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1. Which of the following statements does not describe a property or characteristic of glucose.
a) Glucose is an aldoheptose.
b) Glucose has two enantiomers, D-Glucose and L-Glucose.
c) Glucose is the most common naturally occurring monosaccharide in nature.
d) Glucose is stored in the body as glycogen.
3. Fructose is:
a) an aldopentose sugar.
b) a non reducing sugar.
c) a monosaccharide of lactose.
d) also known as levulose.
a) monosaccharide
b) disaccharide
c) glucose
d) hemiacetal
10. The actual ring structure of a carbohydrate is not a true ring shape as is drawn when using the formulas, but really
should be drawn in a form.
a) Fischer projection, oval ring
b) molecular, straight-chain
c) Haworth, puckered ring
d) chemical, cyclic
11. Which of the following statements does not accurately characterize or describe enantiomers:
a) When enantiomers are equally mixed together they become optically active.
b) Enantiomers are compounds who have a mirror image or twin-like molecular structures.
c) In nature, enantiomers tend to illicit very different responses in organisms.
d) Enantiomers have identical chemical and physical properties.
13. The designations alpha and beta indicates whether the on the carbon numbered as #1 in a monosaccharide is or
the plane of the molecule.
14. The designations alpha and beta indicates the position of the between two monosaccharides in a .
a) hydroxyl group, covalent bond
b) oxygen atom, glycosidic linkage
c) carbonyl group, polar covalent bond
d) carbon atom, branched linkage
15. To make some starches more soluble, phosphate ester groups are inserted into these straight-chain molecules.
Inserting phosphate ester groups .
a) disrupts the molecule's intermolecular forces thereby permitting water to disperse within the chain more effectively.
b) changes the chemical composition of the starches, thereby decreasing their polarity.
c) alters their optical reactivity and thus causes their solubility to increase.
d) all of the above are true.
16. The Benedict's test is used to determine whether or not a mono or disaccharide is a:
a) simple sugar
b) reducing sugar
c) pentose sugar
d) polyhydroxyl sugar
17. The final product produced when starch is completely hydrolyzed is:
a) dextrin
b) sucrose
c) glucose
d) carbon dioxide
19. Fructose is also known as levulose. This name suggest that fructose most abundant enantiomer:
a) rotates polarize light clockwise.
b) rotates polarized light counterclockwise.
c) is an aldopentose sugar.
d) is a ketoheptose sugar.
21. There is a(n) relationship between the number of unsaturated bonds in a fatty acid and their melting point. As the
degree of unsaturation in the fatty acid's carbon chain, its melting point will .
a) direct, decreases, also decrease
b) direct, increases, also increase
22. Soap improves the cleansing power of water, because soap molecules have two portions:
a) a hydrophobic tail and a hydrophilic head
b) a hydrophilic tail and a hydrophobic head
c) a sodium salt tail and a hypotonic head
d) a potassium salt tail and a hypertonic head
23. Which of the following statements is not true about a fat or oil's iodine number test:
a) It is a measure of the degree of unsaturation in a fat or oil.
b) It is the amount of iodine in grams that will react with 100 grams of saponifiable lipid.
c) It is an iodination/addition chemical reaction.
d) The larger the value of the iodine number the fewer the number of double bonds present in the fat or oil.
27. Glycerol is an alcohol which can be classified as triol. Triols are alcohols which have:
a) triple bonds within the molecule.
b) three carbon atoms in the molecule.
c) three hydroxyl groups dispersed throughout the molecule.
d) three carbonyl groups group within the molecule's carbon chain.
28. A fatty acid that contains a mixture of single and double bonds is said to be:
a) unsaturated.
b) saturated.
c) nonsaponifiable.
d) saponifiable.
29. Triglycerides are glycerols which have had of their hydroxyl groups esterified with fatty acids.
a) none
b) one
c) two
d) all
31. The bond between a glycerol molecule and a fatty acid in a lipid is called a:
a) glyceride bond
b) hydrogen bond
c) ester bond
d) glycosidic bond
33. A lipid is a fat or oil which can undergo hydrolysis in alkaline solutions. When triglycerides undergo hydrolysis in
an alkaline solution and the salts of the are produced.
a) nonsaponifiable, glyceride, fatty acids
b) nonsaponifiable, glycerol, acyl fatty acids
c) saponifiable, glycerol, fatty acids
d) saponifiable, glyceride, acyl fatty acids
34. The rancidity of fats and oils is caused either by the or the of the lipid's fatty acids molecules.
a) hydration, reduction
b) hybridization, reflexation
c) hydrogenation, oxidation
d) hydrolysis, oxidation
35. The hydrogenation of a(n) fatty acid converts all the bonds to , bonds.
a) saturated, double, saturated, single
b) saturated, single, unsaturated double
c) unsaturated, double, saturated, single
d) unsaturated, single, unsaturated, double
37. Unsaturated fatty acids are often grouped by the and of bonds within the molecule's carbon chain.
a) number, type, single
b) number, placement, double
c) number, placement, single
d) number, type, double
38. An unsaturated fatty acid given the shorthand code of (14:4n-2) means this particular fatty acid has carbon atoms,
bonds, with the first double bond beginning at the carbon from the molecule's methyl end.
