Q.

401: Which module enables you to define

graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
size=2 face=Arial>

Q. 402: What does the term severity refer to?

A. Importance level of the defect
B. Impact of the defect on the release goals
C. Impact of the defect on the test set
D. Impact of the defect on system operation
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 403: What should you use to gather and
display the information in Quality Center?
(Select three.)
A. External reports and graphs
B. Predefined reports and graphs
C. Document generator
D. User-defined reports and graphs
E. Custom reports and graphs
F.Custom document generator
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 404: You want to view the child
requirements data related to the tests that
the requirements cover. Which graph type
should you use to accomplish this?
A. Progress graph
B. Trend graph
C. Requirements coverage graph
D. Summary graph
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 405: Which graph provides a visual
overview of all the tests within a folder in the
Test Plan Tree?

A. Visual analysis graph

B. Live analysis graph
C. Trend analysis graph
D. Summary graph
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 406: Your project manager wants to see a
list of test instances and the results. Which
type of report should you create to
accomplish this?
A. Cross Test Set
B. Execution
C. Test Plan
D. Execution Status
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 407: You need to generate a report to
monitor requirements and test coverage.
Which report type should you use to
accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Standard
B. Predefined
C. Non-standard
D. Non-customized
E. Custom
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 408: What is a release?
A.A subset of the new features implemented in
an application that has undergone a series of
test cycles
B.A set of tests designed for a specific purpose
such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C.A group of test cycles that has been
completed within a specific time period and in
which all the high priority defects have been
closed
D.A version of an application representing a

group of changes that is available for

distribution to customers at the same time
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 409: What is a cycle?
A.A subset of the new features implemented
in an application that has undergone a
series of test cycles
B.A set of tests designed for a specific purpose
such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C.A set of development and quality assurance
efforts that is performed to achieve a common
goal based on the release timeline
D.A version of an application representing a
group of changes that is available for
distribution to customers at the same time
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 410: Which requirement type needs to be
defined as a custom type?
A. Business
B. Group
C. Functional
D. Testing
E. Security
Question No.

Correct Answer

Q. 401

Q. 402

Q. 403

B,C,E

Q. 404

Q. 405

Q. 406

Q. 407

B,E

Q. 408

Q. 409

Q. 410

Q. 411: What is the term for a series of steps

that check whether a requirement is met?
A. An instance
B. A cycle
C. A test set
D. A test
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
<FONT< p>
color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial>

Q. 412: When naming a requirement, which

names are valid? (Select three.)
A. FlightTicket
B. Flight^Ticket
C. Flight_Ticket
D. Flight*Ticket
E. FlightTicket
F. Flight.Ticket
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 413: What is the relationship between
requirements, releases, and cycles?
A. Requirements, releases, and cycles can be
assigned to libraries.
B. Libraries can be assigned to requirements,
releases, and cycles.
C. Releases and cycles are used for version
control of requirements.
D. Requirements can be assigned to

releases and cycles.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 414: Which view provides a nonhierarchical view of requirements data?
A. Requirements Grid view
B. Requirements Non-hierarchical view
C. Requirements view
D. Requirements Coverage view
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 415: What are the testing levels in riskbased testing?
A. Full, Partial, Basic, and Completed
B. Assigned, Full, Partial, and Basic
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
D. Full, Partial, Basic, and Advanced
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 416: Which tabs can be found under the
Requirements Traceability tab?
A. Relationships and Impact Analysis
B. Relationships and Functional Complexity
C. Relationship Link and Impact Analysis
D. Relationship Advancement and Impact
Analysis
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 417: What is the function of an Impact
Analysis?
A. To graph the impact of requirement changes
B. To analyze the impact of requirement
changes
C. To graph the impact of requirement
complexity
D. To analyze the impact of the requirement list
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 418: What does business criticality
determine?

A. How redundant a requirement is for a

business
B. How critical a requirement is for a
business
C. How critical a requirement is for a project
D. How critical a requirement is for the software
life cycle
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 419: What is the relationship between
requirements and tests? (Select two.)
A. A test can cover more than one
requirement.
B. A requirement can be covered by more
than one test.
C. A test can cover only one requirement.
D. A requirement can be covered by only one
test.
E. A maximum of ten tests can cover a
requirement.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 420: Which steps are considered part of
the risk-based testing process? (Select two.)
A. Establish Business Criticality, Assess
Functional Complexity
B. Establish Failure Probability, Perform Risk
Assessment
C. View Analysis Results, Assess Impact
Analysis
D. Establish Failure Probability, Perform
Risk Analysis
E. Assess Risk, Calculate Failure Probability

Question No.

