
=R
(
)
[from (ii)]
48 kN
G
[from (iii)]
I
24kN
24kN
The deflection at H will be due to the load

at H as well as due to the displacement of
pontoons at G and I in water. Since the
loading is symmetrical, both the pontoons
will be immersed to same height
Let it be x.
area of cross-section of pontoon
unit weight of water = 24
x 8 10 = 24
x = 0.3m
Also, deflection at H due to load P =
(
8.
=
k
[Ans. C]
et the el tic deflection t
(
[from (i)]
[Ans. A]
The given cantilever beam can be
modified into beam as shown below
w
EI
L
Deflection at Q =
WL
= 0.1m
in l deflection t
7.
(iii)
section of
lope t
be
(i)
The reactions at G and I will be same, as
the beam is symmetrically loaded,
Let the reaction at each G and I be Q
Using principle of buoyancy, we get
x area of cross-section of pontoon
x
=Q
9.
[Ans. C]
Since the portion QR of the beam is rigid,
QR will remain straight.
Deflection of R = Deflection at Q + Slope
at Q L
=
L=
(ii)
th
th
th
Page 229
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
Structural Analysis
[Ans. B]
k m
l l
( )( )
(l)
l
k m
B
l
12.
[Ans. *] Range 0.785 to 0.786

W
Q
d
d
( )
d
d
( )
)(
)
Q
R
P
Applying method of strain
To find
energy
he e
@ x = l, y = 0
( )
l l
)
(
l
in in pol
(l)
nd d
in
l
l l
( )
( )
in
11.
fo m
l
l )( )
in
in d
] l
13.
[Ans. 25]
3m
[Ans. *]Range 1310 to 1313

R
4m
D
H
2m
P
H
1m
100kNm
2m
1m
1350N
450N
Weight of beam = 1800 N.

Taking moment about F:-
For equilibrium,
th
th
th
Page 230
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Fixed End Moment

fo c ble
k m
(
14.
k m
k m
m
k m
Distribution table
[Ans. 1]
20 kN
0
2mm
16
ecip oc l theo em
d
16.
32
32
48
16
[Ans. *] Range 2.38 to 2.45
24 kN/m
C
6m
8m
Distribution factor
Joint
Member
[Ans. C]
B
128
6 of bending
2
The magnitude
moment at P =
176 kNm
x = 1 mm
1 is answer
15.
128
32
16
ell
)
(
8m
(
RS
TRS
)
)
mm
DF
BA
B
BP
PB
P
PE
PC
CP
C
CD
th
th
th
Page 231
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Degree of Static Indeterminacy

CE 2005
1.
Considering beam as axially rigid, the
degree of freedom of a plane frame shown
below is
ble
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6
CE 2014
2.
The degree of static indeterminacy of a
rigid joined frame PQR supported as
shown in figure is.
(A) Zero
(B) One
3.
(C) Two
(D) Unstable
The static indeterminacy of the two-span

continuous beam with an internal hinge
shown below, is ___________

1.
[Ans. B]
Degree of kinematic indeterminacy or
degree of freedom,
j
m
2.
[Ans. A]
(
(
3.
[Ans. 0]
Number of member, m = 4
Number of external reaction,
Number of joint, j = 5
Number of reactions released,
Degree of static indeterminacy,
m
j
)
)
th
th
th
Page 232
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Force Energy Method

CE 2006
1.
Vertical reaction developed at B in the frame below due to the applied load of 100 kN (with
150,000 mm cross-sectional area and
mm moment of inertia for both members) is
A
B
Internal hinge
1m
1m
(A) 5.9 kN
(B) 30.2 kN
(C) 66.3 kN
(D) 94.1 kN

1.
[Ans. A]
100 kN
A
R
R
C
R
Deflection at A in beam AB = Compression in column AC

(
)
l
(
) (
)
k
k
th
th
th
Page 233
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis
Matrix Method of Structural Analysis

CE 2005
1.
For a linear elastic frame, if stiffness
matrix is doubled with respect to the
existing stiffness matrix, the deflection of
the resulting frame will be
(A) Twice the existing value
(B) Half the existing value
(C) The same as existing value
(D) Indeterminate value
CE 2013
A propped cantilever made of a prismatic
steel beam is subjected to a concentrated
load P at mid span as shown.
P
CE 2007
2.
The stiffness coefficient k indicates
(A) Force at i due to a unit deformation at j
(B) Deformation at j due to a unit force at i
(C) Deformation at i due to a unit force at j
(D) Force at j due to a unit deformation at i
1.5m
4.
If load P = 80 kN, find the reaction R (in

kN) (correct to 1 decimal place) using
elastic analysis.__________
5.
If the magnitude of load P is increased till

collapse and the plastic moment carrying
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm,
determine reaction R(in kN) (correct to 1decimal place) using plastic analysis._______
CE 2012
3.
A symmetric frame PQR consists of two
inclined members PQ and QR, connected at
ith igid joint nd hinged t nd
he ho i ont l length
i l f
eight
i
pended t the bending
moment t i
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) Zero
1.5m
th
th
th
Page 234
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Structural Analysis

1.
[Ans. B]
Stiffness matrix and deflection are related
as
Thus, when stiffness matrix is doubled,
then deflection will reduced to half of the
existing value.
2.
[Ans. A]
3.
[Ans. D]
The given frame can be treated as a linear
inverted arch. For a lined arch, No S.F &
B.M, only axial forces. Hence B.M at every
point incl ding t i e o
4.
5.
[Ans. 60]
P
k
m
MP = 90kN m
m R
[Ans. 25]
k
B
From compatibility equation

Net deflection at c = 0
l
l
( )
(
*
)
)
)
(
th
th
th
Page 235
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Simple Stress and Strain Relationship

CE 2005
1.
The symmetry of stress tensor at a point
in the body under equilibrium is obtained
from
(A) conservation of mass
(B) force equilibrium equations
(C) moment equilibrium equations
(D) conservation of energy
2.
3.
6.
For an isotropic material, the relationship

between the Young's modulus (E), shear
modulus (G) and Poisson's ratio () is
given by
(A) G =
(B) E =
(C)
(D)
)
(
A metal bar of length 100 mm is inserted

between two rigid supports and its
temperature is increased by 10C. If the
coefficient of thermal expansion is
per C and the Young's
modulus is 2 105 MPa, the stress in the
bar is
(A) Zero
(C) 24MPa
(B) 12 MPa
(D) 2400 MPa
8.
A rigid bar is suspended by three rods

made of the same material as shown in
the figure. The area and length of the
central rod are 3 A and L, respectively
while that of the two outer rods are 2A
and 2L, respectively. If a downward force
of 50kN is applied to the rigid bar, the
forces in the central and each of the outer
rods will be
If principal stresses in a two-dimensional

case are
MPa and 20 MPa
respectively, then maximum shear stress
at the point is
(A) 10 MPa
(C) 20 MPa
(B) 15 MPa
(D) 30 MPa
CE 2006
4.
Mohr's circle of the state of stress defined
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
The components of strain tensor at a
point in the plane strain case can be
obtained by measuring longitudinal strain
in following directions
(A) Along any two arbitrary direction
(B) Along any three arbitrary directions
(C) Along two mutually orthogonal
directions
(D) Along any arbitrary direction
by *
+ MPa is a circle with
center at (0,0) and radius 30 MPa

center at (30, 0) and zero radius
CE 2007
5.
An axially loaded bar is subjected to a
normal stress of 173 MPa.
The shear stress in the bar is
(A) 75MPa
(C) 100MPa
(B) 86.5MPa
(D) 122.3MPa
50 kN
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
th
16.67kN each
30kN and 15kN
30kN and 10kN
21.4kN and 14.3kN
th
th
Page 236
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
U1 and U2 are the strain energies stored in

a prismatic bar due to axial tensile forces
P1 and P2, respectively. The strain energy
U stored in the same bar due to combined
action of P1 and P2 will be
(A) U = U1 + U2
(C) U < U1 + U2
(B) U = U1 U2
(D) U > U1 + U2
CE 2008
10. A mild steel specimen is under uniaxial
tensile stress. Young's modulus and yield
stress for mild steel are 2 105 MPa and
250 MPa respectively. The maximum
amount of strain energy per unit volume
that can be stored in this specimen
without permanent set is
(A) l56Nmm/mm3
(B) 15.6Nmm/mm3
(C) 1.56Nmm/mm3
(D) 0.156Nmm/mm3
11.
A vertical rod PQ of length L is fixed at its

top end P and has a flange fixed to the
bottom end Q. A weight W is dropped
vertically from a height h (<L) on to the
flange. The axial stress in the rod can be
reduced by
(A) Increasing the length of the rod
(B) Decreasing the length of the rod
(C) Decreasing the area of cross-section
of the rod
(D) Increasing the modulus elasticity of
the material
CE 2009
12. Consider the following statements :
1. On a principal plane, only normal
stress acts.
2. On a principal plane, both normal
and shear stresses act.
3. On a principal plane, only shear
stress acts.
4. Isotropic state of stress is
independent of frame of reference.
Which of the above statements is /are
correct?
(A) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(B) 2 only
(D) 2 and 3
Mechanics
CE 2010
13. The major and minor principal stresses at
a point are 3 MPa and
MPa
respectively. The maximum shear stress
at the point is
(A) Zero
(C) 6 MPa
(B) 3 MPa
(D) 9 MPa
14.
The number of independent elastic

constants for a linear elastic isotropic and
homogeneous material is
(A) 4
(C) 2
(B) 3
(D) 1
CE 2011
15. Consider a simply supported beam with a
uniformly distributed load having a
neutral axis (NA) as shown. For points P
(on the neutral axis) and Q (at the bottom
of the beam) the state of stress is best
represented by which of the following
pairs?
P
NA
Q
L
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE 2012
16. The poissons ratio is defined as
th
(A) |
(C) |
(B) |
(D) |
th
th
Page 237
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
17.
If a small concrete cube is submerged

deep in still water in such a way that the
pressure exerted on all faces of the cube
is p , then the maximum shear stress
developed inside the cube is
(A) 0
(C) p
(D) 2p
(B)
22.
Mechanics
For the state of stresses (in MPa) shown

in the figure below, the maximum shear
stress (in MPa) is ________
4
4
2
CE 2013
18. The plane section remains plane
assumption in bending theory implies:
(A) Strain profile is linear
(B) Stress profile is linear
(C) Both strain and stress profiles are
linear
(D) Shear deformations are neglected
19.
20.
23.
The creep strains are

(A) Caused due to dead loads only
(B) Caused due to live loads only
(C) Caused due to cyclic loads only
(D) Independent of loads
A box of weight 100kN shown in the

figure is to be lifted without swinging. If
all forces are coplanar, the magnitude and
direction () of the force (F) with respect
to x-axis should be
y
40 kN
90 kN
F
100 kN
2D stress at a point is given by a matrix

*
+ Pa
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The maximum shear stress in MPa is

(A) 50
(C) 100
(B) 75
(D) 110
F
F
F
F
kN and
kN and
kN and
kN and
CE 2014
21. The values of axial stress ( ) in kN/m ,
bending moment (M) in kNm, and shear
force (V) in kN acting at point P for the
arrangement shown in the figure are
respectively
Cable
P
Beam
m
3m
Frictionless
Pulley
m)
kN
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1000, 75 and25
1250, 150 and50
1500, 225 and75
1750, 300 and100
th
th
th
Page 238
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics

1.
[Ans. C]
Taking moment equilibrium about the
Centre, we get
8.
[Ans. C]
If the force in each of outer rods is P0, and
force in the central rod is Pc then
2P0 + Pc
(i)
Also, the elongation of central rod and
outer rods is same.
d/2
d/2
yx
d/2
d/2
yx
xy
P
P (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
PC = 30kN and PO = 10kN
xy
xy
[Ans. B]
When strain is measured along any three
arbitrary directions, the strain diagram is
called rosette.
3.
[Ans. B]
Maximum
4.
5.
shear
stress
[Ans. D]
The maximum and minimum principal
stresses are same, So, radius of circle
becomes zero and centre is at (30, 0). The
circle is represented by a point.
10.
[Ans. A]
(
11.
mm/mm
[Ans. A]
The kinetic energy of the weight (W) is
stored in the form of strain energy in the
rod. We know that
U=
Pa
area of cross section of rod
length of rod
Since, energy remains constant, hence to
reduce the axial stress in the rod, the
length of the rod should be increased or
area of cross-section of the rod should be
increased or modulus of elasticity should
be decreased.
)
)
[Ans. C]
Temperature stress
[Ans. D]
The strain energy per unit volume may be
given as
U=
[Ans. B]
Shear stress =
7.
It is obvious from the above equation that

strain energy is proportional to the
square of load applied. We know that sum
of squares of 2 number is less than square
of their sum. Thus U >
Pa
Shear stress =
6.
[Ans. D]
We know that strain energy, U =
2.
9.
yx
= 24MPa
th
th
th
Page 239
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
12.
[Ans. A]
On a principal plane, only normal stresses
act. No shear stresses act on the principal
plane.
13.
[Ans. B]
Maximum shear stress at the point is
given by
max
15.
[Ans. *]
No answer is correct. Correct stress
element will be
P
20.
[Ans. A]
(
There will be no stress at P because of

zero shear force at mid span and location
of P at neutral axis.
18.
[Ans. A]
Creep strains are caused due to prolonged
loading (static loading ) for long duration
of time. Thus creep is caused by dead
loads whereas fatigue is caused by
moving / cyclic loading.
[Ans. C]
17.
19.
Pa
14.
16.
Mechanics
21.
[Ans. B]
lateral strain
linear strain
Pa
[Ans. B]
Free body diagram
50 kN
50 kN
(0.2m 0.2m)
[Ans. A]
A member subjected to hydrostatic
pressure has mohr circle as a point. The
radius of mohr circle, i.e, maximum shear
stress is zero.
Pressure is uniform in all directions in
absence of shear stress [By pascals law]
3m
50 kN
Axial stress =
kN/m
Bending moment = shear force

= 50 3
= 150 kNm
22.
distance
[Ans. 5.0]
4
[Ans. A]
Recalling discussion from LSM of concrete
design, the limitations/ assumptions of
simple bending theory hold true with
stress and strain distribution
0.446fcp
4
2
ax shear stress
fy
here
s
0.87fy
(Nonlinear above N. A.) Strain distribution
(linear)
Hence, (A) is most appropriate option

th
th
th
Page 240
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
( )
Pa
(
23.
)
Pa
)
Pa
[Ans. A]
For no swinging F
40 kN
90 kN
100 kN
cos
cos
49.658 F cos
F cos
cos
kN
From options
)
cos(
So, F = 56.389 kN
F cos
kN
th
th
th
Page 241
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Bending Moment and Shear Force Diagram

CE 2005
1.
The bending moment diagram for a beam
is given Below.
b'
0.5 m 0.5 m
1m
1m
The shear force at sections aa' and bb'

respectively are of the magnitude
(A) 100 kN, 150 kN
(B) Zero, 100 kN
(C) Zero, 50 kN
(D) 100 kN,100 kN
CE 2006
2.
A simply supported beam AB has the
bending moment diagram as shown in the
following figure:
M
C
4.
(A)
(upwards)
(B)
(downwards)
(C)
(upwards)
(D)
(downwards)
The rotation at B is
(A)
(clockwise)
(B)
(anticlockwise)
(C)
(clockwise)
(D)
(anticlockwise)
CE 2008
5.
The stepped cantilever is subjected to
moments, M as shown in the figure below.
The vertical deflection at the free and
(neglecting the self weight) is
M
M
L
The reaction at C is
100 kN-m
a'
3.
200 kN-m
(A) Couples of M at C and 2M at D

(B) Couples of 2M at C and M at D
(C) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and
2M/L at D
(D) Concentrated load of M/L at C and
couple of 2M at D
Common data questions 3 and 4
Consider a propped cantilever beam ABC
under two loads of magnitude P each as
shown in the figure below, Flexural
rigidity of the beam is EI
EI
2EI
The beam is possibly under the action of

following loads
L/2
L/2
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) Zero
CE 2009
6.
Match List I (Shear force diagrams)
beam with List II (Diagrams of beams
with supports and loading) and select the
correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists:
th
th
th
Page 242
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
7.
Two people weighting W each are sitting
on a plank of length L floating on water at
L/4 from either end. Neglecting the
weight of the plank, the bending moment
at the centre of the plank is
q
q
+
q
q
+
q
Mechanics
8.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D) Zero
For the simply supported beam of length

L, subjected to a uniformly distributed
moment M kN-m per unit length as shown
in the figure, the bending moment (in kNm) at the mid span of the beam is
M kN m per unit
length
q/unit length
q/unit length
B
1
4
1
4
(C) ML
(D) M/L
CE 2011
Linked Answer Questions 9 and 10:
A rigid beam is hinged at one end and
supported on linear elastic springs (both
having a stiffness of k) at points and
and an inclined load acts at as
shown.
P
inge
Codes:
A
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 2
(A) Zero
(B) M
C
2
2
4
3
D
4
1
3
1
Fixed
9.
Which of the following options represents

the deflections and at points and
?
th
(A)
( ) and
(B)
( ) and
(C)
(D)
(
th
( )
( )
) and
) and
th
)
)
Page 243
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
If the load P equals 100 kN, which of the

following options represents forces
and
in the springs at points and ?
(A)
kN and
kN
(B)
kN and
kN
(C)
kN and
kN
(D)
kN and
kN
Mechanics
Q
h/2
P
M
h/2
R
CE 2012
11. The sketch shows a column with a pin at
the base and rollers at the top. It is
subjected to an axial force P and a
moment M at mid height. The reactions
(s) at R is /are
(A) A vertical force equal to P

(B) A vertical force equal to P/2
(C) A vertical force equal to P and
horizontal force equal to M/h
(D) A vertical force equal to P/2 and a
horizontal equal to M/h

1.
[Ans. C]
The bending moment to the left as well as
right of section aa is constant which
means shear force is zero at aa
hear force at bb
2.
=
Thus,
(downwards)
will be upwards
(upwards)
[Ans. A]
The Shear force diagram is
(upwards)
4.
[Ans. A]
The rotation at B
(i) Due to moment
SFD
)=
The reaction at
kN
(clockwise)
(ii) Due to reaction R
2M
(anticlockwise)
RA
=(
RB
Loading diagram
3.
)
(clockwise)
[Ans. C]
The moment at point B = 2Pa
In the cantilever beam ABC, the deflection
at C due to moment 2Pa will be given as
th
th
th
Page 244
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
=M
Thus, the reaction at the left support
will be M downwards
[Ans. C]
Using moment area method
M
M
2EI
EI
L/2
Mechanics
oment at the mid span,

= M +M =0
L/2
Infact the bending moment throughout

the beam is zero
9.
2M
[Ans. B]
BMD
P
k
diagram
Deflection at B w.r.t A = moment of area

of
diagram between A and B about B
6.
[Ans. A]
7.
[Ans. D]
The plank will be balanced by the buoyant
force acting under its bottom. Let the
intensity of buoyant force be w,
w
The free diagram of the beam is show

below
From similar triangles, we get
( )
Taking moments about hinge, we get
P
k
k
)
P k(
[ from (i)]
)
P k(
P
k
From (i). we get
P
P
k
k
For equilibrium, w L = W + W
w=
upwards
Thus, the bending moment at the centre

of the plank will be
M=
M=
10.
[Ans. D]
k
M=0
8.
P
k
kN
[Ans. A]
Let the reaction at the right hand support
be
upwards. Taking moments about
left hand support, we get
L ML = 0
P
k
kN
th
th
th
Page 245
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
11.
Mechanics
[Ans. C]
Q
P
M
H
V
Taking moment about
h
h
And axial force =P
th
th
th
Page 246
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Thin Walled Pressure Vessel

CE 2006
1.
A thin-walled long cylindrical tank of
inside
radius
r
is
subjected
simultaneously to internal gas pressure p
and axial compressive force F at its ends.
In order to produce 'pure shear' state of
stress in the wall of the cylinder, F should
be equal to
(A) pr2
(C) pr2
(B) pr2
(D) pr2
CE 2009
2.
A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel
having a radius of 0.5 m and wall
thickness of 25 mm is subjected to an
internal pressure of 700 kPa. The hoop
stress developed is
(A) 14 MPa
(C) 0.14MPa
(B) 1.4MPa
(D) 0.014MPa

1.
[Ans. C]
pr
t
oop stress
pr
t
Now, for pure shear state,
compressive and is equal to
pr
pr
F
t
t
rt
pr
F
t
rt
F
pr
ongitudinal stress
2.
F
rt
should be
[Ans. A]
oop stress
pd
t
Pa
th
th
th
Page 247
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Simple Bending Theory

shear force of 3000 N, the glue at any of
the four joints will be subjected to a shear
force (in kN per meter length) of
CE 2006
1.
A beam with the cross-section given
below is subjected to a positive bending
moment (causing compression at the top)
of 16 kN-m acting around the horizontal
axis. The tensile force acting on the
hatched area of the cross-section is
50 mm
200 mm
75 mm
50 mm
25 mm
50 mm 75
200
mm
mm
50 mm
50 mm
50 mm
(A) Zero
(B) 5.9 kN
2.
(C) 8.9 kN
(D) 17.8 kN
If a beam of rectangular cross-section to

subjected to a vertical shear force V, the
sheer force earned by the upper one-third
of the cross-section is
(A) Zero
(C)
(B)
3.
(D)
For the section shown below, second

moment of the area about an axis d/4
distance above the bottom of the area is.
b
(A) 3.0
(B) 4.0
(C) 8.0
(D) 10.7
CE 2007
5.
The shear stress at the neutral axis in a
beam of triangular section with a base of
40 mm and height 20 mm, subjected to a
shear force of 3 kN is
(A) 3 MPa
(C) 10 MPa
(B) 6 MPa
(D) 20 MPa
CE 2008
6.
The maximum tensile stress at the section
X-X shown in the figure below is
L/3
L/3
X
L/3
d/2
d/2
X
L/2
(A)
L/2
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
I section of a beam is formed by gluing

wooden planks as shown in the figure. If
this beam transmits a constant vertical
CE 2009
7.
The point within the cross sectional of a
beam through which the resultant of the
external loading on the beam has to pass
through to ensure pure bending without
twisting of the cross section of the beam
is called
(A) Moment centre
(B) Centroid
(C) Shear centre
(D) Elastic centre
th
th
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Page 248
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
8.
A disc of radius r has a hole of radius r/2
cut out as shown. The centroid of the
remaining disc (shaded portion) at a
radial distance from the O is
r/2
O O
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2011
9.
For the cantilever bracket, PQRS, loaded
as shown in the adjoining
figure(PQ=RS=L, and, QR =2L) which of
the following statements is FALSE?
S
Fixed
Mechanics
CE 2012
10. The following statements are related to
bending of beams:
I. The slope of the bending moment
diagram is equal to the shear force.
II. The slope of the shear force diagram
is equal to the load intensity
III. The slope of the curvature is equal to
the flexural rotation
IV. The second derivative of the
deflection is equal to the curvature.
The only FALSE statements is
(A) I
(C) III
(B) II
(D) IV
CE 2013
11. A symmetric l-section (with width of each
flange = 50 mm, thickness of web
= 10mm depth of web = 100mm) of steel
is subjected to a shear force of 100 kN.
Find the magnitude of the shear stress
(in Nmm ) in the web at its junction
with the top flange.
50mm
10mm
10mm
Q
W
L
(A) The portion RS has a constant

twisting moment with a value of
2WL.
(B) The portion QR has a varying
twisting moment with a maximum
value of WL.
(C) The portion PQ has a varying
bending moment with a maximum
value of WL.
(D) The portion PQ has no twisting
moment.
100mm
2L
10mm
50mm
th
th
th
Page 249
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics

