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Reasoning Made
Easy
By Ramandeep Singh
Index
Chapter 1
Chapter 2
Chapter 3
Chapter 4
Chapter 5
Chapter 6
Chapter 7
Chapter 8
Chapter 9
Chapter 10
Chapter 11
Chapter 12
Chapter 13
Chapter 14
Chapter 15
Chapter 16
Chapter 17
Chapter 18
Chapter 19
Chapter 20
Chapter 21
Chapter 22
Puzzles
Input Output
Data Sufficiency
Sitting Arrangements
Syllogism
Blood Directions
Analogy
Coded Inequality
Coding Decoding
Decision Making
Direction Sense
Letter and Number Series
Logical Arrangement
Mathematical Operations
Odd Man Out Series
Ranking Based problems
Arithmatic Reasoning
Classification
Dice Problem
Statement and Arguments
Statement and Assumptions
Statement and Conclusions
Chapter-1
Puzzles
Directions (Q. 1-2) Study the following information carefully and answer the
question given below:
In one floor of a building there are eight flats A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in two
rows. One row of flats faces north and the other row faces south. D is exactly
opposite of F which faces North. Neither A nor C faces South. A is not at any ends
and is second to the left of F. E is exactly opposite of B which faces South. G is
third to the right of D.
1.
Which of the following pairs of flats facing south are at the two ends?
a) GD
b) GH
c) BH
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
2.
Which of the following pairs of flats facing North are at the two ends?
a) EA
b) EC
c) CF
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 3-4) Study the following information to answer the given
questions:
In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful
English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately
next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is
not placed immediately next to E.
3.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?
a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word
b) P is not placed immediately next to A
c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed
d) P is placed second to the right of E
e) None of correct
4.
Which of the following words will be formed based on the given
conditions?
a) SPAEL
b) PEALS
c) LEAPS
d) SEPAL
e) LAPSE
Directions (Q. 5-9) Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
5.
6.
What is Hs position
a) Third to the left
b) Second to the left
c) Third to the right
d) Second to the right
e) Fourth to the left
7.
How many chemical bottles are placed between chemical A and G (counted
from G clockwise)?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
8.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a
group. Which of the folowing does not belong to that group?
a) Violet-Brown
b) Black-Green
c) Orange-White
d) Yellow-Blue
e) Green -Yellow
9.
with respect to F?
c) Yellow
Directions (Q. 10-14) Study the following information carefully and answer the
question given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call centre. Each of
them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the
same order. They work in three different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them
in each shift.
R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. Ps day off is Tuesday and
he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in
shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V workds with only T in shift
III. Ss day off is Sunday. Vs day off is immediate next day of that of Rs day off.
Ts day off is not on Wednesday. Ws day off is not on the previous day of Ps day
off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is
not on Thursday.
10.
11.
c) Saturday
c) Tuesday
12.
13.
14.
c) Thursday
Directions (Q. 15-18) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
question given below it.
Six friends Abhishek, Deepak, Mridul, Pritam, Ranjan and Salil married
within a year in the months of February, April, July, September, November and
December and in the cities of Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and
Kolkata but not necessarily following the above order. The brides names were
5
16.
Hemas husband is
a) Abhishek
d) Pritam
b) Deepak
e) Mridul
c) Ranjan
c) Kolkata
17.
In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
a) April
b) September
c) November
d) December
e) July
18.
c) Kolkata
Directions (Q. 19-23) Read the following information carefully to answer the
given questions.
There are five married couples in a family and there is a child to every
couple. Ages of children are 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9 years. Name of males are M, N, O, P
and Q. Name of children are A, B, C, D and E. Name of females are V, W, X, Y
and Z. Name of Ms child is not C and E and he is not eldest or youngest. Age of
Xs child is 6 years and her husband is one among N, O and Q. Age of D is 3 years
but she is not a child of O. As age is multiple of 3 but she is not a child of M and
V. Ws husband is O or Q. Age of Zs child is 5 years but the name of child is not B
or E. V is wife of O.
19.
b) 6
e) None of these
c) 5
6
20.
21.
22.
23.
c) Y
Directions (Q. 24-27) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow.
Five friends A, B, C, D, and E are working in 5 different departments M, N,
O, P and Q and they earn different salaries i.e. 10,000, 15,000, 20,000, 25,000 and
30,000 and they all are of different ages i.e. 24, 26, 28, 30 and 32 years. These all
informations are not necessarily in the same order.
B works in department M and earns more than 20,000. Person who is 28
years old works in department Q. 32 years old person earns at least 20,000.
The person who is 26 years old earns 25,000. A earns 15,000, but does not
work in department N or P.
Person who is 30 years old earns highest salary but does not work in department M
and N. E does not work in department P or Q, and his age is not 32. The salary of D
is less than 20,000.
24.
If the name of the person represents its salary then which of the following is
true?
a) A + B = C
b) C + D = B
c) D + E = B
d) A + D = E
e) None of these
26.
27.
Directions (Q. 28-29) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
Education is the most important investment one makes in life. Higher
studies and specialization in certain fields call for additional financial support from
time-to-time.
28.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An
inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from
the given information)
a) People generally lack finances to pay for higher education
b) The rich and wealthy sections of our society are unwilling to spend money on the
education of their children
c) Higher education requires higher amount of money than primary education
d) Now-a-days even the poor and needy desire to educate their children
e) None of these
29.
31.
c) Akash
c) One
32.
33.
34.
c) Computers or watches
Directions (Q. 35-40) Study the following information carefully and answer the
following questions.
An organisation decided to distribute seven types of laptops on week days
starting from Monday to Sunday. The seven laptops to be distributed are of Sony,
Acer, Asus, Lenovo, Dell, HP and HCL but non necessarily in the same order. Dell
laptops are to be given on Saturday. Lenovo laptops are given just after Asus
laptops and Asus laptops are not given on Wednesday. HP laptops are given two
days after the distribution of Asus laptop. Acer laptops are distributed just after
9
36.
Which laptops are distributed just between the days when Lenovo and HP
are distributed?
a) Asus
b) Dell
c) Sony
d) HCL
e) None of these
37.
c) HCL
38.
39.
40.
Statement:
Despite good economic progress of country, significant
number of under nourished children has been observed in the rural parts of
the country.
Courses of action
10
Statement:
The police department has come under a cloth with recent
revelations that atleast two senior police officials are suspected to have been
involved in the illegal sale of a large quantity of weapons from the state
police amoury.
Courses of action
I. A through investigation should be ordered by the State Government to
bring out all those who are involved in the illegal sales of arm.
II. State police armoury should be kept under Central Governments
control.
Directions (Q. 43-47) Study the following information and answer the following
questions
A, B, C, D, E, G and I are seven friends who study in three different
standards namely 5th, 6th and 7th such that not less than two friends study in the same
standard. Each friend also has a different favourite subject namely History, Civics,
English, Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics but not necessarily in the same
order.
A likes Maths and studies in the 5th standard with only one other
friend who likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the friends who
study with I like languages (Here, languages include only Hindi, Marathi and
English)
D studies in the 6th standard with only one person and does not like Civics.
E studies with only one friend. The one who likes history does not study in 5th or 6th
standard. E does not like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics.
43. Which combination represents Es favourite subject and the standard in which
he studies?
a) Civic s and 7th
b) Economics and 5th
c) Civics and 6th
d) History and 7th
e) Economics and 7th
44.
45.
46.
47.
Directions (Q. 48-50) Read the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in
the examination hall, three stuidents were caught with their mobile phones.
A.
Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with
their help.
B.
The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the
students to leave the exam hall immediately.
C.
Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the
exam hall is not safe.
D.
There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole
the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the
exam.
E.
The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the
custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile
phones.
F.
None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall.
48.
49.
Which of the following among A, B, E and F may be the reason behind the
school making such announcements before the exam?
a) Only B
b) D and E
c) Only F
d) Only A
e) None of these
50.
(51-52):
Statement:
W>H=I>C=L<E
51.
Conclusions:
I. W > L
II. E > H
52.
Conclusions:
I. E < W
II. I > L
53.
Statement:
Conclusions:
54.
Statement:
Conclusions:
55.
P=R>E<S=N>T
I. P > T
II. N > R
C > B > L, Q = E > P = C
I. Q > B
II. L < E
Statement:
D<H=J<K>P>R
Conclusions:
I. D = K
II. K > D
Directions (Q. 56-60) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
A man has six sons U, V, W, X, Y and Z, who stay in four metro cities.