39. A simple saponifiable lipid differs from a compound saponifiable lipid by the products it yields when it undergoes:
a) saponification
b) hydrolysis
c) hydrogenation
d) hydration
40. Which of the following chemical substances can not be classified as a lipid?
a) beef tallow
b) linseed oil
c) lanolin
d) amylose
41. When determining the iodine number for an unsaturated fatty acid, it is the of the molecule that reacts with the
iodine.
a) carboxylic acid
b) hydroxyl group
c) alkene bonds
d) alkane bonds
CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH2CH=CH(CH2)7COOH
42. The shorthand formula code describing this molecule is:
a) (12:9n-3)
b) (13:3n-3
c) (15:3n-9)
d) (18:n-3)
43. An esterification reaction with the two moles of the above fatty acid one mole of glycerol and one mole of
galactose would produce a:
a) simple lipid
b) nonsaponifiable lipid
c) glycolipid
d) sterol
47. The amino acid when undergoing an oxidation reaction would yield a aldehyde group.
48. The amino acid whose chemical and physical properties are most similar to ethanamine:
50. The amino acid(s) which when placed in an electric field at a pH of 7 would migrate towards the positive pole.
52. If the above molecule were to be placed in an electric field a pH of 7 the molecule would most likely:
53. The N-terminal end of the above molecule is the amino acid:
a) Ala
b) Phe
c) His
d) Asn
56. Given the following amino acids and their alkyl (-R) groups
glycine (R group is -H) aspartic acid (R group is -CH2COOH)
58. Which of the following is not an interaction or linkage observed in maintaining a protein's tertiary structure:
a) disulfide bridges
b) hydrophobic interactions
c) hydrogen bonding
d) ionic bonding
59. The ionic interactions between lysine's amino group and aspartic acid's carbonyl group result in the formations of
in a protein's tertiary structure.
a) hydrophilic bridges
b) amide linkages
c) salt bridges
d) peptide linkages
60. The interaction or bonding most prevalent in a protein's secondary structure is:
a) amide linkage
b) disulfide bridges
c) salt bridges
d) hydrogen bonding
61. Organic reagents, such as ethanol, have the greatest disruptive effect on a protein's native configuration because:
a) they disrupt the disulfide bridges between cysteine molecules.
b) they interfere with the hydrophobic interactions between the non polar amino acid side chains.
c) they disrupt the hydrogen bonding and salt bridges between the protein's amino acids.
d) they disrupt the amide linkages between the individual amino acids.
62. The bond between individual amino acid molecules is called a peptide bond. A peptide bond is a(n)
a) ester bond
b) amide bond
c) ionic bond
d) amine bond
64. Denaturation is the disruption of a protein's tertiary structure. Which of the following solvents would not have
denature a protein.
a) ethanol
b) acetone
c) acetic acid
d) water
67. Which of the following does not describe the active site of an enzyme:
a) It is enantiomer specific.
b) Only one active site exists per enzyme molecule.
c) It is the area where the substrate and enzyme interact.
d) Its configuration or shape is determined by the protein's primary structure.
75. inhibition of a enzyme's activity can result from either inhibition, where an inhibitor alters the tertiary shape of the
enzyme or inhibition, where an inhibitor vies with the substrate for the enzyme's active site.
a) Irreversible, competitive, noncompetitive
b) Irreversible, noncompetitive, competitive
c) Reversible, competitive, noncompetitive
76. The use of antibiotics to fight bacteria infections and 5-flurouracil, an antimetabolite used to destroy cancer cells,
both work by an enzyme's activity.
a) irreversibly inhibiting
b) destroying
c) reversibly inhibiting
d) denaturalizing
77. The or enzyme is inhibited by the final or end product of a multienzyme step metabolic process. This type of
enzyme activity inhibition is referred to as inhibition.
a) regulatory, allosteric, feedback
b) apoenzyme, regulatory, noncompetitive
c) coenzyme, allosteric, competitive
d) proenzyme, substrate-bond, irreversible
78. Which of the following statements is not true about allosteric enzymes.
a) They can be inhibited by the end product of a metabolic process they initially catalyzed.
b) They are usually large, complex, high molecular weight holoenzymes.
c) Their flexibility allows them to deactivate an enzyme's active site, thus making the site more or less receptive to the
substrate.
d) They have only one site of attachment for both the substrate and the regulatory enzyme.
79. Hormones are considered to be messengers, whereas cyclic AMP acts as a messenger. Cyclic Amp is activated
only when a hormone .
a) proenzyme, intracellular, passes through the cell membrane and attaches itself to a receptor site in the cell's
nucleus.
b) primary, secondary, attaches at a specific receptor site on the outside of the cellular membrane.