1.
[Ans. C]
b d
*
mm
25 mm
mm
b
bd
x
f
mm
Bending stress distribution
mm
3.
[Ans. C]
Using parallel axis theorem, we get the
second moment of inertia as
y
N/mm
From similar triangles, we have
x
I=
4.
+ bd (
[Ans. B]
shear flow q =
x
n/mm
Tensile force
I =
+ 2 *
+= 3.5
kN
2.
) =
mm
For any of the four joints, Q = 50 75

125 = 468750 mm
[Ans. B]
q
= 4.0 N/mm = 4.0 kN/m
d/
5.
[Ans. C]
shear stress
dF
( / )
Where S = shear force

A = Area above the level where shear
stress is desired
y = distance of CG of area A from neautral
axis
I = Moment of inertia about neutral axis
b = width of the section at the level where
shear stress is desired
b dy
(
mm
y )
b dy
20 mm
Integrating both sides, we get

b / d
F
(
y ) dy
/
b d
* y
40 mm
Width at a distance of
+
/
=
th
mm from the top
mm
th
th
Page 250
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. B]
Statement B is false it should be the
portion QR has a constant twisting
moment of WL.
10.
[Ans. C]
d
d
d y
dx
dx
dx
But slope of curvature is not flexural
rotation
11.
)
Pa
(hy
y )
[
( ) ]
=10 MPa
50mm
10mm
60mm
[Ans. A]
The section at X X may be shown as in
the figure below
b
P
d
60mm
6.
The maximum tensile stress at the section

X X is
10mm
50mm
+
=
=
mm
Alternative q=
100mm
10mm
Mechanics
( / )
( / )
(
/ )
mm
+
q
7.
[Ans. C]
8.
[Ans. C]
The centroid of the shaded portion of the
disc is given by
y
lb
Nmm
X=
Where x is the radial distance from O.
r ; x = 0;
( ) =
=
r
r
r
( ve sign indicates centroid lies in left of

the origin)
th
th
th
Page 251
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Torsion
CE 2005
1.
A circular shaft shown in the figure is
subjected to torsion T at two points A and
B. The torsional rigidity of portions CA
and BD is GJ1, and that of portion AB is
GJ2. The rotations of shaft at points A and
B are and . The rotation is
C
A
B
D
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2006
2.
A long shaft of diameter d is subjected to
twisting moment T at its ends. The
maximum normal stress acting at its
cross-section is equal to
(A) Zero
(C)
(B)
CE 2008
4.
The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft
of circular cross section having
diameter d subjected to a torque T is . If
the torque is increased by four times and
the diameter of the shaft is increased by
two times, the maximum shear stress in
the shaft will be
(A)
(C) /
(B)
(D) /
(D)
CE 2007
3.
The maximum and minimum shear
stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer
diameter 20 mm and thickness 2 mm,
subjected to a torque of 92.7 N-m will be
(A) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa
(B) 100 MPa and 80 MPa
(C) 118 MPa and 160 MPa
(D) 200 MPa and 160 MPa
CE 2009
5.
A hollow circular shaft has an outer
diameter of 100 mm and a wall thickness
of 25 mm. The allowable shear stress in
the shaft is 125 MPa. The maximum
torque the shaft can transmit is.
(A) 46 kN-m
(C) 23 kN-m
(B) 24.5 kN-m
(D) 11.5kN-m
CE 2010
6.
A solid circular shaft of diameter d and
length L is fixed at one end and free at the
other end. A torque T is applied at the free
end. The shear modulus of the material is
G. The angle of twist at the free end is.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2014
7.
Polar moment of inertia ( ) in cm of a
rectangular section having width, b=2cm
and depth, d = 6 cm is ______________
th
th
th
Page 252
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics

1.
[Ans. B]
The symmetry of the shaft shows that
there is no torsion on section AB.
T
otation
5.
[Ans. C]
( )
T
T
[ ][
]
Td
(d
2.
[Ans. A]
(
Maximum shear stress

Normal stress = 0
3.
6.
)mm
mm
( )
and f
Pa
7.
T
( )
[Ans. 40]
Polar moment of inertia,
bd
db
Pa
Pa
bd
4.
Pa
But
[Ans. B]
Angle of twist is given by
T
mm
T
)
T
[
T
kNm
So correct option is (C)
[Ans. B]
f
T
ere
putting in ( )
d )
Td
[Ans. C]
We know that
T
(b
d )
(
cm
T
T
T
T
th
th
th
Page 253
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Column and Struts

CE 2006
1.
The buckling load P = Pcr for the column
AB in figure, as KT approaches infinity,
4.
A rigid bar GH of length L is supported by

a hinge and a spring of stiffness K as
shown in the figure below, the bucking
load,
for the bar will be
becomes
P
A
Flexural rigidity, EI
L
Torsional spring
of stiffness
B
Where is equal to
(A) 0.25
(B) 1.00
(C) 2.05
(D) 4.00
CE 2007
2.
A steel column pinned at both ends, has a
buckling load of 200 kN. If the column is
restrained against lateral movement at its
mid-height, its buckling load will be
(A) 200 kN
(C) 400 kN
(B) 283 kN
(D) 800 kN
CE 2008
3.
Cross-section of a column consisting of
two steel strips, each of thickness t and
width b is shown in the figure below. The
critical loads of the column with perfect
bond and without bond between the
strips are P and respectively. The ratio
P/P is.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(A) 0.5 KL
(B) 0.8 KL
(C) 1.0KL
(D) 1.2KL
CE 2010
5.
The effective length of a column of length
L fixed against rotation and translation at
one end and free at the other end is
(A) 0.5 L
(C) 1.414 L
(B) 0.7 L
(D) 2 L
CE 2012
6.
The ratio of the theoretical critical
buckling load for a column with fixed
ends to that of another column with the
same dimensions and material, but with
pinned ends, is equal to
(A) 0.5
(C) 2.0
(B) 1.0
(D) 4.0
CE 2013
7.
Two steel column P(length L and yield
strength f
Pa) and Q(length 2L
and yield strength f
MPa) have
the same cross-section and end condition
the ratio of bucking load of column P to
that of column Q is
(A) 0.5
(C) 2.0
(B) 1.0
(D) 4.0
th
th
th
Page 254
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
CE 2014
8.
The possible location of shear centre of
the channel section, shown below is,
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S

1.
[Ans. C]
Support A behaves like a hinge and
support B like a fixed end
When the steel strips are perfectly

bonded then
l=
When the steel strips are not bonded,

then
bt
bt
( )
( )
Nearest approximate answer is (C)

2.
[Ans. D]
When both ends are hinged, the bucking
load is given by
P
P
4.
[Ans. C]
Let the deflection in the spring be and
force in the spring be F. Taking moments
about G, we get
(But F
)
P
F
When the lateral movement at the mid height is not available, than buckling load.
kN
where
( )
3.
P
P
P
[Ans. B]
We know that critical load for a column is
proportional to moment of inertia
irrespective of end conditions of the
column i.e. ,
P
th
th
th
Page 255
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
Mechanics
[Ans. D]
Force end
Left =2L
Fixed end
6.
[Ans. D]
Eulers critical load,
P
P
P
7.
8.
(l )
*
+
(l )
[Ans. D]
Buckling load,
P
(l )
P
P
( )
P
l
]
l
( )
[Ans. A]
th
th
th
Page 256
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Mechanics
Analysis of Statically Determinate Structures

CE 2014
1.
The axial load (in kN) in the member PQ for the arrangement/assembly shown in the figure given
below is ____________
P
2m
160 kN
Q
2m
Beam
S
R
2m

1.
[Ans. 50]
Free body diagram
160 kN
Q
2m
2m
We can neglect the axial deformation as deflection due to axial forces will be less compared to
bending forces.
kN
th
th
th
Page 257
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Concrete Technology
CE 2009
1.
Match List I (list of test methods for
evaluating properties of concrete) with
List II (List of properties) and select the
below the list.
List I
List II
(A) Resonant
1. Tensile
Frequency test
strength
(B) Rebound
2. Dynamic
hammer test
Modulus of
Elasticity
(C) Split
cylinder 3. Workability
test
(D)Compacting
4. Compressive
factor test
strength
Codes
A
B
C
D
(A) 2
4
1
3
(B) 2
1
4
3
(C) 2
4
3
1
(D) 4
3
1
2
CE 2011
2.
The cross-section of a thermo-mechanically
treated (TMT) reinforcing bar has
(A) Soft ferrite-pearlite throughout.
(B) Hard martensite throughout
(C) A soft ferrite-pearlite core with a
hard martensitic rim.
(D) A hard martensitic core with a soft
pearlite-bainitic rim.
CE 2013
3.
Maximum possible value of Compacting
Factor for fresh (green) concrete is
(A) 0.5
(C) 1.5
(B) 1.0
(D) 2.0
CE 2014
4.
Group I contains representative stress
strain curve as shown in the figure, while
Group II gives the list of materials. Match
the stress stress curve with
corresponding materials.
Stress
J
K
Strain
Group I
P. Curve J
Q. Curve K
R. Curve L
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Group II
1. Cement paste
2. Coarse aggregate
3. Concrete
5.
The modulus of elasticity, E = 5000

where
is
the
characteristic
compressive strength of concrete,
specified in IS: 45-2000 is based on
(A) Tangent modulus
(B) Initial tangent modulus
(C) Secant modulus
(D) Chord modulus
6.
The first moment of area about the axis of

bending for a beam cross-section is
(A) Moment of inertia
(B) Section modulus
(C) Shape factor
(D) Polar moment of inertia
th
th
th
Page 258
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC

1.
[Ans. A]
2.
[Ans. C]
3.
[Ans. B]
Compacting factor is ratio of actual
density after compaction/theoretical
density (maximum) and for fresh
concrete it approaches unity semi
compact sections.
4.
[Ans. B]
5.
[Ans. B]
Modulus of electricity of concrete is based
on initial tangent modulus
6.
[Ans. B]
i
th
th
th
Page 259
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Basic of Mix Design

CE 2005
1.
The flexural strength of M-30 concrete as
per IS : 456-2000 is
(A) 3.83MPa
(C) 21.23MPa
(B) 5.47MPa
(D) 30.0MPa
2.
In a random sampling procedure for cube

strength of concrete, one sample consists
of X number of specimens. These
specimens are tested at 28 days and
average strength of these X specimens is
considered as test result of the sample,
provided the individual variation in the
strength of specimens is not more than
Y percent of average strength the value of
X and Y as per IS :456-2000 are
(A) 4 and 10 respectively
(B) 3 and 10 respectively
(C) 4 and 15 respectively
(D) 3 and 15 respectively
CE 2006
3.
If the characteristic strength of concrete
fck is defined as the strength below which
not more than 50% of the results are
expected to fall, the expression for fck in
terms of mean strength fm and standard
deviation would be
(A) fm 0.1645
(C) fm
(B) fm 1.645
(D) fm+ 1.645
CE 2007
4.
Consider the following statements
1. The
compressive strength
of
concrete decreases with increase in
water cement ratio of concrete mix
2. Water is added to concrete mix for
hydration of cement and workability
3. Creep and shrinkage of concrete are
independent of the water cement
ratio in concrete mix.
The TRUE statements are
(A) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only
5.
Consider the following statements

1. Modulus of elasticity of concrete
increases
with
increase
in
compressive strength of concrete
2. Brittleness of concrete increases
with decrease in compressive
strength of concrete.
3. Shear strength of concrete increases
with increase in compressive
strength of concrete.
(A) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
CE 2008
6.
A reinforced concrete structure has to be
constructed along a sea coast. The
minimum grade of concrete to be used as
per IS : 456-2000 is
(A) M 15
(C) M 25
(B) M 20
(D) M 30
CE 2009
7.
The modulus of Rupture of concrete in
terms of its characteristic cube
compressive
strength
(fck)in
MPa
according to IS : 456 -2000 is
(A) 5000 fck
(C) 5000
(B) 0.7 fck
(D) 0.7
CE 2011
8.
A 16mm thick plate measuring
650mm 420 mm is used as a base plate
for an ISHB 300 column subjected to a
factored axial compressive load of 2000
kN. As per IS : 456:2000, the minimum
grade of concrete that should be used
below the base plate for safely carrying
load is
(A) M 15
(C) M 30
(B) M 20
(D) M 40
th
th
th
Page 260
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
Consider a reinforcing bar embedded in

concrete. In a marine environment this
bar undergoes uniform corrosion, which
leads to deposition of corrosion products
on its surface and an increase in apparent
volume of the bar. This subjects the
surrounding concrete to expansive
pressure. As a result, corrosion cracks
appear at surface of concrete. Which of
the following statement is true?
(A) Corrosion causes circumferential
tensile stress in concrete and the
cracks will be parallel to corroded
reinforcing bar.
(B) Corrosion causes radial tensile
stresses in concrete and cracks will
be parallel to corroded reinforcing
bar.
(C) Corrosion causes circumferential
tensile stresses in concrete and
cracks will be perpendicular to the
direction corroded reinforcing bar.
(D) Corrosion causes radial tensile
stresses in concrete and cracks will
be perpendicular to direction of the
corroded reinforcing bar.
CE 2012
10 & 11
The cross section at mid span of a
beam at the edge of a slab is shown in the
sketch. A portion of the slab is considered
as the effective flange width for the beam.
The grades of concrete and reinforcing
steel are M25 and Fe415, respectively.
The total area of reinforcing bars (A), is
4000
. At the ultimate limit state,
denotes the depth of the neutral axis from
the top fiber. Treat the section as under
reinforce and flanged (
.
RCC
1000
100
650
570
325
All dimensions are in mm.
10.
The value of (in mm) computed as per

the Limit State Method of IS 456:2000 is
(A) 200.0
(C) 236.3
(B) 223.3
(D) 273.6
11.
The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm)

of section, as per the Limit State Method
is IS 456:2000 is
(A) 475.2
(C) 756.4
(B) 717.0
(D) 762.5
CE 2014
12. In a reinforced concrete section, the
stress at the extreme fibre in compression
is 5.80 MPa. The depth of neutral axis in
the section is 58 mm and the grade of
concrete is M25. Assuming linear elastic
behavior of the concrete, the effective
curvature of the section (in per mm) is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
13.
th
The target mean strength

for concrete
mix
design
obtained
from
the
characteristic strength
and standard
vi i ,
i
i
: 6-2000, is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
6
th
th
Page 261
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC

1.
[Ans. A]
Flexural strength of concrete is given as
7.
[Ans. D]
The modulus of rupture of concrete
= 0.7
= 0.7
2.
3.
is
= 3.83 N/mm2 = 3.83 MPa
8.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. D]
As per IS : 456 2000, the variation
should not be more than 15% for 3
sample listed for a cube for 28 days
compressive strength.
Working axial load =
The allowable bearing

concrete may be given as
i
[Ans. C]
As per clause 8.2.8 of IS:456-2000
concrete in sea water or exposed directly
along the sea coast shall be atleast M 20
grade in the case of plain concrete and M
30 in case of reinforced concrete.
4.
[Ans. C]
For 50% fck=fm
Where fm = average or mean compressive
strength.
5.
[Ans. B]
1. Compressive strength of concrete
increase with decrease of water
cement ratio
2. Main function of water in concrete is
hydration of cement and make
concrete workable.
3. Creep
and
shrinkage
are
independent of water-cement ratio.
6.
[Ans. B]
1.
2.
3.
= 0.7
Ec = 5000 . Therefore modulus of

elasticity of concrete increases with
compressive strength of concrete.
Brittleness is opposite to elasticity of
the concrete as brittleness increases,
elasticity decreases so the strength of
concrete.
More compressive strength means
more compacted material and hence,
more shear strength of concrete.
pressure
on
The permissible stress in direct

compression in various grades of
concrete as per IS: 456-2000 are
tabulated below:
Grades Stress
M10
2.5
M15
4.0
M20
5.0
M25
6.0
M30
8.0
M35
9.0
M40
10.0
M45
11.0
M50
12.0
The permissible stress in concrete should
be more than the allowable bearing
pressure. Thus the minimum grade of
concrete which should be used is M20.
9.
[Ans. C]
Sectional view of
reinforcement bar
Corrosion on the surface of steel bar will

cause apparent increase in volume of
concrete as it is obvious if stress acts in X
th
th
th
Page 262
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
direction thus cracks will develop in

direction perpendicular to X ie. Y. By
some reason as circumferential tensile
stress develops in bar, hence crack will
develop parallel to surface of bar.
10.
12.
RCC
[Ans. C]
From flexure formula
Here E = 5000
[clause 6.2.1.1 IS 456]
= 5000
Y = 58 mm
[Ans. C]
1000 mm
570 mm
100 mm
30 mm
C is correct answer
13.
[Ans. D]
6
570
325
Given,
And section is under reinforced
(
(6
6
6
Take
Check
11.
6
(
(
[Ans. B]
6
(
(6
6
6 (
6
6
, take M = 717.00 kNm
th
th
th
Page 263
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Design of RCC structures

CE 2013
1.
As per IS 456:2000 for M20 grade
concrete and plain barsin tension the
design bond stress
. Further,
IS 456:2000 permits this design bond
stress value to be increased by 60% for
HSD bars. The stress in the HSD
reinforcing
steel
barsin
tension,
= 6
.
Find the required
development length, , for HSD barsin
terms of the bar diameter, .____
CE 2014
2.
Match the information given in Group I
with those in Group II.
Group I
A. Factor to decrease ultimate strength
to design strength
B. Factor to increase working load to
ultimate load for design
C. Statical method of ultimate load
analysis
D. Kinematical mechanism method of
ultimate load analysis
Group II
1. Upper bound on ultimate load
2. Lower bound on ultimate load
3. Material partial safety factor
4. Load factor
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 2 1

1.
(
6
6
6
6
2.
[Ans. C]
th
th
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Page 264
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Analysis of Ultimate Load Capacity

CE 2005
1.
A rectangular column section of
250mm 400mm is reinforced with five
steel bars of grade Fe-500, each of 20mm
diameter. Concrete mix is M-30. The axial
load on the column section with minimum
eccentricity as per IS:456-2006 using
limit state method can be applied upto.
(A) 1707.37
(C) 1806.40
(B) 1805.30
(D) 1903.7
Stress

Assume straight line instead of parabola
for stress-strain curve of concrete as
given below and partial factor of safety as
1.0
0.67
0.002
CE 2006
4 and 5
In the design of beams for the limit state
of collapse in flexure as per IS:456-2000,
let the maximum strain in concrete be
limited to 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035). For
this situation, consider a rectangular
beam section with breadth as 250mm,
effective depth as 350mm, area of tension
steel as 1500
and characteristic
strengths of concrete and steel as 30
and 250 MPa respectively
4.
The depth of neutral axis for the balanced
failure is
(A) 140mm
(C) 168mm
(B) 156mm
(D) 185mm
5.
At the limiting state of collapse in flexure,

the force acting on the compression zone
of section is
(A) 326 kN
(C) 424 kN
(B) 389 kN
(D) 542 kN
6.
Consider the following statements:

1. The
width-to-thickness
ratio
limitations on the plate elements
under compression in steel members
are imposed by IS: 800-1984 in order
to avoid fabrication difficulties.
2. In a doubly reinforce concrete beam,
the
strain
in
compressive
reinforcement is higher than the
strain in adjoining concrete.
3. If a cantilever I-section supports slab
construction all along its length with
sufficient friction between them, the
permissible bending stress in
compression will be the same as that
in tension.
The true statements are
(A) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
0.0035
Strain
A rectangular under-reinforced concrete

section of 300 mm width and 500mm
effective depth is reinforced with 3 bars
of grade Fe-415, each of 16mm diameter.
Concrete mix is M-20.
2.
The depth of neutral axis from the

compressive fibre is
(A) 76mm
(C) 87mm
(B) 81mm
(D) 100mm
3.
The depth of the neutral axis abtained as

per IS : 456-2000 differs from the depth
of neutral laxis obtained in Q.2 by
(A) 15mm
(C) 25mm
(B) 20mm
(D) 32mm
th
th
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Page 265
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
8.
As per IS: 456-2000, consider the

following statements
1. The modular ratio considered in the
Working stress methods depends on
the type of steel used.
2. There is an upper limit on the
nominal shear stress in beams (even
with shear reinforcement) due to the
possibility of crushing of concrete in
diagonal compression.
3. A rectangular slab whose length is
equal to its width may not be a two
way slab for some support
conditions.
The true statement are
(A) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Assuming concrete below the neutral axis
to be cracked, the shear stress across the
depth of a singly-reinforced rectangular
beam section.
(A) Increases parabolically to the neutral
axis and then drops suddenly to zero
value.
(B) Increases parabolically to the neutral
axis and then remains constant over
the remaining depth.
(C) Increases linearly to the neutral axis
and then remains constant up to the
tension steel
(D) Increases parabolically to the neutral
axis and then remains constant up to
the tension steel.
9.
The limiting value of the moment of

resistance of the beam in kN-m is
(A) 0.14
(C) 45.08
(B) 0.45
(D) 156.82
10.
The limiting area of tension steal in mm2 is

(A) 473.9
(C) 373.9
(B) 412.3
(D) 312.3
CE 2008
11. In the design of a reinforced concrete
beam the requirement for bond is not
getting satisfied. The economical option
to satisfy the requirement for bond is by
(A) Bundling of bars
(B) Providing smaller diameter bars
more in number
(C) Providing larger diameter bars less
in number
(D) Providing same diameter bars more
in number.
12.
CE 2007
A single reinforced rectangular concrete
beam has a width of 150mm and an
effective depth of 330mm. The
characteristic compressive strength of
concrete is 20 MPa and the characteristic
tensile strength of steel is 415 MPa. Adopt
the stress block for concrete as given is
IS:456-2000 and take limiting value of
depth of neutral axis as a 0.48 times the
effective depth of the beam.
RCC
13.
th
Common Data for Questions 12 & 13

A
reinforced
concrete
beam
of
rectangular cross-section of breadth 230
mm and effective depth 400mm is
subjected to a maximum factored shear
force of 120kN. The grades of concrete,
main steel and stirrup steel are M 20,
Fe-415 and Fe-250 respectively. For the
area of main steel provided, the design
h
g h c as per IS: 456-2000 is
2
0.48N/mm . The beam is designed for
collapse limit state.
The spacing (mm) of 2-legged 8mm
stirrups to be provided is
(A) 40
(C) 250
(B) 115
(D) 400
In addition, the beam is subjected to a
torque whose factored value is 10.90 kN-m.
The strirrups have to be provided to carry a
shear (kN) equal to
(A) 50.42
(C) 151.67
(B) 130.56
(D) 200.23
th
th
Page 266
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
A reinforce concrete column contains

longitudinal steel equal to 1% of net
cross-sectional area of column. Assume
modular ratio as 10. The loads carried
(using elastic theory) by the longitudinal
steel and net area of concrete are Ps and
Pc respectively. The ratio Ps/Pc expressed
as percent is
(A) 0.1
(C) 1.1
(B) 1
(D) 10
15.
Un-factored maximum bending moments

at a section of a reinforced concrete beam
resulting from a frame analysis are 50, 80,
120 and 180 kN-m under dead, live, wind
and earthquake loads respectively. The
design
moment
(kNm)
as
per
IS 456: 2000 for the limit state of collapse
(flexure) is
(A) 195
(C) 345
(B) 250
(D) 372
CE 2010
16 & 17
A doubly Reinforced rectangular concrete
beam has a width of 300 mm and an
effective depth of 500 mm. the beam is
reinforced with 2200 mm2 of steel in
tension and 628 mm2 of steal in
compression. The effective cover for
compressive steel is 50mm. Assume that
both tension and compressive steel yield.
The grades of concerete and steel used
are M 20 and Fe 250 respectively. The
stress block parameters (rounded off to
first two decimal places) for concrete
shall be as per IS: 456-2000)
16.
The depth of neutral axis is

