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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


Star office
1. INTRO TO STAR OFFICE WRITER
1. Which of the following is not a word processor?
a. star writer

b. Note pad

c. MS word

d. word star

2. The key used to delete the characters to the left of the insertion point
a. backspace

b. delete

c. space bar

d. enter

3. The shortcut key used to the beginning of the document is


a. Shift + Home

b. Home + Enter

c. Ctrl + B

d. Ctrl + Home

4. In star office test document can be created using..


a. star office calc

b. star office writer

c. star office impress

d. star office base

5. Which key are pressed to move the insertion point to the end of the document?
a. Ctrl + Home

b. Shift + Home

c. Ctrl + End

d. Shift + End

6. The selection shortcut used to select the entire document in star office writer is
a. Ctrl + R

b. Ctrl + C

c. Ctrl +V

d. Ctrl +A

7. The keyboard shortcut to cut a selected text is..


a. Ctrl + X

b. Ctrl + V

c. Ctrl + A

d. Ctrl + C

8. In star office writer, the key pressed to enter a hard return is


a. space bar

b. enter

c. backspace

d. esc

9. Which is a word processor?


a. Star office base

b. Star office writer

c. star office impress

d. Star office draw

10. In star office writer the flashing vertical bar is called as..
a. end of document marker

b. cursor

c. insertion point

d. insertion bar

11. In star office writer entering new text or modifying existing text in a document is known as.
a. Formatting
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b. Hanging

c. text editing

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d. inserting
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12. In star office writer, as the characters are typed the flashing vertical bar that moves
towards right is called.
a. pointer

b. insertion point

c. key

d. word wrap

13. In star office writer, shortcut key is used to select the whole document is
a. Ctrl + A

b. Ctrl + S

c. Alt + A

d. Alt + E

14. Which command is selected to cut the selected text in star office writer?
a. Filecut

b. Editcut

c. Format cut

d. Toolscut

15. A word processing document may contain.


a. text and tables

b. graphs and charts

c. pictures

d. all of these

2 .TEXT FORMATTING:16. Each time when increase indent icon is clicked, the paragraph is indented by inch.
a. 1 inch

b. inch

c. inch

d. 2 inches

17. Which font looks professional?


a. Fajitha

b. Arial

c. Wingdings

d. Times New Roman

18. Bullet and numbering option is available under menu.


a. File

b. Edit

c. Format

d. View

19. Which is a set of characters in a certain style?


a. text

b. symbol

c. document

d. font

20. What can be used to call attention to key ideas in the document?
a. highlighting

b. formatting

c. indenting

d. editing

21. In star office writer under which menu all the formatting options are available?
a. File

b. Edit

c. View

d. Format

22. The special kind of indent used of numbered lists is


a. right indent

b. left indent

c. hanging indent

d. numbered list

23. Which keyboard shortcut is used to display help in star office writer?
a. F1

b. F7

c. Shift + F1 d. Ctrl + F1

24. The named set of default for formatting text is..


a. style
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b. help agent

c. indentation

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d. highlighting
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25. In star office writer key combination used for justifying the selected paragraph is.
a. Ctrl + C

b. Ctrl + E

c. Ctrl + B

d. Ctrl + J

26. Which of the following keys opens the star office help?
a. F1

b. F7

c. Shift + F1 d. Ctrl + F1

27. Which of the following is the decorative font?


a. Fajitha

b. Arial

c. Wingdings

d. Times New Roman

3. CORRECTING SPELLING MISTAKES:28. The key pressed to select the spelling command is
a. F7

b. F1

c. F9

d. F5

29. Which button is clicked to include the word to the dictionary?


a. include

b. replace

c. add

d. move

30. The only check box in the auto correct dialog box is.
a. text only

b. numbers

c. match case

d. while words only

31. The button used to skip the spelling change only for the current word..
a. ignore all

b. ignore once

c. change

d. change all

32. The command to open a spell check dialog box is


a. editspellingcheck

b. toolsspellingcheck

c. editcheck spelling

d. toolscheckspelling

33. Which of the following keys is pressed to delete a misspelled word and the word is retyped?
a. end

b. home

c. shift + delete

d. backspace

4. WORKING WITH TABLES:34. Which of the following key is used to move backward through the cells of a star office writer
table?
a. Ctrl + tab

b. Shift + tab

c. Enter + tab d. Esc + tab

35. To add a row after the last row of the table in star office writer, the key pressed is
a. tab

b. Shift

c. Alt

d. Ctrl

36. The command to create a simple table is


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a. insert tabletable

b. table inserttable

c. tableinsert

d. formattableinsert

37. To move the insertion point forward through the cells press
a. Shift

b. Shift + tab

c. tab

d. left arrow

38. Which of the following is a grid with a specified number of columns and rows in star office writer?
a. cell

b. file

c. border

d. table

39. In star office writer the command used to insert more than one row in a table is..
a. inserttablerows

b. insertrows

c. tableinsertrows

d. tablerows

40. Which of the following is pressed to resize the column without changing the width of the table in
text document?
a. Alt + Ctrl

b. Alt

c. Ctrl

d. Shift

41. The command used to delete the selected table in star office writer is
a. deletetable

b. tabledeletetable

c. formattabledelete

d. none

42. The table formatting toolbar icon that combines two or more cells into a single cell is.
a. split cells

b. Merge cells

c. Optimize

d. table variable

43. In star office writer intersection of row and column is called


a. pointer

b. cell

c. table

d. cell reference

44. In star office writer, which of the following commands is used to get a table formatting dialog box?
a. table table properties

b. table table format

c. insert table properties

d. inserttable

45. By default each cell in a table includes a


a. border

b. row

c. column

d. row and border

5. PAGE FORMATTING:46. If the length of the document is more than the width, the orientation is called..
a. layout

b. landscape

c. portrait

d. margin

47. In star office writer, the page preview option is available under the menu.
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a. format

b. edit

c. file

d. view

48. How many types of page orientation are there?


a. 1

b. 2

c.3

d. 4

49. In star office writer to display the ruler on the screen select under..
a. file

b. edit

c. format

d. view

50. The default width of a page in default orientation is.


a. 8.5x11 inch

b. 11x8.25 inch

c. 11x8.5 inch

d. 8.5x1 inch

51. The default orientation is


a. book

b. landscape

c. handout

d. portrait

52. In text document , the area at the top of the page is called as..
a. footer

b. header

c. page number

d. none

53. Margins can be changed using.


a. page style dialog box

b. ruler

c. a and b

d. table format dialog box

54. If the ruler is not displayed in star office writer screen, which option is clicked?
a. editruler

b. viewruler

c. formatruler

d. toolsruler

55. Which of the following dialog box can be used to set the margins in star office writer?
a. format

b. table

c. paragraph

d. page style

56. The width of a document will be more than the length called
a. landscape

b. portrait

c. paper format

d. paper source

57. In star office writer, the default top and bottom margins are..
a. 1 inch

b. 1.25 inch

c. 1.5 inch

d. 0.5 inch

6. SPREAD SHEET:58.The key combination used to open print dialog box in star office impress is..
a. Ctrl + Shift + P

b. Ctrl + P

c. Shift + P

d. Alt + P

59. A formula in spreadsheet always begins with.


a. +

b.

