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2. The least likely bacteria isolated from patients with septic shock is:
A. Staphylococcus Aureus
B. Bacteroides
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
9. A 19 year old presents with HGSIL on cytology from a family practice physician.
The next best step is:
A. excisional biopsy
B. Repeat cytology is 3 months
C. HPV testing
D. Colposcopy
E. Return for pap at age 21
10. A 22 y/o presents with Kallmans syndrome and infertility. What is the best
drug to prescribe if she wants to conceive
A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Estrogen and progesterone
C. Progesterone
D. Gonadotropins
E. Human chorionic gonadotropin
.
11. What is the mechanism of action of Spironolactone:
A. Androgen receptor agonist
B. Binds to androgen receptor as an antagonist
C. Inhibits 5 alpha reductase type I and II
D. Inhibits ornithine decarboxylase
E. Insulin sensitizer
12. A patient presents at 5 weeks post partum with altered mental status. She is
examined by the neurologist and found to have increased intracranial pressure. On
exam, her uterus is 10-12 cm with a bulging mass on the vaginal wall. What is the
next step:
A. MRI of the brain
B. Serum beta HCG
C. Ultrasound
D. CT of the abdomen and pelvis
E. Observation
15. Therapeutic agents known to be associated with growth restriction include each
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Trimethadione
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Phenytoin
E. Methotrexate
18. The least likely ultrasound finding suggestive of prehydropic fetal anemia:
A. Pericardial effusion
B. Dilation of cardiac chambers
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Placental thickness > 4cm
E. Enlargement of the spleen and liver
19. All of the following factors affect the interpretation of the quadruple screen
EXCEPT:
A. Gestational Age
B. Maternal Gestational Diabetes
C. Weight
D. Age
E. Incorrect dating of Pregnancy
21. A patient undergoes IVF and conceives twins. Which of the following is the
most likely?
a. Gestational diabetes
b. Pre-eclampsia
c. Pre-term delivery
d. Hyperemesis
e. Twin to twin transfusion
23. An infant you just delivered has ambiguous genitalia, there are fused
labioscrotal folds as well as an enlarged clitoris. No gonads are palpable. The most
likely genotype is:
A. 46 XX
B. 46 XY
C. 45 XO
D. 47 XX +21
E. 47 XYY
24. What is the most common etiology of a false positive serum pregnancy test in
that the hCG is derived from non-trophoblastic tissue:
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Lung carcinoma
C. Molar pregnancy
D. Heterophilic antibodies
E. Antinuclear antibodies
25. A hirsuite patient has a serum testosterone of 130 pg/mL. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Adrenal tumor
B. Ovarian tumor
C. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
D. Cushing syndrome
E. Adult onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
26. Group B Streptococcus infection is seen least likely with which of the following:
A. Chorioamnionitis
B. Mastitis
C. Postpartum endometritis
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Neonatal sepsis
27. 65 year old otherwise healthy woman presents for pre-operative evaluation for
hysterectomy. The least important test to order is:
A. EKG
B. CBC
C. BUN
D. Electrolytes
E. Cervical cytology
29. Beta mimetic agents are least likely associated with which of the following:
A. Cardiac Arrhythmia
B. Hypergylcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Tachycardia
E. Hypocalcemia
30. A 15 year old primagravida woman with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
How would you rule out appendicitis?
A. Computed tomography
B. Graded compression ultrasound
C. Doppler ultrasound
D. Ultrasound
E. White blood cells count
31. Which of the following is least likely associated with second stage syphilis:
A. Rash
B. Condyloma Latum
C. Chancre
D. Lymphadenopathy
E. all of the above
32. A cystic mass is seen on the lateral wall of the vagina. These lesions are most
commonly:
A. Cyst in the canal of nuck
B. Hidrandenitis
C. Inclusion cyst
D. Fibroma
E. Skenes duct cyst
34. Coagulation screening and CBC with platelets should be ordered for all of the
following disorders in evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding except ?