They work in different companies, viz Infosys, Tech Mahindra, Tata, Nike,
Walmart and Titan but not necessarily in the same order. Z stays in Mumbai and
works with Nike. Those who stay in Kilkata work with Tech Mahindra and
Walmart. One of the two Mumbaikars works with Titan. The one who works with
Infosys lives in Chennai. Z does not live in Chennai. U works with Tata. V works
with Tech Mahindra. Y works with Walmart.
56.
57.
59.
60.
b) ZX
e) None of these
c) VY
c) Tata
c) Kolkata
Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the following information carefully and give the
answers.
Sixteen teams have been invited to participate in the ABC Gold Cup cricket
tournament. The tournament is conducted in two stages. In the first stage, the teams
are divided in to two groups. Each group consists of eight teams, with each team
playing every other team in its group exactly once. At the end of the first stage, the
top four teams from each group advance to the second stage while the rest are
eliminated. The second stage comprises of several rounds. A round involves one
match for each team. The winner of a match in a round advances to the next round;
while the loser is eliminated the team that remains undefeated in the second stage is
declared the winner and claims the gold cup.
The tournament rules are such that each match results in a winner and a
loser with no possibility of a tie. In the first stage, a team earns one point for each
win and no points for a loss. At the end of the first stage, teams in each group are
ranked on the basis of total points to determine the qualifiers advancing to the next
stage. Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie- breaking rules so that exactly
four teams from each group advance to the next stage.
61.
62.
The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to
guarantee its advancement to the next stage is:
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 4
e) None of these
14
What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage in spite of
which it would be eliminated at the end of first stage?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) None of these
64.
65.
Directions (Q. 66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are Musician, Architect, Doctor, Engineer and
Artist by profssion and like White, Blue, Red, Yellow and Green colour but not
necessarily in that order.
66.
The person whose hobby is dancing preferred lemonade to cola while others
preferred cola to lemonade in beverages.
The four friends who took cola were P, the one who is an Engineer, the
person whose favourite colour is Green and t he o ne whose hobby is net
surfing.
S did not take lemonade and his favourite colour is White.
Qs favourite colour is Blue. He did not like lemonade.
Ts hobby is not painting, reading or gardening.
S clicks a picture of his friend who is an Engineer.
The person whose favourite colour is Red likes painting and the person who
is artist like gardening.
S is not a doctor. The person who is a doctor takes cola. The person who is
an Engineer likes Blue colour.
The musicians favourite colour is not yellow. Rs favourite colour is
Green.
Who among the following is a Doctor?
a) R
b) P
d) Cant say
e) None of these
c) S
15
67.
68.
69.
70.
Qs hobby is
a) Reading
d) Cant say
b) Painting
e) None of these
c) Gardening
c) Engineer
Directions (Q. 71-73) Read the given information carefully and answer the
questioins that follow.
Independence Day is considered as a day of rejoicing. Thousands of heroes
of independence struggle made the supreme sacrifice of their lives so that we can
enjoy freedom. But see how we have misused the hard won freedom over the last 67
years exactly in the same way the racist representatives of the British, Winston
Churchill, predicted before India wrested independence from the British.
Independence Day and Republic Day do not kindle patriotic fervour in a large
section of our society any longer. They have only been non-working days where
people sit back at h ome and enjoy with their families. They produce only total
revulsion for our corrupt political class, self-serving bureaucracy, greedy business
empires and the completely undisciplined people. The gullible people of the country
have been taken for a ride by the promises made by their leaders all these years
while they have been bleeding the nation white in scam after scam. To millions of
patriotic Indians Independence Day will remain a sad day until all these parasites
are totally annihilated.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
71.
73.
Which of the following statements are in line with the above passage?
a) The independence of India was very hard-earned.
b) People of India are not respecting the hard-earned freedom of India.
c) Increasing corrcuption in India is c reating anger among the people.
d) Independence day is just like a public holiday where people sit at home
and enjoy
e) All of these
Directions (Q. 74-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U from six different areas, viz. Rohini,
Indirapuram, Dwarka, Kaushambi, Munirka and Vaishali, go for shopping in six
different shopping complexes, viz. Sahara, GIP, CSM, V3S, Shipra and Select
Citywalk, but not necessarily in the same order. Three different types of transports
are used by them, viz. Car, Bus and Metro, in such a manner that two persons use
the same type of transport but not necessarily in the same order.
P uses car and lives in Vaishali but he does not go to CSM and Select
Citywalk.
The person going to Shipra Complex uses car and the one going to GIP uses
bus.
T uses the same type of transport as the person from Dwarka.
CSM Complex is chosen by the person who uses bus.
R is neither from Rohini nor from Munirka and he goes to Shipra Complex.
One of the persons who use Metro goes to Sahara Complex.
Q is from Kaushambi and goes to GIP. He does not use the same transport
as S.
U is neither from Indirapuram nor from Munirka.
Select Citywalk and GIP Complex are not visited by the persons who use
car.
The persons from Kaushambi and Rohini are using the same type of
transport.
17
75.
76.
77.
78.
c) T and P
c) R
c) T
c) Munirka
c) Metro
Directions (Q. 79-83) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z seven persons belong to seven different families,
viz. Punjabi, Rajasthani, Gujarati, Marathi, Bengali, Kannada and Malayali, but not
necessarily in the same order. All of them are travelling in a train in AC tier II. They
occupy two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. V is a Punjabi
and is not on the upper berths. The Gujarati is the only other person who occupies
the same type of berth as V. U and Y are not on the middle berths and they are
Malayali and Bengali respectively. T is a Marathi. Z is neithr a Kannada nor a
Gujarati. X occupies the same type of b erth as the Rajasthani.
79.
c) Gujarati
80.
81.
82.
c) X
Directions (Q. 84-88) Study the given information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Seven plays A, B, C, D, E, F and G are to be held on seven consecutive
days (starting on Monday and ending on Sunday) not necessarily in the same order.
Only one play can be held on one day. Only two plays will be held after play G.
Only three plays will be held between play B and play E. Play B will not be held on
Sunday. Play A will be held before play D and play C (not necessarily immediately
before). Play C will be held after play D (not necessarily immediate after)
84.
c) Wednesday
85.
86.
c) Play E
87.
If all seven plays are held in the alphabetical order of their names starting
on Monday and ending on Sunday, the positions of how many will remain
unchanged as compared to the original schedule?
a) Three
b) More than three
c) One
d) None
e) Two
88.
19
b) Physics
e) None of these
c) Biology
90.
How many books are taken between the books of History and English?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Cannot find
e) None of these
91.
92.
93.
Directions (Q. 94-96) On the basis of the following information, answer the
questions given below.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
94.
c) Dhirendra
20
96.
e) None of these
c) R
Directions (Q. 97-101) these questions are based on the following information.
Study it carefully to answer the questions.
Seven officers L, M, N, P, Q, R and S work in three different shifts I, II and
III with atleast two persons working I n each shift. Each one of them has a different
weekly off from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order.
M works in second shift only with R whose weekly off is on Friday. Qs
weekly off is on the next day of Ls weekly off and both of them work I n different
shifts. P works in third shift and his weekly off is on Saturday. S has a weekly off
on Monday and he works in first shift. The one who has a weekly off on Sunday
works in first shift. L and P do not work in the same shift; Ls weekly off is on
Tuesday.
97.
c) Q
98.
99.
100.
101.
c) N
c) Thursday
21
Directions (Q. 103-107): In these questions letters are to be coded by the digits
and symbols as per the scheme and conditions given below. In each question a
group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digits/symbols
numbered a, b, c and d. The serial number of the combination which correctly
represents the letter group is your answer. If none of the combinations is
correct your answer is e) i.e. None of these.
Letters:
Digit/Symbol Code:
KETJHIFALUBMORP
37%$4*1986#@25
Conditions
(i)
If the first as well as the last letter is a vowel their codes are to be
swapped.
(ii)
If the first as well as the last letter is a consonant b oth are to be coded
by $.
(iii)
If the first letter is as vowel and the last letter is a consonant, t he vowel
is to be coded by ^ and the consonant is to be added by --.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
TARIFM
a) $95*1$
%95*1%
d) @95*1@
AJTKLU
a) 9$%386
^$%38
d) --$%38^
ORBETH
a) 5#7%^
25#7%4
d) 45#7%2
KEOMPA
--72@^
372@9
d) 972@3
IJLTPU
a) *$8%6
6$8%6
b) %95*1@
c)
b) $$%38$
c)
e) None of these
b) ^5 #7%--
c)
b) ^72@--
c)
b) *$8%*
c)
22
Who is an architect?
a) J
d) L
b) P
e) None of these
c) K
109.