Correct Answer

Q. 411

Q. 412

C,E,F

Q. 413

Q. 414

Q. 415

Q. 416

Q. 417

Q. 418

Q. 419

A,B

Q. 420

A,D

Q. 421: Which factors are used to calculate

the testing level in risk-based testing?
A. Testing time and failure probability
B. Business criticality and functional
complexity
C. Failure probability and risk analysis
D. Business criticality and failure probability
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
face=Arial>

Q. 422: Which default format does Quality

Center use when you send an email about
a requirement to the author of a test set?
A. XML
B. Plain text
C. HTML
D. DHTML
Q. 423: What are the functions of the Test
Plan Tree? (Select three.)

A. Organizes tests according to the functional

units or subjects of an application
B. Organizes instances according to the
functional units or subjects of an application
C. Provides a clear picture of the testing
building blocks and assists in the development
of actual tests
D. Provides a broader picture of the testing
building blocks and assists in the development
of actual tests
E. Shows the hierarchical relationships and
dependencies between tests
F. Shows the graphical relationships and
dependencies between tests
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 424: In addition to being accurate and
economical, what are the key
characteristics of a test in Quality Center?
A. Concrete, accessible, and functional
B. Consistent, appropriate, and traceable
C. Accessible, appropriate, and reusable
D. Unique, appropriate, and compatible
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 425: Which benefit does a good test
plan provide?
A. The ability to assess the quality of your
application at any stage in the testing process
B. A clear and concise plan to successfully
develop an application
C. The ability to assess the impact of defects
at any stage in the testing process
D. The ability to assess the efficiency of the
test runs at any stage in the testing process
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 426: Which Quality Center module

enables you to convert a requirement to a
test?
A. Test Lab module
B. Requirements module
C. Test Resources module
D. Test Plan module
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 427: Which button enables you to create
an automated test from a manual test?
A. Generate Automated Test
B. Generate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Convert into Automated Script
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 428: What does Call to Test enable you
to do?
A. Modularize and reuse a standard sequence
of steps across multiple tests
B. Establish and reuse a standard sequence
of steps across multiple tests
C. Arrange and reuse a standard sequence of
instances across multiple tests
D. Analyze and reuse a standard sequence of
steps across multiple tests
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 429: Which fields can be edited to enter
the parameter values? (Select two.)
A. Standard and Default
B. Actual and Description
C. Actual and Expected
D. Standard and Actual
E. Actual and Parameter
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 430: In which folder should you create a

new Test Set folder?
A. Subject
B. Root
C. Test Set
D. New Test
Question No.

Correct Answer

Q. 421

Q. 422

Q. 423

A,C,E

Q. 424

Q. 425

Q. 426

Q. 427

Q. 428

Q. 429

A,C

Q. 430

Q. 431: How can you determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects?
A. By assigning tests to releases
B. By assigning tests to cycles
C. By assigning tests to requirements
D. By assigning tests to test coverage
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
<FONT< p>
color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial>

Q. 432: Which feature enables you to determine the sequence in which tests are executed?
A. Execution Grid
B. Run Manually
C. Execution Flow
D. Sequential Execution Wizard
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 433: Which execution status is used to set the rule to execute the dependent test after
the controlling test finishes its execution?
A.PASSED
B.FAILED
C.FINISHED
D.COMPLETED
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 434: In Quality Center, you can send a status alert email to the author of the test set
when it completes execution. How is the notification sent?
A. Atomatically
B. Using an automatic Alert Wizard
C. Using a dynamic alert
D. Manually
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 435: Which options enable you to record the results of a manual test run? (Select two.)
A.ACTUAL field
B.KEEP ON TOP button
C.MANUAL TEST RUN Wizard
D.STATUS column
E.RESULT view
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 436: Where can you define hosts for remotely executing tests?
A. Remote Agent
B. Remote Manager
C. Host Manager
D. Remote Wizard
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 437: To track the progress of tests, what can you associate with the test set?

A. Baseline
B. Cycle
C. Library
D. Defects
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 438: Which feature enables you to graphically view the dependencies between
successive tests?
A. Execution Grid
B. Execution Wizard
C. Execution Flow
D. Graphical View
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 439: Your project manager wants you to run automated tests concurrently on remote
hosts. Which steps should you take to meet this requirement? (Select two.)
A. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set.
B. Add multiple concurrent users to the test set.
C. Select a different host for each test instance.
D. Select a different user for each test instance.
E. Select a different alias for each test instance.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 440: What enables you to view the results of a test run for an automated test?
A. Execution Grid
B. Test run result
C. History Results button
D. Launch Report button

Question
No.