c. ^

d. =

60. Which of the following operators combines two texts?


a. +
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b. &

c. ||

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d. =
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61. The function used to find the square root of a number in star office calc is..
a. SQR

b. SQT

c. SQRT

d. SRT

62. The cells A4,A5,A6,B4,B5 & B6 are referred in a worksheet as


a. A4:B6

b. A1:B6

c. A1:A6; B1:B6

d. A4:A6; B4:B6

63. Which of the following icons is used to generate a scrolling screen within in a worksheet?
a. insert plug-in

b. insert floating frame

c. mouse pointer

d. keyboard pointer

64. How many columns are there in visicalc?


a. 63

b. 254

c. 32000

d. 256

65. Which bars have shortcut icons for frequently done tasks in the spreadsheet?
a. menu bar

b. formula bar

c. object bar & function bar

d. main tool bar

66. Which key is pressed while editing the contents in a cell?


a. F1

b. F2

c. F5

d. F7

c. less then

d. inequality

67. The operator < > is used to check.


a. equal

b. greater then

68. Which of the following formulae calculates the sum of the numbers in the cell A1 of
sheet1 and A2 of sheet2?
a. =sum(sheet1.A1+sheet2.A2)

b. =sum(sheet1:A1;sheet2:A2)

c. =sum(sheet1.A1;Sheet2.A2)

d. =sum(sheet1.A1:Sheet2.A2)

69. Which of the following data can be typed into a spreadsheet cell?
a. numbers

b. text

c. formulae

d. all of these

70. Which facility of star office calc helps to format the worksheet with different predefined styles and
colors?
a. chart

b. auto format

c. apple

d. multiple sheet

71. The bar used to display the current cell and its content is
a. menu bar

b. object bar

c. formula bar

d. function bar

72. The option under the file menu used to quit the star office is..
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a. close

b. quit

c. exit

d. end

73. A continuous group of cells in a worksheet is called as..


a. column

b. row

c. data sheet

d. range

74. Graphic representation of numbers are known as/


a. charts

b. graphs

c. bar diagrams

d. cells

75. To do the calculations for different worksheets in a particular sheet, we use


a. 2D formula

b. function

c. 3D formula

d. selection

76. The format for entering date in star office calc is


a. YY/MM/DD

b. YY/DD/MM

c. DD/MM/YY

d. MM/DD/YY

77. The cell references that does not get changes when copied is.
a. relative cell addressing

b. absolute cell addressing

c. reference

d. comparative

78. The pointer that identifies the active cell in a worksheet is..
a. cell pointer

b. insertion

c. keyboard

d. mouse

79. Which of the following is the reference operator?


a. %

b. < >

c. &

d. !

80. Fill command in star office calc is available under the menu.
a. edit

b. format

c. file

d. view

81. The first electronic spreadsheet is.


a. visicalc

b. star calc

c. lotus

d. excel

82. Which of the following is reference operator?


a. &

b. ^

c. :

d. =

c. apple

d. Borland

83. Improve Spreadsheet was developed by..


a. lotus corporation

b. Microsoft

84. To draw lines and circles in a worksheet click the icon.


a. insert picture
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b. insert special character


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c. show draw function

d. insert chart

85. Which are to as predefined formulae?


a. functions

b. charts

c. objects

d. cell address

c. 63,254

d. 254,63

86. How many rows and columns are there in visicalc?


a. 524,36

b. 254.36

87. Which of the following operators combines cell areas in star office calc?
a. reference

b. comparative

c. text

d. arithmetic

88. Which one of the following notations is used to create absolute cell addressing?
a. !

b. $

c. &

d. :

89. Which icon is used to insert objects from other applications into a worksheet?
a. insert OLE object

b. insert applet icon

c. insert formula

d. insert floating frame

90. Which of the following commands is used to generate a series in star office calc?
a. Fill

b. Page style

c. Print range

d. page format

91. How many cells are available in the worksheet range C1:E2?
a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 10

92. In star office calc which command is sued to change the width of the column in a worksheet?
a. insertcolumnwidth

b. insertwidthcolumn

c. formatcolumnwidth

d. formatcolumninsert

93. Which option on the file menu can be used to preview a worksheet before printing?
a. page view

b. page setup

c. print

d. page setup default

94. Which of the following reference operators is named as intersection?


a. :

b. !

c. &

d. =

95. Visicalc was invented by..


a. Dan Bricklin

b. Bob Frankston

c. Bill Gates

d. Dan Bricklin and Bob Frankston

96. Which of the following formulae calculates the sum of the numbers in the cell A2 of
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sheet1 and A1 of sheet2?
a. =sum(sheet1.A2+sheet2.A1)

b. =sum(sheet1:A2;sheet2:A1)

c. =sum(sheet1.A2;Sheet2.A1)

d. =sum(sheet1.A2:Sheet2.A1)
7. DATA BASE:-

97. SQL stands for.


a. structured query language

b. sorted query language

c. sorted question language

d. structured question language

98. Filter with a condition is called..


a. auto filter

b. default filter(standard filter)

c. conditional filter

d. unconditional filter

99. The field type that is not allowed by star office base is..
a. text

b. binary

c. project

d. image

100. The computers are primarily use the hierarchical databases are.
a. super

b. main frame

c. personal

d. Mini

101. To send outline into presentation select.


a. filesend outline to presentation

b. file outline to presentation

c. file presentation

d. file send presentation

102. The term data is derived from the word.


a. datum

b. datem

c. datas

d. datus

103. A column in s star office base table represents a


a. structure

b. file

c. field

d. record

104. The key that uniquely identify a record in a database is


a. primary key

b. secondary key

c. record key

d. unique key

105. The process used to select the desired the specific data from a database is..
a. merging

b. sorting

c. editing

d. searching

106. Which is a type of query?


a. table

b. form

c. filter

d. report

107. How many steps are there in the report wizard window?
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a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 9

108. What is a way of limiting the information that appears on the screen?
a. searching

b. filtering

c. merging

d. report

109. The set of processed data is called..


a. data

b. datum

c. information

d. database

110. Each row in s database table represents


a. file

b. record

c. field

d. table

c. hierarchical

d. network

111. A database that consists of a single data table is..


a. relational

b. flat-file

112. DBMS is an acronym for


a. database maintain system

b. database management system

c. database manipulating system

d. database merging system

113. The accurate length of decimal digits in a double precision number is..
a. 13

b. 14

c. 8

d. 7

114. Which icon is used to remove the sorting in star office base?
a. delete filter / sort icon

b. delete sort icon

c. remove sort / filter icon

d. remove filter/ sort icon

115. In star office base, which is a printed information that is assembled by gathering data based on
user supplied criteria?
a. filter

b. query

c. form

d. report

116. Which of the following are user constructed statements in star office base?
a. filters

b. queries

c. forms

d. reports

117. To insert the spreadsheet calc cell in star office writer, select
a. editpaste
b. editpaste special
c. tools paste special
d. formatpaste
118. Which of the following is not s step in data processing?
a. collection
b. verification
c. computation
d. validation
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119. The number of field types used in star office base is
a. 20

b. 30

c. 12

d. 13

120. What is the name of the process fro joining data from two or more tables?
a. joining

b. editing

c. merging

d. adding

c. reports

d. filters

121. Which is special views of the data in a table?


a. queries

b. forms

122. Which involves data collection, verification, validation and report generation?
a. data

b. data processing

c. database

d. table

123. A screen of fields in a well spaced manner is called


a. report

b. query

c. table

d. form

124. Queries are


a. structural statements

b. user defined statements

c. user constructed statements

d. predefined statements

125. In database which option is used to define the maximum size of field?
a. default value

b. length

c. type

d. entry required

126. The key combination used to save the table is


a. Ctrl + K

b. Ctrl + Z

c. Ctrl + S

d. Ctrl + B

127. The user defined screens that are used to enter, view, edit the data in a table in star base are called
as
a. tables

