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Anatomy
Answer: 14 years
Explanation:
d) Lymph node
Answer: Thymus
Explanation:
Answer: Facial
Explanation:
b) Type V
c) Type IV
d) Type III
Answer: Type IV
Explanation:
Type of collagen:
Fibril Forming Collagens:
Collagens Type I- Bone, Tendon, Skin, Cornea and Blood Vessels
Collagens Type II- Cartilage, Inter-vertebral Disk, Vitrous Body
Collagens Type III-Blood Vessels and Fetal skin
Network Forming Collagens:
Collagens Type IV- Basement membrane
Collagens Type VII- Beneath stratified squamous epithelia
Fibril Associated Collagens:
Collagens Type IX- Cartilage
Collagens Type XII- Tendon, Ligament
Answer: Sub-scapularis
Explanation:
Card test is for palmar interossei of the finger and tested by placing a
piece of paper between fingers and seeing how firmly it can be held.
First dorsal interossei can be separately examined by asking the patient to
abduct the index finger against the resistance.
Microvilli are finger like projections from the cell surface that can be seen
by EM.
Each microvillus consists of an outer covering of plasma membrane and
cytoplasmic core in which there are numerous microfilaments (Actin
filaments).
Microvilli are seen most typically at sites of active absorption e.g. the
intestine and proximal and distal convoluted tubules of kidney.
The inner surface of the gall bladder is covered by the mucosa. The surface
is made up of a simple columnar epithelium. The epithelial cells have
microvilli, and look like absorptive cells in the intestine.
a) Periosteum
b) Endosteum
c) Cancellous bone
d) Cortical bone
Answer:
Explanation:
10. Special visceral efferent carries all the cranial nerve except
a) Facial
b) Vagus nerve
c) Optic
d) Glosso-pharyngeal
Answer: Optic
Explanation:
Special visceral efferent (SVE) refers to efferent nerves that provide motor
innervations to the muscles of the pharyngeal arches in humans.
The only nerves containing SVE fibers are cranial nerves: the trigeminal
nerve (V), the facial nerve (VII), the glosso-pharyngeal nerve (IX), the vagus
nerve (X) and the accessory nerve (XI).
d) Vas deference
Answer: Glomeruli
Explanation:
Fate of meso-nephric duct and tubules in the female:
Collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvic, ureter
Trigone of bladder
Epoophoron
Paroophoron
Fate of meso-nephric duct and tubules in the male:
Collecting tubules, calyces, renal pelvic, ureter
Trigone of bladder
Posterior wall of the part of the prostatic urethra
Epididymis, Ductus deference, Vas deference, Seminal vesicle, Ejaculatory
duct
Meso-dermal part of prostate
The excretory tubules or nephrons are derived from the lower part of the
nephrogenic cord.
Physiology
1. 50 % rise in radius of vessel will rise in blood flow
a) 10 times
b) 20 times
c) 50 times
d) 100
Answer:
Explanation:
a) 21
b) 27
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
Biochemistry
1. In fasting RBC use
a) Glucose
b) Alanine
c) Ketone body
d) Fatty acid
Answer:
Explanation:
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
3. RNAi gene
a) Knock out
b) Knock in
c) Knock up
d) Knock down
Answer:
Explanation:
d) Mc Ardle
Answer:
Explanation:
d) Beckwith Weidman
Answer:
Explanation:
11. 10 year old boy presents with muscle weakness, fatigue and increased
lead in blood. Which of following a biochemical parameter is increased?
a) ALA synthase
b) Ferrochelatase
c) PBG deaminase
d)
b) PDH
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d)
Answer: 324
Explanation:
S. 324 IPC: Voluntarily causing heart by dangerous weapon or means
S. 326 IPC: Voluntarily causing grievous heart by dangerous weapon or
means
Answer: 416
Explanation:
Section-416 of Cr. PC provides if a woman sentenced to death is found to be
pregnant, the High court shall order the execution of the sentence to be
postponed and may, if it thinks fit, commute the sentence to imprisonment
for life.
b) Ether
c) Nitro-benzene
d) Paraldehyde
Answer: Paraldehyde
Explanation:
Paraldehyde is clear, colorless liquid with an unpleasant ethereal odor and an
acrid nauseous taste.
It is used as a hypnotic by mouth, rectum or parentally and as basal
anesthetic.
Treatment of paraldehyde poisoning:
Gastric lavage with sodium bicarbonate
High colonic irrigation
Calcium gluconate and dextrose IV
5. In car accident, driver and front passenger both died. Which of the
following in postmortem examination will help to indentify driver except?
a) Seat belt over left shoulder
b) Sparrow footmark on the head
c) Whiplash injury to spinal cord
d) Steering wheel impact
6. According to the Amendment Act 2013, the age for sexual consent is
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 15 years
Answer: 18 years
Explanation:
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013:
The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which means any
sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below the
age of 18 will constitute statutory rape.
Section 370 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) has been substituted with new
sections, 370 and 370A which deal with trafficking of person for exploitation.