(A) 205.30mm
(C) 160.91mm
(B) 184.56mm
(D) 145.30mm
17.
The moment of resistance of section is

(A) 206.00 KN-m
(C) 237-80 kN-m
(B) 209.20KN-m
(D) 251.90Kn-M
RCC
CE 2011
18. Consider two RCC beams, P and Q, each
having the section 400 mm 750mm
(effective depth, d = 750mm) Made with
2
h vi g
cmax = 2.1N/mm . For
the reinforcement provided and the grade
of concrete used , it may be assumed that
h c = 0.75 N/mm2. The design shear in
beam P is 400kN and in beam Q is 750kN.
Considering the provisions of IS:4562000, which of the following statements is
true?
(A) Shear reinforcement should be
designed for 175kN for beam P and
the section for beam Q should be
revised.
(B) Nominal shear reinforcement is
required for beam P & shear
reinforcement should be designed
for 120kN for beam Q
(C) Shear reinforcement should be
designed for 175kN for beam P and
shear reinforcement should be
designed for 525 kN for beam Q
(D) The sections for both beams P & Q
need to be revised.
19.
th
Consider a bar of diameter D embedded

in a large concrete block as shown in the
adjoining figure, with a pull out force P
i g
i
b
st be the bond
strength (between the bar and concrete)
and the tensile strength of the bar,
respectively. If the block is held in
position and it is assumed that the
material of block does not fail, which of
the following options represents the
maximum value of P?
th
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Page 267
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Concrete
block
22.
A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm

and effective depth (d) 450 mm is
reinforced with four bars of 12 mm
diameter. The grade of concrete is M20
and grade of steel is Fe500. Given that
for M20 grade of concrete the ultimate
shear strength,
6
for
steel percentage, p = 0.25, and
for p = 0.50. For a
factored shear force of 45 kN, the
diameter (in mm) of Fe500 steel two
legged stirrups to be used at spacing of
375 mm, should be
(A) 8
(C) 12
(B) 10
(D) 16
23.
For a beam of cross-section,

width = 230 mm and effective depth
= 500 mm, the number of rebars of
12 mm diameter required to satisfy
minimum
tension
reinforcement
requirement specified by IS:456-2000
(assuming grade of steel reinforcement as
Fe500) is _____________
24.
The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade

of concrete, in
, as per
IS:456-2000 is __________
Embedded
Steel bar
L
(A) Maximum of (
st)
(B) Maximum of (
b)
(C) Minimum of (
(D) Minimum of (
CE 2012
20. As per IS 456:2000, in the Limit State
Design of a flexural member, the strain in
reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate
state should not be less than
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
RCC
CE 2014
21. While designing, for a steel column of
Fe250 grade, a base plate resting on a
concrete pedestal of M20 grade, the
bearing strength of concrete (in N/
)
in limit state method of design as per
IS : 456 2000 is _______
th
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Page 268
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC

1.
[Ans. A]
The axial Load on the column can be given
as
6
(
=3
( 6
= 100.38
So, difference = 100.38 76 = 24.38 mm
= 25mm.
4.
[Ans. B]
B
0.0035
( 6
0.002
,
2.
[Ans. A]
Variation of stress is taken as straight line
instead of parabola for the strain upto
0.002 and rest rectangular.
Here d, = 500mm, let x be depth of neutral
axis so force of tension = Force of
compression 3 (16)2 0.87 fy = 0.67
fck b xu + 0.67
similar triangle, we have

,
b xu
Calculation of depth of rectangular section

from strain diagram.
,
,
X=
= 75.84.38 = 76mm
3.
[Ans. C]
Difference between above result when
variation of stress for strain upto 0.002 is
taken as straight line instead of
parabolically IS : 456 2000 provided
parabolic variation of stress upto strain
0.002 partial factor of safety as 1.5 for
concrete equating,
force of compression = Force in tension
66
th
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Page 269
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
5.
[Ans. B]
Parabolic
A 0.0035 B
E
d
0.002
F
9.
[Ans. C]
B = 150mm, d = 330 mm, fck = 20 MPa
fy = 4.15, , = 0.48d,
=?
Limiting value of moment of Resistance
= Force of compression x lever arm
6
(
)
,
,
(
6
(
= 45.07 kN-m
10.
[Ans. A]
Limiting area of tension in steel, Force of
tension = Force in compression
6
(
6
In strain diagram
6.
7.
iv
For limiting state of collapse in flexure

6
,
T
iv
,
6
6
11.
[Ans. B]
To avoid buckling not for fabrication
difficulty
[Ans. B]
Provide small diameter bars in more
number
12.
[Ans. B]
Here, B = 230 mm, d = 400 mm, V = 120 kN
2
c = 0.48 N/mm
Total shear carried by beam
= 0.48 230 400
= 44.16 kN< 120 kN
Net shear force to be used for design
= 120 44.16 = 75.84KN
For vertical stirrups, spacing is given as
= 473.82mm2
[Ans. B]
Modular ratio in wsm method is defined as
m =
where
permissible comp.
stress due to bending in concrete

Therefore, it does not depend upon type of
steel used, but type of grade of concrete.
8.
RCC
[Ans. D]
Shear stress distribution along the depth
for a singly reinforced rectangular beam
section is given as
th
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Page 270
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
13.
[Ans. C]
Now, T = 10.90 kN-m
Equivalent Shear force due to concrete
6T
6
= 75.82
Total Shear Force
= 75.82 + 75.84 = 151.66 kN
14.
15.
16.
= 158.29 mm
6
(Discrepancy in deduction of area of
concrete taken over by steel in
compression)
17.
[Ans. B]
Moment of resistance (MR) calculated by
using compressive force
(
6
(
6
6
(
6
((
(
6 (
)
= 209.21 kNm
18.
[Ans. A]
cmax = 2.1 N/mm2, c = 0.75 N/mm2
Pr = 400 KN, Qr = 750kN
For P,
[Ans. D]
If A is the net cross sectional area of the
column,
is the area of steel,
is the
area of concrete, m is modular ratio and
is stress in concrete, then
[Ans. D]
Wind and earthquake effects are not
considered simultaneously.
(i) Design moment when wind effect is
considered
= 1.2 (DL + LL + WL)
= 1.2 (50 + 80 + 120)
= 300 kN-m
(ii) Design moment when earthquake
effect is considered
= 1.2 (DL + LL + EL)
= 1.2 (50 + 80 + 180)
= 372 kN-m
RCC
as
h
,
, h
( v
c) bd
= (1.33 0.75)
= 175 kN
,
400
vi
750 N
v> max
hence, sections should be
revised.
19.
[Ans. C]
will be working for peripheral area
embedded in concrete
B
g h b (
st will act on x section are of bar
[Ans. C]
Both compressive steal and tensioned
steal yield now, let x be the depth of
neautral axis,
Total force of compression
=
6
and force
intension = 0.87 fy
Equating both,
=
6
gh
st(
)
D
P
10 L
th
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Page 271
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Maximum value of P will be minimum of

bond strength and tensile strength.
P=
(
i [
(
23.
[Ans. 2]
Minimum tension reinforcement as per
26.5.11 is
20.
[Ans. D]
21.
[Ans. 9]
As per clause 344 of IS 456: 2000
Permissible bearing stress =
RCC
=9
22.
12 rebar =
are required
[Ans. A]
230m
m
24.
[Ans. 3.5]
Flexural strength =
= 0.7
= 3.5 N/
450 mm
i
(
(
, i i
i i
h
h
th
th
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Page 272
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Basic Elements of Pre-stressed Concrete

CE 2005
1.
IS 1343: 1980 limits the minimum
characteristic strength of pre-stressed
concrete for post tensioned work and
pretension work as
(A) 25 MPa, 30 MPa respectively
(B) 25 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
(C) 30 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
(D) 30 MPa, 40 MPa respectively
2.
CE 2010
5.
As per Indian standard code of practice
for pre-stressed concrete (IS: 1343-1980)
the minimum grades of concrete to be
used for post-tensioned and pretensioned structural elements are
respectively
(A) M 20 for both
(C) M 15 and M 20
(B) M 40 and M 30 (D) M 30 and M 40
A concrete beam of rectangular cross

section of 200 mm 400 mm is
prestressed with a force 400 kN at
eccentricity 100 mm. The maximum
compressive stress in the concrete is
(A)
(C) 5.0
(B) 7.5
(D) 2.5
CE 2007
3.
The percentage loss of pre-stress due to
anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete
beam of length 30m, which is post
tensioned by a tendon with an initial
stress of 1200 N/mm2 and modulus of
elasticity equal to 2.1 105 N/mm2 is
(A) 0.0175
(C) 1.75
(B) 0.175
(D) 17.5
CE 2009
4.
A rectangular concrete beam of width
120 mm & depth 200 mm is pre-stressed
by pre-tensioning to a force of 150 KN at
an eccentricity of 20mm. The cross
sectional area of the pre-stressing steel is
187.5 mm2. Take modulus of elasticity of
steel and concrete as 2.1 105 MPa and
3 104 MPa respectively. The percentage
loss of stress in pre-stressing steel due to
elastic deformation of concrete is.
(A) 8.75
(C) 4.81
(B) 6.125
(D) 2.19
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Page 273
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC

1.
[Ans. D]
2.
[Ans. A]
So, strain in steel = strain in concrete
ii
6
(
6
6
3.
[Ans. C]
Slip 5 =3mm
Length = 30m
Ec = 2.1105 N/mm2
,
5.
[Ans. D]
A high strength concrete is always
required for pre-stressed concrete work
the pre-tension losses are more than the
post tension losses therefore minimum
M 30 is used for post tension work while
minimum M 40 is used for pre-tension
work.
So, stress loss = strain
,
4.
[Ans. B]
Here,
B
,
,
,
,
So Percentage loss of pre-stresses due to

elastic shortening = ?
Initial direct stresses
6
And stress due to eccentricity
Maximum compression in concrete,

= 6.25+0.75= 7N/mm2
This stress will cause compression in
steel strain concrete
th
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Page 274
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Design of Pre-Stressed Concrete Beams

The stress (in N/
at mid span is
CE 2007
1.
A concrete beam of rectangular crosssection of size 120 mm (width) and
200 mm (depth) is prestressed by a
straight tendon to an effective force of
150 kN at an eccentricity of 20 mm
(below the centroidal axis in the depth
direction). The stresses at the top and
bottom fibres of section are
(A) 2.5
N/mm2
(compression),
2
10 N/mm (compression)
(B) 10 N/mm2 (tension), 2.5 N/mm2
(compression)
(C) 3.75 N/mm2 (tension), 3.75 N/mm2
(compression)
(D) 2.75 N/mm2 (compression), 3.75
N/mm2 (compression)
CE 2008
2.
A pre-tensioned concrete member of
section 200 mm
250 mm contains
tendons of area 500 mm2 at centre of
gravity of section. The pre-stress in the
tendons is 1000 N/mm2. Assuming
modular ratio as 10, the stress (N/mm2)
in concrete is
(A) 11
(B) 9
(C) 7
(D) 5
CE 2012
3.
Which one of the following is categorized
as a long term loss of prestress in a
prestressed concrete member?
(A) Loss due to elastic shortening
(B) Loss due to friction
(C) Loss due to relaxation of strands
(D) Loss due to anchorage slip
4.
)in the bottom fiber
145
7300
Sectional elevation
All dimensions are in mm
500
750
Cross section
(tendon not shown)
(A) Tensile 2.90

(B) Compressive 2.90
(C) Tensile 4.32
(D) Compressive 4.32
CE 2013
5.
A rectangular concrete beam 250 mm
wide and 600 mm deep is per stressed
by means of 16 high tensile wires, each of
7 mm diameter, located at 200 mm from
the bottom face of the beam at a given
section. If the effective pre - stress in the
wires is 700 MPa, what is the maximum
sagging bending moment (in kNm)
(correct to 1 decimal place) due to live
load that this section of the beam can
withstand without causing tensile stress
at the bottom face of the beam? Neglect
the
effect
of
dead
load
of
beam._______________
A concrete beam prestressed with a

parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch.
The eccentricity of the tendon is
measured from the centroid of the cross
section. The applied prestressing force at
service is 1620 kN. The uniformly
distributed load of 45 kN/m includes the
self weight.
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Page 275
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC

1.
[Ans. A]
B=120 mm, D=200 mm
P=150 kN, e=20 mm
Stress due to direct stresses
5.
[Ans. *] Range 85.5 to 86.5
6
Stress due to moment produced due to
eccentricity of load M(P.e)
(
So, stress at top,
6
Stress at bottom,
6
2.
Since the tensile stress at bottom face of

the beam is zero
(compression)
(
4.
6
Since the prestressing force is located at
200 mm from the bottom face of the beam
i i
[Ans. B]
Compressive force in steel =
Area of section in terms of concrete
=A+(
(
(
3.
6 66
6
[Ans. C]
The only time dependent loss
relaxation of pre stress in strands.
6
6
6
is
[Ans. B]
6
(
(
)
)
]
(
th
th
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Page 276
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
RCC
Concrete Design
CE 2005
1.
The partial factor of safety for concrete as
per IS: 456-2000 is
(A) 1.50
(C) 0.87
(B) 1.15
(D) 0.446
CE 2009
2.
For limit state of collapse, the partial
safety factors recommended cube by IS :
456-2000 for estimating the design
strength of concrete and reinforcing steel
are respectively
(A) 1.15 and 1.5
(C) 1.5 and 1.15
(B) 1.0 and 1.0
(D) 1.5 and 1.0

1.
[Ans. A]
Partial factor of safety = 1.50
The High FOS is because of larger
variation in strength of concrete in
comparison to steel.
2.
[Ans. C]
Partial safety factor for concrete is 1.5
and for steel is 1.15 per IS: 456 2000
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Page 277
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Introduction
CE 2013
1.
As per IS 800:2007, the cross section in
which the extreme fiber can reach the
yield stress, but cannot develop the
plastic moment of resistance due to
failure by local buckling is classified as
(A) Plastic section
(B) Compact section
(C) Semi compact section
(D) Slender section
CE 2014
2.
Match the information given in Group I
with those in Group - II.
Group I
Group II
P. Factor to decrease 1. Upper bound
ultimate strength
on ultimate
to design strength
load
Q. Factor to increase
2. Lower bound
working load to
on ultimate
ultimate load for
load
design
R. Statical method of
3. Material partial
ultimate load
safety factor
analysis
S. Kinematical
4. Load factor
mechanism
method of ultimate
load analysis
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
(A) 30.33 and 20.00

(B) 30.33 and 25.00
(C) 33.33 and 20.00
(D) 33.33 and 25.00
4.
The ultimate collapse load (P) in terms of

plastic moment
by kinematic
approach for a propped cantilever of
length L with P acting at its mid span as
shown in the figure, would be
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
5.
The first moment of area about the axis of

bending for a beam cross-section is
(A) moment of inertia
(B) section modulus
(C) shape factor
(D) polar moment of inertia
6.
A prismatic beam (as shown below) has

plastic moment capacity of
then the
collapse load P of the beam is
The tension and shear force (both in kN)

in each bolt of the joint, as shown below,
respectively are
th
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
Page 278
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure

1.
[Ans. C ]
(fail by local lusting )
Stress
Compact sections
(full elastic capacity
only )
Internal work done:

Only point C and A will form plastic hinge
(since B is free to rotate roller joint).
=
By principle of virtual work
Plastic section
(full plastic
moment
capacity)
Strain
2.
3.
[Ans. C]
Steel structure: Plastic analysis
P and Q are definitions of partial factor of
safety for material and load respectively
R: Statical method of ultimate load
analysis is based on lower bound theorem
which states that actual collapse load
cannot be less than collapse load obtained
from static method of load analysis.
S: kinematic mechanism method of
ultimate load analysis follows upper
bound theorem.
P=
5.
[Ans. B]
6.
[Ans. C]
Degree of static indeterminacy = 0

No.of plastic winges required
[Ans. D]
Horizontal force =
= 200 kN
Vertical force = 250

= 150 kN
Horizontal force will exert tensite pull of
magnitude
= 33.33 kN on each bolt.
Vertical force will exert shear force of

magnitude
= 25 kN on each bolts
Mp Mp
D is correct choice
4.
From principal of virtual work
[Ans. C]
External work done

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Page 279
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Plastic Analysis
CE 2005
1.
A cantilever beam of length L, width b and
depth d is loaded with a concentrated
vertical load at the tip. If yielding starts at
a load P, the collapse load shall be
(A) 2.0 P
(C) 1.2 P
(B) 1.5 P
(D) P
CE 2006
2.
When the triangular section of a beam as
shown below becomes a plastic hinge, the
compressive force acting on the section
(with denoting the yield stress)
becomes
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Continuous beam is loaded as shown in

the figure below. Assuming a plastic
moment capacity equal to
, the
minimum load at which the beam would
collapse is
P
P
J
I
G
H
L
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2009
6.
The square root of the ratio of moment of
inertia of the cross-section to its crosssectional area is called
(A) second moment of area
(B) slenderness ration
(C) section modulus
(D) radius of gyration
7.
CE 2007
3.
The plastic collapse load
for the
propped cantilever supporting two point
loads as shown in figure in terms of
plastic moment capacity,
is given by
w
w
L/3
L/3
L/3
(A)
5.
In the theory of plastic bending of beams,

the ratio of plastic moment to yield
moment is called
(A) Shape factor
(B) Plastic section modulus
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Rigidity modulus
CE 2011
8.
The value of W that results in the collapse
of the beam shown in the adjoining figure
and having a plastic moment capacity of
is
W
Fixed
CE 2008
4.
The shape of the cross-section, which has
the largest shape factor, is
(A) Rectangular
(C) Diamond
(B) I-section
(D) Solid circular
7m
3m
(A) (4/21)
(B) (3/10)
th
th
Hinge
(C) (7/21)
(D) (13/21)
th
Page 280
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2013
Common data Questions (9 & 10)
A propped cantilever made of a prismatic
steel beam is subjected to a concentrated
load P at mid span as shown.
9.
If load P= 80 kN, find the reaction R(in

kN)(correct to 1-decimal place) using
elastic analysis. _________
10.
If the magnitude of load P is increased till

collapse and the plastic moment carrying
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm,
determine reaction R(in kN)(correct to 1decimal place) using plastic analysis.
_________________
1.5 m
1.5 m
Steel structure

1.
[Ans. B]
Yielding starts at P, therefore yielding
moment at the fixed end is given by
3.
[Ans. B]
w
A
L/3
L/3
L/3
=1
No. of plastic hinges formed,
1st case: Plastic hinge formed at A and B

w
w
B
C
D
A
PL
Now, if
is the collapse load, then
collapse moment at the fixed end is give
by
But, for rectangular beam

[
L/3
L/3
L/3
]
By virtual work method
External work = Internal work
(
2.
[Ans. A]
We know that the neutral axis of the
plastified section is the equal area axis.
Compressive force,
Put
2nd case: Plastic hinge at (A) and (C)

w
w
B
C
A
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Page 281
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
6.
[Ans. D]
7.
[Ans. A]
8.
[Ans. D]
Number of possible hinges, n = 2
Statical indeterminacy, r = 1
Number of independent mechanisms,
External work = Internal work
Put
Hence, collapse load
4.
[Ans. C]
Shape factors of some cross-section are as
follows:
(i) Rectangle 1.5
(ii) I-section
1.14
(iii) Diamond 2
(iv) Triangle 2.34
(v) Circle 1.7
5.
[Ans. B]
7m
3m
By principle of virtual work, we get

P
P
I
For collapse in IJ
9.
[Ans. 25]
From compatibility equation

net deflection at C = 0
For collapse in HI
[
Minimum load for collapse

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Page 282
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
10.
Steel structure
[Ans. 60]
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Page 283
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Welded Connections
CE 2005
1.
A fillet-welded joint of 6 mm size is
shown in the figure. The welded surfaces
meet at 60-90 degree and permissible
stress in the fillet weld is 108 MPa. The
safe load that can be transmitted by the
joint is
P = 10 kN
e =100
30
30
100 mm
50 mm
(A) 162.7 kN
(B) 151.6 kN
2.
40
(C) 113.4 kN
(D) 109.5 kN
An unstiffened web I-section is fabricated

from a 10 mm thick plate by fillet welding
as shown in the figure. If yield stress of
steel is 250 MPa, the maximum shear load
that section can take is
(all distance are in mm)
(A) 5 kN
(B) 6.5 kN
(C) 6.8 kN
(D) 7.16 kN
CE 2008
4.
Rivets and bolts subjected to both shear
stress
and axial tensile stress
shall be so proportioned that the
stresses do not exceed the respective
allowable stresses
and
and the
value of (
(A) 1.0
) does not exceed

(B) 1.2
(C) 1.4
(D) 1.8
300 mm
CE 2009
5.
A 12 mm thick plate is connected to two 8
mm thick plates, on either side through a
16 mm diameter power driven field rivet
as shown in the figure below. Assuming
permissible shear stress as 90 MPa and
permissible bearing stress as 270 MPa in
the rivet, the rivet value of the joint is
200 mm
(A) 750 kN
(B) 350 kN
40
(C) 337.5 kN
(D) 300 kN
P/2
8mm
12mm
CE 2007
3.
A bracket connection is made with four
bolts of 10 mm diameter and supports a
load of 10 kN at an eccentricity of
100 mm. The maximum force to be
resisted by any bolt will be.
P/2
8mm
(A) 56.70 kN
(B) 43.29 kN
(C) 36.19 kN
(D) 21.65 kN
CE 2010
6.
A double cover butt riveted joint is used
to connect two flat plates of 200 mm
width and 14 mm thickness as shown in
the figure. There are twelve power driven
rivets of 20 mm diameter at a pitch of
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Page 284
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
50 mm in both directions on either side of

the plate. Two cover plates of 10 mm
thickness are used. The capacity of the
joint in tension considering bearing and
shear ONLY, with permissible bearing and
shear stresses as 300 MPa and 100 MPa
respectively is
7.
Steel structure
Two plates, subjected to direct tension,

each of 10 mm thickness and having
widths of 100 mm and 175 mm,
respectively are to be fillet welded with
an overlap of 200 mm. Given that the
permissible weld stress is 110 MPa and
the permissible stress in steel is 150 MPa,
the length of the weld required using the
maximum permissible weld size as per IS
800: 1984 is
50 mm 50 mm 50 mm
50 mm
50 mm
100 mm
50 mm
(A) 1083.6 kN
(B) 871.32 kN
175 mm
50 mm
(C) 541.8 kN
(D) 433.7 kN
200 mm
(A) 245.3 mm
(B) 229.2 mm
(C) 205.5 mm
(D) 194.8 mm
2.
[Ans. C]
Total weld length = (1002)+50 =250mm
Strength of weld per mm length,
= 0.70 6 108 = 453.6 N
Maximum load taken by joint,
[Ans. D]
3.
[Ans. D]
e =100
10 kN
30 mm 30 mm
1.
The web depth to thickness ratio