b. queries

c. forms

d. reports

128. The process of arranging the data in some order in a table is called..
a. searching

b. sorting

c. merging

d. filtering

129. Spreadsheet is an example of which of the following database?


a. flat file

b. network

c. relational

d. hierarchical

130. Which of the following are called the common fields in a relational database?
a. keys

b. files

c. records

d. table

8. INTRODUCTION TO MULTIMEDIA:131. The shockwave format is used to store multimedia components created using/..
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a. media player

b. Netscape navigator

c. internet explorer

d. flash

132. The application that allows to send and receive messages over cell phone is.
a. Microwave media service

b. Multimedia media service

c. Multimedia messaging service

d. Microwave messaging service

133. JPEG may be expanded as


a. joint photographic experts group

b. joint photographic expression group

c. joint photo graphic physical group

d. none

134. Which of the following is the commercial multimedia content development software?
a. flash

b. dream weaver

c. maya

d. all of these

135. MMS stands for.


a. Microwave media service

b. Multimedia media service

c. Multimedia messaging service

d. Microwave messaging service

136. AIFF format was developed by.


a. real networks

b. apple

c. IBM

d. Microsoft

137. The technique that provides as environment experienced by users as similar to reality is
a. virtual reality

b. vector graphics

c. animations

d. modeling

138. Name of the technique of distorting a single image to represent some thing else..
a. modeling

b. rendering

c. morphing

d. warping

139. Files the windows media format have the extension


a. .wmv

b. .mov

c. .swf

d. .wmf

140. Which of the following tags is not used to launch helper applications?
a. <embed>

b. <name>

c. <applet>

d. <object>

141. Which of the following is a computer based presentation technique that incorporates text, sound,
animations and video element?
a. animation

b. multimedia

c. compression

d. modeling

142. GIF stands for..


a. Graphic interchange format
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b. Graphic information format

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c. Graphical interface format

d. Graphic interconnection format

143. The expansion for MIDI is


a. Musical instrument data interface

b. Musical instructions digital interface

c. Musical instrument digital interface

d. Musical information data interface

144. The technique of identifying recurring set of information and replacing them by a single piece of
information is called as.
a. virtual reality

b. vector graphics

c. compression

d. synthesize

145. Multimedia incorporates features like


a. text

b. video

c. sound

d. all of these

146. The special hardware used to improve the efficiency of the display images is
a. vector card

b. vector graphics chord

c. vector graphics card

d. vector image

147. Which of the following formats creates a perfect reproduction of images?


a. MIDI

b. GIF

c. JPEG

d. BMP

148. Files in the quick time format have the extension


a. .wmv

b. .mov

c. .wav

d. .swf

c. apple

d. IBM

149. The shockwave format was developed by..


a. Microsoft

b. macromedia

150. The conversion of analog sound waves to a digital format is called..


a. frequency

b. pitch

c. sampling

d. amplitude

151. Which is not in the step process of creating a 3D animation?


a. modeling

b. moving

c. animating

d. rendering

152. GIF is limited to the palette of..


a. 4-bit

b. 6-bit

c. 8-bit

d. 16-bit

153. The technique of blending two or more images to form a new image is..
a. morphing

b. warping

c. sampling

d. murky

154. The compression that retains the exact image throughout the compression is called..
a. lossless
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b. lossy

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d. murky
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155. Multimedia applications that allow users to activity participate instead of just sitting by as passive
recipients of information are called as
a. interactive multimedia

b. multimedia system

c. computer based tutorial

d. web based tutorial

156. In which year AVI format sound files are developed?


a. 1995

b. 1992

c. 1985

d. 1991

157. MPEG stands for ..


a. Moving pictures experts group

b. model pictures expression group

c. moving pictures expression group

d. morphing pictures expression group

158. In which year was real audio format developed?


a. 1982

b. 1995

c. 1994

d. 1981

c. <sound>

d. <helper>

159. Which tag is used to add in-line sound to a web page?


a. <inline>

b. <bgsound>

9. PRESENTATION:160. In presentation the view that allows us to view miniature images of all the slides is
a. slide sorter

b. master page

c. notes view d. layout

161. The shortcut key for opening style list is.


a. F8

b. F7

c. F5

d. F11

162. To change the background color of the current slide, click on


a. formatpagebackground

b. toolspagebackground

c. editpagebackground

d. viewpagebackground

163. The number of option displayed in the first page of the presentation wizard is..
a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

164. Which of the following options display created with star office message during the pause
between each presentation?
a. automatic

b. effect

c. show logo

d. default

c. notes

d. handouts

165. The view used to reorder slides is..


a. normal

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b. outline

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166. To open media player window, choose.
a. toolsmedia player

b. edit media player

c. insert media player

d. view media player

167. Which is not a background fill option?


a. color

b. gradient

c. picture

d. hatching

168. In star office impress the window allows to quickly jump from one slide to other slide or move
between open files is..
a. desk top

b. navigator

c. preview

d. moving slider

169. The keyboard shortcut used to create a new presentation using template is
a. Ctrl + N

b. Shift + Ctrl + N

c. Alt + N

d. Ctrl + F + N

170. Which one of the following displays various transition effects that can be attached to a slide?
a. custom animation

b. slide transition

c. animation effects

d. slide sorter

171. Which button is pressed to start the slide show in star office impress?
a. F1

b. F3

c. F5

d. F7

172. To rename a slide, Choose slide.


a. rename slide

b. new slide

c. rename

d. slide rename

173. Presentation can be created using


a. star office writer

b. star office calc

c. star office impress

d. star office base

174. Which view is allowed to create and edit slides?


a. outline view

b. notes view

c. normal view

d. master view

175. To change the slide order, in the switching presentation view tab click.
a. slide sorter

b. layouts

c. outline

d. none

c. editexport

d. editHTML

176. To produce HTML presentation choose..


a. fileHTML

b. fileexport

177. view allows us to reorder , slide editslidetitles and heading.