A. Family history of coagulopathy
B. Personal history of easy bruising
C. Menorrhaghia secondary to fibroids
D. Adolescents with menorrhaghia
E. Personal history of nose and gum bleeding
36. The potential causes for fetal tachycardia include all of the following except ?
A. Fetal behavioral state
B. Chorioamnoinitis
C Meternal fever
D Maternal ingestion of methamphetamine
E Maternal beta blocker drug
37- Which of the following amplitude range in fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring
defines minimal variabilty ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Undetectable
> undetectable - < 5 beats per minutes (bpm)
6-25 bpm
>25 bpm
10 to 15 bpm
38- You deliver a depressed fetus whose skin is noted to be meconium stained.
When did meconium passage most likely occur in utero
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
<3 hours
3-6 hours
12-18 hours
24 hours
48 hours
39- The non reassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern of ischemia is characterized
by all of the following except ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
40- The most likely karyotype for patient with a partial mole would be ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
46, XX
46, XY
Diandric triploidy
Triploidy with two haploid sets of maternal origin
Aneuploidy
41- A patient with a complete mole is found to have sizeable ovarian cysts that are
presumed to be theca lutein cysts. All of the following are true about theca lutein
cysts EXCEPT ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
43- Your patient has a microcytic anemia on her first set of prenatal labs.
All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A The most commonly encountered anemia in pregnancy is Iron Deficiency Anemia
which has the following characteristics: microcytic, hypochromic, MCV < 80 f/L,
Serum Fe < 50 mcg/dL, MCHC < 30%, Serum ?Ferritin, ?TIBC
B Combined Fe / folate deficiency is never normocytic, normochromic anemia
C Folate deficiency is a risk for Neural Tube Defect.
D Most common megaloblastic anemia is folate deficiency.
E Vitamin B12 deficiency is associated with malabsorption diseases.
45- A 26 year old presents to your office for preconception counseling. When is the
highest probability of pregnancy relative to ovulation ?
A. 5 days before ovulation
B. 2 days before ovulation
C. 1 day before ovulation
D. Day of ovulation
E. 1 day after ovulation
46- The advantages of preserving the ovaries at time of hysterectomy for benign
disease include all of the following except ?
A. Reduces the risk of ovarian cancer
B. Reduces the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD)
C. Lowers the risk of osteoporotic fracture
D. Reduces the risk of breast cancer
E. Prevention of climacteric symptoms
47- What is the least likely effective treatment for a patient with Stress Urinary
Incontinence (SUI) without a cystocele ?
A. Anterior colporraphy
B. Burch retropubic urethropexy
C. Tension free vaginal tape (TVT)
50- A patients undergoes TAH, BSO for a pelvic mass. The pelvic mass is composed
of a 7 cm lesion within the right ovary. A frozen section demonstrates Call-Exner
bodies. What additional pathology is most likely to be demonstrated ?
A. An ovarian epithelial carcinoma
B. A Brenner cell tumor of the ovary
C. Endometrial carcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma of the cervix
E. A fallopian tube cancer
51- CA-125 is ?
A. A mucin-type glycoprotein
B. A ganglioside
C. A tumor-specific transplantation antigen
D. Useful for ovarian cancer screening in the general patient population
E. An antigen which is commonly expressed by mucinous ovarian carcinomas
53- regarding thyroid gland and pregnancy one of the following is wrong
A. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) level is the best screen for
hypothyroidism in pregnancy
B. Free T4 level is the most useful to diagnose hyperthyroidism in
pregnancy
C. TSH level is increased normally in late second and third trimeseter of
pregnancy
D. Prophyltiouracil (PTU) is the first line of treatment of hyperthyroidism
during pregnancy
A. is more common in women with a first degree relative who had PET
B. Development of abdominal pain is a serious sign.
C. The condition is more common in women who smoke cigarettes.
D. Regular full blood counts are helpful in monitoring the progress of
the condition.
E. The onset of PET is an adverse development for the baby.
57- The bladder is at risk of damage at the time of in all of the following
procedures except
A. lower segment Caesarean section
B. Repair of enterocoele.
C. Classical Caesarean section.
D. Laparoscopy.
E. Uterine myomectomy
75 A raised maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level at 16 weeks, all are correct
except:
A. May be due to incorrect assessment of gestation.
B.
C.
D.
E.
GOOD LUCK