40 mm
40 mm
Bolt will be subjected to direct shear and

shear force due to twisting moment.
Force on bolt due to direct shear
= Force on bolt due to twisting
moment
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Page 285
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Thus the strength of joint will be

governed by shearing and it will be equal
to 871.32 kN
Resultant force,
7.
[Ans. B]
The maximum size of a fillet weld is
obtained by subtracting 1.5 mm from the
thickness of the thinner member to be
jointed.
4.
[Ans. C]
As per clause 8.9.4.5 of IS:800-1984 rivets
and bolts subject to both shear and axial
tension shall be so proportioned that the
shear and axial stresses calculated do not
exceed the respective allowable stresses
and
and
the
expression
(
5.
Strength of the thinner plate
Strength of the weld
) does not exceed 1.4.
[Ans. B]
Rivet value is the lesser of shearing
strength or bearing strength of rivet.
Shearing strength of rivet,
Bearing strength of rivet
Rivet value of the joint

6.
[Ans. B]
Strength of one rivet in double shear,
Strength of the riveted joint in double

shear
Strength of one rivet in bearing ,
=
3 kN
Strength of the riveted joint in bearing
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Design of Tension Member

CE 2005
1.
The permissible stress in axial tension
in steel member on the net effective area
of the section shall not exceed
is the
yield stress)
(A) 0.80
(C) 0.60
(B) 0.75
(D) 0.50
CE 2006
2.
In the design of welded tension members,
consider the following statements:
1. The entire cross-sectional area of
the connected leg is assumed to
contribute to the effective area in
case of angles.
2. Two angles back-to-back and tackwelded
as
per
the
codal
requirements may be assumed to
behave as a tee section.
3. A check on slenderness ratio may be
necessary in some cases.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
CE 2007
3.
A steel flat of rectangular section of size
70 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate
by three bolts each having a shear
capacity of 15 kN in holes having
diameter 11.5 mm. If the allowable tensile
stress in the flat is 150 MPa, the
maximum tension that can be applied to
the flat is
15
20
20
15
35
(A) 42.3 kN
(B) 52.65 kN
(C) 59.5 kN
(D) 63.0 kN

1.
[Ans. C]
2.
[Ans. D]
3.
[Ans. B]
Along (1)-(1)
( )
=52.65 kN
Along (2)-(2)
2
1
Force to shear 1 bolt

at position (1) (1)
15
20
20
15
Hence, the maximum tension that we can

applied = 52.65 kN
35 mm
1
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Compression member
CE 2005
1.
Which one of the following is NOT correct
for steel sections as per IS 800: 1984?
(A) The maximum bending stress in
tension or in compression in extreme
fiber calculated on the effective
section of a beam shall not exceed
0.66
(B) The bearing stress in any part of a
beam when calculated on the net
area shall not exceed 0.75
(C) The direct stress in compression on
the cross sectional area of axially
loaded compression member shall
not exceed 0.6
CE 2006
2.
1. Effective length of a battened column
is usually increased to account for the
additional load on battens due to the
lateral expansion of columns.
2. As per IS 800: 1984, permissible
stress in bending compression
depends on both Euler bucking stress
and the yield stress of steel.
3. As per IS 800: 1984, the effective

length of a column effectively held in
position at both ends but not
restrained against rotation, is taken to
be greater than that in the ideal end
conditions.
(A) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
CE 2009
3.
Consider the following statements for a
compression member:
1. The elastic critical stress in
compression increases with decrease
in slenderness ratio.
2. The effective length depends on the
boundary conditions at its ends.
3. The elastic critical stress in
compression is independent of the
slenderness ratio
4. The ratio of the effective length to its
radius of gyration is called as
slenderness ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(A) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

1.
[Ans. D]
2.
[Ans. A]
The ideal condition is that column is
effectively held in position at both ends
but not restrained against rotation. IS
800: 1984, prescribes the same value of
effective length as taken for ideal end
condition. Hence 3 is false.
3.
[Ans. D]
The elastic critical stress in compression
depends on the slenderness ratio.
Where is slenderness ratio of the

compression member
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Page 288
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure
Beams
CE 2011
1.

adjoining figure the effective throat
thickness is
CE 2012
3.
In a steel plate with bolted connections,
the rupture of the net section is a mode of
failure under
(A) Tension
(C) Flexure
(B) Compression
(D) Shear
4.
(A) 0.61s
(B) 0.65s
2.
Two plates are connected by fillet welds

of size 10 m and subjected to tension, as
shown in the sketch. The thickness of
each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and
the ultimate tensile stress of steel are
250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The
welding is done in the workshop
(
. As per the Limit State
Method of IS 800.2007. The minimum
length (rounded off to the nearest higher
multiple of 5mm) of each weld to
transmit force P equal to 270 kN is
(C) 0.70s
(D) 0.75s
The adjoining figure shows a schematic

representation of a steel plate girder to be
used as a simply supported beam with a
concentrated load. For stiffeners, PQ
(running along the beam axis) and RS
(running between the top and bottom
flanges) which of the following pairs of
statements will be TRUE?
P
100mm
R
P
Q
S
L
(A) (i) RS should be provided under the

concentrated load only
(ii) PQ should be placed in the
tension side of the flange.
(B) (i) RS helps to prevent local buckling
of the web.
(ii) PQ should be placed in the
compression side of the flange.
(C) (i) RS should be provided at
supports.
(ii) PQ should be placed along the
neutral axis
(D) (i) RS should be provided away from
points of action of concentrated
loads.
(ii) PQ should be provided on the
compression side of the flange.
150mm
P
(A) 100 mm
(B) 105 mm
(C) 110 mm
(D) 115 mm
CE 2014
5.
A steel section is subjected to a
combination of shear and bending
actions. The applied shear force is V and
the shear capacity of the section is . For
such a section, high shear force (as per
IS: 800 2007) is defined as
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Steel structure

1.
[Ans. B]
Throat thickness T = K fillet size
K is depends upon angle between fusion
forces
RS is a vertical stiffener in the given plate

girder. Vertical stiffeners are also called
transverse stiffeners. It is assumed that
the vertical stiffener is not subjected to
any load and is selected to provide
necessary lateral stiffness only and can
therefore, be crimped or joggled for tight
fitting. Such stiffeners increase the
buckling resistance of the web caused by
shear.
49.5
3.
[Ans. A]
4.
[Ans. B]
Design strength of fillet weld,
49.5
T
+
s
990
Rounded off to 105 mm

5.
[Ans. A]
As per clause 9.2.1 of IS 800: 2007,
V > 0.6
x
= 0.65s
2.
[Ans. B]
PQ is a horizontal stiffener in the given
plate girder. Horizontal stiffeners are also
called longitudinal stiffeners. The
horizontal stiffener are provided in the
compression zone of the web. The first
horizontal stiffener is provided at onefifth of the distance from the compression
flange to the tension flange. If required
another stiffener is provided at the
neutral axis. Horizontal stiffeners are not
continuous and are provided between
vertical stiffeners.
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Three Phase System, Fundamental

Definitions and Relationship
CE 2005
1.
A saturated soil mass has a total density
22kN/m3 and a water content of 10%.
The bulk density and dry density of this
soil are
(A) 12kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively
(B) 22kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively
(C) 19.8kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively
(D) 23.2kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively
CE 2007
2.
The water content of a saturated soil and
the specific gravity of soil solids were
found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively.
Assuming the unit weight of water to be
10 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight
(kN/m3) and the void ratio of the soil are
(A) 19.4,0.81
(C) 19.4,0.45
(B) 18.5,0.30
(D) 18.5,0.45
CE 2009
3.
Deposit with flocculated structure is
formed when
(A) clay particles settle on sea bed
(B) clay particles settle on fresh water
lake bed
(C) sand particles settle on river bed
(D) sand particles settle on sea bed
CE 2012
4.
As per the Indian Standard soil
classification system, a sample of silty
clay with liquid limit of 40% and
plasticity index of 28% is classified as
(A) CH
(C) CL
(B) CI
(D) CL - ML
CE 2014
5.
The clay mineral primarily governing the
swelling behavior of Black Cotton soil is
(A) Halloysite
(C) Kaolinite
(B) Illite
(D) Montmorillonite

1.
[Ans. B]
Total density is bulk density,
3.
[Ans. B]
4.
[Ans. B]
Since liquid limit lies between 35 and 50
it is intermediate compressible (1)
Height of A Line = 0.73
(
= 14.6%
Since of soil is more than 14.6%, it falls
above A line, Hence it is clay (C)
Soil is C I
5.
[Ans. D]
Dry density,
w
2.
[Ans. A]
We know that
And
*
*
e
e
e
+
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Page 291
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Index Properties and Soil Classification

CE 2005
1.
A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50%
sand 10% silt. This soil can be classified
as
(A) Silty sandy gravel having coefficient
of uniformity less than 60.
(B) Silty gravelly sand having coefficient
of uniformity equal to 10.
(C) Gravelly silty sand having coefficient
of uniformity greater than 60.
(D) Gravelly silty sand and its coefficient
of uniformity cannot be determined.
CE 2006
Statement for Linked Answer question
2&3
Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out
on a soil sample using a complete set of
standard IS sieves. Out of 500g of soil
used in the test, 200g was retained on IS
600 sieve, 250g was retained on IS 500
sieve and the remaining 50g was retained
on IS 425 sieve.
2.
The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is
(A) 0.9
(C) 1.1
(B) 1.0
(D) 1.2
3.
The classification of the soil is

(A) SP
(C) GP
(B) SW
(D) GW
CE 2007
4.
Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of
mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g
of soil pass through 4.75 mm and
0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid
limit and plastic limits of the soil fraction
passing through 425 sieves are 40% and
18%, respectively. The soil may be
classified as
(A) SC
(C) CI
(B) MI
(D) SM
CE 2008
5.
Group symbols assigned to silty sand and
clayey sand are respectively
(A) SS and CS
(C) SM and SC
(B) SM and CS
(D) MS and CS
6.
The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL)

and shrinkage limit (SL) of a cohesive soil
satisfy the relation
(A) LL > PL < SL
(C) LL < PL < SL
(B) LL > PL > SL
(D) LL < PL > SL
CE 2009
7.
The laboratory test results of a soil
sample are given below:
Percentage finer than 4.75 mm = 60
Percentage finer than 0.075 mm = 30
Liquid Limit = 35%
Plastic Limit = 27%
The soil classification is
(A) GM
(C) GC
(B) SM
(D) ML-MI
CE 2010
8.
A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60
and plastic limit of 20. As per the
plasticity chart, according to IS
classification, the soil is represented by
the letter symbols
(A) CL
(C) CH
(B) CI
(D) CL-ML
CE 2011
9.
The results for sieve analysis carried out
for three types of sand, P, Q and R, are
given in the adjoining figure. If the
fineness modulus values of the three
sands are given as FMP, FMQ and FMR it
can be stated that
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Page 292
Percentage passing
GATE QUESTION BANK

Q
Torque
P
Top view (plan)
Vane
rod
Vane
blade
Torque
Vane rod
Sieve size
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
11.
FMQ =
FMQ = 0.5 (FMP + FMR)
FMP> FMQ> FMR
FMP< FMQ< FMR
A soil is composed of solid spherical

grains of identical specific gravity and
diameter
between
0.075mm
and
0.0075mm. If the terminal velocity of the
largest particle falling through water
without flocculation is 0.5 mm/s, that for
the smallest particle would be
(A) 0.005 mm/s
(C) 5 mm/s
(B) 0.05 mm/s
(D) 50 mm/s
A field vane testing instrument (shown
alongside) was inserted completely into a
deposit of soft, saturated silty clay with
the vane rod vertical such that the top of
the blades were 500mm below the
ground surface. Upon application of a
rapidly increasing torque about the vane
rod, the soil was found to fail when the
torque reached 4.6 Nm.
Assuming
mobilization of undrained shear strength
on all failure surfaces to be uniform and
the resistance mobilized on the surface of
the vane rod to be negligible, what would
be the peak undrained shear strength
(rounded off to the nearest integer value
of kPa) of the soil?
15 mm
Elevation
100 mm
50 mm
(A) 5 kPa
(B) 10 kPa
(C) 15 kPa
(D) 20 kPa
CE 2013
12. In its natural condition, a soil sample has
a mass of 1.980 kg and a volume of
0.001 . After being completely dried in
an oven, the mass of the sample is
1.800 kg. Specific gravity G is 2.7. Unit
weight of water is 10kN/ . The degree
of saturation of the soil is :
(A) 0.65
(C) 0.54
(B) 0.70
(D) 0.61
13.
Laplace equation for water flow in soil is

given below.
x
y
z
Head H does not vary in y and z
directions.
Boundary conditions are: at x = 0,
H = 5m, and
What is the value of H at x = 1.2 ?_________
CE 2014
14. A certain soil has the following
properties:
= 2.71, n = 40% and
w = 20%. The degree of saturation of the
soil (rounded off to the nearest percent)
is __________
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Page 293
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GATE QUESTION BANK
15.
As per Indian Standard Soil Classification

System (IS: 1498 - 1970), an expression
for A line is
(A)
w
(B)
w
(C)
w
(D)
w
16.
A given cohesion less soil has e

= 0.85
and e
= 0.50. In the field, the soil is
compacted to a mass density of
1800 g
at a water content of 8%.
Take the mass density of water as 1000
g
and as 2.7. The relative density
(in %) of the soil is
(A) 56.43
(C) 62.87
(B) 60.25
(D) 65.71

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
As 50% of the soil is sand, the soil is sand
with gravel and silt as ingredients. Also,
there is no information regarding D60 and
D10. Hence the soil is gravelly silty sand
whose coefficient of uniformity cannot be
determined.
[Ans. D]
S.No.
Sieve
Weight size
Cum.weight
retained
% retained
%N
retained
1.
600
200
200
2.
500
250
450
3.
425
50
500
40
60
90
10
100
0
4.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. C]
6.
[Ans. B]
u e
[Ans. A]
More than 50% of the soil pass through
sieve which eans that even a
greater percentage of the soil passes
through 4.75 mm sieve.
Hence, the soil is definitely sandy soil.
Also, we know that for a sand to be
considered well graded,
should be
greater than 6. Here, in the case Cu = 1.2.
Thus, the soil is poorly graded sand.
Water content
So, w
w
w
7.
[Ans. B]
Plasticity index,
Coarse grained soils which contain more

than 12% fines (<0.075 mm) are
classified as GM or SM if the fines are silty
in character meaning, the limits plot
below the A-line on the plasticity chart.
Coarse grained soils are those having
50% or more retained on the 0.075 mm
sieve. They are designated as gravel (G) if
50% or more of the coarse fraction is
retained on 4.75 mm sieve; otherwise
they are designated as sand.
Now uniformity coefficient,
3.
8.
[Ans. C]
Plasticity index,
Equation of A line is given by

w
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Page 294
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Thus the given soil lies above the A-line.

The liquid limit of the soil is more than
50, hence the soil will be CH.
[Ans. A]
10.
[Ans. A]
By t es aws
13.
( )
(
x
Integrating again
x
At x = 0, H = 5
V2 = 0.005mm/sec
[Ans. B]
When the top end of the vane completely
shear the soil, then the torque at failure is
give by
T = cu x *
At x = 0,
From eq. (i)
x
At x = 1.2 m
4.6 = cu x *
[Ans. 3.8]
x
Integrating both sides, we get
cu = 10040.40 N/m2
Undrained shear strength,
R = cu = 10 kPa
12.
From (2)
Terminal velocity V =
11.
i
s
9.
14.
[Ans. *] Range 81.0 to 81.5

By definition
WG = Se
e
[Ans. C]
Given
m = 1.980 kg
= 1.800 kg
g
water c ntent
15.
[Ans. A]
16.
[Ans. D]
RD (%) =
Here, e =
w
e
Now ,
r
and r
s r
i
se
e
From (1)
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Permeability and Seepage

CE 2005
1.
In a constant head permeameter with
cross section area of 10 cm2, when the
flow was taking place under a hydraulic
gradient of 0.5, the amount of water
collected in 60 seconds is 600 cc. The
permeability of the soil is
(A) 0.002 cm/s
(C) 0.2 cm/s
(B) 0.02 cm/s
(D) 2.0 cm/s
2.
Two observation wells penetrated into a

confined aquifer and located 1.5 km apart
in the direction of flow, indicate head of
45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient of
permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day
and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of
an inert tracer from one well to another is
(A) 416.7 days
(C) 750 days
(B) 500 days
(D) 3000 days
5.
To provide safety against piping failure,

with a factor of safety of 5, what should be
the maximum permissible exit gradient
for soil with specific gravity of 2.5 and
porosity of 0.35?
(A) 0.155
(C) 0.195
(B) 0.167
(D) 0.213
CE 2007
Water is flowing through the permeability
apparatus as shown in the figure. The
c efficient f per eabi ity f the s i is
m/s and the porosity of the soil sample is
0.50
0.4
m
0.8
m
SOIL
CE 2006
3.
Which of the following statement is NOT
true in the context of capillary pressure in
soils?
(A) Water is under tension in capillary
zone
(B) Pore water pressure is negative in
capillary zone
(C) Effective stress increases due to
capillary zone
(D) Capillary pressure is more in coarse
grained soils
4.
The range of void ratio between which

quick sand condition occurs in cohesion
less granular soil deposits is
(A) 0.4-0.5
(C) 0.8-0.9
(B) 0.6-0.7
(D) 1.0-1.1
R
0.4
m
6.
The total head, elevation head and

pressure head in metres of water at the
point R shown in the figure are
(A) 0.8,0.4,0.4
(C) 0.4,0,0.4
(B) 1.2,0.4,0.8
(D) 1.6,0.4, 1.2
7.
What are the discharge velocity and

seepage velocity through the soil sample?
(A) ,
(C)
,
(B)
(D)
CE 2009
8.
The relationship among specific yield
( ), specific retention
and porosity
of an aquifer is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2010
9.
Quick sand condition occurs when
(A) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
(B) The upward seepage pressure in soil
becomes zero
(C) The upward seepage pressure in soil
becomes equal to the saturated unit
weight of the soil
(D) The upward seepage pressure in soil
becomes equal to the submerged
unit weight of the soil
10.
13.
An open ended steel barrel of 1 m height

and 1 m diameter is filled with saturated
fine
sand
having
coefficient
of
s The barrel
permeability of
stands on a saturated bed of gravel. The
time required for the water level in the
barrel to drop by 0.75 m is
(A) 58.9 s
(C) 100 s
(B) 75 s
(D) 150 s
Steady state seepage is taking place

through a soil element at Q, 2 m below the
ground surface immediately downstream
of the toe of an earthen dam as shown in
the sketch. The water level in a
piezometer installed at P, 500 mm above
Q, is at the ground surface. The water
level in a piezometer installed at R,
500 mm below Q, is 100 mm above the
ground surface. The bulk saturated unit
weight of the soil is 18 kN/
and the
unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/ . The
vertical effective stress (in kPa) at Q is
P
Q
R
(A) 14.42
(B) 15.89
(C) 16.38
(D) 18.34

The flow net around a sheet pile wall is
shown in the sketch. The properties of the
soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09
m/day (isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70
and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall
and the bottom of the soil are
impermeable.
CE 2011
11. For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio
and the specific gravity of solids are 0.70
and 2.67, respectively. The critical
(upward) hydraulic gradient for the
deposit would be
(A) 0.54
(C) 1.02
(B) 0.98
(D) 1.87
CE 2012
12. Two soil specimens with identical
geometric dimensions were subjected to
falling head permeability tests in the
laboratory under identical conditions.
The fall of water head was measured after
an identical time interval. The ratio of
initial to final water heads for the test
involving the first specimen was 1.25. If
the coefficient of permeability of the
second specimen is 5 times that of the
first, the ratio of initial to final water
heads in the test involving the second
specimen is
(A) 3.05
(C) 4.00
(B) 3.80
(D) 6.25
10 m
1.5 m
3m
14.
th
The seepage loss (in

per day per unit
length of the wall) of water is
(A) 0.33
(C) 0.43
(B) 0.38
(D) 0.54
th
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Page 297
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
The factor of safety against the

occurrence of piping failure is
(A) 3.55
(C) 2.60
(B) 2.93
(D) 0.39
CE 2013
16. The ration Nf/Nd is known as shape
factor, where Nf is the number of flow
lines and Nd is the number of
equipotential drops. Flow net is always
drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b
and a are distance between two
consecutive flow lines and equipotential
lines, respectively. Assuming that b/a
ratio remains the same, the shape factor
of a flow net will change if the
(A) Upstream and downstream heads
are interchanged
(B) Soil in the flow space is changed
(C) Dimensions of the flow space are
changed
(D) Head difference causing the flow is
changed
17.
18.
Following statements are made on

compacted soils, where in DS stands for
the soil compacted on dry side of
optimum moisture content and WS stands
for the soil compacted on wet side of
optimum moisture content. Identify the
incorrect statement.
(A) Soil structure is flocculated on DS
and dispersed on WS.
(B) Construction of pore water pressure
is low on DS and high on WS
(C) On drying , shrinkage is high on DS
and low on WS
(D) On access to water, swelling is high
on DS and low on WS
reading of + 10 m elevation. Assume that

the piezometric head is uniform in the
sand layer. The quantity of water (in
/s) flowing into the lake from the sand
layer through the silt layer per unit area
of the lake bed is :
+ 10
Stand pipe
0
Lake
Elevation (m)
15.
Silt(k =
Lake bottom
m/s)
Sand
(under artesian pressure)
Rock
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE 2014
19. Water is flowing at a steady rate through
a homogeneous and saturated horizontal
soil strip of 10 m length. The strip is being
subjected to a constant water head (H) of
5 m at the beginning and 1 m at the end. If
the governing equation of flow in the soil
strip is
(where x is the distance
along the soil strip), the value of H (in m)

at the middle of the strip is ____________.
20.
The flow net constructed for the dam is

shown in the figure below. Taking the
coefficient of permeability as
m/s, the quantity of flow (in
c /s) under the dam per meter of dam
is ______________
50 m
1.6 m
6.3 m
The soil profile below a lake with water

level at elevation = 0 m and lake bottom
at elevation = 10 m is shown in the
figure, where k is the permeability
coefficient. A piezometer (stand pipe)
installed in the sand layer shows a
9.4 m
17.2 m
Impermeable stratum
th
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Page 298
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. D]
i
c
i
2.
7.
[Ans. A]
Discharge velocity, v
i
head ss
But i
ength f s i ass
v
s
v
eepage ve city, v
n
8.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. D]
[Ans. C]
The average flow velocity or discharge
velocity, v
i
(
eepage ve city, v
day
v
n
day
rave ti e
days
L
3.
4.
[Ans. D]
Capillary rise is more in fine grained soils
and as a result of this, the capillary
pressure is also more than the coarse
grained soils.
Soil
Quick sand occurs when net effective

pressure is zero
ie
h
But
h
[Ans. B]
The specific gravity of cohesion less
granular soils (sands) does not vary much
and for all practical purposes it is taken to
be 2.65. Critical hydraulic gradient should
be nearly 1 for quick sand condition
So quick sand condition occurs when

upward seepage pressure in soil becomes
equal to the submerged unit weight of the
soil.
i e ,i
e
From the above equation, the void ratio
range is found be between 0.6 & 0.7
5.
[Ans. B]
Time required
s
[Ans. C]
i
e
axi u
6.
10.
[Ans. A]
11.
[Ans. B]
Critical hydraulic gradient, i
per issib e exit gradient,
= 0.98
12.
th
[Ans. A]
a
h
t
g
h
h
t
g
h
Since time interval is same
th
th
Page 299
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
h
h
h
h
18.
h
,
h
ubstituting the ab ve va ues
h
h
g
g
h
h
h
g
g
h
h
h
iven
13.
[Ans. D]
Head causing flow = 10m
This head will be lost in 20 m depth of silt
i
i
ischarge per unit area,
s
19.
[Ans. B]
Average water pressure head at point Q is
h
u
h
[Ans. 3]
Given, equation of the flow of soil strip is
d
dx
d
dx
x
at x
,
a
14.
x
at x
[Ans. B]
Seepage head, H = 10 1.5 = 8.5m
,
,
/d
/day/m
x
15.
[Ans. C]
at x
Exit gradient, i
given in the fig