a. normal
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b. notes
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c. handouts

d. outline
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178. The star office application that allows to create attractive and professional looking presentation is
a. star office writer

b. star office calc

c. star office impress

d. star office base

179. In star office impress, the page used to open HTML export window?
a. fileHTML

b. fileexport

c. editexport

d. editHTML

180. In star office impress , the page used to specify basic background information that needs to be
included in all the slides is
a. slide transition

b. custom animation

c. master page

d. layout

181. Which command is used to insert a picture in a slide?


a. insertpicture

b. formatpicture

c. insertpicture

d. viewpictureinsert

182. Which command is used to open navigator?


a file navigator

b. toolsnavigator

c. editnavigator

d. insertnavigator

C++
1. OBJECT ORIENTED CONCEPTS USING C++:183. The template for entities that have common behavior is.
a. class

b. object

c. methods

d. attributes

184. Which of the following is an object oriented programming language?


a. C++

b. C

c. BASIC

d. FORTRAN

185. The ability of an object to respond differently to different message is called


a. inheritance

b. polymorphism

c. encapsulation

d. object

186. Which is a kind of self sufficient sub program with a specific functional area?
a. objects

b. inheritance

c. functions

d. encapsulation

187. Which of the following is the process of deriving a class from an existing class?
a. inheritance

b. class

c. polymorphism

d. object

188. C++ belongs to which category of programming language?

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a. structured

b. object oriented

c. modular

d. procedural

189. The group of data and operations together are known as..
a. class

b. function

c. base class

d. derived class

190. Which of the following provides security to data?


a. class

b. data hiding

c. base class

d. derived class

191. In which of the following mechanism are the data and functions bound together within an object
definition?
a. polymorphism

b. inheritance

c. encapsulation

d. operations

2. OVERVIEW OF C++:192. The default return type of a function, if no data type is explicitly mentioned is
a. int

b. char

c. float

d. double

193. The modifier that allows the variable to exist in the memory of the computer, even after losing its
scope is
a. auto

b. static

c. extern

d. global

194. int a,b,c; a=6,b=7; c=(a++) (--b); cout<<c; the output of the above code, when it is executed
is..
a. 0

b. 9

c. 11

d. error

195. The constant that should not have fractional part..


a. float

b. double

c. integer

d. exponent

196. class product{ int c,q; float p; p1} the number of bytes occupied by p1 is.
a. 7

b. 8

c. 9

d. 10

197. The statement int A;b; is invalid because


a. only one variable should be given

b. capital A is not allowed

c. variables should be separated by comma

d. all of these

198. How many storage specifiers are there in a c++?


a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 2

199. Which is the smallest individual unit in a program?


a. tokens

b. statements

c. data

d. pointers

200. Which is a conditional operator?


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a. ?

b. >

c. <

d. ?:

201. C++ was developed by


a. Dan Briklin

b. James Gosling

c. Bjarne Stroustup

d. Rick Mascitti

202. The range of int data type is


a. -32768 to 32678

b. -32768 to 32767

c. -32767 to 32768

d. -32768 to 32768

203. How many fundamental data types are there in C++?


a. 1

b. 2

c.3

d. 4

204. Which one of the following is a membership operator?


a. .

b. : :

c. &

d. !

205. Which one of the following is used to declare a generic pointer?


a. int

b. char

c. void

d. string

206. The escape sequence used to represent bell, non- graphic character constant is
a. \a

b. \v

c. \0

d. \b

207. int i=6; insigne dint j=10; cout<<size of(i*j); the output when the above code is executed is
a. 2

b. 4

c. 8

d. error

208. If a=5 and b=4, the value of the expression a+b/2 *6 is


a. 15

b. 16

c. 17

d. 18

209. Which brace is used to enclose the body of the C++ program?
a. ( )

b. < >

c. { }

d. [ ]

210. In the following which defines local variable?


a. auto

b. static

c. extern

d. register

211. Which operators returns the size of memory requirements in terms of bytes?
a. pointer

b. size of

c. void

d. typedef

212. What are the operators used only by the preprocessor?


a. # and ##
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b. ++ and

c. && and |

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213. Basic statements in C++ are constructed using.
a. variables

b. tokens

c. constants

d. operators.

214. Based on operand requirements , operators are classified as types.


a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

215. Which of the following is the simplest assignment operator?


a. =

b. = =

c. +=

d. !=

216. How many bytes does the unsigned int data type occupy?
a. 1

b.2

c.3

d. 4

217. Which of the following special meaning to the language complier?


a. tokens

b. constants

c. identifiers

d. keywords

218. The storage specifier that instructs the compiler to store the variable in the CPU register to
optimize access is.
a. auto

b. static

c. extern

d. register

219. Which of the following qualifier specifies that the value of the variable will not change during the
run time of the program?
a. const

b. static

c. extern

d. auto

220. What is the maximum range of unsigned integer data type?


a. 255

b. 65535

c. 32768

d. 3.4e+10

221. Which escape sequence is used to represent new line?


a. \l

b. \n

c. \m

d. \x

222. Which of the following variables holds a memory address?


a. static

b. pointers

c. register

d. auto

223. By default, the local variables are.


a. auto

b. static

c. extern

d. register

3. BASIC STATEMENT:224. The statement that creates multiple branches , depending on the value of a single variable is..
a. do-while

b. switch

c. if

d. while

225. The operator >> is called as.


a. extraction operator
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b. insertion operator
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c. abstraction operator

d. stream operator

226. A preprocessor directive starts with the symbol


a. %

b. \

c. $

d. #

c. while

d. if

227. Which of the following is an entry check loop?


a. do-while

b. switch

228. A program written in high level language is called as.


a. object code

b. source code

c. executable code

d. all of these

229. Which of the following is the simplest of all of the decision statements?
a. if

b. while

c. switch

d. break

230. In which header file the declaration for the objects cin are available?
a. istream.h

b. ostream.h

c. iostream.h

d. both a and c

231. How many times the following loop will be executed? For(i=1;i<6;i++)
a. 1

b. 5

c. 6

d. 7

232. The break statement would exist only..


a. current loop

b. current function

c. current program

d. none

233. In C++, Which file comprises the combined properties of istream.h and ostream.h?
a. stdio.h

b. string.h

c. conio.h

d. iostream.h

c. 3

d. 4

234. How many kinds of the loops are there in C++?


a. 1

b. 2

235. Nested . If else statement can be replaced by the statement of..


a. select-case

b. switch-case

c. for

d. do..while

236. Which of the following functions will be executed first automatically, when a c++
program is executed?
a. void

b. main

c. recursive

d. call by reference

237. Which of the following statements marks the end of the function and also transfers
control to the statement after call statement?
a. return
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b. break

c. continue

D.AGILAN. M.Sc., M.Ed., M.Phil.,

d. stop
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238. Which of the following creates object file from source code?
a. editor

b. linker

c. compiler

d. header

239. Which of the following is called as put to operator?


a. >>

b. <<

c. ##

d. !!

240. Which of the following is the invalid variable declaration?


a. int a,b;

b. int a; int b; c. int a; floatb;

d. int a;b;

241. The statement used to exist from switch structure is


a. break

b. exist

c. quit

d. default

242. Every action black in the switch statement should be terminated with
a. case

b. colon

c. break

d. continue

243. Machine readable form of a program is called


a. source code

b. object file c. compiler

d. executable file

244. Statement used in C++ to display messages and result is..


a. print

b. println

c. cout

d. cin

245. Which is exist check loop?


a. do-while

b. while

c. for

d. switch

246. Which of the following executes a set of instructions repeatedly fro a certain number of
times.
a. loop

b. if

c. if-then

d. switch

247. Which of the following that causes flow of the control jumps from one part of the program?
a. control structures

b. operations

c. punctuators

d. identifiers

248. Which decision statement creates breaches for multiple alternatives?


a. if..else

b. switch

c. cin

d. while

249. Which of the following statements forces the next iteration of the loop to take place
skipping any code following it?
a. break

b. switch

c. while

d. continue

250. How many times will the following loop be executed? for( i=1;i<30;i++)
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a. 1

b. 29

c. 30

d. 31

251. Which of the following is an entry controlled loop?


a. for

b. do-while

c. switch

d. ifelse

Read carefully following C++ program and answer the questions from 252 to 256
#include<iostream.h>
Void main()
{
int num-2;
do
{
cout<<cum*num<<\t; num+=1;
} while(num<6);
}
252. Name the control variable used in the program.
a. num