Correct
Answer

Q. 431

Q. 432

Q. 433

Q. 434

Q. 435

A,D

Q. 436

Q. 437

Q. 438

Q. 439

A,C

Q. 440

Q. 441: Which elements are considered part of the Defects module? (Select three.)
A. Defects grid
B. Test grid
C. Link defect
D. Grid filters
E. Defects toolbar
F. Rich textbox
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
face=Arial>

Q. 442: In accordance with best practice, what should you do before logging a new defect?
A. Assign a defect ID.
B. Search for an existing defect.
C. Copy from an existing defect.
D. Link the defect with a requirement.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 443: What can be directly associated with defects? (Select three.)
A. Requirements
B. Test resources
C. Test sets
D. Test components

E. Test instances
F. Baselines
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 444: Which Quality Center modules enable you to perform version control? (Select
two.)
A. Test Plan, Test Resources
B. Test Plan, Test Lab
C. Test Resources, Defects
D. Requirements, Business Components
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 445: In a version controlled project, which command enables you to create a new version
for an entity?
A.CHECK OUT
B.CHECK IN
C.KEEP CHECKED OUT
D.ASSIGN
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 446: Your project manager wants you to open an existing test case and make some
changes. When you check out the test case for update, your manager finds that the
changes are not required and asks you to retain the test case in its original state. What
should you do to retain the test case?
A. Delete the changed portion.
B. Undo checkout.
C. Undo check-in.
D. Redo checkout.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 447: In a version controlled project, which icon indicates that you have an entity
checked-out?
A. Red lock icon
B. Blue lock icon
C. Green lock icon
D. Yellow lock icon
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 448: Your project manager wants you to use an existing set of requirements and tests
across five projects in your organization. Which function should you use to accomplish

this?
A. Baseline
B. Template
C. Component
D. Version
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 449: What does baseline enable a user to do? (Select two.)
A.Establish a snapshot of the library at a specific point in time
B.Establish a screenshot of the Library Tree at every point in time
C.Keep track of changes made to a project over time
D.Keep track of modifications made to the Quality Center software over time
E.Keep track of changes made to a project plan over time
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 450: What happens when you synchronize two libraries?
A.Both libraries are updated with any changes.
B.Both libraries remain the same.
C.The synchronizing library is updated with changes made in the other library.
D.Changes from the synchronizing library are made in the other library.
Question
No.

Correct
Answer

Q. 441

A,D,E

Q. 442

Q. 443

A,C,E

Q. 444

A,D

Q. 445

Q. 446

Q. 447

Q. 448

Q. 449

A,C

Q. 450

Q. 451: What are the reasons to assign test set folders to a cycle? (Select three,)
A. To review the progress of tests
B. To view the status of tests
C. T determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects
D. To calculate the number of defects that are pending
E. To enhance the reporting granularity
F. To enhance the quality of the reports and graphs
<<<<<<
Q. 452: Which edition is newly added to Quality Center v07
A. Enterprise Edition
B. Starter Edition
C. Premier Edition
D. Center of Excellence Edition
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 453: Which URL should you use to access Quality Center?
A. http://[<:port number>/qcstart
B. http://[<:port number>]/qcbin
C. smtp://[<:port number>]/qcbin
D. http://intranet[<:port number>/qcbin
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 454: Which module enables you to view the instances of tests?
A. Test Resources

B. Test Plan
C. Test Lab
D. Business Components
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 455: What are functions of the Dashboard module? (Select four.)
A. Create standard and Excel reports
B. Export and publish dashboard pages
C. Create dashboard pages
D. Create, view, and manage graphs
E. Create and view defects
F. Generate results
G. Analyze Quality Center data
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 456: Which tool enables you to export data from Quality Center to a Microsoft Word
document?
A. Word Document Generator
B. Document Generator
C. Data Exporter
D. Data Export Wizard
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 457: Which type of data from an Excel spreadsheet can be imported Into Quality
Center? (Select three.)
A. Requirements
B. Tests
C. Test instances
D. Defects
E. Baseline
F. Test plan
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 458: How can you verify that the Excel add-in is successfully installed?
A. Quality Center-> Tools -> Export to Quality Center
B. Excel Spreadsheet -> Tools -> Export to Quality Center
C. Quality Center -> Tools -> Import to Duality Center
D. Excel Spreadsheet -> Tools -> Import to Quality Center
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 459: What does the term priority refer to?

A. How soon the defect needs to be fixed
B. How quickly you can assign the defect to the developer
C. How soon you can close the defect
D. Which action to take to close the defect
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 460: Using Dashboard, what is the maximum number of graphs per page that you can
create by default?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Question
No.