110.
111.
112.
c) M
c) Mumbai
b) J
e) None of these
c) M
113.
114.
b) CVPIMVGU
e) None of these
c) ATNCKTES
115.
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first,
the se cond, the fourth and the tenth letters of the word M A J E S T I C A
L, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such
word can be made, give X as the an swer and if mor e than one such word
can be made, give Y is the answer
a) M
b) E
c) L
d) X
e) Y
116.
117.
118.
Directions (Q. 119-122) In each of the questions below are given three
statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
119.
Statements:
Conclusions:
120.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
121.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
122.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follow
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 123-128) In the following questions, the symbols $, %, @, and
* are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
P % Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P $ Q means P is not greater than Q.
P * Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
25
Statements:
Conclusions:
R @ K, K $ F, F * N
I. N R
II. F @ R
III. F R
a) Only I is true
b) Only either II or III is true
c) Only I and either II or III are true
d) Only III is true
e) None of the above
124.
Statements:
Conclusions:
J M, M * K, K % D
I. J D
II. D * M
III. K J
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only I and II are t rue
125.
Statements:
Conclusions:
H * T, T $ B, B R
I. R H
II. B H
III. T * R
a) Only I is true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only I and III are true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of the above
126.
Statements:
Conclusions:
R $ D, D @ N, N F
I. F * D
II. F * R
III. N % R
Statements:
Conclusions:
F $ B, B @ H, H % K
I. B % F
II. K @ F
26
Statements:
Conclusions:
M % D, D * K, K $ N
I. K M
II. N D
III. M N
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and II are true
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 129-133) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a
favourite subject from Physics, Chemistry, English, Biology, History, Geography
and Philosopy, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also has a favourite
sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball, Badminton, Table Tennis and
Basketball, not necessarily in the same order.
R likes Philospy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes
Football likes English. Ts favourite sport is not badminton or Table Tennis. V does
not like either History or Bilogy. The one whose favourite sport is Basketball does
not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourite sport is Volleball. S likes
Geography. Qs favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and his
favourite sport is not Basketball. Ps favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose
favourite sport is Badminton does not like Biology.
129.
130.
131.
b) R
e) Data inadequate
c) Q
c) Q
c) Chemistry
27
133.
c) Football
c) Chemistry
134.
135.
How many meaningful English words can be formed made with the letters
ESTR using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
136.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Cup
b) Jug
c) Tumbler
d) Plate
e) Pitcher
137.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Copper
b) Mercury
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
e) Zinc
138.
139.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 217
b) 143
c) 241
d) 157
e) 181
140.
141.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 12
b) 28
c) 52
d) 68
e) 96
28
If white means black, black means red, red means blue. blue
means yellow and yellow means grey then which of the following
represents the colour of clear sky?
a) Blue
b) Red
c) Yellow
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
143.
Directions (Q. 144-148) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T and M are six students of a school, one each studies in Class IVI. Each of them has a favourite colour from red, black, blue, yellow, pink and
green, not necessarily in the same order.
Q likes black and does not study in Class IV or V. The one who studies in
Class IV does not like green. P studies in Class II. M likes blue and does not study
in Class IV. The one who likes yellow studies in Class VI. S likes pink and studies
in Class I. R do not study in Class VI.
144.
145.
146.
b) III
e) None of these
c) IV
b) Yellow
e) None of these
c) Green
b) Yellow
e) None of these
c) Red
147.
148.
149.
c) II
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters
MASTE using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
29
150.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 78
b) 48
c) 72
d) 54
e) 42
Directions (Q. 151-155) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies
in different standard from standard IV to standard X not necessarily in the same
order. Each of them has favourite subject from English, Science, History,
Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII standard and does not like either Mathematics or
Geography. R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX. T studies in
VIII standard and likes Hindi. One who likes Science studies in X standard? S
studies in IV standard. W likes Sanskrit. P does not study In X standard. One who
likes Geography studies in V standard.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
c) X
c) English
c) Mathematics
c) IX
Directions (Q. 156-160) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
30
156.
157.
If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the
group. Which of the following will be definitely true?
a) C and J are of same height
b) G is shorter than D
c) G is shorter than H
d) G is taller than A
e) None of the above
158.
Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when 8 students
are arranged in descending order of height?
a) B
b) F
c) G
d) B or G
e) Cannot be determined
159.
160.
161.
A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A
or E but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with
A. E was n ot t h e last to enter. Which of the following I s definitely true?
a) C entered the class only after D
b) D entered the class only after E
c) B entered the class after A
d) A entered the class after D
e) None of the above
31
162.
163.
Each consonant in the word BISCUIT is replaced by the next letter in the
English alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the previous letter in the
English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical
order, which of the following will be the 3rd from the left end after the
rearrangement?
a) C
b) D
c) H
d) T
e) None of these
164.
165.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 215
b) 143
c) 247
d) 91
e) 65
166.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Gold
b) Nickel
c) Platinum
d) Tungsten
e) Diamond
167.
168.
How many meaningful English words can b e made with the letter RBAE
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
169.
171.
172.
If the positions of 2nd and 3rd digits within each number are interchanged,
which of the following will be the sum of the first and 2nd digits of the 3rd
highest number?
a) 16
b) 10
c) 9
d) 15
e) None of these
173.
Which of the following are the sum of the first and the third digits of the
second lowest number?
a) 16
b) 10
c) 18
d) 5
e) None of these
174.
If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are
interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the
highest and the second highest number?
a) 203
b) 133
c) 385
d) 182
e) 144
175.
If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are
interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and
third digits of the lowest number?
a) 8
b) 11
c) 15
d) 12
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 176-178) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
There are six employees A, B, C, D, E and F in a company. A is more
experienced than two employees. D has more experience than employee C. D has
less experience than employee F. E has less experience than D. E does not have the
least experience. F is not the most experienced employee. The employee who is 2nd
most experienced has an experience of 13 years. The employee who is second least
experienced has an experience of five years.
33
177.
178.
Directions (Q. 179-183) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G bought different watches viz.,
Rado, Omni, Fas Track, Seiko, Casio, Tissot and Titan on different days of the
same week from Monday to Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.
The watch of Omni Company was bought on Friday. F bought Titan watch
on Tuesday. Onle one watch was bought between the watches Omni and Rado. B
bought Tissot watch immediately after the person who bought Casio watch. Seiko
watch was not bought after the Tissot watch. G bought watch immediately after B
but before C and D. A does not buy the watch of Casio company. D does not buy
the watch of Rado Company.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
Present ages of father and son are in the ratio of 5:1 respectively. Seven
years later this ratio becomes 3:1. What is the sons present age in years?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
e) None of these
185.
From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed
using the letters of the given word: TRADITIONAL
a) NATION
b) RADIO
c) ANIMAL
d) DIRTY
e) None of these
186.
A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many sheep are left?
a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 10
e) None of these
187.
188.
Town A and Town B were 600 km. apart. Joshua left town A for town B
and travelled at an average speed of 65 km/h. At the same time, Menon left
town B for town A. The two of them met 5 hours later. Find Menons
average speed.
a) 55 km/h
b) 60 km/h
c) 65 km/h
d) 120 km/h
e) None of these
189.
190.
The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a way that the
consonants a rereplaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and
the vowels are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of
the following will be the 3rd letter from the left end of the new set of letters?
a) B
b) M
c) O
d) L
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 191-195) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight persons working in three different
departments viz. Operations, Sales and Finance of an organisation with at least two
35
192.
193.
c) III
c) I
c) III
194.
195.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option D
36
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option C
37
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option A
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option C
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option A
38
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option A
Optoin D
120.
Option C
39
121.
122.
Option D
Option E
40
123.
Option C
R= K, K F, F < N
R=KF<N
N > R, F > R, F = R
So, either II or III and I are true.
124.
Option A
J > M, M < K, K D
J> M < K D
The relations cannot made between J and D, D and M and K and J. So none
is true.
125.
Option E
H < T, T B, B > R
H < T B > R or B > H
Only II is true.
126.
Option B
R D, D = N, N > F
RD=N>F
F < D and N R
Only I and III are true.
127.
Option A
F B, B = H, H K
FB =H K
41
Option B
M D, D < K, K N
MD<KN
Only II is true.
Student
Sports
P
Cricket
Subject
Bilogy
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option B
134.