Critical hydraulic gradient,
20.
i
Factor
of
safety
against
piping,
[Ans. *] Range 7.10 to 7.85

Seepage loss, q per meter length of dam is
f f w channe
f e uip tentia dr ps
q=K
16.
Here, H = 6.3m
K=
[Ans. C]
depends only on dimension of flow field
and is independent of soil & head

parameters.
Option C is the most appropriate answer.
17.
s
c
[Ans. C]
Shrinkage is low on DS and high on WS
th
th
th
Page 300
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Consolidation
(iii) Unit weight of sand and clay below
the water table
(iv) Coefficient of volume compressibility
CE 2005
1.
Root time method is used to determine
(A) , time factor
(B)
, coefficient of consolidation
(C) a , coefficient of compressibility
(D)
, coefficient of volume
compressibility
G.L.
5m
Original water table
CE 2006
2 and 3
The average effective overburden
pressure on 10m thick homogeneous
saturated clay layer is 150 kPa.
Consolidation test on an undisturbed soil
sample taken from the clay layer showed
that the void ratio decreased from 0.6 to
0.5 by increasing the stress intensity from
100 kPa to 300 kPa (G = 2.65).
2.
The initial void ratio of the clay layer is
(A) 0.209
(C) 0.746
(B) 0.563
(D) 1.000
3.
The total consolidation settlement of the

clay layer due to the construction of a
structure imposing an additional stress
intensity of 200 kPa is
(A) 0.10 m
(C) 0.35 m
(B) 0.25 m
(D) 0.50 m
CE 2007
4&5
The ground condition at a site are as
shown in the figure. The water table at
the site which was initially at a depth of 5
m below the ground level got
permanently lowered to a depth of
15
m below the ground level due to pumping
of water over a few years. Assume the
following data:
(i) Unit weight of water
(ii) Unit weight of sand above water
table
15 m
20 m
20 m
Lowered water table
Clay soil layer
5m
4.
What is the change in the effective stress

in
at mid-depth of the clay layer
due to the lowering of the water table?
(A) 0
(C) 80
(B) 20
(D) 100
5.
What is the compression of the clay layer

in mm due to the lowering of the water
table?
(A) 125
(C) 25
(B) 100
(D) 0
CE 2008
6.
A saturated clay stratum draining both at
the top and bottom undergoes 50 per cent
consolidation in 16 years under an
applied load. If an additional drainage
layer were present at the middle of the
clay stratum, 50 per cent consolidation
would occur in
(A) 2 years
(C) 8 years
(B) 4 years
(D) 16 years
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Page 301
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2009
Statement for Linked Answers Questions
7&8
7.
A saturated undisturbed sample from a
clay strata has moisture content of
22.22% and specific weight of 2.7.
Assuming
= 10
the void
ratio and the saturated unit weight of the
clay, respectively are
(A) 0.6 and 16.875 kN/m3.
(B) 0.3 and 20.625 kN/m3
(C) 0.6 and 20.625 kN/m3
(D) 0.3 and 16.975 kN/m3
8.
CE 2011
10. Identical surcharges are placed at ground
surface at sites X and Y, with soil
conditions shown alongside and water
table at ground surface. The silty clay
layers at X and Y are identical. The thin
sand layer at Y is continuous and freedraining with a very large discharge
capacity. If primary consolidation at X is
estimated to complete in 36 months, what
would be the corresponding time of
completion of primary consolidation at Y?
Uniform
surcharge
Site X
Using the properties of the clay layer

derived from the above question, the
consolidation settlement of the same clay
layer under a square footing (neglecting
its self weight) with additional data
shown in the figure below (assume-the
stress distribution as 1 H: 2V from the
edge of the footing and = 10
) is
Ground
surface
Water
Table
5m
Isotropic
saturated
silty clay
aturated sand
1.0 m
tiff
1.0 m
Bedrock
(A) 32.78 mm
(B) 61.75 mm
(C) 79.5 mm
(D) 131.13 mm
Void ratio. e
CE 2010
9.
The e-log p curve shown in the figure is
representative of
log p
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Normally consolidated clay

Over consolidated clay
Under consolidated clay
Normally consolidated clayey sand.
Isotropic
saturated
silty clay
Thin
sand
layer
Isotropic
saturated
silty clay
Bedrock
(A) 2.25 months

(B) 4.5 months
pressi n ndex
ense sand
Water
Table
10 m
5m
1.0 m
Site Y
(C) 9 months
(D) 36 months
CE 2012
11. A layer of normally consolidated,
saturated silty clay of 1 m thickness is
subjected
to
one
dimensional
consolidation under a pressure increment
of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil are:
specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture
content= 45%, compression index= 0.45,
and recompression index =0.05. The
initial average effective stress within the
ayer is
a ssu ing erzaghis
theory to be applicable, the primary
consolidation settlement (rounded off the
nearest mm) is
(A) 2mm
(C) 14mm
(B) 9mm
(D) 16mm
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Page 302
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2014
12. The following data are given for the
laboratory sample.
a e
a
e
If thickness of the clay specimen is
25 mm, the value of coefficient of volume
compressibility is _____

1.
[Ans. B]
2.
[Ans. B]
efficient f c
e
e
5.
[Ans. A]
6.
[Ans. B]
r
ay rs f r u a, we have
t
d
Here and are constant
td
t
d
( )
t
d
( )
e
g
e
3.
[Ans. D]
e
(
4.
pressi n,
( )
g
g
Also,
hange in effective stress
) g
[Ans. D]
When the water table is 5 m below the
ground level
When the water table is 15 m below the

ground level,
(
)
t
7.
years
[Ans. C]
e
w
[
i is saturated]
e
e
(
e
)
e
th
th
th
Page 303
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. B]
The consolidation settlement at the
centre of clay layer is given by
g [
]
e
11.
[Ans. D]
w
e
c
a,
a
For NCC,
g
g
12.
Load distribution dimensions at the

centre of clay layer
ncrease in stress due t
)
]

Co efficient of volume compressibility is
defined as
e
e
= 7.61
ad
Effective stress at the centre of clay layer
9.
10.
[Ans. B]
This
condition
consolidated clay.
represents
over
[Ans. C]
ay rs f r u a
t
t
( )
( )
nths
th
th
th
Page 304
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Compaction
CE 2012
1.
Two series of compaction test were performed in the laboratory on an inorganic clayey soil
employing two different levels of compaction energy per unit volume of soil. With regard to the
above tests, the following two statements are made.
I. The optimum moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
II. The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
The correct option evaluating the above statement is.
(A) Only I is TRUE
(B) Only II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are TRUE
(D) Neither I nor II is TRUE
Answer keys & Explanations

1. [Ans. B]
higher energy
s ,
w
isture c ntent
th
th
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Page 305
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Stress Analysis
CE 2005
1.
A clayey soil has maximum dry density of
16
and optimum moisture content
of 12%. A contractor during the
construction of core of an earth dam
obtained the dry density 15.2
and
water content 11%. This construction is
acceptable because.
(A) The density is less than the
maximum dry density and water
content is on dry side of optimum
(B) The compaction density is very low
and water content is less than 12%
(C) The compaction is done on the dry
side of the optimum
(D) Both the dry density and water
content of the compacted soil are
within the desirable limits
CE 2006
2.
In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist
soil was filling the mould
(volume = 944 cc) after compaction. A
soil sample weighing 23 g was taken from
the mould and over dried for 24 hours at
a temperature of 110C. Weight of the dry
sample was found to be 20 g. Specific
gravity of soil solids is G = 2.7. The
theoretical maximum value of the dry unit
weight of the soil at that water content is
equal to
(A) 4.67 kN/m3
(C) 16.26kN/m3
(B) 11.5kN/m3
(D) 18.85kN/m3
CE 2007
3.
The vertical stress at some depth below
the corner of a 2 m 3 m rectangular
footing due to a certain load intensity is
100 . What will be the vertical
stress in
below the centre of a
4 m 6 m rectangular footing at the same
depth and same load intensity?
(A) 25
(C) 200
(B) 100
(D) 400
CE 2008
4.
Compaction by vibratory roller is the best
method of compaction in case of
(A) Moist silty sand
(B) Well graded dry sand
(C) Clay of medium compressibility.
(D) Silt of high compressibility
5.
A footing 2 m 1 m exerts a uniform

pressure of 150 kN/m2 on the soil.
Assuming a load dispersion of 2 vertical
to 1 horizontal, the average vertical stress
(kN/m2) at 1.0 m below the footing is
(A) 50
(C) 80
(B) 75
(D) 100
6 & 7.
The ground conditions at a site are shown
in the figure below.
GL
Sand
5m
P
Water table is at ground level

Water content
= 20%
Specific gravity of solids =2.7
Unit weight of water
= 10
6.
The saturated unit weight of the sand

is
(A) 15
(C) 21
(B) 18
(D) 24
7.
The total stress, pore water pressure and

effective stress (kN/m2) at the point P
are, respectively
(A) 75,50 and 25
(C) 105,50 and 55
(B) 90,50 and 40
(D) 120,50 and 70
CE 2010
8.
In a compaction test, G, w, S and e
represent the specific gravity, water
content, degree of saturation and void
ratio of the soil sample, respectively. If
represents the unit weight of water and
th
th
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Page 306
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
represents the dry unit weight of the

soil, the equation for zero air voids line is
9.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The vertical stress at point P1 due to the

point load Q on the ground surface as
shown in figure is
. According to
Boussinesq's equation, the vertical stress
at point P2 shown in figure will be
10.
What would be the effective stress

(rounded off to the nearest integer value of
kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand layer'?
(A) 77 kPa
(C) 268 kPa
(B) 273 kPa
(D) 281 kPa
11.
What would be the change in the effective

stress (rounded off to the nearest integer
value of kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand
layer if the sea water level permanently
rises by 2 m?
(A) 19 kPa
(C) 21 kPa
(B) 0 kPa
(D) 22 kPa
z/2
z
r/2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE 2011
Common Data for Questions 10 & 11
A sand layer found at sea floor under
20 m water depth is characterized with
relative density = 40%. Maximum void
ratio = 1.0, minimum void ratio = 0.5,
and specific gravity of soil solids = 2.67.
Assume the specific gravity of sea water
to be 1.03 and the unit weight of fresh
water to be 9.81
CE 2014
12. For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial
test yields the angle of internal friction
as zer
he c nducted test is
(A) Consolidated Drained (CD) test
(B) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test
(C) Unconfined Compression (UC) test
(D) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test
th
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Page 307
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. A]
2.
[Ans. D]
Bu
t eve
, an area
= 2 x 1 = 2m2
At level B B, Plan area
= {(2 + 2 x 0.5) (1 + 2 x 0.5)}
= 6m2
So, pressure intensity at level B B (1m.
below the A A)
density f the s i
g cc
ater c ntent s i
= 150 x = 50 kN/m2
For, theoretical maximum dry unit weight
degree of saturation should be 100%
e
w
6.
[Ans. C]
e
e
e
The theoretical maximum dry unit weight
may be given as
,
3.
and
(
7.
[Ans. C]
ta stress
[Ans. D]
For same load intensity and same depth,
re water pressure, u
ffective stress,
4.
[Ans. B]
5.
[Ans. A]
8.
[Ans. B]
The bulk unit weight of soil is given by
e
e
For dry unit weight, degree of saturation,
S=0
1m
2m
e
But we know that w
A
1
1m
1m
For zero air voids, degree of saturation
1
2
w
B
B
0.5
1m
0.5
2.0
th
th
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Page 308
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
9.
[Ans. D]
As per Boussinesq equation, the vertical
stress at a point located at a depth z
and a horizontal distance r from the point
of application of point load Q is
Pore water pressure at the bottom of sand

layer,
u
Effective stress at the bottom of sand layer,
]
()
Alternatively,
For a horizontal distance and a depth .

The stress will be
( )
( )
11.
z
10.
]
()
[Ans. D]
Relative density
(
[Ans. B]
The effective stress will not alter due to
change in sea water level. The total stress
will increase due to increase in sea water
level. The pore water pressure will also
increase in the same proportion, thus
nullifying the effect of each other.
Sea water
22 m
)
e
30 m
e
Also,
Sea water
20 m
30 m
Sand layer
12.
(
Sand layer
[Ans. D]
Mohr circle for UU test
=0
Total stress at the bottom of sand layer,
Which is only possible for UU test on

saturated clays.
th
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Page 309
GATE Supplement Book
Stress Analysis
CE 2005
1.
Assuming that a river bed level does not
change and the depth of water in river
was 10m, 15m and 8m during the months
of February, July and December
respectively of a particular year. The
average bulk density of the soil is 20
kN/m3. The density of water is 110
kN/m3. The effective stress at a depth of
10 m below the river bed during these
months would be
(A) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2
July and 320 kN/m2 in December
(B) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2
(C) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2
(D) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2
2.
For a triaxial shear test conducted on a

sand specimen at a confining pressure of
100 kN/m2 under drained conditions,
resulted in a deviator stress
at
failure of 100 kN/m2. The angle of
shearing resistance of the soil would be
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE 2006
3.
A sample of saturated cohesionless soil
tested in a drained triaxial compression
test showed an angle of internal friction
of
. The deviatoric stress at failure for
the sample at a confining pressure of
200 kPa is equal to
(A) 200 kPa
(C) 600 kPa
(B) 400 kPa
(D) 800 kPa
CE 2007
4.
A clay soil sample is tested in a triaxial
apparatus in consolidated drained
conditions at a cell pressure of 100kN/m2.
What will be the pore water
pressure at a deviator stress of

40 kN/m2?
(A) 0
(C) 40 kN/m2
2
(B) 20 kN/m
(D) 60 kN/m2
5.

below the lists:
List I
List - II
A. Constant head
1. Pile
permeability test
Foundation
B. Consolidation test 2. Specific
gravity
C. Pycnometer test
3. Clay soil
D. Negative skin
friction
Codes:
A
B
(A)
4
3
(B)
4
2
(C)
3
4
(D)
4
1
4. Sand
C
2
3
2
2
D
1
1
1
3
CE 2008
6.
A direct shear test was conducted on a
cohesion less soil (c=0) specimen under a
normal stress of 200 kN/m2. The
specimen failed at a shear stress of
100
. The angle of internal friction
of the soil (degrees) is
(A) 26.6
(C) 30.0
(B) 29.5
(D) 32.6
CE 2010
Statement for linked Answer Question
7and 8
The unconfined compressive strength of a
saturated clay sample is 54 kPa.
7.
The value of cohesion for the clay is

(A) Zero
(C) 27 kPa
(B) 13.5 kPa
(D) 54 kPa
th
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Page 310
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
If a square footing of size 4 m 4 m is

resting on the surface of a deposit of the
above clay, the ultimate bearing capacity
f the f ting as per erzaghis e uati n
is
(A) 1600 kPa
(C) 200 kPa
(B) 316 kPa
(D) 100 kPa
CE 2012
9.
The effective stress friction angle of a
saturated, cohesionless soil is
. The
ratio of shear stress to normal effective
stress on the failure plane is
(A) 0.781
(C) 0.488
(B) 0.616
(D) 0.438

1.
[Ans. B]
Since the river bed level does not change
and the depth of water is changing only
above the river bed, the effective stress
below the river bed will not change.
Total stress at a depth of 10 m below
river bed,
Pore water Pressure,
u
Effective stress,
u
Thus effective stress will be 100 kN/m2
each in the month of February, July and
December.
2.
4.
[Ans. A]
In the consolidated drained test, the soil
sample is first consolidated under an
appropriate cell pressure. With the cell
pressure kept at the same value, the soil
sample is then sheared by applying the
deviator stress so slowly that excess pore
water pressure does not develop during
the test. Thus, at any stage of the test, the
total stresses are the effective stresses.
5.
[Ans. A]
6.
[Ans. A]
]
c tan [ c
tan
tan
7.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. B]
We know that,
sin
sin
hensi n f c ay, c
sin
8.
sin
sin
[Ans. C]
The ultimate bearing capacity of a square
footing in clay as per erzaghis bearing
capacity equation is given by
]
c [
f r c ay
( )
3.
[Ans. B]
tan (
tan (
tan (
c tan (
)
a
9.
[Ans. A]
tan
tan
Deviatoric stress at failure
tan
a
th
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Page 311
Surface Investigations
CE 2005
1.
During the subsurface investigations for
design of foundations, a standard
penetration test was conducted at 4.5m
below the ground surface. The record of
number of blows is given below.
Penetration
Number of
depth (m)
blows
0 - 7.5
3
7.5 - 15
3
15 - 22.5
6
22.5 - 30
6
30 - 37.5
8
37.5 - 45
7
Assuming the water table at ground level,
soil as fine sand and correction factor for
verburden as
, the c rrected va ue
for the soil would be
(A) 18
(C) 21
(B) 19
(D) 33
(C) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value

of SPT > 15 after the overburden
correction
(D) Coarse sand under dry condition and
N value of SPT < 10 after the
overburden correction
CE 2014
4.
The degree of disturbance of the sample
collected by the sampler is expressed by a
term called the "area ratio". If the outer
diameter and inner diameter of the
sampler are
and
respectively, the
area ratio is given by
5.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried

out for soil exploration, while Group II
provides a list of parameters for sub-soil
strength characterization. Match the type
of tests with the characterization
parameters.
Group I
Group II
P. Pressuremeter Test 1. enards
du us
(PMT)
(Em)
Q. Static Cone
2. Number of blows
Penetration Test
(N)
(SCPT)
R. Standard
3. Skin resistance (fc)
Penetration Test
(SPT)
S. Vane Shear Test
4. Undrained
(VST)
cohesion (cu)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE 2007
2.
The no. of blows observed in a standard
penetration test (SPT) for different
penetration depths are given as follows:
Penetration of
Number of
sampler
blows
0 - 150 mm
6
150 - 300 mm
8
300 - 450 mm
10
The observed N value is
(A) 8
(C) 18
(B) 14
(D) 24
CE 2009
3.
Dilatancy correction is required when a
strata is
(A) Cohesive and saturated and also has
N value of SPT > 15
(B) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value
of SPT < 10 after overburden
correction
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Page 312

1.
[Ans. C]
The number of blows required for the
first 150 mm of penetration is
disregarded, and only the number of
blows required for the last 300 mm of
penetration is added together
number of blows,
3.
[Ans. C]
Saturated Dilatancy correction is applied
for fine sand/silt if N > 15
4.
[Ans. A]
(i) Correction for overburden pressure

Corrected value f bserved
(ii) Correction for dilatancy
It is to be applied when number of blows
obtained after overburden correction
exceeds 15 in saturated fine sands and
silts.
2.
[Ans. C]
The number of blows for the first 150 mm
penetration of the sampler is disregarded.
The number of blows for the next 300 mm
penetration is recorded as the observed N
value
Observed va ue
Area ratio =
Inner clearance =
Outer clearance =
5.
[Ans. A]
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Page 313
Earth Pressure
CE 2005
1.
A 3m high retaining wall is supporting a
saturated sand (saturated due to capillary
action) of bulk density 18 kN/m3 and
angle of shearing resistance
. The
change in magnitude of active earth
pressure at the base due to rise in ground
water table from the base of the footing to
2
the gr und surface sha
w = 10 kN/m )
(A) Increase by 20 kN/m2
(B) Decrease by 20 kN/m2
(C) Increase by 30 kN/m2
(D) Decrease by 30 kN/m2
CE 2006
2.
Figure given below shows a smooth
vertical gravity retaining wall with
cohesionless soil backfill having an angle
of internal friction .
CE 2010
4.
If
,
,
and
represent the total
horizontal stress, total vertical stress,
effective horizontal stress and effective
vertical stress on a soil elements,
respectively, the co-efficient of earth
pressure at rest is given by
(A)
(C)
(D)
(B)
CE 2012
5.
A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as
shown in the sketch causing the backfill
material to fail. The backfill material is
homogeneous and isotropic, and obeys
the Mohr Coulomb failure criterion. The
major principal stress is
Initial wall position
Final wall position
hrs enve pe
Sand
H
Dry, granular,
cohesionless
backfill with
horizontal top
surface
P
Ground
line
O
In the graphical representation of

an ines active earth pressure f r the
retaining wall shown in figure, length OP
represents
(A) Vertical stress at the base
(B) Vertical stress at a height H/3 from
the base
(C) Lateral earth pressure at the base
(D) Lateral earth pressure at a height
H/3 from the base
CE 2008
3.
When a retaining wall moves away from
the backfill, the pressure exerted on the
wall is termed as
(A) passive earth pressure
(B) swelling pressure
(C) pore pressure
(D) active earth pressure
(A) Parallel to the wall face and acting

downwards
(B) Normal to the wall face
(C) Oblique to the wall face acting
downwards
(D) Oblique to the wall face acting
upwards
CE 2013
6.
Two different soil types (soil 1 and soil 2)
are used as backfill behind a retaining
wall as shown in the figure, where is
total unit weight, and c and are
effective cohesion and effective angle of
shearing resistance. The resultant active
earth force per unit length ( in kN/m)
acting on the wall is :
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Page 314
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Retaining wall
2m
Soil 1:
=15kN/
c =0;
Soil 2:
2m
(A) 31.7
(B) 35.2
=20kN/
c =0;
(C) 51.8
(D) 57.0

1.
[Ans. A]
When water table is at the base of footing
to the vertical stress at a specified depth.