Correct
Answer

Q. 451

A,C,E

Q. 452

Q. 453

Q. 454

Q. 455

A,C,D,G

Q. 456

Q. 457

A,B,D

Q. 458

Q. 459

Q. 460

Q. 461: When creating an Excel report, what is used to extract the data?
A. Data Definition Wizard
B. Structured Data Wizard
C. Data Definition Language
D. Structured Query Language
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 462: What is a cycle?
A. A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of
test cycles
B. A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and
performance
C. A set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a
common goal based on the release timeline
D. A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to
customers at the same time
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 463: What are the advantages of a well-defined requirement? (Select four.)
A. Aids development and testing
B. Establishes guidelines for the Center of Excellence
C. Helps prevent scope creep
D. Sets clear expectations between teams
E. Facilitates reuse of test cases
F. Saves time and money
G. Helps define libraries
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 464: What should you consider while gathering requirements? (Select two.)
A. Customer's expectations
B. Testing processes
C. Business processes
D. Life cycle model
E. Developers expectations
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 465: Which function enables you to associate a requirement with other requirements?
A. Impact Analysis

B. Requirements Traceability
C. Requirements Analysis
D. Functional Complexity
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 466: Which entities can be associated with a requirement?
A. Tests, defects, and non-hierarchical requirements
B. Tests, defects, and linked requirements
C. Cycles, releases, tests, defects, and requirements
D. Releases, business components, tests, defects, and requirements
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 467: What is the purpose of risk-based testing?
A. To calculate the level at which each requirement must be tested
B. To analyze the level at which each requirement must be tested
C. To define the level at which each requirement must be tested
D. To calculate the level at which each instance must be tested
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 468: In which tab can you define traceability links?
A. Impact Analysis
B. Test Coverage
C. Relationships
D. Risk
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 469: What does failure probability determine?
A. The predictability of failure of a test associated with a requirement
B. The complexity of failure of a test associated with a requirement
C. The likelihood of failure of a test associated with a requirement
D. The locality of failure of a test associated with a requirement
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 470: Which Quality Center feature enables you to calculate risks?
A. Risk-based management
B. Analysis requirement management
C. Risk computation management

D. Functional complexity management

Question
No.

Correct
Answer

Q. 461

Q. 462

Q. 463

A,C,D,F

Q. 464

A,C

Q. 465

Q. 466

Q. 467

Q. 468

Q. 469

Q. 470

Q. 471: Which risk-based factor enables you to determine whether a requirement should be fully
or partially tested?
A. Testing cost
B. Defect probability
C. Functional relevance
D. Testing time
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 472: Which parameter can be used to send an email message in plain text?
A. MAIL SERMES
B. MAIL FORMAT
C. MAIL-MESSAGE-FORMAT

D. MAIL FORMATS
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 473: Which button should you use to link a test from the Test Plan Tree to a requirement?
A. Add to Requirements
B. Add to Coverage
C. Add to Link Tests
D. Add to Req Coverage
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 474: In the automatic conversion of requirements to tests, a requirement can be converted
into what?
A. Folders, scripts, or design steps
B. Files, folders, or tests
C. Folders, tests, or design steps
D. Folders, subfolders, or tests
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 475: Which command enables you to reuse and modularize test steps across multiple tests?
A. Adjust tests
B. Call to test
C. Call to steps
D. Call to instance
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 476: Which grammatical voice should you use to write the test steps?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Middle
D. Present
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 477: The Test Set Tree can contain as many top-level Test Set folders as you need, and each
sublevel can have its own sublevels, What is the maximum number of Test Set subfolders
allowed?
A. 254
B. 675
C. 676
D. 999

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 478: How does Quality Center define the type of tests in a test set?
A. White box and black box
B. Manual and integrated
C. Manual and automated
D. Automated and unit
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 479: What does the Execution Grid enable a user to do? (Select two,)
A. Declare the tests that make up each test set
B. View the tests in a diagram for adding or deleting tests C. Display test data in a grid
D. Display test data in a diagram
E. Display email notification rules
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 480: Your test set includes two automated tests: Open Order and Update Order. How can
you configure the Execution Flow to ensure the Update Order test will only run after the Open
Order test completes successfully?
A. Define an Execution Condition where Open Order must Finish before Update Order starts,
B. Define Update Order as a dependent test to Open Order.
C. Define an Execution Condition where Open Order must Pass before Update Order starts.
D. Define an Execution Condition where Update Order must Pass before Open Order starts,

uestion No.