b. +=1

c. \t

d. none

253. What is the test expression(condition) used?


a. num

b. num * num

c. (num<6)

d. none

254. How many times will the loop be executed?


a. 6

b. 4

c. 5

d. 3

c. 4 9 16 25

d. 0 4 9 25

255. What is the output of the above program?


a. 2 4 9 16 25

b. 2 4 6 8

256. What type of loop statement is used in the program?


a. entry check loop

b. exist check loop

c. entry controlled loop

d. selection loop

4. FUNCTIONS C++ ENHANCEMENTS:257. Which of the following is NOT true, related to functions?
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a. the actual parameters can be passed in the form of constants to the formal
parameters of value type.
b. The actual parameters can be passed only as variables to formal parameters of
reference type.
c. The default value in the formal parameters can be given in the form of variable
initialization.
d. the default value for an argument can be in between the argument list.
258. In the following code, the scope of the variable a is if(x<y) { int a; a++; }
a. local scope

b. function scope

c. file scope

d. class scope

259. A function can be invoked from another function using its.


a. variables

b. name

c. return

d. value

260. In which method , the formal parameters become alias to the actual parameters?
a. call by reference

b. call by value

c. call by function

d. call by variable

261. The function that returns no value is declared as.


a. main

b. friend

c. void

d. online

262. Which function does insert the functions code directly into the calling program?
a. void

b. main

c. online

d. inline

263. The building blocks of C++ programs are


a. functions

b. classes

c. statements d. operations

264. Which function executes faster but requires more memory space?
a. normal function

b. void function

c. regular function

d. inline function

265. The calling function parameters are called as


a. formal parameters

b. actual parameters

c. dummy parameters

d. duplicate parameters

266. The scope of any variable used in the entire program is


a. local
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b. file

c. function
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d. class
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267. The return type of the function prototype float power(float,int) is.
a. char

b. double

c. int

d. float

268. Which are data channels through which data flow from the call statement to the function?
a. function name

b. parameters c. values

d. return

269. Which variables is defined within a block?


a. local

b. function

c. file

d. class

270. In which method any change in the formal parameters is not reflected to the actual parameters?
a. call by reference

b. call by value

c. call by function

d. call by variable

271. Which one of the following scope variables life time is the life time of a program?
a. class

b. function

c. file

d. local

272. The variable declared above all blocks and function is called as
a. local scope

b. function scope

c. file scope

d. class scope

273. Which of the following is a scope resolution operator?


a. :

b. ;

c. : :

d. .*

274. In which method any change in the formal parameters is reflected to the actual parameters?
a. call by reference

b. call by value

c. call by function

d. call by variable

275. Which of the following reduces the size of the program?


a. keywords

b. variables

c. tokens

d. functions

276. Which of the following refers to the accessibility of a variable?


a. scope

b. stacks

c. storage class

d. functions

c. file

d. class

277. Which scope are not known outside their own code block?
a. local

b. function

5. STRUCTURED DATA TYPE-ARRAYS:278. An integer array with indexes from 0 to 4, all having value 1 may be declared and initialized as
a. int x[4]={1};
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b. int x[4]={1,1,1,1};
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c. int x[5]={1,1,1,1,1};

d. int x[ ]={ };

279. The size of the array must always be..


a. positive

b. negative

c. float

d. double

280. The collection of variables of the same type referenced by a common name is..
a. function

b. array

c. structure

d. pointer

281. The function strcpy(S1,S2)..


a. copies S1 to S2

b. copies S2 to s1

c. appends S1 to end of S2

d. appends S2 to end of S1

282. Number of parameters required for write( ) function is.


a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

283. Which of the following function copies source string to target string?
a. strlen()

b. strcpy()

c. strcmp()

d. strcon()

284. Which of the following is a derived data type?


a. union

b. float

c. double

d. array

285. The process of arranging the data in a given array is called..


a. merging

b. ordering

c. filtering

d. sorting

c. /0

d. \0

286. A character array should be terminated with a..


a. :

b. 0

287. In a 2-D array , the first subscript stands for


a. row

b. column

c. diagonal

d. object

288. Which function compares the two given strings?


a. strlen( )

b. strcpy()

c. strcmp()

d. compare()

c. 16 bytes

d. 6 bytes

289. What will be the size of an array int sales[2][4]?


a. 24 bytes

b. 8 bytes

290. The subscript of an array always commences from.


a. one

b. two

c. three

d. zero

291. What will be the size of the array float num[4][6]?


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a. 24

b. 96

c. 48

d. 10

292. The return type of the function prototype float power(float,int)..


a. char

b. float

c. double

d. int

293. The second index of the 2D array refers to


a. column

b. row

c. length

d. size

294. Which of the following is a 2d dimensional character array?


a. array of strings

b. matrix

c. literals

d. strings

295. Which of the following is an invalid array declaration?


a. int array[100];

b. int array[ ]

c. int array[i]

d. const int i=10; int array[i];

296. How many types of arrays are there?


a. 3

b. 4

c. 6

d. 2

297. How many elements are stored in an array int num[4][2]?


a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

6 . CLASSES AND OBJECTS:298. Which of the following is not a valid access specifier?
a. private

b. public

c. protected

d. pointer

299. The members of a class are accessed using the operator


a. +

b. .(dot)

c. <

d. >

300. The variable that is initialized only when the first object of the class is created is
a. static

b. private

c. public

d. protected

301. The class access specifier used to access friend function is


a. private

b. public

c. protected

d. both b and c

302. Every class decoration is terminated by


a. ,(comma)

b. .(dot)

c. : : (double colon)

d. ;(semi colon)

303. Which of the following statements is NOT true?


a. member functions can be of static type
b. the return type of a member function cannot be of object data type
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c. A non-member function cannot access the private data of a class
d. several different classes can use the same function name
304. Class Comprises
a. data members

b. member function

c. both a and b

d. none

305. Private access specifier is accessed by special function called.


a. void

b. inline

c. friend

d. all of these

306. How many access specifiers are there in the class body?
a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 1

307. A class belongs to which of the following data types?


a. user defined type

b. built-in type

c. derived type

d. array type

308. A member function calling another function directly is called as.


a. nesting functions

b. recursive functions

c. friend functions

d. inline functions

309. In C++, the class variables are called as..


a. methods

b. objects

c. constants

d. functions

310. The member functions declared under which scope can be accessed by the objects of that class?
a. public

b. private

c. global

d. protected

311. Data abstraction in C++ is achieved by.


a. inheritance

b. polymorphism

c. data hiding

d. encapsulation

312. The private data of a class can be accessed only through.


a. member function

b. friend function

c. either a or b

d. neither a or b

313. When a member function is defined within the class, it behaves like.
a. in-line

b. friend

c. public

d. private

314. The variable shared by all the objects of a class, has the data type..
a. static

b. auto

c. extern

d. private

315. The members that also be accessed from outside the class should be declared as.
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a. private

b. public

c. protected

d. none

316. The mechanism by which the data and functions are bound together within an object definition is
called
a. object

b. encapsulation

c. polymorphism

d. inheritance

317. Which of the following is a way to blind the data and associated functions together?
a. class

b. data

c. functions

d. methods

318. Which is the default access specifier in the class?


a. private

b. public

c. protected

d. none

319. Which is referred as key feature of object oriented programming?


a. data hiding

b. encapsulation

c. data hiding

d. data members

320. The static member variable is initialized to..


a. 0

b. 1

c. true

d. false

321. Which access specifers is accessed by members of inherited class?


a. private

b. protected

c. protect

d. class

c. organizers

d. methods

c. ( )