Ko =
But for a saturated soil,
5.
[Ans. B]
In passive earth pressure, major principle
stress is horizontal.
6.
[Ans. A]
sin
sin
When water table rises upto the surface

thrust due to water will be added
So change in pressure =
(increase)
= 10kN/m
2.
[Ans. A]
3.
[Ans. D]
4.
[Ans. B]
Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is the
ratio of intensity of earth pressure at rest
=13.02kN/m
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Page 315
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Stability of Slopes
CE 2005
1.
For two infinite slopes (one in dry
condition and other in submerged
condition) in a sand deposit having the
angle of shearing resistance
, factor of
safety was determined as 1.5 (for both
slopes).
The slope angles would have been.
(A)
for dry slope and
for
submerged slope
(B)
for dry slope and
for
submerged slope
(C)
for dry slope and
for
submerged slope
(D)
for dry slope and
for
submerged slope
CE 2006
2.
List-I below gives the possible types of
failure for a finite soil slope and List-II
gives the reasons for these different types
of failure. Match the items in List-I with
the items in List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the
lists:
List-I
A. Base failure
B. Face failure
C. Toe failure
List-II
1. Soils above and below the toe have
same strength
2. Soil above the toe is comparatively
weaker
3. Soil above the toe is comparatively
stronger
Codes:
A
B
C
(A) 1
2
3
(B) 2
3
1
(C) 2
1
3
(D) 3
2
1
CE 2007
3.
The factor safety of an infinite soil slope
shown in the figure having the properties
c = 0, =
,
= 16 kN/m3, and
3
= 20 kN/m is approximately equal to
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.8
(C) 1.0
(D) 1.2
CE 2013
4.
The soil profile above the rock surface for
a
infinite slope is shown in the figure,
where s is the undrained shear strength
and is total unit weight. The slip will
occur at a depth of
5m
5m
(A) 8.83 m
(B) 9.79 m
(C) 7.83 m
(D) 6.53 m
CE 2014
5.
A long slope is formed in a soil with shear
strength parameters: c' = 0 and ' = 34.
A firm stratum lies below the slope and it
is assumed that the water table may
occasionally rise to the surface, with
seepage taking place parallel to the slope.
Use
= 18 kN/
and
= 10 kN/ .
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Page 316
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
The maximum slope angle (in degrees) to

ensure a factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a
potential failure surface parallel to the
slope, would be
(A) 45.3
(C) 12.3
(B) 44.7
(D) 11.3
6.
An infinitely long slope is made up of a

c- s i having the pr perties: c hesi n
(c) = 20 kPa and dry unit weight ( ) =
16 kN/ . The angle of inclination and
critical height of the slope are 40 and
5 m, respectively. To maintain the limiting
equilibrium, the angle of internal friction
of the soil (in degrees) is _______________

1.
[Ans. A]
For dry or submerged slopes,
The slip will occur when shear stress is

greater than or equal to shear strength.
Factor of safety =
=) tan =
sin c s
z sin
=) = 21.05
z
2.
3.
[Ans. D]
Face failure or slope failure can occur
when the s pe ang e is very high and
the soil close to the toe is quite strong or
the soil in the upper part of slope is
relatively weak.
Base failure can occur when the soil
below the toe is relatively weak and soft
and the slope is flat.
Toe failure occurs in steep slopes when
the soil mass above the base and below
the base is homogeneous.
z
epth f s ip
5.
[Ans. D]
For submerged case
F.O.S =
For seepage parallel to slope
F.O.S =
(2) is worst case since
O f case
< FOS of case (1)
as
[Ans. A]
Factor of safety,
Considering (2)
Assuming,
*
4.
sin
tan
tan i
O
+
i
6.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. *] Range 21.0 to 23.0
Slip surface
tan
tan
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Page 317
Bearing Capacity
CE 2005
1.
The strip footing (8, wide) is designed for
a total settlement of 40 mm. The safe
bearing capacity (shear) was 150 kN/
and safe allowable soil pressure was
100 kN/ . Due to importance of the
structure, now the footing is to be
redesigned for total settlement of 25 mm.
The new width of the footing will be
(A) 5 m
(C) 12 m
(B) 8 m
(D) 12.8m
CE 2007
2.
The bearing capacity of a rectangular
footing of plan dimensions 1.5m 3m
resting on the surface of a sand deposit
was estimated as 600 kN/m2 when the
water table is far below the base of the
footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m2
when the water level rises to depth of 3m,
1.5m and 0.5m below the base of the
footing are
(A) 600, 600, 400
(C) 600, 500, 250
(B) 600, 450, 350
(D) 600, 400, 250
CE 2008
3 and 4
A column is supported on footing as
shown in the figure below. The water
table is at a depth of 10m below the base
of the footing
Column
GL
1.0 m
Footing
1.53m
Sand
= 18 kN/
= 24
= 20
3.
The net ultimate bearing capacity

(kN/
) of the footing based on
erzaghis bearing capacity e uati n is
(A) 216
(C) 630
(B) 432
(D) 846
4.
The safe load (kN) that the footing can be

with a factor of safety 3 is
(A) 282
(C) 945
(B) 648
(D) 1269
5.
A test plate 30 cm 30 cm resting on a

sand deposit settles by 10 mm under a
certain loading intensity. A footing
150 cm 200 cm resting on the same
sand deposit and loaded to the same load
intensity settles by
(A) 2.0 mm
(C) 30.2 mm
(B) 27.8mm
(D) 50.0mm
CE 2009
6.
A plate load test is carried out on a
300 mm 300 mm plate placed at 2 m
below the ground level to determine the
bearing capacity of a 2 m 2 m footing
placed at same depth of 2 m on a
homogeneous sand deposit extending 10
m below ground. The ground water table
is 3 m below the ground level. Which of
the following factors does not require a
correction to the bearing capacity
determined based on the load test?
(A) Absence of the overburden pressure
during the test
(B) Size of the plate is much smaller than
the footing size
(C) Influence of the ground water table
(D) Settlement is recorded only over a
limited period of one or two days
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Page 318
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
Common Data for Questions 7 and 8:

Examine the test arrangement and the
soil properties given below;
5m
11.
5m
Two geometrically identical isolated

footings, X (linear elastic) and Y (rigid),
are loaded identically (shown below). The
soil reaction will
Uniform pressure
Footing X: Linear elastic
Rigid Steel Beam

Concrete block
1.51.00.6m high
Saturated dense sand

5m
c
a
7.
8.
G.W.T
500 mm diameter bored pile
Angle of friction
Earth pressure coefficient
(K)= 1.5
Uniform pressure
The maximum pressure that can be

applied with a factor of safety of 3
through the concrete block, ensuring no
bearing capacity failure in soil using
erzaghis bearing capacity e uati n
without considering the shape factor,
depth factor and inclination factor is
(A) 26.67 kPa
(C) 90 kPa
(B) 60 kPa
(D) 120 kPa
The maximum resistance offered by the
soil through skin friction while pulling out
the pile from the ground is
(A) 104.9 kN
(C) 236 kN
(B) 209.8 kN
(D) 472 kN
CE 2011
9.
Likelihood of general shear failure for an
isolated footing in sand decreases with
(A) Decreasing footing depth
(B) Decreasing inter-granular packing of
the sand
(C) Increasing footing width
(D) Decreasing soil grain compressibility
10.
Isotropic linear
elastic soil
For a sample of dry, cohesionless soil with

friction angle, , the failure plane will be
inclined to the major principal plane by
an angle equal to
(A)
(C)
(B) 45
(D)
Footing Y: Rigid
Isotropic linear
elastic soil
(A) be uniformly distributed for Y but not

for X
(B) be uniformly distributed for X but not
for Y
(C) be uniformly distributed for both X
and Y
(D) not be uniformly distributed for both
X and Y
CE 2012
12. An embankment is to be constructed with
a granular soil (bulk unit weight =
20kN/ ) on a saturated clayey silt
deposit (undrained shear strength = 25
kPa). Assuming undrained general shear
failure and bearing capacity factor of 5.7,
the maximum height (in m) of the
embankment at the point of failure is
(A) 7.1
(C) 4.5
(B) 5.0
(D) 2.5
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Page 319
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2013
13 & 14
A multistory building with a basement is
to be constructed. The top 4m consists of
loose silt, below which dense sand layer is
present up to a great depth. Ground water
table is at the surface. The foundation
consists of the basement slab of 6 m
width which will rest on the top of dense
sand as shown in the figure. For dense
sand, saturated unit weight =
/ ,
and bearing capacity factors
and
. For loose silt, saturated unit
weight = 18kN/ ,
and
.
ffective c hesi n c is zer f r both soils.
Unit weight of water is 10kN/ . Neglect
shape factor and depth factor.
verage e astic
du us and iss ns
ratio
of dense and is
/
and 0.3 respectively.
Ground
surface
Loose
silt 4 m
Basement
Foundation
slab
CE 2014
15. Group I contains representative loadsettlement curves for different modes of
bearing capacity failures of sandy soil.
Group II enlists the various failure
characteristics. Match the load-settlement
curves with the corresponding failure
characteristics.
Load
J
Group I
P. Curve J
Q. Curve K
R. Curve L
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Loose
silt
14.
Dense sand
Using factor of safety =3, the net safe
bearing capacity (in kN/
) of the
foundation is :
(A) 610
(C) 983
(B) 320
(D) 693
Settlement
Group II
1. No apparent heaving of soil
around the footing
an ines passive z ne
develops imperfectly
3. Well defined slip surface
extends to ground surface
,
,
,
,
,
,
,
,
16.
The contact pressure for a rigid footing

resting on clay at the centre and the edges
are respectively
(A) maximum and zero
(B) maximum and minimum
(C) zero and maximum
(D) minimum and maximum
17.
A circular raft foundation of 20 m

diameter and 1.6 m thick is provided for a
tank that applies a bearing pressure of
110 kPa on sandy soil with Young's
modulus, ' = 30 MPa and Poisson's
ratio,
= 0.3. The raft is made of
concrete ( = 30 GPa and = 0.15).
Considering the raft as rigid, the elastic
settlement (in mm) is
(A) 50.96
(C) 63.72
(B) 53.36
(D) 66.71
6m
13.
The foundation slab is subjected to

vertical downward stresses equal to net
safe bearing capacity derived in the above
question. Using influence factor =2.0,
and neglecting embedment depth and
rigidity corrections, the immediate
settlement of the dense sand layer will be:
(A) 58 mm
(C) 126 mm
(B) 111 mm
(D) 179 mm
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Page 320

1.
[Ans. A]
The allowable soil pressure for 25 mm
settlement
=
3.
[Ans. B]
[
B(
[Ans. C]
7.
[Ans. A]
The bearing capacity equation for
rectangular footing given by Terzaghi is
given by
B
c [
]
where *
8.
[Ans. C]
Using net Ultimate nearing capacity as
630 kN/
ad
act r f safety
here are tw c ncrete b c s]
a
[Ans. A]
Ultimate (maximum) skin friction
resistance,
is given by
tan
Where,
K=lateral earth pressure coefficient
=1.5
Average effective overburden

Pressure over the embedded length of pile,
= 432 + 243 = 675 KN/

The net ultimate bearing capacity,
=
= 675 18 1 = 657 kN/
afe
1.5
20
+ and *
Thus, neglecting shape factors in the

above equation we get,
For sand, c= 0
(
+ areShape factors.
[
18
6.
)
=
] for sandy soils
=5m
[Ans. C]
Ultimate bearing capacity of the footing as
per erzaghis e uati n f r rectangu ar
footing is given as
)c
[Ans. A]
The bearing capacity of the sand deposit
will remain same until the water table
rises to a depth less than the width of the
footing.
Thus, when water table is 3.0 below
footing, the bearing capacity is 600
, similarly when water table is 1.5 m
below footing, the bearing capacity
remaining same i.e. 600
. But when
the water table rises to a depth of 0.5 m
below the footing, the sand deposit will be
saturated for a depth of 1.5 0.5 = 1 m.
thus, the bearing capacity below the base
of footing will decrease due to
submergence of soil (1 m).
=(
4.
100 = 62.5 kN/
Thus new width of footing =

2.
5.
= 945 kN
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Page 321
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
14.
[Ans. B]
= Surface area of pile in contact with

soil
tan
Nearest option (B)

9.
[Ans. B]
10.
[Ans. D]
2a
We know,
11.
[Ans. A]
12.
[Ans. A]
15.
[Ans. A]
L: General shear failure
J: punching shear failure
K: Local shear failure
16.
[Ans. D]
17.
[Ans. B]
Elastic settlement of rigid footing,
B
s
Shape factor for circular raft footing
Ultimate bearing capacity,

Maximum vertical stress due
embankment =
Where = unit wt of embankment and
H = Height
Equating,
to
Height of embankment, H =
13.
[Ans. A]
Safe bearing capacity
(
(y
)
)
B
By
Nearest option (A)
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Page 322
Pile Foundation
CE 2005
1.
Negative skin friction in a soil is
considered when the pile is constructed
through a
(A) fill material
(B) dense coarse sand
(C) over consolidated stiff clay
(D) dense fine sand
CE 2006
2.
For the soil profile shown in figure below,
the minimum number of precast concrete
piles of 300 mm diameter required to
safely carry the load for given factor of
safety of 2.5 (assuming 100% efficiency
for the pile group ) is equal to
5000 kN
Medium stiff
clay
10 m
= 100k Pa
= 0.57
Stiff clay
a
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
CE 2007
3.
What is the ultimate capacity in kN of the
pile group shown in the figure assuming
the group to fail as a single block?
0.4 m
diameter piles
10 m
Clay soil
= 40kN/
=
1.2 m c/c
1.2 m c/c
(A) 921.6
(B) 1177.6
(C) 2438.6
(D) 3481.6
CE 2008
4.
A pile of 0.5m diameter and of length 10m
is embedded in a deposit of clay. The
undrained strength parameters of the
clay are cohesion = 60 kN/
and the
angle of internal friction = 0. The skin
friction capacity (kN) of the pile for an
adhesion factor 0.6 is
(A) 671
(C) 283
(B) 565
(D) 106
CE 2009
5.
A precast concrete pile is driven with a
50 kN hammer falling through a height of
1.0 with an efficiency of 0.6. The set value
observed is 4 mm per blow and the
combined temporary compression of the
pile, cushion and the ground is 6 mm. As
per modified Hiley formula, the ultimate
resistance of the pile is
(A) 3000 kN
(C) 8333 kN
(B) 4285.7 kN
(D) 11905 kN
CE 2010
6.
The ultimate load capacity of a 10 m long
concrete pile of square cross section
500 mm 500 mm driven into a
homogeneous
clay
layer
having
undrained cohesion value of 40 kPa is
700 kN. If the cross section of the pile is
reduced to 250 mm 250 mm and the
length of the pile is increased to
20 m,
the ultimate load capacity will be
(A) 350 kN
(C) 722.5 kN
(B) 632.5 kN
(D) 1400 kN
CE 2011
7.
A singly under-reamed, 8-m long, RCC pile
(shown in the adjoining figure) weighing
20 kN with 350 mm shaft diameter and
750 mm under-ream diameter is installed
within stiff, saturated silty clay (undrained
shear strength is 50 kPa, adhesion factor is
0.3, and the applicable bearing capacity
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Page 323
.
GATE QUESTION BANK
factor is 9) to counteract the impact of soil

swelling on a structure constructed above.
Neglecting suction and the contribution of
the under-ream to the adhesive shaft
capacity, what would be the estimated
ultimate tensile capacity (rounded off to
the nearest integer value of kN) of the pile?
10.
8000
mm
A single vertical friction pile of diameter

500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a
vertical compressive load. The pile is
embedded in a homogeneous sandy
stratum where:
ng e f interna fricti n
,
Dry unit weight ( ) = 20 kN/
and
ang e f wa fricti n
Considering the coefficient of lateral earth

pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing
capacity factor ( ) = 25, the ultimate
bearing capacity of the pile (in kN) is
_______________
400 mm
350 mm
750 mm
(A) 132 kN
(B) 156 kN
(C) 287 kN
(D) 301 kN
CE 2013
8.
Four columns of a building are to be
located within a plot size of
.
The expected load on each columns is
4000 kN.allowable bearing capacity of the
soil deposit is 100 kN/ . The type of
foundation best suited is
(A) Isolated foundation
(B) Raft foundation
(C) Pile foundation
(D) Combined foundation
CE 2014
9.
The action of negative skin friction on the
pile is to
(A) increase the ultimate load on the pile
(B) reduce the allowable load on the pile
(C) maintain the working load on the
pile
(D) reduce the settlement of the pile
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Page 324
.
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
2.
[Ans. A]
Negative skin friction is experienced
when the soil around the pile settles at a
faster rate than pile. Thus, piles installed
in freshly prepared fills of soft
compressive deposits are subject to a
downward drag. This downward drag on
the pile surface, where the soil moves
down relative to the pile, adds to the
structural loads and is called negative
skin friction.
Again,
7.
[Ans. B]
The tensile resistance of a pile is given as
Where
shaft resistance
weight f pi e
c
[Ans. C]
The ultimate load capacity of piles,
The load capacity of single pile,

c
c
8.
[Ans. C]
Area of footing of each column required,
ad
Beading capacity
Which is very large to be provided in
field size.
r
Shallow foundation will not be feasille
Pile foundation is best choice
9.
[Ans. B]
Negative skin function is downward
acting on pile due to downward
movement of surrounding compressible
soil relative to pile. It reduces allowable
load on pile.
10.
[Ans. *] Range 6150 to 6190

For friction pile
f
number of piles
3.
[Ans. D]
The ultimate load capacity of pile group
by block failure
=
+ L
= 40 9
10 40
= 3481.6 kN
4.
5.
+4
[Ans. B]
The skin friction capacity of a pile is given
by,
=
= 565.48 kN = 565 kN
here, f
tan
[Ans. B]
R=
tan
= 4285.7 kN
tan ( )
tan (
,f
6.
[Ans. B]
The ultimate load of a pile in clay is given
by
c
c
th
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Page 325
GATE QUESTION BANK
Transportation & Surveying
Introduction to Transportation
CE - 2005
1.
PradhanMantri
Gram
SadakYojna
(PMGSY), launched in the year 2000, aims
to provide rural connectivity with allweather roads. It is proposed to connect
the habitations in plain areas of
population more than 500 persons by the
year
(A) 2005
(C) 2010
(B) 2007
(D) 2012
CE - 2014
2.
On a section of a highway the speeddensity relationship is linear and is given
by v *
k+; where v is in km/h and
k is in veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of
this section of the highway would be
(A) 1200
(C) 4800
(B) 2400
(D) 9600

1.
[Ans. B]
2.
[Ans. B]
v = 80
Capacity, q = v k
= 80 k
k
For q to be maximum
dq
dk
dq
k
dk
k
Max. capacity,
q
th
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Page 326
GATE QUESTION BANK
Geometric design of highway

CE 2005
1.
The length of summit curve a two lane
two way highway depends upon
(A) Allowable rate of change of
centrifugal acceleration
(B) Coefficient of lateral friction
(C) Required stopping sight distance
(D) Required overtaking sight distance
2.
On an urban road, the free mean speed

was measured as 70 kmph and the
average spacing between the vehicles
under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speedflow- density equation is given by
[
At a horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane

undivided carriageway, a transition curve
is to be introduced to attain required
super elevation. The design speed is
60 kmph and radius of the curve is 245m.
Assume length of wheel base of a longest
vehicle as 6m, super elevation rate as 5%
and rate of introduction of this super
elevation as 1 in 150. The length of the
transition curve (m) required, if the
pavement is rotated about inner edge is
(A) 81.4
(C) 91.5
(B) 85.0
(D) 110.2
] nd q
Where,
U = space-mean speed (kmph);
Usf =free mean speed (kmph);
k = density (veh/km);
kj= jam density (veh/km);
q = flow (veh/hr).
The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for
this condition is equal to
(A) 2000
(C) 3000
(B) 2500
(D) None of these
A road is having a horizontal curve of

400 m radius on which a super-elevation
of 0.07 is provided. The coefficient of
lateral friction mobilized the curve when
a vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(A) 0.07
(C) 0.15
(B) 0.13
(D) 0.4
CE - 2006
3.
A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an
ascending gradient of a highway has to
come to stop position to avoid collision
with a stationary object. The ratio of lag
to brake distance is 6:5. Considering total
reaction time of the driver as 2.5 seconds
and the coefficient of longitudinal
frication as 0.36, the value of as ascending
gradient (%) is.
(A) 3.3
(C) 5.3
(B) 4.8
(D) 6.8
4.
5.
CE - 2007
6.
The extra widening required for a twolane national highway at a horizontal
curve of 300 m radius, considering a
wheel base of 8m and a design speed of
100kmph is
(A) 0.42m
(C) 0.82m
(B) 0.62m
(D) 0.92m
7.
While designing a hill road with a ruling

gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal curve
of 50 m radius is encountered, the
compensated gradient at the curve as per
the Indian roads congress specifications
should be.
(A) 4.4%
(C) 5.0%
(B) 4.75%
(D) 5.25%
8.
The design speed on a road is 60kmph.

Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5
seconds and coefficient of friction of
pavement surface as 0.35, the required
stopped distance for two-way traffic on a
single lane road is.
(A) 82.1m
(C) 164.2m
(B) 102.4m
(D) 186.4m
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Page 327
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2008
9.
A road is provided with a horizontal
circular curve having deflection angle 55
and centre line radius of 250m. a
transition curve is to be provided at each
end of the circular curve of such a length
that the rate of gain of radial acceleration
is 0.3m/s3 at a speed of 50 km per hour .
Length of the transition curve required at
each of the ends is
(A) 2.57m
(C) 35.73 m
(B) 33.33 m
(D) 1666.67 m
10.
11.
Common data for Q no 10 and Q 11

A horizontal circular curve with a centre
line radius of 200m is provided on a 2lane, 2-way SH section. The width of the
2-lane road is 7.0m. Design speed for this
section is 80 km per hour. The brake
reaction time is 2.4s, and the coefficients
of friction in longitudinal and lateral
directions are 0.3555 and 0.15,
respectively.
The safe stopping sight distance on the
section is
(A) 221 m
(C) 125 m
(B) 195 m
(D) 65 m
13.
respectively. the curve length (which is

less than stopping sight distance) to be
provided is
(A) 120m
(C) 163m
(B) 152m
(D) 240m
CE - 2010
14. Consider the following statements in the
context of geometric design of roads.
I. A simple parabolic curve is an
acceptable shape for summit curves.
II. Comfort to passengers is an important
consideration in the design of
summit curves
The correct option evaluating the above
statements and their relationship is
(A) I is true , II is false
(B) I is true, II is true, and II is the
correct reason for I
(C) I is true, II is true and II is Not the
correct reason for I
(D) I is false, II is true
15.
The set-back distance from the centre line

of the inner lane is
(A) 7.93m
(C) 9.60m
(B) 8.10m
(D) 9.77m
CE - 2009
12. The value of lateral friction or side
friction used in the design of horizontal
curve as per Indian roads congress
guidelines is
(A) 0.40
(C) 0.24
(B) 0.35
(D) 0.15
A crest vertical curve joins two gradients
of +3% and 2% design speed of 80
km/h and the corresponding stopping
sight distance of 120m.The height of
drivers eye nd the object bove the ro d
surface
are
1.20m
and
0.15m
The design speed for a two-lane road is

80kmph. When a design vehicle with a
wheelbase of 6.6m is negotiating a
horizontal curve on that road, the offtracking is measured as 0.096m,. the
required widening of carriage way of the
two-lane road on the curve is
approximately
(A) 0.55 m
(C) 0.75 m
(B) 0.65 m
(D) 0.85 m
CE - 2011
16. A vehicle negotiates a transition curve
with uniform speed v. If the radius of the
horizontal curve and the allowable jerk
are R and J, respectively, the minimum
length of the transition curve is
(v )
(A)
(C) v
(B) ( v)
(D) v ( )
17.
th
If v is the initial speed of a vehicle, g is

the gravitational acceleration, G is the
upward longitudinal slope of the road and
f is the coefficient of rolling friction
th
th
Page 328
GATE QUESTION BANK
during braking, the braking distance

(measured horizontally) for the vehicle to
stop is
(C) (
(A)
)
(
(B)
Assume total reaction time = 2.5 seconds;

coefficient of longitudinal friction of the
pavement = 0.35; height of head light of
the vehicle = 0.75 m;
and beam angle =
(D)
CE - 2012
18. The following data are related to a
horizontal curved portion of a two lane
highway: length of curve = 200 m,
radius of curve = 300 m and width of
pavement = 7.5 m. In order to provide a
stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the
set back distance (in m) required from
the centre line of the inner lane of the
pavement is
(A) 2.54 m
(C) 7.10 m
(B) 4.55 m
(D) 7.96 m
CE - 2013
19. The percent voids in mineral aggregate
(VMA) and percent air voids ( ) in a
compacted cylindrical bituminous mix
specimen are 15 and 4.5 respectively. The
percent voids filled with bitumen (VFB)
for this specimen is :
(A) 24
(C) 54
(B) 30
(D) 70
20.
What is the length of valley curve (in m)

based on the head light sight distance
conditions? _______________________
21.
What is the length of valley curve (in m)

based on the comfort condition?_________
CE - 2014
22. The perception-reaction time for a vehicle
travelling at 90 km/h, given the
coefficient of longitudinal friction of 0.35
and the stopping sight distance of 170 m
(assume g = 9.81 m s ),
is _____________ seconds.
23.
A road is being designed for a speed of

110 km/hr on a horizontal curve with a
super elevation of 8%. If the coefficient of
side friction is 0.10, the minimum radius
of the curve (in m) required for safe
vehicular movement is
(A) 115.0
(C) 264.3
(B) 152.3
(D) 528.5

For a portion of national highway where a
descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets an
ascending gradient of 1 in 20, a valley
curve needs to be designed for a vehicle
travelling at 90 kmph based on the
following conditions.
(1) Headlight sight distance equal to the
stopping sight distance (SSD) of a
level terrain considering length of
valley curve > SSD.
(2) Comfort condition with allowable
rate of change of centrifugal
acceleration is 0.5 m/sec
th
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Page 329
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
2.
[Ans. D]
Length of summit curve depends upon:
a. SSD for single lane two way highway
b. OSD for two lane two way highway
from
formul
[Ans. B]
(
(e
f
5.
(
The length of transition curve will be

110.22m
f)
3.
Now length of transition curve as per rate

of introduction of super elevation
x
m
[Ans. B]
Traffic volume = density speed
q= k
k
q
(
)k
k
k
q
(k
)
k
m ensity
[Ans. B]
g dist nce
t
m
r ke dist nce
l g dist nce
br ke dist nce
m[
r king dist nce
(f
for m ximum tr ffic volume
(
( )
k
)
k
n)
[Ans. D]
When the pavement is rotated about the
inner edge
ximum tr ffic volume

q
k
(
) )
k
( )
vehhr
W+EW
)e
ise x (
king width of e ch l ne
*
6.
[Ans. C]
The extra widening w given by
n
m]
[
x
[ u
dq
dk
k
k
n
4.
kmhr
nd
n)
(
ver ge sp cing between vehicles
( )
]
m
th
th
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Page 330
GATE QUESTION BANK
7.
[Ans. A]
11.
[Ans. C]
r de compens tion
1m
ulling gr deient
ompens ted gr dient
8.
7.0m
R
[Ans. C]
topping ist nce
vt
cos
et b ck dist nce m
v
f
cos
(
m)
cos (
m
But the traffic is two way therefore the
stopping distance = 2 82.1= 164.2m
9.
[Ans. C]
If is the rate of change of radial
acceleration, the radial acceleration (a)
attained during the time the vehicle
passes over the transition curve is given
by
cos (
m
12.
[Ans. D]
13.
[Ans. B]
When the curve length is less than
stopping sight distance then it is given by,
t
(
m
di l cceler tion
14.
[Ans. A]
15.
[Ans. C]
ff tr cking
m
10.
[Ans. C]
fe stopping sight dist nce,
v
vt
f
(
nl
xtr widening
)
m
16.
[Ans. D]
17.
[Ans. B]
th
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Page 331
GATE QUESTION BANK
18.
[Ans. B]
Length of curve,
Radius of curve, R = 300 m
Width of pavement, w = 7.5 m
SSD, S = 80 m
22.
[Ans. *] (Range 3.1 to 3.2)

t
19.
) cos(
)
g
f
(e
[Ans. D]
(
528.5 m
20.
[Ans. D]
(
e f
e
)t
t
23.
gf
distance, m = R (R-d) cos
f)
)
[Ans. *]
t
m
s
(
21.
[Ans. *]
(
Where V is in m s
(
[
mhr
)
ms
th
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Page 332
GATE QUESTION BANK
Traffic Characteristics
CE - 2005
1.
A transport company operates a
scheduled daily truck service between
city P and city Q. One-way journey time
between these two cities is 85 hours. A
minimum layover time of 5 hours is to be
provided at each city. How many trucks
are required to provide this service?
(A) 4
(C) 7
(B) 6
(D) 8
2.
A single lane unidirectional highway has a

design speed of 65 kmph. The perceptionbrake-reaction time of drivers is 2.5
seconds and the average length of
vehicles is 5 m. The coefficient of
longitudinal friction of the pavement is
0.4. The capacity of road in terms of
vehicles per hour per lane is
(A) 1440
(C) 710
(B) 750
(D) 680
CE - 2006
3.
Name the traffic survey data which is
plotted by me ns of esire lines
(A) Accident
(B) Classified volume
(C) Origin and Destination
(D) Speed and Delay
CE - 2007
4.
If a two-lane national highway and a
twolane state highway intersect at right
angles, the number of potential conflict
points at the intersection, assuming that
both the roads are two-way is
(A) 11
(C) 24
(B) 17
(D) 32
CE - 2008
5.
The capacities of
sidewalk (persons
way 2-lane urban
with no frontage
One-way 1.5m wide

per hour)" and "One
road (PCU per hour,
access, no standing
vehicles nd very little cross tr ffic) re

respectively
(A) 1200 and 2400 (C) 1200 and 1500
(B) 1800 and 2000 (D) 2000 and 1200
6. A roundabout is provided with an average
entry width of 8.4m, width of weaving
section as 14m, and length of the weaving
section between channelizing islands as
35m. The crossing traffic and total traffic
on the weaving section are 1000 and
2000 PCU per hour respectively. The
nearest rounded capacity of the
roundabout (in PCU per hour) is
(A) 3300
(C) 4500
(B) 3700
(D) 5200
7. A linear relationship is observed between
speed and density on a certain section of a
highway. The free flow speed is observed
to be 80 km per hour and the jam density
is estimated as 100 vehicles per km
length. Based on the above relationship,
the maximum flow expected on this
section and the speed at the maximum
flow will respectively be
(A) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80km
per hour
(B) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25km
per hour
(C) 2000 vehicles per hour 80km per
hour.
(D) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40km
per hour
CE - 2009
8.
On a specific highway, the speed-density
relationship follows the Greenberg's
model [v=vf log (kj/k)], where vf and
kj are the free flow speed and jam density
respectively. When the highway is
operating at capacity, the density
obtained as per this model is
(A) e.kj
(C) kj/2
(B) kj
(D) kj/e
th
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Page 333
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2011
9.
If the jam density given as k and the free
flow speed is given as u the maximum
flow for a linear traffic speed density
model is given by which if the following
options?
10.
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
The probability that k number of vehicles

arrive (i. e. cross a predefined line) in
time t is given as ( t) e
k where is
the average vehicle arrival rate. What is
the probability that the time headway is
greater than or equal to time t
(A) e
(C) e
(B) e
(D) e
CE - 2013
11. It was observed that 150 vehicles crossed
a particular location of a highway in a
duration of 30 minutes. Assuming that
vehicle arrival follows a negative
exponential distribution, find out of
number of time headways greater than 5
seconds in the above observation?____
12.
CE - 2014
13. The minimum value of 15 minute peak
hour factor on a section of a road is
(A) 0.10
(C) 0.25
(B) 0.20
(D) 0.33
14.
The speed-density (u k) rel tionship on

a single lane road with unidirectional flow
is u = 70 0.7k, where u is in km/hr and
k is in veh/km. The capacity of the road
(in veh/hr) is ___________
15.
A student riding a bicycle on a 5 km oneway street takes 40 minutes to reach

home. The student stopped for 15
minutes during this ride. 60 vehicles
overtook the student (assume the
number of vehicles overtaken by the
student is zero) during the ride and 45
vehicles while the student stopped. The
speed of vehicle stream on that road (in
km/hr) is
(A) 7.5
(C) 40
(B) 12
(D) 60
16.
An observer counts 240 vehicle/h at a

specific highway location. Assume that
the vehicle arrival at the location is
Poisson distributed, the probability of
having one vehicle arriving over a
30-seconds time interval is
For two major roads with divided

carriageway crossing at right angle, a full
clover leaf interchange with four indirect
ramps in provided. Following statements
are made on turning movements of
vehiclesto all directions from both roads.
Identify the correct statements:
(A) Merging from left is possible, but
diverging to left is not possible
(B) Both merging from left and diverging
to left are possible.
(C) Merging from left is not possible, but
diverging to left is possible
(D) Neither merging left nor diverging to
left is possible.
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Page 334

1.
[Ans. D]
6.
2.
[Ans. C]
Space headway,
t
[Ans. B]
Width of the weaving section, W =14m
Average entry width, e = 8.4 m
Length of weaving section between
channelizing islands L = 35 m
Proportion of weaving traffic is given by
m
Capacity
The capacity the round about may be

given as:
w(
3.
[Ans. C]
4.
[Ans. C]
On a right angled road intersection with
two way traffic the total number of
conflict points merging and diverging
conflicts are considered as minor
conflicts, numbering 4 in each case.
)(
)(
per hour
7.
[Ans. D]
The maximum flow may be calculated as.
free flow speed j m density
q
vehicleshr
Maximum flow occurs when the speed
becomes half of the free flow speed i.e.,
free flow speed
peed t q
5.
[Ans. A]
Tentative capacity values of urban roads
suggested by IRC are:
a. One-way two lane road with no
frontage access, no standing vehicles
and very little cross traffic = 2400
PCU per hour
b. One way traffic two lane road with
frontage access, but no standing
vehicle
and
high
capacity
intersections 1500 PCU/hr.
c. One-way two lane road with free from
frontage access, parked vehicles and
heavy cross traffic -1200 PCU/hr
kmhr
8.
[Ans. D]
Given
k
log ( )
k
But capacity C = traffic density speed
=kV
k
k log ( )
k
d
for m ximum c p city
dk
k
d
* log ( )+
dk
k
th
th
th
: 080-65700750, info@thegateacademy.com Copyright reserved. Web: www.thegateacademy.comPage 335
GATE QUESTION BANK
k
k d
d
log ( ) log ( ) k
dk
k
k dk
k
k
k
k ( ) log
k
k
k
k
log
k
k
e
k
k
k
e
15.
9.
[Ans. A]
16.
10.
[Ans. D]
11.
[Ans. *]
Insufficient data (Declared by IIT)
[Ans. D]
Velocity =
ehiclemin
)
el tive speed of vehicle
ehicle min
)
el tive speed of vehicle
x
x
x = 60 km/hr
[Ans. *]Range (0.25 to 0.28)
( t)
e
(n t)
n
ere
no of vehicles
vehicle km
(
12.
[Ans. B]
On cloverleaf intersection, merging &
diverging from both direction is possible.
13.
[Ans. C]
15 min peak factor is used for traffic
intersection division
V = peak hourly volume (
km hr
m x min volume within the pe k hr

Max value = 1, value = 0.25
Normal range = 0.7 0.98
14.
[Ans. 1750]
u = 70 0.7 k
u
p city
u
free velocity k
At k u
ok
tk
j m density
eh km
u
o c p city
km hr
veh hr
th
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Page 336
GATE QUESTION BANK
Traffic Signs and Signal Design

CE - 2006
1.
For designing a 2-phase fixed type signal
at an intersection having North South
and East West road where only straight
ahead traffic is permitted, the following
data is available.
Parameter
North
South East
West
Design Hour 1000
700
900
550
Flow
(PCU/hr)
Saturation
2500
2500
3000 3000
Flow
(PCU/hr)
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds.
The cycle length (seconds) as per
ebsters ppro ch is
(A) 67
(C) 87
(B) 77
(D) 91
CE - 2007
2.
In signal design as per Indian Roads
Congress specification, if the sum of the
ratios of normal flows to saturation flow
of two directional traffic flow is 0.50 and
the total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds,
the optimum cycle length in seconds is
(A) 100
(C) 60
(B) 80
(D) 40
CE - 2008
3.
The shape of the STOP sign according to
IRC:67-2001 is
(A) Circular
(C) Octagonal
(B) Triangular
(D) Rectangular
CE - 2009
4.
A three-phase traffic signal at an
intersection is designed for flows shown
in the figure below. There are six groups
of flows identified by the numbers 1
through 6. Among these 1, 3, 4 and 6 are
through flows and 2 and 5 are right
turning. Which phasing scheme is not
feasible?
Combination
choice
P
Q
R
S
(A) P
(B) Q
Phase Phase
I
II
1, 4
2, 5
1, 2
4, 5
2, 5
1, 3
1, 4
2, 6
(C) R
(D) S
Phase
III
3, 6
3, 6
4, 6
3, 5
CE - 2010
5.
As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign
indicating the speed limit on a road
should be of
(A) Circular
Shape
with
White
Background and Red Border
(B) Triangular Shape with White
Background and Red Border
(C) Triangular
Shape
with
Red
Background and White Border
(D) Circular Shape with Red Background
and White Border
CE 2012
6.
A two lane urban road with one way
traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800
vehicle/ hour. Under the jam condition,
the average length occupied by the
vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus
density relationship is linear. For a traffic
volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the
dencity (in vehicles / km) is
(A) 70
(C) 71.11
(B) 69.10
(D) 75
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Page 337
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE 2014
7.
An isolated three-phase traffic signal is
designed by Webster's method. The
critical flow ratios for three phases are
0.20, 0.30, and 0.25 respectively, and lost
time per phase is 4 seconds. The optimum
cycle length (in seconds) is ___________
8.
9.
A pre-timed four phase signal has critical

lane flow rate for the first three phases as
200, 187 and 210 veh/hr with saturation
flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all
phases. The lost time is given as 4 seconds
for each phase. If the cycle length is 60
seconds, the effective green time (in
seconds) of the fourth phase is
______________
The average spacing between vehicles in

a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density
(in veh/km) of the stream is _____________

1.
[Ans. B]
For N S road and E W road the higher
traffic volume will be taken i.e.,
q
nd q
s
nd s
q
y
s
q
y
s
y y
y
6.
[Ans. C]
And
(
m s
Traffic capacity = Speed density
1000 = 14.06 density
density
optimum cycle time

(
2.
seconds
7.
Total time lost in a cycle,
sec
[Ans. D]
iven y
sec
optimum cycle length
(
s
sec
8.
3.
[Ans. C]
The stop sign is intended to stop the
vehicle on a road way. It is octagonal in
shape and red in colour with a white
border. Stop sign is a regulatory or
mandatory sign.
4.
[Ans. C]
Under phase II, 1 and 3 cannot move
simultaneously. It is also the case under
phase III for 4 and 6.
5.
[Ans. A]
[Ans. 20]
Density =
=
= 20 veh/km
9.
[Ans. *] Range 14.0 to 18.0

Given flow rates
q
eh hr
q
eh hr
q
eh hr
Saturation flow rate = 1800 Veh/hr/lane
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Page 338
GATE QUESTION BANK
Lost time
length of cycle
q
y
s
q
y
s
q
y
s
sec
sec
C=
60 =
60 =
y = 0.517
And y = y
y
y
y
(
y
)
(
)
sec
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Intersection Design
CE - 2011
4.
The cumulative arrival departure curve of
one cycle of an approach lane of a
signalized intersection is shown in the
adjoining figure. The cycle time is 50s and
the effective red time is 30s and the
effective green time is 20s. What is the
average delay?
Cumulative arrival or departure
(No. of vehicles)
CE 2007
1.
Two straight line intersect at an angle of
. The radius of a curve joining the two
straight lines is 600 m. The length of long
chord and mid-ordinates in meters of the
curve are
(A) 80.4, 600.0
(C) 600.0, 39.89
(B) 600.0, 80.4
(D) 49.89, 300.0
CE - 2008
2.
Design parameter for a signalized
intersection are shown in the figure
below. The green time calculated for
major and minor roads are 34 and 18s,
respectively. The critical lane volume on
the major road changes to 440 vehicles
per hour per lane and the critical lane
volume on the minor road remains
unchanged. The green time will.
inor
o d
l ne
jor Road
4-lane divided
Vehicles
Per hour
(A) Increase for the major road and

remain same for the minor road.
(B) Increase for the major road and
decrease for the minor road
(C) Decrease for both the roads.
(D) Remain unchanged for both the
roads.
CE - 2010
3.
Aggregate impact value indicates the
following property of aggregates
(A) Durability
(C) Hardness
(B) Toughness
(D) Strength
Cumulative
Arrival
30
20
10
urns prohibited
40
(A) 15 s
10
Cumulative
departure
20
30
50
40
Time (s)
(B) 25 s
(C) 35 s
(D) 45 s
CE - 2012
5.
Two major roads with two lanes each are
crossing in an urban area to from an
un controlled intersection. The number
of conflict points when both roads are
one w y is X nd when both ro ds re
two w y is Y the r tio of X to Y is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.33 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.75
CE - 2014
6.
The chainage of the intersection point of
two straight is 1585.60 m and the angle of
intersection is
If the radius of a
circular curve is 600.00 m, the tangent
distance (in m) and length of the curve
(in m), respectively
(A) 418.88 and 1466.08
(B) 218.38 and 1648.49
(C) 218.38 and 418.88
(D) 418.88 and 218.38
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Page 340
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. B]
6.
[Ans. C]
(
600 m
O
Length of long chord,

sin (
)
sin(
)
(
)
m
Length of mid-ordinate
[
cos(
)]
[
cos(
)]
m
2.
[Ans. A]
3.
[Ans. B]
4.
[Ans. A]
5.
[Ans. A]
No. of points of contra flexure when both
roads one way x=6
No of points of conflicts when both roads
two way y=24
ength of the curve

m
Tangent distance (T) is the distance
between P-C to P.I (also the distance from
P.I to P.T)
t n
t n
t n
m
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Testing and Specifications of Paving Materials

CE - 2005
1.
Group I contains some properties of
bitumen. Group II gives a list of Laboratory
Test conducted on bitumen to determine
the properties. Match the property with
the corresponding test
Group I
P. Resistance to flow
Q. Ability to deform under load
R. safety
Group II
1. Ductility test
2. Penetration test
3. Flash and fire point test
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of

(A) Fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(B) Fine aggregate and bitumen
(C) Coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filter
and bitumen
(D) Coarse aggregate, filter and bitumen
CE - 2006
3.
If aggregate size of 50-40 mm is to be
tested for finding out the portion of
elongated aggregates using length gauge,
the slot length of the gauge
(A) 81 mm
(C) 53mm
(B) 45mm
(D) 90mm
4.
CE - 2007
5.
The consistency and flow resistance of
bitumen can be determined from the
following.
(A) Ductility test
(B) Penetration test
(C) Softening point Test
(D) Viscosity Test
6.
Match the following test on aggregate and

its properties
Test
Property
P. Crushing test
1. Hardness
Q. Los Angles abrasion test 2. Weathering
R. Soundness test
3. Shape
S. Angularity test
4. Strength
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CE - 2008
7.
The specific gravity of paving bitumen as
per IS:73-1992 lies between
(A) 1.10 and 1.06
(C) 1.02 and 0.97
(B) 1.06 and 1.02
(D) 0.97 and 0.92
8.
A combined value of flakiness and

elongation index is to be determined for a
sample of aggregates. The sequence in
which the two tests are conducted is
(A) Elongation index test followed by
flakiness index test on the whole
sample
(B) Flakiness index test followed by
elongation index test on the whole
sample.
(C) Flakiness index test followed by
elongation index test on the nonflaky
aggregates.
(D) Elongation index test followed by
flakiness index test on non-elongated
aggregates.
A subgrade soil sample was tested using

standard CBR Apparatus and the
observation are given
Load ,Kg
Penetration, mm
60.5
2.5
80.5
5.0
Assuming that the load-penetration curve
is convex throughout, the CBR value (%)
of the sample is
(A) 6.5
(C) 4.4
(B) 5.5
(D) 3.9
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GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2009
9.
During a CBR test, the load sustained by a
remolded soil specimen at 5.0 mm
penetration is 50 kg. the CBR value of the
soil will be.
(A) 10.0%
(C) 3.6%
(B) 5.0%
(D) 2.4%
CE - 2011
10. In marshal testing of bituminous mixes, as
the bitumen content increases the flow
value
(A) Remains constant
(B) Decreases first and then increases
(C) Increase monotonically
(D) Increases first and then decreases
CE - 2012
11. Road roughness is measured using
(A) Benkelman beam
(B) Bump integrator
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer
(D) Falling weight deflectomerter
12.
Two bitumen samples X and Y have

softening points
and
,
respectively. Consider the following
I. Viscosity of X will be greater than that
of Y at the same temperature
II. Penetration value of X is lesser than
that of Y under standard conditions
statement is
(A) Both I and II are true
(B) I is false and II is true
(C) Both are false
(D) I true and II false
CE - 2014
13. In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific
gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324
and 2.546 respectively.
The sample
includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of
mix) of specific gravity 1.10. The
theoretical maximum specific gravity of
mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen
(VFB) in the Marshall sample (in %) is
___________
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Page 343
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
[Ans. A]
8.
[Ans. B]
2.
[Ans. C]
9.
[Ans. D]
3.
[Ans. A]
Slot length for elongated aggregate,
me n dimension
(
mm
or fl kiness index the slot size
(
mm
Thus, the higher value of CBR which is

obtained at 2.5 mm penetration is
adopted i.e. 4.4%.
4.
( )
10.
[Ans. C ]
11.
[Ans. B ]
Road roughness is indicated
roughometer or bump integrator,
12.
[Ans. C]
Lower the softening, lower the viscosity,
and higher the penetration value. So both
statements wrong
13.
[Ans. C]
lo d sust ined by specimen
t
mm penetr tion
o d sust ined by st nd rd
ggreg tes t
mm penetr tion
by
Bitumen % by total wt of min = 5
Also,
et tot l volume of min
tot l weight
m
kg
weight of bitumen
Thus the higher value of CBR which is
obtained as 2.5 mm penetration is
adopted
i.e. 4.4%
5.
[Ans. D]
6.
[Ans. D]
7.
[Ans. C]
= 116.2 kg
Value of bitumen
= 68%
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Page 344
GATE QUESTION BANK
Design of Rigid Flexible Pavements