Option D
Q
Badmint
on
History
R
Hocke
y
Philos
ophy
S
Basket
ball
Geogra
phy
T
Footbal
l
English
V
Table
Tennis
Physic
s
W
Volleyba
ll
Chemistr
y
Option B
Meaningful word is REST.
136.
Option D
Plate is normally used for solid matters.
137.
Option B
Except mercury all are available in solid form at general or normal
temperature.
138.
Option A
As, F + 6 L
I+ 6 O
139.
Similarly P + 6 V
S + 6 Y
Option A
42
Option C
As gram is related to mass in the same way ` centimetre is related to
length.
141.
Option B
28 is divisible by 7.
142.
Option C
Colour of clear sky is blue and according to question, blue means yellow so
the colour of clear sky will be yellow.
143.
Option A
M
O
5
1
D
3
E
#
D
3
E
#
A
%
R
8
L
2
O
1
A
%
D
3
Student
P
Q
R
S
T
M
Class
II
III
IV
I
VI
V
L
2
Favaourite colour
Green
Black
Red
Pink
Yellow
Blue
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option E
Option D
149.
Option E
Meaningful words = MATES, STEAM, TAMES and TEAMS
150.
Option A
Except 78, if subtract 1 all other give a prime number.
Student
P
Class
V
Favourite Subject
Geography
43
VII
VI
IV
VIII
X
IX
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
History
English
Mathematics
Hindi
Science
Sanskrit
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option D
(i)
There are 8 students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
(ii)
A >D> G
(iii)
C > E> H
(iv)
D > B > F
(v)
G> C
(vi)
F> G
From all statements.
A>D>B>F>G>C>E>H
156.
Option E
All are true.
157.
Option B
A>D > B > F>G >C >E >H
158.
Option A
A>D>B>F>G>C>E>H
159.
Option B
G, C, E and H is smaller than F.
160.
Option E
All statements are necessary.
161.
162.
Option D
Option D
163.
Option C
B
I
S
C
According to question,
C
H
T
D
U
44
Option B
D
O
5
1
N
3
E
9
S
8
E
9
A
4
L
2
So,
L
2
O
1
A
4
D
5
165.
Option A
Option E
Option E
Option C
Meaningful words are BEAR, BARE
169.
Option C
HGFEDCBA, GFEDCBA, GFEDCB, FEDCB
Next letter series = F
170.
Option B
According to Mohan, birthday may be 17, 18 or 19th January. According to
Mohans sister, birthday may be at 19, 20, 21 or 22th Jan. So common day
= 19 Jan.
171.
Option A
172.
20 R 5 W 12 M 3 P 4 = ?
? = 20 5 + 12 3 4
? = 4 + 12 12 = 4
Option A
832 823
719 791
654 645
967 976
45
Option B
Second smallest number is 654. So, the sum of the first and the third digit is
6 + 4 = 10
174.
Option E
After interchanging first and second digit of number.
832 382
719 179
654 564
967 697
481 841
Highest number = 841
Second highest number = 697
Difference between them = 841 697 = 144
175.
Option D
Interchanging the first and third digit of number
832 238
719 917
654 456
967 769
481 184
Smallest number = 184
So, the sum of second and third digit = 8 + 4 = 12
176.
Option D
F is not the most experienced. So, B is the most experienced.
Now, B > F > D > A > E > C
177.
Option A
F has less experience than only B.
178.
Option C
E is more experienced than only C.
Day
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Person
A
F
E
B
G
Watch
Seiko
Titan
Casio
Tissot
Omni
46
D
C
Fast Track
Rado
179.
Option D
A bought Seiko watch on Monday.
180.
Option A
D bought Fast Track watch on Saturday.
181.
Option B
E bought Casio watch on Wednesday.
182.
Option C
G bought Omni watch on Friday.
183.
Option E
The combination Sunday-C-Rado is correct.
184.
Option B
Suppose the present age of son be x years
Therefore, the present age o f father would b e 5x years
According to question,
5x + 7 / x + 7 = 3/1
5x + 7 = 3x + 21
5x 3x = 21 7
2x = 14
X=7
185.
Option B
There is only one N in the given word. Therefore, the word NATION
cannot be formed. There is no M letter in the given word. Therefore, the
word ANIMAL cannot be formed. There is no Y letter in the given word.
Therefore, the word DIRTY cannot be formed.
186.
Option A
There are 17 sheep. All but nine died. It means 9 sheep are left.
187.
Option D
1+3=4
4 2 = 2
2+1=3
3 1 = 2
2+3=5
188.
Option A
47
Option B
Option B
Person
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
191.
Department
Finance
Sales
Finance
Sales
Finance
Operations
Sales
Operations
Scale
III
III
III
I
III
II
I
II
Option D
The combination Finance-E-III is correct.
192.
Option C
B, D and G work in Sales department.
193.
Option B
H belongs to scale II
194.
Option C
G belongs to Scale I
195.
Option C
C belongs to scale III
48
49
Chapter-2
Input-Output
Directions (Q. 1-5) A word can and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I: 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II: 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III: 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV: 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V: 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI: 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal
1.
c) VIII
c) VIII
5.
Directions (Q. 6-11) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and
numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below
Input
line 59 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer
Step I
72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II
72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III
72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV
72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
Step V
72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI
72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
Step VI is the last step and the output in Step Vi is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
6. Step IV of an input is 62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49. What will be the
input definitely?
a) sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
b) sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
c) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
7. Which of the following will be the t hird step for input jockey firm 36 43
growth chart 22 45?
a) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
b) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
c) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
d) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
e) None of these
8. Step II of an input is 53 window 42 50 door lock key 36. How many more
steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
e) None of these
51
Which of the following step represents the maximum gap between Ticket
and 35?
a) Step 2
b) Step 3
c) Step 4
d) Step 5
e) None of these
14.
15.
16.
Directions (Q. 17-23) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
A set of words and numbers is passed through on arrangement machine and
following rearrangement is obtained.
Input
talk 48 11 rude 97 84 35 walk jug home 25 bag 77 alone
Step I
97 talk 48 11 rude 84 35 walk jug home 25 77 alone bag
Step II
97 84 talk 48 11 rude 35 walk jug 25 77 alone bag home
Step III
97 84 77 talk 48 11 rude 35 walk 25 alone bag home jug
Step IV
97 84 77 48 talk 11 35 walk 25 alone bag home jug rude
Step V
97 84 77 48 35 11 nwalk 25 alone bag home jug rude talk
Step VI
97 84 77 48 35 25 11 alone bag home jug rude talk walk
Step VI is the last step of rearrangement.
Now, a set of words and letters is given below. As per the rules followed in above
steps, answer the questions based on it.
Input: 81 who sit 19 32 not but ink flow 51 27 van 68 92
17.
c) VII
53
19.
20.
Which is third element to the right from the sixth element from the right
end in Step II?
a) 32
b) van
c) 27
d) floe
e) 25
21.
How many elements are there between who and van in Step IV?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 0
e) 1
22.
23.
Directions (Q. 24-28) Study the given information and answer the following
questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of
words and numbrs, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input
Step I
Step II
Step III
Step IV
Step V
Step VI
Step VII
25.
Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?
a) Beautiful
b) Life
c) 61
d) Nice
e) 17
26.
27.
What is the position of nice from the left end in the final step?
a) 5th
b) 6th
c) 7th
th
th
d) 8
e) 9
28.
Directions (Q. 29-33) Study the given information and answer the following
questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of
words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Input: 45 navel change 33 48 down town frown 62 88 98 gesture orange 21
Step I: 45 navel change 33 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture orange town 21
Step II: 45 navel change 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture town 21 orange 33
Step III: change 48 down frown 62 88 98 gesture t own 21 orange 33 navel 45
Step IV: change down frown 62 88 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48
Step V: change down 88 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown 62
Step VI: change 98 town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown 62 down 88
Step VII: town 21 orange 33 navel 45 gesture 48 frown 62 down 88 change 98
55
30.
Which of the following is the fourth element from the left end of Step VI?
a) cute
b) melody
c) 71
d) oliver
e) None of these
31.
What is the position of melody from the left end in the final step?
a) Sixth
b) Seventh
c) First
d) Fifth
e) Ninth
32.
33.