Correct
Answer
Q. 471

Q. 472

Q. 473

Q. 474

Q. 475

Q. 476

Q. 477

Q. 478

Q. 479

A,C

Q. 480

Q. 481: What is the best practice for running an automated test concurrently on
multiple remote hosts?
A. Adding multiple instances of the test, selecting a host for each instance
B. Running a test separately on each of the multiple remote hosts
C. Running a test set sequentially on each of the multiple remote hosts
D. Using the Host Manager Wizard to configure hosts and run tests and test sets
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 482: Which factors affect time dependency when running the tests?
A. Schedule and time
B. Date and flow
C. Time and date
D. Schedule and flow
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 483: Your project manager requests that you send the execution status of a
test set of 10 tests by tomorrow morning. There is a chance that the fifth test
might fail. What should you do to ensure that the subsequent tests run?
A. Schedule the test run based on the Execution Condition.
B. Schedule the test run independently.
C. Schedule the test run by selecting the execution status Never Stop.
D. Schedule the test run based on the parameter,

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 484: Your project manager wants you to run an automated test on a remote
host, You are not able to view this host , What should you do to solve this
problem?
A. Set up the host In Host Manager.
B. Add the host using the Add Hosts Wizard.
C. Use the Host Wizard to find the host.
D. Set up the host in the Host Manager Wizard,
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 485: Which feature provides an audit trail of changes made to each dpfact2
A. Defects grid
B. Grid filter
C. Audit trail
D. History tab
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 486: You find a defect in an application and send it to the developer to fix.
The developer cannot interpret the problem and requests a snapshot of the
application with the defect. What enables you to take a snapshot?
A. History tab
B. Attachments tab
C. Description tab
D. Details tab
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 487: How do you associate defects with tests? (Select three,)
A. Associate tests from the Test Plan module with defects.
B. Associate test sets from the Test Lab module with defects.
C. Associate defects with tests run during a manual test run,
D. Associate test instances with defects during a manual test run.
E. Associate tests with multiple defects.
F. Associate requirements with multiple defects,
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 488: The project manager requests that the test engineer make changes in a
test case. Which version control feature should the test engineer use to modify

the test case?

A. UNDO
B. CHECK IN
C. CHECK OUT
D. COMPARE
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 489: Where do you view prior versions of an entity?
A. History
B. Versions
C. Dependencies
D. Management
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 490: Which Quality Center feature allows you to view the complete
chronology of an entity, including previous versions, authors of the versions,
and its date of creation?
A. Version history
B. Entity history
C. Chronology history
D. Complete history

Question
No.

Correct
Answer

Q. 481

Q. 482

Q. 483

Q. 484

Q. 485

Q. 486

Q. 487

A,C,E

Q. 488

Q. 489

Q. 490

Q. 491: What is the function of a library?

A. To create and manage a set of entities in a project and the relationship between them
B. To create and manage a set of instances
in a project and the relationship between them
C. To define a Hierarchical Instance Tree to create and manage your resources
D. To define and manage a set of baseline projects and the relationship between them

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 492: What enables you to associate the test set with the tests stored in a baseline?
A. Baselining
B. Pinning
C. Skimming
D. Popping
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 493: What enables you to move library folders and libraries?
A. Copy and Paste
B. Cut and Paste
C. Library Wizard
D. Select and Paste
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
New Set of Questions begin from Here

Q. 494: What is the implication of having a direct link between a defect and a test?
A. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run.
B. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement.
C. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.

D. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 495: What are the potential subsequent states of a "Fixed" defect? (Select two.)
A. Closed
B. Reopened
C. Complete
D. New
E. Reviewed
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 496: By default, what does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign when a new
defect is created? (Select two.)
A. A unique defect ID
B. The status Created
C. A version number
D. The status New
E. A unique test set
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 497: Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application
Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)
A. Smart Identification
B. Defect Checking
C. Smart Defects
D. Smart Defects Identification
E. Defect Reminder
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 498: Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during an HP Sprinter test
run? (Select two.)
A. Ruler tool
B. Step tool
C. Click tool
D. Guides tool
E. Align tool
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 499: Which tool can be used to store information about a defect in HP Sprinter without

disrupting test flow?

A. Defect Highlighter tool
B. Test Defect tool
C. Smart Defect tool
D. Defect Reminder tool
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 500: Which entities can be linked to a defect? (Select two.)
A. Cycles
B. Releases
C. Reports
D. Defects
E. Tests
Question
No.

Correct
Answer

Q. 491

Q. 492

Q. 493

Q. 494

Q. 495

A,B

Q. 496

A,D

Q. 497

C,E

Q. 498

A,D

Q. 499

Q. 500

D,E