81. The first step in the Lock and Key theory of enzyme specificity can be illustrated by the following symbolic
notation:
a) S (substrate)
P (product)
b) E (enzyme) + P (product)
EP (enzyme-product complex)
c) E (enzyme) + S (substrate)
ES (enzyme-substrate complex)
d) ES (enzyme-substrate complex)
E (enzyme) + P (product)
IP (inhibitor-product complex)
c) E (enzyme) + S (substrate)
(enzyme-substrate complex)
84. This vitamin is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin, a blood-clotting agent.
a) Vitamin B
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
d) is an endothermic process.
88. The unusually high amount of potential energy stored in a molecule of ATP:
a) is due to the instability of the molecule.
b) results from the specific spatial arrangement of the atoms in the molecule.
c) results from the molecule having three oxygen to phosphorous bonds.
d) all of the above.
90. The enzyme responsible for the digestion of starch in the mouth is:
a) amylase
b) glucosase
c) peptidase
d) carboylase
91. Insulin:
a) is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas.
b) aids in the passage of glucose into various organs and tissues
c) is activated by the hormone glucagon.
d) all of the above.
92. The end products of the anaerobic stage of cellular respiration are:
a) carbon dioxide, water and ATP
b) acetyl-CoA and ATP
c) lactic acid, water and ATP
d) carbon dioxide, water and ADP
94. Which of the following statements does not describe the aerobic stage of cellular respiration.
a) The site of aerobic cellular respiration is the cell's mitochondria.
b) It occurs in two independent set of metabolic reactions, the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain.
c) A total of 34 ATP molecules are produced in this stage of cellular respiration.
d) The end products of the aerobic stage of cellular respiration are water, carbon dioxide and ATP.
95. The electron transport or respiratory chain of the aerobic oxidation of glucose:
a) produces the majority of the ATP in the entire cellular respiration process.
b) is independent of the citric acid cycle.
c) is the final hydrogen donor in the respiratory cycle.
d) takes place in the cell's cytoplasm.
99. The complete beta oxidation of a 16-carbon fatty acid would yield ATP molecules.
a) 36
b) 72
c) 114
d) 130
100. Ketosis:
a) is the metabolic process of ketone bodies being produced from excess acetyl-CoA.
b) is where the pH of the blood drops because of the presents of excess ketone bodies.
c) describes the normal circulation of ketone bodies in the blood stream
d) is the hydrolysis of acetyl-CoA to acetone
103. Amino acids are synthesized from other free amino acids and also from -keto acids by .
a) oxidative deamination
b) transamination
c) translation
d) ornithination
104. The fatty acid cycle removes units per cycle, until the fatty acid has been completely oxidized.
a) one carbon
b) one acetyl-CoA
c) two carbon
d) four acetyl-CoA
105. is the metabolic pathway that prepares amino acids for entrance into the citric acid cycle.
a) transamination
b) transamidation
c) oxidative phosphorylation
d) oxidative deamination
106. Which of the following is not a characteristic of both RNA and DNA.
a) The backbone for each strand of DNA and RNA is composed of a phosphate group and a pentose sugar unit.
b) Each nucleic acid has a similar set of purina base pairs.
c) Each nucleic acid does exist as a single strand, however, DNA in its native state is found in a double helix
conformation.
d) Both nucleic acids are involved directly in the transcription process of protein synthesis.
107. are the nitrogen-containing bases which consist of a double heterocyclic nitrogen ring.
a) cytosine
b) purines
c) uracil
d) pyrimidines
108. A polypeptide consists of 48 amino acid residues. The minimum number of base pairs in a DNA strand needed to
code for this particular polypeptide would be:
a) 48
b) 24
c) 16
d) not enough information given
111. The intermolecular force responsible for native DNA's double helical shape is:
a) salt bridges
b) disulfide linkages
c) London forces
d) hydrogen bonding
112. The replication process of DNA is controlled to assure exact copies of DNA during mitosis through .
a) identical base pairing
b) complementary base pairing
113. Which of the following nitrogen bases do not participate directly in transcription.
a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) thymine
d) uracil
116. Which of the following is not involved at any step during protein synthesis.
a) DNA
b) mRNA
c) rRNA
d) hnRNA
117. During translation, attaches itself to the located in the cell's endoplasmic reticulum.
a) hnRNA, ribosomes
b) tRNA, ribosomes
c) rRNA, ribosomes
d) mRNA, ribosomes
c) G A U C C C U U A A C
d) C U U T T G C C T A G
123. In Eukaryotic cells, segments within a DNA molecule which do not code for an amino acid are referred to as
and the areas within the DNA molecule that do code for amino acids is called .
a) introns, exons
b) anticodons, introns
c) codons, exons
d) exons, introns
124. The intermolecular force responsible for codon and anticodon interaction is:
a) ribosomal linkages
b) hydrogen bonding
c) salt bridges
d) disulfide linkages