Directions (Q. 34-38) Study the following information to answer the given
questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: yogurt jovial 48 cinema total 20 correct sunny thin 78
Step I: 20 total yogurt jovial 48 cinema correct sunny thin 78
Step II: 20 total 48 jovial yogurt cinema correct sunny thin 78
Step III: 20 total 48 jovial 78 thin yogurt cinema correct sunny
Step IV: 20 total 48 jovial 78 thin yogurt sunny cinema correct
Step V: 20 total 48 jovial 78 thin yogurt sunny correct cinema
56
35.
36.
37.
38.
Directions (Q. 39-43) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and
numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below:
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
Step VI:
Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI I is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
39.
40.
41.
42.
What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is 85 journey train
36 54 daily 28 mansion?
a) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
b) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
c) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
d) There is no such step
e) None of these
43.
Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is 63 sour
18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise?
a) IV
b) V
c) VIII
d) VII
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 44-49) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
58
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
45.
46.
47.
Input:
save 21 43 78 them early 36 for
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
a) VI
b) VII
c) VIII
d) V
e) None of these
48.
49.
And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the
above steps, find out in each of the following question the appropriate step for the
given input.
50.
51.
Input:
power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
a) IV
b) V
c) VI
d) VII
e) None of these
52.
53.
Directions (Q. 55-60) A word and number aran gement machine when given an
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
Step VI:
Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39. How many more
steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
e) None of these
56.
Input:
any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
a) VI
b) VII
d) VIII
e) None of these
57.
58.
Input:
play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Which of the following will be step IV?
a) play 81 over 49 37 match now
b) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
c) play 81over 49 now 37 match 12
d) There will be no such step
c) V
61
60.
Directions (Q. 61-66) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
Input:
organize 19 12 stable room 35 72 house
How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Four
e) None of the above
62.
Input:
bake never store 51 26 33 age 49
Which of the following will be step V?
a) 51 age 49 bake 33 never 26 store
b) 51 age 49 bake never store 26 33
c) 51 age bake never store 26 33 49
d) 51 bake never store 26 33 age 49
e) There will be no such step
63.
b) VII
e) None of these
c) VIII
64.
65.
66.
Directions (Q. 67-71) Given an input line the machine rearranges them step by
step as per the illustration given below.
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
Step VI:
Step VII:
show must 73 85 go 69 on 32
32 show must 73 85 go 69 on
32 go show must 73 85 69 on
32 go 69 show must 73 85 on
32 go 69 must show 73 85 on
32 go 69 must 73 show 85 on
32 go 69 must 73 on show 85
32 go 69 must 73 on 85 show
Step VII is the last step and the arrangement in Step VII is the final arrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
67.
If the third step of an input is 14 but 26 not just 63 fundamental 47, which
of the following is definitely the input?
a) 26 14 but not just 63 fundamental 47
b) 63 26 but 14 not just 63 fundamental 47
c) fundamental 26 but not just 63 47
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of the above
63
First step of an input is 34 fire dress well 63 43 prime 52. Which step is
the last but one?
a) IV
b) III
c) VI
d) VII
e) V
69.
70.
71.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option D
64
Option C
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option A
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option C
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
Step VI:
45.
Option E
Step III:
21 victory 30 joint 64 47 all gone
Step IV:
21 victory 30 joint 47 64 all gone
Step V:
21 victory 30 joint 47 gone 64 all
So, step V is the last step. Hence, two steps will be required.
46.
Option C
Input:
Step I:
Option E
Input:
save 21 43 78 them early 36 for
Step I:
21 save 43 78 them early 36 for
Step II:
21 them save 43 78 early 36 for
Step III:
21 them 36 save 43 78 early for
Step IV:
21 them 36 save 43 for 78 early
Step IV is the last step and from last step first one is step IV.
48.
Option B
Input:
desire 59 63 all few 38 46 zone
Step I:
38 desire 59 63 all few 46 zone
Step II:
38 zone desire 59 63 all few 46
Step III:
38 zone 46 desire 59 63 all few
Step IV:
38 zone 46 few d esire 59 63 all
Step V:
38 zone 46 few 59 desire 63 all
So, the last step is step V.
49.
Option E
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
50.
Option D
Input:
how was your stay 56 25 36 64
Step I:
64 how was your stay 56 25 36
Step II:
64 how 56 was your stay 25 36
Step III:
64 how 56 stay was your 25 36
Step IV:
64 how 56 stay 36 was your 25
Step V:
64 how 56 stay 36 was 25 your
So, sixth step is not possible because fifth step will be last step.
51.
Option D
66
Input:
power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34
Step I:
75 power fail now 52 24 gate 34
Step II:
75 fail power now 52 24 gate 34
Step III:
75 fail 52 power now 24 gate 34
Step IV:
75 fail 52 gate power now 24 34
Step V:
75 fail 52 gate 34 power now 24
Step VI:
75 fail 52 gate 34 now power 24
Step VII:
75 fail 52 gate 34 now 24 power
So, the first step from the last is step (VII).
52.
Option D
Input cannot be determined.
53.
Option A
Step II:
75 down 16 24 farm eager 62 sky
Step III:
75 down 62 16 24 farm eager sky
Step IV:
75 down 62 eager 16 24 farm sky
Step V:
75 down 62 eager 24 16 farm sky
Step VI:
75 down 62 eager 24 farm 16 sky
Four more steps are required to complete the rearrangement.
54.
Option C
Input:
14 35 when they came 61 48 home
Step I:
61 14 35 when they came 48 home
Step II:
61 came 14 35 when they 48 home
Step III:
61 came 48 14 35 when they h ome
Step IV:
61 came 48 home 14 35 when they
Step V:
61 came 48 home 35 14 when they
Step VI:
61 came 48 home 35 they 14 when
To complete the rearrangement 6 steps are required.
55.
Option B
Step III:
year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
Step IV:
year 92 ultra 39 15 23 strive house
Step V:
year 92 ultra 39 strive 15 23 house
Step VI:
year 92 ultra 39 strive 23 15 house
Step VII:
year 92 ultra 39 strive 23 house 15
So, four more steps are required.
56.
Option C
67
Option D
Step II: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42
Input cannot be determined.
58.
Option D
Input:
play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Step I:
play 81 over 49 37 12 match now
Step II:
play 81 over 49 now 37 12 match
Step III:
play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
th
4 step cannot be determined.
59.
Option B
Step II:
war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
Step III:
war 58 star box cart 33 49 24
Step IV:
war 58 star 49 box cart 33 24
Step V:
war 58 star 49 cart box 33 24
Step VI:
war 58 star 49 cart 33 box 24
So, last step is step VI.
60.
Option D
Input:
shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal
Step I:
water shower fall 34 5167 98 goal
Step II:
water 98 shower fall 34 51 67 goal
Step III:
water 98 shower 67 fall 34 51 goal
Step IV:
water 98 shower 67 goal fall 34 51
Step V:
water 98 shower 67 goal 51 fall 34
Five steps required to complete the rearrangement.
61.
Option D
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Option A
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
Step V:
63.
Option E
Input:
Step I:
Step II:
Step III:
Step IV:
64.
Option D
Input cannot be determined by given step.
65.
Option D
Step III:
84 for 56 29 17 won loss game
Step IV:
84 for 56 game 29 17 won loss
Step V:
84 for 56 game 29 loss 17 won
So, the last step is step V.
66.
Option A
Step III:
86 box 63 18 gear card 51 new
Step IV:
86 box 63 card 18 gear 51 new
Step V:
86 box 63 card 51 18 gear new
Step VI:
86 box 63 card 51 gear 18 new
So, to complete the arrangement three steps are required.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option C
69
Chapter - 3
Data Sufficiency
Directions (Q. 1-3) Each of the questions below consists of a question and three
statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are suficient to answer the question.
Give Answer:
1.
How many daughters does W have?
I.
B and D are sisters of M.
II.
Ms father T is husband of W
III.
Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.
a) Only I and III
b) All I, II and III
c) Only II and III
d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
e) Only I and II
2.
3.
70
5.
6.
7. Share of services sector in Indias GDP has crossed the half way mark in early
2000.
8. In early minutes, the share of services sector in GDP for low per capita income
group of countries is about 40%
71
Directions (Q. 9-13) below are given a passage followed by several possible
inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have
to examine each in ference separately in the context of the passage and decide
upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Give answer:
a)
If the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the
statements of facts given.
b)
If the inference is probably true thuogh not definitely true in the light of
the facts given.
c)
If the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you can not say whether
the inference is likely to be true or false.
d)
If the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light
of the facts given.
e)
If the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the
facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shws groundwater levels in northern India
depleting by as much as a foot per year, over the past decade, is a matter of concern.