A new section, 376A has been added which states that if a person committing
the offence of sexual assault, inflicts an injury which causes the death of the
person or causes the person to be in a persistent vegetative state, shall be
punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than
twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life.
Answer: Firearm
Explanation:
Intermediate range wound from shotgun:
Wound of entry is irregular with ragged margin (Rat-hole injury) with satellite
perforation at the margin of the main defect.
Pathology
1. Oil red O stain used for
a) Frozen specimen
b) Glutaraldehyde specimen
c) Alcohol specimen
d) Formalin specimen
Answer:
Explanation:
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
6. Incisional wound contains fibril network and epithelial layer. Age of wound
a) 12 to 24 hours
b) 24 to 72 hours
c) 4 to 5 days
d) 1 week
Answer:
Explanation:
7. A young boy with Starry sky appearance on HPE. Which of the following is
true?
a) BCR ABL
b) P53 gene mutation
c) MYC mutation
d) RB gene mutation
Answer:
Explanation:
8. Karyotype XXY
a) Klinefelters syndrome
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
Pharmacology
1. Methacholine agonist at
a) M2
b) M1
c) M4
d) M3
Answer: M2
Explanation:
Agonist of muscarinic receptors:
M1-Oxotremorine
M2- Methacholine
M3- Bethanechol
4. A woman had a previous neonatal death due to neural tube defect. Now
she came for pre conception counseling. The daily dose of folic acid that she
should take is
a) 4 microgram
b) 40 microgram
c) 400 microgram
d) 4000 microgram
Answer:
Explanation:
7. Which of the following drug would not cause whorl like opacities in cornea?
a) Chloroquine
b) Amiodarone
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Indomethacin
Answer:
Explanation:
a) Bosentan
b) Amlodipine
c) Enalpril
d) Furosemide
Answer:
Explanation:
Microbiology
1. Filarial stage of adult worms responsible for diseases in all of the following
except:
a) Onchocerca volvulus
b) Brugia
c) Wuchereria
d) Mansonella ozzardi
Answer:
Explanation:
c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d) Respiratory papillomatosis
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
ENT
1. Kashima operation done for
a) Vocal cord
b) Cholesteatoma
c) Industry surgery
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
Ophthalmology
1. Which of the following topical agents causes hetero-chromia iridis?
a) Latanoprost
b) Prednisolone
c) Timolol
d) Olapatadine
Answer:
Explanation:
a) Naso-Cilliary nerve
b) Supra-trochlear nerve
c) Infra-trochlear nerve
d) Infra-orbital nerve
Answer:
Explanation:
c) RPE layer
d) Macular cones
Answer:
Explanation:
SPM
1. Birth weight of infant born to mothers of two groups; one provided with
food supplement and other not supplemented are to be compared. What is
best test of significance?
a) Chi square
b) Student t test
c) Paired t test
d) Analysis Of Variance (ANOVA)
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
5. Sensitive measure
a) True positive
b) True negative
c) False positive
d) False negative
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
11. Child had un-provoked dog bite. Dog was tested to be healthy. Next step
is
a) No treatment to be given and observe dog for 10 days
b) Start treatment and observe the dog
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
13. In one study highest value 58 was mistakenly taken as 85. This will lead
to
a) High mean and high median
b) High mean and same median
c) Low mean and same median
d) Same mean and high median
Answer:
Explanation:
Medicine
1. Which of the following is not part of Duke Criteria?
a) Splenomegaly
b) Fever >100.4 Celsius
c) IV drug user
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
b) Thalamus
c) Brain stem
d) Cerebral hemisphere
Answer:
Explanation:
6. Sweating absent in
a) Heat syncope
b) Heat exhaustion
c) Heat stroke
d) Muscle cramps
Answer:
Explanation:
9. Old female with fever, weight loss, night sweats. Biopsy of apical lung
shows caseous necrosis. Caseous necrosis is due to
a) Hypersensitivity reaction consisting of lymphocytes, epithelioid cells
b) Enzymatic degradation
c) Abrupt ischemia
d) Acute decrease in blood supply
Answer:
Explanation:
Surgery
1. Mallory Weiss syndrome mainly affects which artery?
a) Left gastric artery
b) Right gastric artery
c) Phrenic artery
d) Coronary artery
Answer:
Explanation:
a) Ventriculo-peritoneal
b) Ventriculo-pericardial
c) Ventriculo-pleural
d) Ventriculo-atrial
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer: Ventriculo-peritoneal
Explanation:
Ventriculo-peritoneal (VP) Shunt is the most common procedure for the
treatment of hydrocephalus.
CSF is channeled through an implant called a shunt, which directs flow of CSF
from a lateral or third ventricle into the abdominal cavity where it is absorbed
into the bloodstream.