CE - 2005
1.
For a 25 cm thick cement concrete
pavement, analysis of stresses gives the
following values:
Wheel load stress due to corner loading:
30 kg/cm2.
Wheel load stress due to edge loading:
32 kg/cm2.
Warping load stress at corner region
during summer: 9 kg/cm2.
Warping load stress at corner region
during winter: 7 kg/cm2.
Warping load stress at edge region during
summer: 8 kg/cm2.
Warping load stress at edge region during
winter: 6 kg/cm2.
Frictional stress during summer: 5 kg/cm2.
Frictional stress during winter: 4 kg/cm2.
The most critical stress value for this
pavement is
(A) 40 kg/cm2.
(C) 44 kg/cm2.
2
(B) 42 kg/cm .
(D) 45 kg/cm2.
2.
The following observation were made of

an axle load survey on a road
Axle Load (kN)
Repetitions per day
35-45
800
75-85
400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN.
Equivalent daily number of repetitions for
the standard axle-load are
(A) 450
(C) 800
(B) 480
(D) 1200
CE - 2006
3.
In case of governing equations for
calculating wheel load stress using
esterg rds ppro ch the following
statements are made.
i.
Load
stress
are
inversely
proportional to wheel load
ii. Modules of subgrade reaction is
useful for load stress calculation.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
4.
Both statement are True

I is True and II is False
Both statements are False
I is False and II is True
Using IRC: 37 uidelines for the

design of flexible p vements nd the
following data chose the total thickness of
the pavement.
No of commercial vehicles when
construction is completed
= 2723veh/day
Annual growth rate of the traffic = 5.0%
design life of the pavement = 10 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.4
CBR value of the subgrade soil = 5%
Data for 5% CBR value
No. of standard
Total thickness,
Axles, msa
mm
20
620
25
640
30
670
40
700
(A) 620 mm
(C) 670 mm
(B) 640 mm
(D) 700 mm
CE - 2007
5.
The width of the expansion joint is 20 mm
in a cement concrete pavement. The
laying temperature is
and the
maximum slab temperature in summer is
. The coefficient of thermal
expansion of concrete is
mm mm
and the joint filter
compresses upto 50% of the thickness.
The spacing between expansion joints
should be
(A) 20m
(C) 30m
(B) 25m
(D) 40m
6.
The following data pertains to the

number of commercial, vehicles per day
for the design of a flexible pavement for a
national highway as per IRC: 37-1984
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Page 345
GATE QUESTION BANK
Type of
commercial
vehicle
Number of
vehicle per day
considering the
number of lanes
2000
Vehicle
Damage
Factor
Two axle
5
trucks
Tandem axle
200
0
trucks
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5%
per annum for both the types of vehicles.
The cumulative number of standard axle
standard axle load repetitions (in million)
for a design life ten years is
(A) 44.6
(C) 62.4
(B) 57.8
(D) 78.7
CE - 2008
7.
It is proposed widen and strength an
existing 2-lane NH section as a divided
highway. The existing traffic in one
direction is 2500 commercial vehicles
(CV) per day. The construction will take 1
year. The design CBR of soil subgrade is
found to be 5 percent. Given: traffic
growth rate for CV = 8 percent, vehicle
damage factor = 3.5 (standard axles per
CV). Design life = 10 years and traffic
distribution factor = 0.75. The cumulative
standard axles (msa) computed are
(A) 35
(B)37
(C) 65
(D) 70
CE - 2009
8.
Which
if
the
following
stress
combinations
are
appropriate
in
identifying the critical condition for the
design of concrete pavements?
Type of stress
Location
P. Load
1. Corner
Q. Temperature 2. edge
3. interior
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2010
9.
Consider the following statements in the
context of cement concrete pavements.
1. Warping stresses in cement concrete
pavements are caused by the
seasonal variation in temperature,
2. Tie bars are generally provided
across transverse joints of cement
concrete pavements
statements is
(A) 1: True and 2: False
(B) 1: False and 2:True
(C) 1: True and 2: True
(D) 1: False and 2: False
CE - 2012
10. A pavement designer has arrived at a
design traffic of 100 million standard axles
for a newly developing national highway
as per IRC: 37 guidelines using the
following data: life = 15 years, commercial
vehicle
count
before
pavement
construction = 4500 vehicles/day,
annual traffic growth rate = 8%. The
vehicle damage factor used in the
calculation was
(A) 1.53
(C) 3.66
(B) 2.24
(D) 4.14
CE - 2013
11. select the strength parameter of concrete
used in design of plain jointed cement
concrete pavements from the following
choices:
(A) tensile strength
(B) compressive strength
(C) flexural strength
(D) shear strength
CE - 2014
12. The following statements are related to
temperature stresses developed in
concrete pavement slabs with free edges
(without any restraint):
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Page 346
GATE QUESTION BANK
P.
The temperature stresses will be

zero during both day and night times
if the pavement slab is considered
weightless
Q. The temperature stresses will be
compressive at the bottom of the
slab during night time if the selfweight of the pavement slab is
considered
R. The temperature stresses will be
compressive at the bottom of the
slab during day if the self - weight of
the pavement slab is considered
The TRUE statement(s) is (are)
(A) P only
(C) P and Q only
(B) Q only
(D) P and R only
13.
A traffic survey conducted on a road

yields an average daily traffic count of
5000 vehicles. The axle load distribution
on the same road is given in the following
table:
Axle load (tonnes) Frequency of traffic (%)
18
10
14
20
10
35
8
15
6
20
The design period of the road is 15 years,
the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5% and
the load safety factor (LSF) is 1.3. If the
vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated
from the above data, the design traffic (in
million standard axle load, MSA is)
_______________

1.
[Ans. B]
There are four cases which should be
considered
i.
During summer, critical condition
combinations of stress at edges
= wheel load stress due to edge loading
+ warping stress at edge region during
winter frictional stress during summer
= 32+
= 35 kg/cm2
ii.
During winter, critical combination of

stresses at edges
= Wheel load stress due to edge loading
+ warping stress at edge region during
winter + frictional stress during winter.
= 32 + 6 + 4
= 42 kg/cm2
iii. During summer, critical combination of

stresses at corner regions
= wheel load stress at corner loading +
warping stress at corner region during
summer
= 30+ 9
= 39 kg/cm2
iv.
During winter, critical combination of

stress at corner region
= Wheel load stress at corner loading +
warping stress at winter region during
winter
= 30 +7
= 37kg/cm2
Hence, to critical combination (II)
i.e., 42 kg/cm2
2.
[Ans. A]
3.
[Ans. D]
Load stresses are proportional to wheel load.
Modules of subgrade reaction (K) is used to
calculate the radius of relative stiffness (L)
which eventually is used in load stress
calculations.
4.
[Ans. C]
Number of standard axles in msa is given by
[(
[(
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Page 347
GATE QUESTION BANK
ms
Now for 5% CBR value, the total thickness of
the pavement for 30 msa is given as 670 mm.
5.
8.
[Ans. A]
9.
[Ans. D]
Warping stress in cement concrete
pavements are caused by the daily variation
in temperature
Tie bars are generally provided across
longitudinal joints of cement concrete
pavements
10.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. B]
The spacing of expansion joint given by
)
c(
Given,
idth of exp nsion joint
mm
(
6.
[(
r)
r
[(
[Ans. B]
[(
r)
r
[(
(
r)
r
[(
7.
[Ans. C]
While designing rigid concrete pavement
flexural st of concrete is considered
12.
[Ans. C]
Since slab has free edges, no warping stresses
shall be introduced if slab is considered
weightless. During night time, temperature of
lower surface is higher
t tries to exp nd resulting in development
of compressive stresses t bottom
Hence correct option is C
13.

Vehicle damage factor
)
[(
11.
[Ans. D]
Number of commercial vehicles per day A
= Number lane existing traffic traffic
distribution factor = 2 2500 0.75 = 3750
Annual growth rate of commercial vehicles
= 8%
Vehicle damage factor, F = 3.5
Design life, n = 10 years
Thus, the cumulative standards axles (msa)
may be calculated as
[(
]
r)
r
[(
( )
(
( )
[(
th
( )
( )
( )
r)
r
[(
esign tr ffic
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Page 348
GATE QUESTION BANK
Introduction
CE - 2007
1.
The plan of map was photo-copied to a
reduced size such that a line originally
100mm was measured 90mm. The
original scale of the plan was 1:1000. The
revised scale is
(A) 1:900
(C) 1:1121
(B) 1:1111
(D) 1:1221
CE - 2008
2.
The plan of survey plotted to scale of 10m
to 1cm is reduced in such a way that line
originally 10cm long now measures 9cm.
The area of reduced plan is measured as
81cm2. The actual area (m2) of survey is
(A) 10000
(C) 1000
(B) 6561
(D) 656
CE - 2010
3.
The local mean time at a place located in
Longitude
when the standard
time is 6 hours and 30 minutes and the
standard meridian is
is
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds
(B) 5 hours, 47 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours and 30 minutes
(D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
5.
Following bearings are observed while

traversing with a compass.
Line Fore Bearing
Back Bearing
AB
BC
CD
DE
EA
After applying the correction due to local
attraction, the corrected fore bearing of
line BC will be :
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2014
6. The survey carried out to delineate natural
features, such as hills, rivers, forests and
man-made features, such as towns, villages,
buildings, roads, transmission lines and
canals is classified as
(A) Engineering survey
(B) Geological survey
(C) Land survey
(D) Topographic survey
CE - 2013
4.
The latitude and departure of a line AB
are + 78 m and 45.1 m, respectively.
The whole circle bearing of the line AB is :
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
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Page 349
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
4.
[Ans. B]
[Ans. D]
N
Reduction factor =
Revided scale = original scale
R.F
2.
3.
[Ans. A]
Shrinkage factor = 9/10 = 0.9 =S.F
Reduced plan are
= (S.F)2 actual plan area
= 81 = ( )
Actual plan area
= Actual plan area = 100cm
Actual area of survey in
( )
m
[Ans. D]
Difference between standard meridian
and the longitude of the given
pl ce
The longitude of the given place is more
than the standard meridian. Hence the
local mean time of the given place will be
ahead of the standard time.
+ve latitude means either I quadrant or

4th quadrant (casein is +ve in 1st or 4th )
-ve departure means either 3rd of 4th
quadrant [ dep rture l sin ]
should lie in 4th quadrant.
5.
[Ans. D]
Angle difference between back bearing
and fore bearing as line DE
station D and E are free from local
attraction
of
(correct)
of
But observed BB of
hours
hours nd
minutes nd seconds
correct
minutes
hours nd minutes nd
seconds
Time for a difference of
minutes nd
seconds
Local mean time = standard time + 32
minutes and 40 seconds = 6 hours and 30
minutes + 32 minutes and 40 seconds =
7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
of b
correct
of
So correction applied
correct
6.
of
[Ans. D]
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Page 350
Measurement of Distance & Direction

CE - 2006
1.
Consider the following figure, which is an
extract from a contour map (scale = 1:20,
000) of an area. An alignment of a road at
a ruling gradient of 4% is to be fixed from
the point O and beyond. What should be
the radius of the arc with O as the center
to get the point of alignment of the next
contour on the map?
CE - 2008
2.
A light house of 120m height is just visible
above the horizon from a ship. The
correct distance (m) between the ship
and the light house considering combined
correction for curvature and refraction, is
(A) 39.098
(C) 39098
(B) 42.226
(D) 42226
CE - 2014
3.
The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P
and Q are +49.600 m and +51.870 m
respectively. Distance PQ is 20 m. The
distance (in m from P) at which the
+51.000 m contour cuts the line PQ is
(A) 15.00
(C) 3.52
(B) 12.33
(D) 2.27
10 m 30 m
(A) 0025 cm
(B) 0.25 cm
50 m 70 m
(C) 2.5 cm
(D) 5.0 cm

1.
m
dius of rc
2.
= 0.0673
[Ans. C]
The contour interval = 20 m
For 4% gradient, the length needed from
one contour to another
d
d
d
3.
d2
1000
m
[Ans. B]
For change in elevation of 2.27m,
Distance = 20m
For (+51.000 49.600) = 1.4m
cm
[Ans. D]
Correction due to curvature,
Cc = 0.0785d2
Correction due to refraction,
Cr = +0.0112d2
omposite correction
C = +0.0112d2 +0.0112d2
Where C is in metres and d is in
kilometers
Here, C = 120m; d =?
ist nce
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GATE QUESTION BANK
Theodolite & Traversing

CE - 2006
1.
In the figure given below, the lengths PQ
(WCB:
) and
OR
(WCB:
)
respectively up to three places of decimal
are
4.
The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S

E and the declination is west. The
true bearing of the line AB is
(A) S
E
(C) S
E
(D) S
W
(B) S
E
R(1000N, 1000E)
P(100N, 200E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2.
273.205, 938.186
273.205, 551.815
551.815, 551.815
551.815, 938.186
CE - 2008
5.
The lengths and bearings of a closed
traverse PQRSP are given below.
Line Length(m) Bearing(WCB)
PQ
200
QR
1000
RS
907
SP
?
?
The missing length and bearing,
respectively of the line SP are
(A) 207m and
(C) 707m and
(B) 707m and
(D) 907m and
6.
The focal length of the object glass of a

tachometer is 200 mm, the distance
between the vertical axis of the
tachometer and the optical centre of the
object glass is 100 mm and the spacing
between the upper and lower line of the
diaphragm axis is 4 mm. with the line of
collimation perfectly horizontal, the staff
intercepts are 1 m (top), 2 m (middle),
and 3 m (bottom). The horizontal distance
(m) between the staff and the instrument
station is
(A) 100. 3
(C) 150.0
(B) 103.0
(D) 153.0
The observed magnetic bearing of a line

OE was found to be
. It was later
discovered that station O had a local
attraction of +
. The true bearing of
the line OE, considering a magnetic
declination of
E shall be
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
CE - 2007
3.
The following table gives data of
consecutive coordinates in respect of a
closed theodolite traverse PQRSP.
P
Q
R
S
Station
Northing, m 400.75 100.25
300.0
Southing, m
199.0
199.25
399.75
Easting, m
200.5
Westing, m 300.5
The magnitude and direction of error of
closure in whole circle bearing are.
(A) 2.0m and
(B) 2.0m and
(C) 2.82m and
(D) 3.42m and
CE - 2009
7.
In quadrantal bearing system, bearing of a
line varies from
(A)
to
(C)
to
(B)
to
(D)
to
8.
The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N

in the year 1967, when the
declination was
. If the present
declination is
the whole circle
bearing of the line is
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
th
th
th
Page 352
GATE QUESTION BANK
CE - 2011
9.
The observations from a closed loop
traverse around an obstacle are
Segment Observation Length
Azimuth
from
(m) (clockwise from
station
magnetic north)
PQ
P
Missing
QR
Q
300.00
RS
R
354.524
ST
S
450.000
TP
T
268.000
What is the value of the missing
measurement (rounded off to the nearest
10 mm)?
(A) 396.86 m
(C) 396.05 m
(B) 396.79 m
(D) 396.94 m
CE - 2013
10. A theodolite is set up at station A and a
3 m long staff is held vertically at station
B. The depression angle reading at 2.5 m
marking on the staff is
. The
horizontal distance between A and B is
2200 m. Height of instrument at station A
is 1.1 m and R.L. of A is 880.88 m. Apply
the curvature and refraction correction,
and determine the R.L, of B ( in m)._______
CE - 2014
11. Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II
lists the method of surveying. Match the
tool/instrument with the corresponding
method of surveying.
Group I
Group II
P. Alidade
1. Chain surveying
Q. Arrow
2. Levelling
R. Bubble tude 3. Plain table surveying
S. Stadia hair
4. Theodolite surveying
(A) P 3; Q 2; R 1; S 4
(B) P 2; Q 4; R 3; S 1
(C) P 1; Q 2; R 4; S 3
(D) P 3; Q 1; R 2; S 4
12.
A tacheometer was placed at point P to

estimate the horizontal distances PQ and
PR. The corresponding stadia intercepts
with the telescope kept horizontal, are
0.320 m and 0.210 m, respectively. The
is me sured to be
30' 30". If the
stadia multiplication constant = 100 and
stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the
horizontal distance (in m) between the
points Q and R is _________________
Q
P
R

1.
[Ans. A]
Let, length of OQ and QR are L1 and L2
respectively.
From P1 coordinates of
Q = (100+ cos
sin
)
From R, Coordinates of
Q = (1000 L2 cos
, 1000 L2 sin
.)
But, 100+ L1 cos
= 1000 L2 cos
.
L1 +
2.
[Ans. B]
Observed magnetic bearing of OE
Local attraction at O =
Correction magnetic bearing of
L2 = 900 ----------- ------- (i)
And 200+L1 sin

L1 +
Solving (i) and (ii) we get

L1 = 273.205m and L2 = 938.186m
= 1000 L2 sin
= 800 --------------------- (ii)

th
th
th
Page 353
GATE QUESTION BANK

TM
True bearing of AB, ( )

of
gnetic declin tion
MM
5.
[Ans. B]
For a closed traverse sum of latitudes and
departures should be zero respectively i.e.
cos + 1000 cos

+ 907 cos
0
180
cos
cos
0.10678
--- (i)
=0
sin
+ 1000 sin
+ 907
sin
sin
sin
707.10678 ---(ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
t n
MB
True bearing of OE= Corrected magnetic

bearing of OE+ Magnetic declination
3.
[Ans. C]
L = 400.75 + 100.25 199.0 300.0 =2
D = 300.5 + 199.25 + 299.75* 200.5
= 2
[* This value is given as 399.75 in the
original question paper which is
incorrect].
rror of closure e
( )
( )
= ( )
m
t n
m
6.
[Ans. A]
Vertical
axis
Or
Diaphrag
m
( )
focus
[Ans. C]
N
)
m
T.B
The horizontal distance (D) between the

vertical axis and staff may be given as
D=u+d
f
ut u ( ) s f
i
f
( )s f d
i
45 =
D
objective A
s
t n
4.
7.
[Ans. C]
MB
T.B = M.B Declination

(
e st
west)
th
th
th
Page 354
GATE QUESTION BANK
8.
[Ans. B]
m
RL = 808.88 m
ye r
2200 m
True staff reading at station,

m
(t n
)
now
=237.701 m
R.L. of station B = R.L. of Plane of
Collimation true staff reading
True Bearing of AB,

= Magnetic beaing of AB magnetic
declination
Present magnetic bearing of

AB = True bearing AB Magnetic
declination
m
11.
[Ans. D]
12.
[Ans. *]Range 28.0 to 29.0
Q
P
Whole circle bearing of
R
9.
10.
[Ans. B]
In a closed loop travers, the algebraic sum
of all the latitudes should be equal to zero
i.e.
cos
cos
cos
cos
cos
cos
m
s
(
)
m
ks
= 100 (0.21) + 0.1 = 21.1 m
Applying the cosine rule
(
)(
)(
) cos
) cos
[Ans. *] Range 641.9 to 642.3

R.L. of A = 880.88 m
R.L. of Plane of Collimation
= 880.88 + 1.2
= 882.08 m
th
th
th
Page 355
GATE QUESTION BANK
Leveling
CE - 2006
1.
A bench marck (BM) with Reduced Level
(RL) = 155.305m has been established at
the floor of a room. It is required to find
out the RL of the underside of the roof (R)
of the room using Spirit Leveling. The
Back Sight (BS) to the BM has been
observed as 1.500m wheareas the fore
sight (FS) to R has been observed as
0.575m (Staff held inverted). The RL (m)
of R will be
(A) 155.880
(C) 157.380
(B) 156.230
(D) 157.860
CE - 2009
5.
Assertion (A): Curvature correction must
be applied when the sights are long.
Reason (R): Line of collimation is not a
level line but is tangential to the level line.
Of these statements
(A) both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
2.
CE - 2010
6.
A bench mark has been established at the
soffit of an ornamental arch at the known
elevation of 100.0 m above mean sea
level. The back sight used to establish
height of instrument is an inverted staff
reading of 2.105 m. A forward sight
reading with normally held staff of 1.105
m is taken on a recently constructed
plinth. The elevation of the plinth is
(A) 103.210 m
(C) 99.000 m
(B) 101.000 m
(D) 96.790 m
During a leveling work along a falling

gradient using a Dumpy level and a staff of
3m length, following successive readings
were taken. 1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320.
What will be the correct order of booking
these four readings, in a level book?(BS:
Beck sight, IS: Intermediate Sight, FS: Fore
sight)
(A) BS, FS, BS, FS
(C) BS, IS, IS, FS
(B) BS, IS, FS, FS
(D) BS, IS, BS, FS
CE - 2007
3.
The following measurements were made
during testing a leveling instrument.
Instrument at Staff reading At
P1
Q1
P
2.800m 1.700m
Q
2.700m 1.800m
P1 is close to P and Q1 is close to Q. if the
reduced level of station P is 100.000m, the
reduced level of station Q is
(A) 99.000m
(C) 101.000m
(B) 100.000m
(D) 102.000m.
CE - 2008
4.
The type of surveying in which the
curvature of the earth is taken into
account is called
(A) Geodetic surveying
(B) Plane surveying
(C) Preliminary surveying
(D) Topographical surveying
CE - 2011
7.
Curvature correction to a staff reading in a
differential leveling survey is
(A) Always subtractive
(B) Always zero
(C) Always additive
(D) Dependent on latitude
CE 2012
8.
The horizontal distance between two
stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical
angles from P and Q to the top of a vertical
tower at T are and above horizontal,
respectively. The vertical angles from P
and Q to the base of the tower are
and
below horizontal, respectively.
Stations P, Q and the tower are in the same
th
th
th
Page 356
GATE QUESTION BANK
vertical plane with P and Q being on the

s me side of
neglecting e rths
curvature and atmospheric refraction, the
height (in m) of the tower is
(A) 6.972
(C) 12.540
(B) 12.387
(D) 128.745
9.
Which of the following errors can be

eliminated by reciprocal measurements in
differential leveling?
I.
rror due to e rths curv ture
II. Error due to atmospheric refraction
(A) Both I and II
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) Neither I nor II
CE - 2014
10. A levelling is carried out to establish the
Reduced Levels (RL) of point R with respect
to the Bench Mark (BM) at P. The staff
readings taken are given below.
Staff
P
Q
R
Station
BS
1.655 m
m
IS
FS
m 0.750 m
RL
100.00m
?
If RL of P is + 100.00 m, then RL (in m) of R
is
(A) 103.355
(C) 101.455
(B) 103.155
(D) 100.355
th
th
th
Page 357
GATE QUESTION BANK

1.
2.
3.
[Ans. C]
Height of instrument = RL of bench mark
+ BS
= 155.305 + 1.500
= 156.805m
Now, the staff is held inverted and the
foresight (FS) is 0.575m
of
eight of instrument
= 156.805+ 0.575 = 157.380m
[Ans. A]
The first reading is always BS. The second
reading is foresight because the
instrument has been shifted after this
reading which is evident from the low
value of third reading. Since the
instrument has been shifted the third
reading is backlight again. Successively
the fourth reading is foresight.
Height of instrument,
(
)
m
lev tion of plinth
eight of instrument
m
7.
[Ans. A]
8.
[Ans. B]
(X
)t n
Xt n
(X
)t n
Xt n
(i) (ii)
X(t n
t n ) (X
[t n
t n
]
X
m
eight of tower
[t n
t n ]
= 12.387 m
[Ans. C]
h
h
h
educed level of st tion
educed level of
h
m
4.
9.
[Ans. A]
10.
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
Geodetic surveying is that type of
surveying in which the shape of the earth
is taken into account. Geodetic surveying
involves spherical trigonometry
5.
[Ans. A]
6.
[Ans. D]
Height of instrument = BM + Back sight
Since the staff is inverted, the back sight
will be negative.
ore sight
(i)
(ii)
)
nd
Staff
P
Q
station
BS
1.655
0.95
IS
FS
1.5
RL
HI
101.655 102.205
RL
100
103.155
RL of R = 101.455 m
th
th
th
R
0.75
101.455
Page 358

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