d. < >

322. In C++ the member functions are called..


a. definition

b. concepts

323. The body of the class is enclosed within a


a. [ ]

b. { }

324. In the class, by default the members will be treated as


a. public

b. private

c. protected

d. un protected

325. The members and functions declared under private are not accessible by members outside the
class, which is referred as
a. data hiding

b. polymorphism

c. inheritance

d. encapsulation

326. The static number variable is initialized to


a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

c. 4

d. 5

327. How many parts are there in a class specification?


a. 2
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b. 3
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328. How many copies of the member variable is if it is static memory?
a. two

b. one

c. three

d. four

329. class product{int a,b; flaot p;.} ; void main() { product p1,p2; the number of memory
bytes allotted for the variable p1 is..
a. 12

b. 10

c. 8

d. 4

c. method

d. tag

330. Class name is also called as


a. function

b. member

331. Data members are called as.


a. methods

b. attributes

c. data types

d. pointers

332. Which of the following members can be accessed only from within the class?
a. private

b. public

c. protected

d. static

7. POLYMORPHISM:333. The mechanism of giving special meaning to an operator is called


a. operator overloading

b. function overloading

c. inheritance

d. object

334. Which of the following is not valid function prototype?


a. voif fun(int x); vod fun( int y);

b. void fun(int x, int y); void fun(int x, float y);

c. int fun(int x); void fun(float x);

d.. void fun(char x); void fun(char x, int y);

335. Polymorphism is achieved in C++ through .


a. encapsulation

b. inheritance

c. overloading

d. function

336. Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded?


a. +

b. ++

c. +=

d. : :

337. While overloading functions, the possible integral promotions are..


a. charint

b. intchar

c. both a and b

d. none

338. In operator overloading the operator functions must be defined as..


a. member function

b. friend function

c. either a or b

d. neither a or b

339. The functionality of + operator can be extended to strings through


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a. operator precedence

b. operator overloading

c. operator definition

d. none

340. The overloaded must have at least one operand of


a. built-in type

b. user-defined type

c. array

d. derived

341. What is the name for the process of acquiring the base class properties?
a. inheritance

b. encapsulation

c. function

d. polymorphism

342. Which one of the following operators can be overloaded?


a. membership

b. size of

c. unary

d. conditional

343. The . Arguments of overloaded functions are not considered the C++ compiler as part of
parameter list.
a. unary

b. binary

c. ternary

d. default

344. Which of the following terms means a name having two or more distinct meaning?
a. data abstraction

b. encapsulation

c. inheritance

d. overloading

345. The overloaded function are permitted for which of the following data types?
a. built-in

b. user defined

c. derived

d. all of these

346. Which of the following is not true related to function overloading?


a. each overloaded function must differ by the number of its formal parameter
b. the return type of overloaded functions may be same data type
c. the default arguments are considered by the c++ compiler as part of the parameter list
d. do not use the same function name for two unrelated functions
347. By integral promotions, int data type can be converted into which of the following?
a. char

b. double

c. float

d. all of these

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348. When an object is passed by reference to constructor, the constructor that is executed is
a. copy

b. static

c. default

d. inline

349. The function that initializes the object is.


a. void

b. destructor

c. inline

d. constructor

350. Whenever a class object goes out of scope, a special function that gets executed is
a. destructor

b. constructor

c. destroy

d. end

351. The constructor defined by the computers in the absence of user defined constructor is
a. copy

b. abstract

c. default

d. destructor

c. ~

d. !

352. The special character related to destructor is..


a. +

b. ?

353. Which of the following cannot have arguments?


a. constructor

b. destructor

c. function overloading

d. operator overloading

354. The memory space is allocated to an object using


a. constructor

b. destructor

c. overloading

d. instance

355. Which is executed automatically when the control reaches the end of the class scope?
a. constructor

b. destructor

c. overloading

d. copy constructor

356. The constructor without any parameter is called as


a. initial constructor

b. instance constructor

c. default constructor

d. parameterized constructor

357. Constructor should be declared under the scope..


a. private

b. protected

c. pointer

d. public

358. Which of the following is not true?


a. constructors cannot be overloaded

b. constructor is executed automatically

c. constructors can have parameters

d. destructor cannot be overloaded

359. How many destructors a class can have?


a. 1
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c.3

d. 4
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360. The name of the constructor must be
a. same as class name

b. same as one of the member function

c. same as object name

d. none

361. Which one of the following is not overloaded?


a. operator

b. destructor

c. function

d. constructor

362. Which of the following is a function that removes the allocated memory space?
a. constructor

b. destructor

c. overloading

d. copy constructor

9. INHERITANCE:363. The process of creating new classes from the existing class is..
a. polymorphism

b. encapsulation

c. inheritance

d. abstract

364. In inheritance, the newly created classes are.


a. base class

b. derived class

c. super class

d. function

365. The class from which the other classes are derived is called as
a. objects

b. object class

c. base class

d. functions

366. Classes used only for deriving other classes are called.
a. public class

b. abstract class

c. derived class

d. objects

367. The default visibility mode of constructor is..


a. public

b. protected

c. private

d. general

368. The symbol that must be used between derived and base class is..
a. &

b. :

c. : :

d. #

369. A derived class that inherits from multiple base class is known as
a. single inheritance

b. multiple inheritance

c. multilevel inheritance

d. hybrid inheritance

370. What is the name for the process of acquiring the base class properties?
a. inheritance

b. encapsulation

c. function

d. polymorphism

c. visibility mode

d. derived members

371. Access specifier is also referred to as.


a. derived
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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


372. Which form of inheritance is reflected by the transitive nature of inheritance?
a. multilevel

b. multiple level

c. singleton

d. Hybird

373. Which of the following is a class from which other classes are derived?
a. derived class

b. base class

c. function class

d. super class

10. IMPACT OF COMPUTERS ON SOCIETY:374. 85% of computer usage is


a. presentation

b. spreadsheet

c. database

d. word processing

375. CBT means..


a. Computer based tutorial

b. computer based tutor

c. computer based teaching

d. computer based technology

376. Which prevents people from acquiring bad habits?


a. archive unit

b. emotion containers

c. cameras

d. speakers

c. transcription

d. digitization

377. ATM is an example for


a. e-shopping

b. e- banking

378. Which of the following permits banking from the comfort of the home by using internet
facilities?
a. banking

b. e-shopping

c. e-banking

d. e-learning

379. Which of the following function is sued as electronic pets in computerized home?
a. Projection TV

b. interactive screen

c. creative line

d. robot

380. The unit that enables data storage and management..


a. archive unit

b. emotion containers

c. cameras

d. speakers

381. What is useful in computer based education?


a. CBT

b. e-shopping

c. transcription

d. teaching

382. We can purchase any product, any brand, any quantity from any where using..
a. ATM

b. e-banking

c. e-shopping

d. e-Governance

383. ATM means..


a. Auto Teller Machine
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b. Arithmetic Teller Machine