Answer:
Explanation:
b) IV drip
c) CT scan
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
9. Lap Splenectomy is followed by fever and tachycardia on third postoperative day. Next best investigation finding
a) Pus cell in urine
b) LRTI
c) Intra-abdominal fluid in USG
d) Pus in port site
Answer:
Explanation:
10. 60 years old with bloody nipple discharge gives family history of breast
carcinoma. Investigation of choice is
a) MRI
b) Dactoscopy
c) Sono-mammography
d) Cytology of discharge
e) MRI
Answer:
Explanation:
11. 3 year old child comes with hernia sac with hydrocele. What is next step
of management?
a) Herniotomy
b) Hernioplasty
c) Herniorrhaphy
d) Wait for 5 year of age
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
15. Pregnant lady comes to casualty after getting stabbed on the right side of
the chest. She is gasping and BP 80/60 mm Hg and pulse 124/minutes.
Management is
a) Tracheostomy
b) Chest drain
c) IV fluid
d) Oropharyngeal airways
Answer:
Explanation:
a) Doppler USG
b) USG heart sound detection
c) Per-vaginal examination correspond size of uterus is 6 weeks
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
7. Mucin secreting cell with signet ring appearance, bilateral ovarian mass
a) Krukenberg tumor
b)
c)
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
Pediatrics
1. Fluid of choice in infant diarrhea
a) ORS
b) Salt water
c) Sugar water
d) Dextrose
Answer:
Explanation:
2. A young girl 10 yrs old comes with d huge mobile mass abdomen and in
hypogastric region with doctor unable to insinuate between mass and pelvis.
Mesenteric cyst
b) Ascites
c) Ovarian cyst
d) Omental cyst
e) Duplication of cyst of intestine
f) Fibroid
Answer:
Explanation:
3. Retinoblastoma spread by
a) Lymphatics
b) Personality disorder
c) OCD
4) Phobia
Answer:
Explanation:
Dermatology
1. 26 y old man from Bihar with nodules over face, over back hypopigmented, normo-aesthetic macules with no nerve thickening. History of
prolonged fever present in childhood
Image of lesions on the back
a) Tuberculoid leprosy
b) Post Kala Azar dermal leishmaniasis
c) Lepromatous leprosy
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
3. 70 years old man presents with vesicular rash over lower limb following a
course of steroids. Tzank smear showed multinucleated giants cells.
Diagnosis is
a) VZV
b) Vaccinia
c) Molluscum
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer:
Explanation:
Radiology
Answer: MRI
Explanation:
Stress fractures are a common overuse injury among athletes.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is being used increasingly as the
investigation of choice for stress fractures. The typical findings on MRI are of
periosteal and marrow edema, as well as fracture line.
d) X-ray
Answer: USG
Explanation:
Ultrasound with its lack of ionizing radiation should be the investigation of
choice in young patients, and is effective in competent hands in identifying
abnormal appendixes (A non-compressible and thickened), especially in thin
patients.
CT scanning is more sensitive and specific than ultrasound when diagnosing
acute appendicitis.
Most useful predictors of acute appendicitis on CT are enlarged appendix,
appendiceal wall thickening, peri-appendiceal fat stranding, and appendiceal
wall enhancement.
Answer: PET
Explanation:
Viable myocardium is myocardium which due to ischemia does not contract
normally at rest but has the potential to recover its function, either by itself
over time or after revascularization.
PET is generally regarded as the gold standard for the assessment of
myocardium viability. PET identifies ischemic or hibernating myocardium in
10-20 % of the regions that would be classified as fibrotic or infracted by
thallium and technetium labeled compounds.
a) Pelvis
b) Calcaneum
c) Scaphoid
d) Spine
Answer: Pelvis
Explanation:
The entire pelvis is demonstrated on each oblique Judet view.
The Judet view demonstrates acetabular fractures and hip dislocation.
Answer: Hip
Explanation:
Shentons line is an imaginary line drawn along the inferior border of the
superior pubic ramus (superior border of the obturator foramen) and along
the infero-medial border of the neck of femur.
Break in Shentons line:
Fracture of neck of femur
Posterior dislocation of hip
Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Congenital dislocation of hip
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer: MRCP
Explanation:
Ultra-sonography is often the initial investigation in patients with suspected
biliary atresia, followed by hepato-biliary scintigraphy, a study that has been
used effectively for many years.
If the diagnosis remains elusive after these studies, magnetic resonance
cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) may be helpful (Investigation of choice).
Anesthesia
1. Which anesthetic agent is pain full in IV?
a) Thiopentone
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Ether
Answer:
Explanation:
Orthopedics
1. Judet view of X-ray is for
a) Pelvis
b) Calcaneum
c) Scaphoid
d) Spine
Shoulder
Answer:
Explanation:
3. Jersey finger
a) FDP
b) Extensor digiti minimi
c) Extensor indices proprius
d)
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
6. A 45 yrs old man jumps from height from building. One witness told the
doctor that patient fell from height due to fire in the building and landed on
the ground on feet. What findings are in keeping to his details?
a) Ring fracture in skull with lumbar spine injury
b) Depressed fracture with cervical spine injury
c) Pond fracture in skull
d) Gutter fracture with lumbar spine injury
Answer:
Explanation:
Psychiatrics