The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and
veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor
monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India, calls series of
glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, theres far too much reliance on
groundwater. For another, out water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely
inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs
like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like
paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.
9. India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater adequately in
northern part.
10.
11.
Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
12. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
13. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus
preserve balance.
In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to
distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong
arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. Weak
72
If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question.
If the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
14.
15.
On which day of a week Lalita did her reservation for the journey?
I.
The husband of Lalita correctly remembers that she has done
reservation after Monday but before Sunday. However, it is almost
certain that she did not make her reservation on Wednesday.
II.
The daughter of Lalita correctly remembers that h er mother has
done her reservation after Tuesday but before Saturday. Since her
mother was busy on Thursday so she did not make her reservation
on Thursday.
16.
18.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
Option C
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option A
It is true as given in second line of the passage In 1990, Indias share of
services at 40% of GDP ____
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option E
From Statement I
Lalita made her reservation on either Tuesday, Thursday, Friday or
Saturday.
From Statement II
Lalita made her reservation on Wednesday or Friday.
From both the statements Lalita made her reservation on Friday.
Option B
Option B
From statement I
A is the sister of D. There is no information about N.
From statement II
D is the mother of R.
R is the son of N.
So, N is husband of D.
Option D
From statement I
Ronak = Sanjay
From statement II
74
75
Chapter - 4
Sitting Arrangements
Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information to answer the given
questions.
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
1.
2.
b) G
e) None of these
c) F
b) D
e) None of these
c) B
3.
4.
5.
b) E
e) None of these
c) F
Who among the following pairs may not be seated adjacent to each other?
a) AH
b) DC
c) EB
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-11) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table
facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different
department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment
Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G. G faces the centre. Only one person sits
between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of
C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre.
D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking
76
7.
What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales
Department?
a) Immediate right
b) Third to the left
c) Second to the right
d) Second to the left
e) Fourth to the right
8.
9.
Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who
works for HR Department?
a) B
b) The person who works for Marketing Department
c) The person who works for Operations Department
d) D
e) G
10.
Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for
Marketing and Investment Banking departments when counted for the left
hand side of the person working for Marketing Department?
a) F and G
b) E and C
c) C and B
d) F and D
e) B and D
11.
How many people sit between the person who workds for Operations
Department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-16) Read the following information carefully to answer the
given questions.
Eight persons from different banks viz., Bank of India, Punjab National
Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Dena Bank,
77
13.
14.
15.
Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Baroda?
a) The person from Bank of India
b) F
c) A
78
17.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given
seating arrangement and thus form a group, which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
a) Canara Bank
b) C
c) Union Bank of India
d) Oriental Bank of Commerce
e) Bank of Maharashtra
18.
19.
Directions (Q. 20-26) Study the following information carefully to answer the
questions that follows.
Eight persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line
from East to West. Some are facing North direction and some are facing South
direction.
H sits to the third left of C and faces south. F is sitting at one of the extreme
ends and is facing north. B and G are facing in same direction and person sitting
between them is facing in opposite direction. A is sitting third from left end and is
facing South direction. A is sitting adjacent to E and both are facing in opposite
direction. D is sitting to the right of B and both are facing in same direction. C is
facing in North direction. A and D are not neighbours. Neighbors of H are facing in
same direction which is opposite to the direction of H is facing. E sits to the right of
A.
79
20.
c) G
21.
Which of the following pairs has the person facing the same direction?
a) E, A
b) G, H
c) A, G
d) H, D
e) B, D
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
c) H
Directions (Q. 27-31) Study the following information and answer the question
given below.
Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre. Each of them is of a different professio n Chartered Accountant,
Colomnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist
but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. The
Scientist is an immediate neighbour of K. There are only three people between the
Scientist and E. Only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Coloumnist
is to t he immediate r ight of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the
Scientist. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is an
Engineer. The Financjial Analyst is to the immediate left of F. The Lawyer is
second to the right of the Coloumnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbour of
the Engineer. G is second to the right of the Chartered Accountant.
80
27.
28.
c) M
29.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given
arrangement and hence from a group. Which of the following does not
belong to that group?
a) Chartered Accountant
b) M Doctor
c) J Engineer
d) Financial Analyst L
e) Lawyer - K
30.
31.
Directions (Q. 32-36) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:D, E, F, H and I are seated in a circle facing the centre. A, B and C are also
seated in the same circle but two of them are not facing the centre. F is second to the
left of C. E is third to the right of A. B is third to left of D, who is immediate
neighbor of H and I. C is second to the right of D and third to the right of B.
32.
33.
35.
36.
Directions (Q. 37-41) Study the following information and answer the questions
that follow:
Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in a school sports competition
participated in a game in which they were sitting around a circulating. The seats of
the ring are not directed towards the centre. All the eight students are in four groups
I, II, IIII and IV, i.e two students in each group, but not necessarily in the same
order. These students are from different sport houses, viz. Maharishi Vyas,
Aryabhatt, Vashistha, Shankaracharya, Balmiki, Dhruv and Dayanand.
No two students of the same group are sitting adjacent to each other except
those of group III. Students from group IV are sitting opposite each other.
D is neither in Dayanand nor in Aryabhatt house.
The student from Dhruv house is sitting on the immediate right of the
students from Dayanand house.
C, who is in Vashistha house, is in group I. She is sitting on the immediate
right of F, who is in group III.
F is not in Aryabhatt house and she has also participated in other sports.
B from Vyas house is neither in group IV nor in group I or II.
82
37.
38.
c) H
H is in which house?
a) Dayanand
b) Shankaracharya
d) Cant say
e) None of these
c) Maharishi
39.
40.
The student from which house is sitting opposite the Vashistha house
participant?
a) Dayanand
b) Shankracharya
c) Maharishi
d) Cant say
e) None of these
41.
Directions (Q. 42-46) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questioins that follow.
Twelve friends are sitting in two squares. One square is inside another. P,
Q, R, S, T and V are in the outer square facing inward. A, B, C, D, E and F are
sitting in the inner square facing outward. They all are s itting in such a way that in
each square four persons are sitting in the middle of the sides and two persons are
sitting on diagonally opposite corners. Each friend in the inner square is facing
another friend of the outer square. There are exactly two persons sitting between P
and T. E si ts second to the left of A. R is on the immediate left of the one who is f
aci ng A. Neither E nor A faces either T or P. S is facing F and Q is not opposite R
in the outer square. T is not sitting adjacent to S. B is not facing P. Between B and
D there are as many persons as between R and V.
42.
44.
b) Q
e) None of these
c) T
c) A
c) P
45.
Four of the five are alike in a certain manner. Select the one which is not
similar to the other four.
a) R, E
b) A, S
c) D, T
d) F, Q
e) C, E
46.
c) F
Directions (Q. 47-51) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are eight feiends sitting around a circle facing the
centre, but not necessarily in the same order.
I is second to the left of F, who is next to the right of L. J is not the
neighbour of F or K, and is on the immediate left of H.
47.
48.
49.
50.
c) Two
Directions (Q. 52-56) Study the given information carefully and answer the
given questiions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. Three people are sitting
between A and D. B is sitting second to the right of A. C is to the immediate right of
F. D is not an immediate neighbour of either F or E. H is not an immediate
neighbour of B.
52.
53.
Four of the following are based on ab ove arrangement and so form a group.
Which one does not belong to the group?
a) GE
b) DC
c) AF
d) AB
e) CE
54.
Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate
right of H?
a) A
b) B
c) E
d) C
e) G
55.
Which of the following is true regarding the given arrangement?
a) E is second to the left of C
b) B is an immediate neighbour of G
c) H is an immediate neighbour of A
d) D is not an immediate neighbour of H
e) None of these
56.
How many people are sitting between H and A when counted from the right
side of H?
a) Three
b) None
c) More than three
d) One
e) Two
85
57.
58.
Which of the following pairs has its second member sitting to the
immediate left of first member?
a) VT
b) PQ
c) SU
d) UV
e) None of these
59.
60.
61.
Which of the following pairs has members sitting adjacent to each other?
a) PS
b) QU
c) UT
d) TR
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 62-66) Study the following information and answer the questions
which follow.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
62.
63.
Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate
left of the second person?
a) LO
b) MK
c) QN
d) LN
e) None of these
64.
c) K
c) K
65.
66.
Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other
two?
a) NQL
b) PMK
c) MOP
d) POK
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 67-72) Study the follow ing information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. B
is second to the right of H and third to the left of A. D is not an immediate
neighbuor of either B or H and is second to the right of F. C is fourth to the right of
G.