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c. Automatic Teller Machine

d. Automated Teller Machine

11. IT ENABLED SERVICES:384. A facility that allows the user to speak into a special device while typing a letter using
computer is called..
a. cell phone

b. telephone

c. Dictaphone

d. speaker

385. BPO be expanded as


a. Business Publication Online

b. Business Process Outsourcing

c. Business Publication Outsourcing

d. Business process Online

386. Which refers to the conversion of non-digital material to digital form?


a. data

b. document

c. tele-medicine

d. digitization

387. ITES stands for


a. International technology energy service

b. International technology enabled service

c. Information technology energy service

d. Information technology enabled service

388. Which of the following is the telephone based shared service centre?
a. Call centre

b. ATM

c. phone centre

d. none

389. Which of the following is not an IT enabled service?


a. reservation

b. e-banking

c. e-mail

d. call centers

390. Which is customer related service?


a. Call centre

b. ATM

c. phone centre

d. none

391. .. is a permanent , legal document that formally states the result of a medical investigation.
a. medical transcription

b. medical prescription

c. medical document

d. medical anatomy

392. Which is the key for effective and profitable use of IT in organizations?
a. call centers

b. data management

c. medical transcription

d. digitization

393. A category of IT enables service pertaining to collection, digitization and processing of


data coming from various sources is
a. e-governance

b. call centers

c. data digitization

d. data management

394. How many steps are involved in Medical transcription?


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a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. many

395. The device that converts the speech into a letter


a. cell phone

b. telephone

c. Dictaphone

d. speaker

12. COMPUTER ETHICS:396. A self replication program that can cause damage to data and files stored on the computers is..
a. virus

b. antivirus

c. language

d. none

397. The illegal access to the computer hardware and soft ware is
a. hacking

b. cracking

c. chatting

d. browsing

c. website service

d. transcription

398. Creaking comes under


a. data security

b. computer crime

399. Which of the following is not way of protection?


a. data security

b. personal security

c. personnel security

d. piracy

400. The security refers to protecting data and computer system against dishonestly or
negligence of employee is called as. \
a. physical

b. personal

c. personnel

d. none

401. Software that runs on an idle computer without the knowledge of the organization is called
as theft of.
a. computer time

b. hardware

c. software

d. computer crime

402. Computer ethics has its roots in the work of.


a. Herman Hollerith b. Robert Wiener

c. Norbert Wiener

d. Duplicating

403. Making and using duplicate hardware and software is called


a. piracy

b. cracking

c. braking

d. duplicating

404. Which of the following securities refers to the protection of hardware?


a. personal

b. personnel

c. physical

d. data

MARCH 2012
405. Which statement is used to terminate the loop irrespective of the expression in C++?
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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


a. exit

b. continue

c. while

d. break

406. Declaration of a function in C++ is made through.


a. function call

b. passing parameters

c. function prototype d. argument

407. Which amongst the following can only be passed to formal parameters of reference type in C++?
a. constants

b. variables

c. expressions

d. values

408. Which statement can be read as stud is an instance of object of the class student?
a. stud student;

b. class student (stud) ;

c. student stud;

409. In starbase, which one of the following is not a process in editing the database?
a. adding new record b. field pointer

c. calculating result

d. deleting existing data

410. Which of the following is not a keyword in C++?


a. inline

b. this

c. struct

d. test

c. 58.64

d. 0.5864

411. 0.5864E1 represents..


a. 5.864

b. 0.05864

412. Which amongst the following called address of operator in c++?


a. ::

b. #

c. &

d. *

413. Which is executed in the order of inherited class?


a. member functions

b. destructor

c. constructor

d. data members

414. Electronic pet is..


a. kara-oke

b. robot

c. e-mail

d. e-pet

415. In C++, each overloaded function must differ either by the number of.
a. function name

b. actual parameters c. default parameters d. formal parameters

416. Which function returns nothing in C++?


a. conio.h

b. friend

c. constructor

d. istream.h

417. The constructor Add(add &a) is.


a. default constructor

b. non-parameterized constructor

c. compiler generator constructor

d. copy constructor

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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


418. Reducing the frame count to less than many frames per second cause the video to look jerky?
a. 7

b. 15

c. 28

d. 30

419. In star calc, amongst arithmetic operators which one of the following is executed first in the rules
of procedure?
a. exponentiation

b. negative

c. multiplication & division

d. addition & subtraction

420. In the array int sales[2][4]; the first row and second column?
a. sales[1][2]

b. sales[2][1]

c. sales[0][1]

d. sales[1][0]

421. How many options are displayed in the first page of the presentation wizard to create an empty
presentation?
a. 4

b. 2

c. 3

d. 5

March 2013
422. Which key delets the characters to the right of the insertion point?
a. Delete
b. Backspace
c. Insert
d. Home
423. Which key is to be pressed to end a presentation?
a. Delete
b. Home
c. Escape
d. Exit
424. Which is used to list the important points and message in StarWriter?
a. Bullets and numbers
b. Auto correctc. Editing
d. Paragraph alignment
425. In StarWriter, what will happen when negative value is used in indenting text?
a. left indent
b. indent
c. hanging indent
d. right indent
426. Which option is very useful for correcting the spelling of the commonly miss-spelled words?
a. Highlighting
b. Editing
c. Auto correct
d. Spell check
427. The intersection of rows and columns creates:
a. Cell
b. Row
c. Worksheet
d. Task bar
428. The expansion for the SQL is :
a. Structured Query language
b. Structered Queue Language
c. Structured Query Link
d. Structured Query Line
429. Which icon is provided to generate a scrolling screen within a worksheet?
a. Insert plug in
b. Insert chart
c. Insert OLE object d. Insert Floating Frame
430. Which menu is used to selectAuto Format option in StarCalc?
a. File
b. Edit
c. Table
d. Format
431. Which Electronic Spreadsheet is invented for Apple-II computers?
a. Lotus 1 2- 3
b. Visicalc
c. Excel
d. Improve
432. Which sign is to be used in front of row and column to make a cell absolute in StarCalc?
a. &
b. $
c. :
d. %
433. Which one of the following is an example for Flat file database?
a. Spread sheet
b. Text Document
c. Impress
d. Star Draw
434. Which editing program is used to add echo, fade out, fade in effects?
a. Digital format
b. Sound program
c. Sound Forge
d. Digital sampling
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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


435. Which application allows you to send and receive messages over cell phones?
a. MMS
b. SQL
c. RMS
d. QMS
436. Which helper application can be launched by the browser to help play sound or video?
a. Plug in
b. SQL
c. HTTP
d. Hyper link
437. Which option is used to move one slide to another slide quickly?

a. Format Navigator
b. File Navigator
c. Edit Navigator
d. View Navigator
438. Which of the following must be declared and defined before they are used in a program?
a. calling statement
b. constant
c. assignment statement
d. variables
439. The range for the data type char is :
a. 0 to 255
b. -128 to 127
c. -32768 to 32769
d. 0 to 65535
440. Which is a derived data type in C++?
a. Array
b. Expression
c. Function
d. Data type
441. Which one of the following operator overloaded through a member function take one explicit
argument?
a. Unary
b. Ternary
c. Binary
d. Conditional
442. Which operator is the extraction or get from operator?
a. >>
b. <<
c. >=
d. <=
443. How many sections are there in C++ program?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Three
d. Five
444. Which function execute faster but require more space?
a. Online function
b. Inline function
c. Member function d. Void function
445. Which of the following reveals the hidden scope of variable?
a. pointer variable
b. scope variable
c. scope operator
d. unary operator
446. Interal promotion are purely:
a. type cast oriented
b. compiler oriented
c. source file d. function oriented
447. Which is the variable that holds a memory address?
a. Numeric variable
b. Pointer variable
c. String variable
d. Character variable
448. Which data members initialized to zero only when the first object of its class is created?
a. static
b. auto
c. extern
d. register
Read the following program snippet and answer the questions from 449 451.
Class student
{
private:
int roll_no, mark1;
public:
student()
{
cout<<\n constructor Executed;
}
void accept()
{
cin>>roll_no>>mark1;
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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