67.
68.
In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate
left of the first person?
a) BC
b) HE
c) FA
d) GD
e) None of these
69.
b) A
e) None of these
c) F
87
70.
71.
72.
c) H
c) D
b) F
e) None of these
In a row of 45 boys facing South, T is 8th to the right of H, who is 10th from
the right end. H is 14th to the left of R. What is Rs position from the left
end?
a) 21st
b) 23rd
c) 24th
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 73-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
P, M, D, A, F, H, R and B are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R
is 4th to the right of A, who is 3rd to the right of P. M is second t o the l eft of H, who
is 2nd to the left of P. D is 3rd to the right of B.
73.
c) B
74.
75.
76.
c) B
c) D
77.
78.
In a row of 40 children, Q is 14th from the left end and there are 16 children
between Q and M. What is Ms position from the right end of the row?
a) 11th
b) 10th
c) 30th
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
88
Directions (Q. 79-83) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre.
M is to the immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B
and is 4th to the right of W. Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
79.
c) K
80.
81.
c) K
c) K
c) W
82.
83.
Directions (Q. 84-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A, M, D, P, R, T, B and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M
is 3rd to the left of Awho is 2nd to the left of T. D is 2nd to the right of H who is 2nd to
the right of T. R is 2nd to the right of B who is not an immediate neighbour of T.
84.
Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to
the left of B respectively?
a) MD
b) DH
c) AM
d) AR
e) DM
85.
86.
c) H
c) T
89
88.
e) Data inadequate
c) M
In which of the following combinations 3rd person is 2nd to the left of 2nd
person?
a) BAR
b) DBM
c) TPH
d) PMH
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 89-93) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
10 people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in
such a way that there is an eaual distance between adjacent people. In row-1, Q, R,
S, T and U are seated and all of them are facing north. In Row-2, L, M, N, O and P
are seated and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given sitting
arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
S is sitting 2nd to the left of Q. Q is not sitting at any of the ends of the line.
There are two persons between P and L. The person who faces T is to the
immediately left of M. M is sitting at the extreme right end. Q is an immediate
neighbour of U. The person who faces U is an immediate neighbour of both P and
N.
89.
90.
91.
Who among the following is sitting at the extreme right end of the Row-1?
a) Q
b) U
c) S
d) R
e) Cannot be detrmined
92.
Who among the following is not seated at any extreme end of Row-1 and
Row-2?
a) P
b) S
c) M
d) R
e) O
Directions (Q. 94-98) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L - are sitting around a circle at
equidistance but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing towards
the centre while some others are facing outside the centre. L is sitting 3rd to the left
of K. Both K and L are facing towards the outside. H is not an immediate neighbour
of K or L. J faces the just opposite direction of H. (It implies that if H is facing
towards the centre, J would face outside the centre). J is sitting 2nd to the left of H.
Both the immediate neighbours of G face just opposite direction of G. E is an
immediate neighbour of K. Both the immediate neighbour of H faces just opposite
direction of H. E faces towards the centre and he is an immediate n eighbour of both
K and I. I face towards the centre.
94.
Who amongst the following are not facing towards the centre?
a) E, F and I
b) F, G and J
c) H, K and L
d) G, I and J
e) None of these
95.
96.
97.
98.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the given sitting
arrangement?
a) L is sitting exactly between G and I
b) H is sitting 3rd to the right of K
c) F and I are sitting just opposite to each other
91
100.
101.
Four of the following are alike I n a certain way based on their positions in
the sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
a) AE
b) HF
c) BD
d) GE
e) CH
102.
c) G
c) D
103.
Directions (Q. 104-108) Study the following carefully and answer the questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. E
and G always sit next to each other. D sits third to the right of C. F sits to the left of
H. C never sits next to A while D never sits next to G. H is not the neighbour of D
and C.
104.
105.
c) B
Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in
the sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
92
b) BA
e) AC
c) FE
106.
107.
c) A
c) C
108.
110.
c) Mukta
c) Priya
111.
Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the
immediate left of second person?
a) Rani-Meeta
b) Ashwini-Geeta
c) Sudha-Priya
d) Geeta-Sudha
e) None of these
112.
Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other
two?
a) Meeta-Ashwini-Geeta
b) Sudha-Rani-Geeta
c) Mukta-Priya-Rani
d) Mukta-Priya-Sudha
e) None of these
113.
b) ii) only
e) Both i) and iii)
115.
c) E
c) D
116.
Which of the following pairs of persons has first person sitting to the right
of the second person?
a) CB
b) AE
c) FG
d) HA
e) DB
117.
118.
c) F
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option B
94
Option A
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option D
95
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option C
Option E
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option C
L is sitting 2nd to the right of O.
90.
Option A
T sits exactly between Q and S.
91.
Option D
96
Option B
R is at the extreme right end.
R is to the immediate right of U.
R is sitting third to the right of T.
R is at one of the ends.
There are three persons T, Q and U between R and S
93.
Option E
O is second from the left in Row-2.
94.
Option C
H, K and L are facing outside.
95.
Option D
E is facing t owards the centre. G is 2nd to the right or 5th to the left of E.
97
96.
Option A
J is sitting exactly between F and K.
97.
Option B
There are four persons G, L, I and E between H and K if we move
clockwise from H.
98.
Option E
All the statements are true.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option D
98
Chapter - 5
Syllogisms
Directions (Q. 1-5) In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance withcommonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either conclusion I or II follows
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
e) If both conclusions I and II follow
1.
2.
3.
4.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Directions (Q. 6-11) In each question below are four statements followed by
four conc lusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the four given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and than decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then
decide which of the answers a, b, c, d and e is correct answer.
6.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
a) None follows
b) Only I and II follow
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only IV follows
Directions (Q. 12-16) In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
12.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follow
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
13.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
102
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only I and II follow
15.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) None of these
16.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only eithr I or II follows
e) Only either I or II and III follow
103
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
18.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
19.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only either I or III follows
d) Only II follows
e) None of the above
20.
Statements:
a) None follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only I follows
e) Only I and II follow
21.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) All I, II and III follow
23.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only either I or III follows
d) Only II follows
e) None of the above
25.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) None of these
26.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
Directions (Q. 29-34) In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by four conclusions number I, II, III and IV. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be of variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
29.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only I and II follows
d) Only III and IV follow
e) Only I and III follow
31.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only II and III follow
d) Only II and IV follow
e) All follow
32.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only I and III follow
d) Only II and III follow
e) All follow
34.
Statements:
Conclusions:
a) None follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only I and IV follow
d) Only II and III follow
e) All follow
Answers:
1.
Option A
109
Option E
Option C
110
Option D
Option B
111
Option C
Option B
112
Option D
All follows
9.
Option C
113
Option A
Option B
114
Option D
Option B
115
Only I follows.
14.
Option A
None follows
15.
Option E
116
Option E
Option C
117
Option D
Option C
118
Option A
Option D
119
Option D
Option B
Only I follows.
24.
Option C
Option B
121
Only II follows
26.
Option D
Option E
122
Option A
None follows
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option A
123
Chapter - 6
Blood Relations
1.
2.
3.
4.
Directions (Q. 5-6) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
S has two daughters R and A. G is married to R. G is father of N. L is son
of A.
5.
6.
How L is related to S?
a) Nephew
b) Brother
d) Great Grandson
e) None of these
c) Grandson
Directions (Q. 8-10) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
A B means A is wife of B
A + B means A is brother of B
A B means A is daughter of B
A B means A is son of B
8. How is Q related to P if P R T Q?
a) Granddaughter
b) Mother-in-law/Father-in-law
c) Grandmother
d) Grandmother/Grandfather
e) None of the above
9. How is R related to Q, if P Q + R T?
a) Brother/Sister
b) Niece
d) Nephew/Niece
e) None of these
c) Sister
What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that J is the
brother of T in the expression?
JP%H?T%L
a) x
b)
c) $
d) Either or x
e) Either + or
12.
17.
18.
How is Q related to L?
a) Mother
d) Sister
b) Son
e) None of these
c) Daughter
c) N
How is M related to I?
a) Son
d) Cannot be determined
c) Daughter
b) Son-in-law
e) None of these
126
20.
c) Three
How is K related to M?
a) Sister
d) Mother-in-law
c) Sister-in-law
b) Daughter
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-23) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow.
If A B means A is father of B.
If A + B means A is wife of B.
If A B means A is daughter of B.