}
};
449. What is the name of the class?
a. class
b. student

c. accept

d. public

450. What is the name of the member function?


a. roll_no
b. void
c. accept
d. mark1
451. What is the name of the constructor?
a. accept
b. roll_no
c. mark1
d. student
452. The ability of the function to process the message or data in more than one form is called
a. function overloading
b. operator overloading
c. destructor overloading
d. data overloading
453. Which function cannot be overloaded?
a. function
b. constructor
c. destructor
d. operator
454. Which function is invoked when an instance of a class comes into scope?
a. destructor
b. constructor
c. void function
d. inline function
455. Which is executed when an object is passed as a parameter to any of the member function?
a. copy constructor
b. default constructor
c. destructor
d. parameterized constructor
456.When a class is derived from a class which is a derived class itself is referred to as:
a. Single inheritance
b. Hybrid inheritance
c. Multilevel inheritance
d. Multiple inheritance

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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013

Q. No Answer Q. No Answer Q. No
Answer Q. No
Answer
1 B
44 A
87 A
130 A
2 A
45 A
88 B
131 D
3 D
46 C
89 A
132 C
4 B
47 C
90 A
133 A
5 C
48 D
91 B
134 D
6 D
49 A
92 C
135 C
7 A
50 A
93 A
136 B
8 B
51 D
94 B
137 A
9 B
52 B
95 D
138 D
10 C
53 C
96 C
139 A
11 C
54 B
97 A
140 B
12 B
55 D
98 B
141 B
13 A
56 A
99 C
142 A
14 B
57 A
100 D
143 C
15 D
58 B
101 A
144 C
16 B
59 D
102 A
145 D
17 D
60 B
103 C
146 C
18 C
61 C
104 A
147 B
19 D
62 A
105 D
148 B
20 A
63 B
106 C
149 B
21 D
64 A
107 A
150 C
22 C
65 C
108 B
151 B
23 A
66 B
109 C
152 C
24 A
67 D
110 B
153 A
25 D
68 C
111 B
154 A
26 A
69 D
112 B
155 A
27 A
70 B
113 B
156 B
28 A
71 C
114 D
157 A
29 C
72 C
115 D
158 B
30 A
73 D
116 B
159 B
31 B
74 A
117 B
160 A
32 D
75 C
118 C
161 D
33 D
76 D
119 A
162 A
34 B
77 B
120 C
163 B
35 A
78 A
121 A
164 C
36 B
79 D
122 B
165 B
37 C
80 A
123 D
166 A
38 D
81 A
124 C
167 C
39 C
82 C
125 B
168 B
XII COMPUTER SCIENCE

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D.AGILAN. M.Sc., M.Ed., M.Phil.,

Q. No Answer
173 C
174 B
175 A
176 B
177 D
178 C
179 B
180 C
181 D
182 C
183 B
184 A
185 B
186 A
187 A
188 B
189 A
190 B
191 C
192 A
193 B
194 A
195 C
196 B
197 C
198 A
199 A
200 D
201 C
202 B
203 C
204 A
205 C
206 C
207 A
208 C
209 C
210 A
211 B
Page 40

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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


40 A
41 B
42 B
43 B
Q. No Answer
216 B
217 D
218 D
219 A
220 B
221 B
222 B
223 A
224 B
225 A
226 D
227 C
228 B
229 A
230 D
231 B
232 A
233 D
234 C
235 B
236 B
237 A
238 C
239 B
240 D
241 A
242 C
243 B
244 C
245 A
246 A
247 A
248 B
249 D
250 B
251 A
252 A
253 C
254 B
255 C

83 A
84 C
85 A
86 D
Q. No Answer
256 B
257 D
258 A
259 B
260 A
261 C
262 D
263 A
264 D
265 B
266 B
267 D
268 B
269 A
270 B
271 C
272 C
273 C
274 A
275 D
276 A
277 A
278 C
279 A
280 B
281 A
282 B
283 B
284 D
285 D
286 D
287 A
288 C
289 C
290 D
291 B
292 B
293 A
294 B
295 C

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126 C
127 C
128 B
129 A
Q. No Answer
296 D
297 D
298 D
299 B
300 A
301 A
302 D
303 B
304 C
305 B
306 B
307 A
308 A
309 B
310 B
311 C
312 B
313 A
314 A
315 B
316 B
317 A
318 A
319 C
320 A
321 B
322 D
323 B
324 B
325 A
326 A
327 A
328 B
329 C
330 D
331 B
332 A
333 A
334 A
335 C

169 B
170 B
171 C
172 A
Q. No Answer
336 D
337 C
338 C
339 B
340 B
341 A
342 C
343 D
344 D
345 B
346 C
347 D
348 A
349 D
350 A
351 C
352 C
353 B
354 A
355 B
356 C
357 D
358 A
359 A
360 A
361 B
362 B
363 C
364 B
365 C
366 B
367 C
368 B
369 B
370 A
371 C
372 A
373 B
374 D
375 A

D.AGILAN. M.Sc., M.Ed., M.Phil.,

212 A
213 B
214 B
215 A
Q. No Answer
376 D
377 B
378 C
379 D
380 A
381 A
382 C
383 D
384 C
385 B
386 D
387 D
388 A
389 A
390 A
391 A
392 B
393 D
394 C
395 C
396 A
397 B
398 B
399 D
400 C
401 A
402 C
403 A
404 C
405 D
406 C
407 D
408 C
409 C
410 D
411 A
412 C
413 C
414 B
415 D
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YEAR QUESTIONS 2007 TO 2013


Q. No Answer Q. No Answer Q. No
Answer Q. No
Answer
416 C
455 A
494
533
417 D
456 C
495
536
418 B
457
496
539
419 A
458
497
542
420 C
459
498
545
421 C
460
499
548
422 A
461
500
551
423 D
462
501
554
424 A
463
502
557
425 C
464
503
560
426 C
465
504
563
427 A
466
505
566
428 A
467
506
569
429 D
468
507
572
430 D
469
508
575
431 B
470
509
578
432 B
471
510
581
433 A
472
511
584
434 C
473
512
587
435 A
474
513
590
436 A
475
514
593
437 C
476
515
596
438 D
477
516
599
439 B
478
517
602
440 A
479
518
605
441 A
480
519
608
442 A
481
520
611
443 A
482
521
614
444 B
483
522
617
445 C
484
523
620
446 B
485
524
623
447 B
486
525
626
448 A
487
526
629
449 B
488
527
632
450 C
489
528
635
451 D
490
529
638
452 A
491
530
641
453 D
492
531
644
454 D
493
532
647

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D.AGILAN. M.Sc., M.Ed., M.Phil.,

Q. No Answer
648
649
650
651
652
653
654
655
656
657
658
659
660
661
662
663
664
665
666
667
668
669
670
671
672
673
674
675
676
677
678
679
680
681
682
683
684
685
686

Page 42

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