If A B means A is son of B.
21.
22.
What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the
nephew of T in the expression Q ? R S T?
a) +
b)
c)
d)
e) Either or
23.
Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in
the equation:
A B C + D E?
a) C is mother of A
b) E is wife of B
c) D is brother of A
d) E is mother-in-law of C
e) None is true
Directions (Q. 24-26) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions below.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
24.
P Q means P is brother of Q.
P Q means P is mother of Q.
P + Q means P is father of Q.
P Q means P is sister of Q.
Which of the following means M is niece of N ?
a) M R N
b) N J + M D
d) N J M
e) None of these
c) N J + M
127
25.
26.
c) B T F
Directions (Q. 27-32) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
27.
28.
A B means A is father of B
A + B means A is daughter of B
A B means A is mother of B
A B means A is brother of B
If P R Q T how is P related to T?
a) Grandmother
b) Mother-in-law
d) Grandfather
e) None of these
c) Sister
If P Q + R T how is T related to Q?
a) Aunt
b) Sister
d) Grandson
e) None of these
c) Brother
29.
30.
If R P J Q how is J related to R?
a) Son/daughter
b) Nephew
d) Grandson
e) None of these
31.
32.
If P + Q R T, how is T related to P?
a) Aunt
b) Aunt/Uncle
d) Grandmother
e) None of these
c) Niece
c) Father
If P T Q + R how is R related to P?
a) Daughter
b) Husband
d) Son-in-law/Daughter-in-law e) None of the above
c) Son-in-law
Answers:
128
1.
2.
3.
Option B
Option A
Option A
Woman = daughter of Nirmals wifes grandfathers only child = daughter
of Nirmals wifes father = Nirmals wife
4.
5.
Option A
Option C
A is daughter of S. L is son of A. So, L is grandson of S.
6.
Option E
All the statements are true. R is wife of G. R is daughter of S. So, G is sonin-law of S. L is son of A and A is daughter of S. So, A is mother of L. R
and A are sisters. N is child of R and L is son of A. So, L is cousin of N.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option C
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option A
Option D
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option E
Option C
129
Chapter 7
Analogy
Directions (Q.1-9) In each of the following questions, select the related
letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
c) Sky
c) Virus
c) GIRHT
c) VABTERE
c) 7689
13 : 169 : : ?
a) 12 : 140
d) 9 : 81
b) 3 : 6
e) None of these
c) 11 : 111
23 : 29 : : 41 : ?
a) 43
d) 49
b) 45
e) None of these
c) 47
6 : 10 : : 9 : ?
a) 10
d) 18
b) 12
e) None of these
c) 15
c) Branch
130
Option D
Forest is the habitat of Lion. Similarly, water body is the habitat of fish.
2.
Option B
The causative organism of polio is virus. Similarly, the causative organism
of anthrax is bacteria.
3.
Option B
4.
Option B
From the jumbled letters NIIOLUSL, we can form the meaningful word
ILLUSION. Similarly, we can form VERTEBRA from the jumbled letters
TBERVARE.
5.
Option B
R
U
9
6
Similarly,
T
S
7
8
S
8
T
7
U
6
R
9
6.
Option D
The relation is x : x square
13 13 = 169
Similarly,
9 9 = 81
7.
Option A
Two consecutive prime numbers are given:
23 29
Similarly,
41 43
8.
9.
Option C
23=6
2 5 = 10
Similarly,
33=9
3 5 = 15
Option C
Tributary is a part of river. Similarly, branch is a part of tree and is analogus
to tributary in the case of river.
131
Chapter - 8
Coded Inequality
Directions (Q. 1-5) In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and *
are used with the following meanings as illustrated below.
P Q means P is not greater than Q.
P % Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P * Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I is true.
b) If only conclusion II is true.
c) If either conclusion I or II is true.
d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
e) If both conclusions I and II are true.
1.
Statements:
Conclusions:
K @ V, V N, N % F
I. F @ V
II. K @ N
2.
Statements:
Conclusions:
H W, W $ M, M @ B
I. B * H
II. M % H
3.
Statements:
Conclusions:
D % B, B * T, T $ M
I. T D
II. M D
4.
Statements:
Conclusions:
M * T, T @ K, K N
I. N * T
II. N * M
5.
Statements:
Conclusions:
R $ J, J % D, D * F
I. D $ R
II. D @ R
Statements:
Conclusions:
M D , D * K, K @ R, R * F
I. F K
II. D * F
III. M R
IV. D * R
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only IV is true
7.
Statements:
Conclusions:
B % K, K $ T, T * F, H F
I. B $ T
II. T B
III. H K
IV. F B
Statements:
Conclusions:
W * B, B @ F, F R, R $ M
I. W * F
II. M * B
III. R * B
IV. M * W
Statements:
Conclusions:
E @ K, K $ T, T N, B % N
I. T % E
II. K N
III. B * T
133
Statements:
Conclusions:
Z $ B, B % M, M F, F @ R
I. Z * M
II. F * B
III. R * M
IV. M @ Z
Statements:
Conclusions:
H @ T, T $ N, F N, B % F
I. F @ H
II. F T
III. B * T
IV. B % H
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only II and IV are true
e) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 12-16) In the following questions, the symbols ^, #, %, @ and *
are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
P # Q means P is neither greater nor smaller than Q.
P ^ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P * Q means P is not greater than Q.
P % Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely
true and give your answer accordingly.
12.
Statements:
Conclusions:
D % F, F @ H, H * N
I. N @ F
II. D % N
III. H % D
a) None is true
134
Statements:
Conclusions:
B ^ D, D % T, T * M
I. B @ T
II. M @ D
III. B @ M
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of these
14.
Statements:
Conclusions:
K # W, M @ W, R ^ M
I. K % M
II. W % R
III. R @ K
Statements:
Conclusions:
M @ K, K ^ T, T # J
I. J # K
II. M @ J
III. J % K
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only either I or III is true
e) Only either I or III and II are true
16.
Statements:
Conclusions:
R * N, N % B, B # T
I. B @ R
II. T @ N
III. R % T
135
Statements:
Conclusions:
F % T, T @ J, J * W
I. J @ F
II. J * F
III. W $ T
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only either I or II is true
e) Only either I or II and III are true
18.
Statements:
Conclusions:
R * D, D K, K $ M
I. M * R
II. K $ R
III. D * M
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
19.
Statements:
Conclusions:
Z F, F $ M, M % K
I. K * F
II. Z * M
III. K * Z
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of the above
20.
Statements:
Conclusions:
H @ B, B R, A $ R
I. B * A
II. R % H
III. A $ H
Statements:
Conclusions:
M $ J, J * T, K T
I. K * J
II. M $ T
III. M $ K
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 22-27) In the following questions, the symbols @, , #, $ and *
are used with the following meaning illustrated.
P Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P * Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P $ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P # Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true.
22.
Statements:
Conclusions:
M @ T, T $ R, R J
I. J # M
II. R # M
III. J * T
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and II are true
e) None of the above
23.
Statements:
Conclusions:
D B, B # H, H * F
I. F @ B
II. F @ D
III. H @ D
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and II are true
e) All are true
137
Statements:
Conclusions:
H * M, M @ T, T $ K
I. K # M
II. T # H
III. H @ K
a) Only I is true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only II and III are true
d) Only I and III are true
e) All are true
25.
Statements:
Conclusions:
N $ A, A # J , J D
I. N @ J
II. A D
III. D @ A
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of the above
26.
Statements:
Conclusions:
R * T, T @ M, M $ K
I. K @ R
II. M # R
III. K # T
Statements:
Conclusions:
F # W, W $ M, M R
I. R $ W
II. F # R
III. W * R
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 28-31) Read each statement carefully and answer the following
questions.
28. Which of the following expressions will be true, if the expression R > O = A >
S < T is definitely true?
a) O > T
b) S < R
c) T > A
138
e) None of these
29. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the
given expression in order to make the expressions P > A as well as T < L
definitely true?
a)
b) >
c) <
d)
e) None of these
30. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the
same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such
a manner that makes the expression A < P definitely false?
__ __ < __ > __
a) L, N, P, A
b) L, A, P, N
c) A, L, P, N
d) N, A, P, L
e) P, N, A, L
31. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces
respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given
expression in such a manner that makes t he expression F > N and U > D
definitely false?
F __ O __ U __ N __ D
a) <, <, >, =
b) <, =, =, >
c) <, =, =, <
d) , =, =,
e) >, >, =, <
Answers:
1.
Option B
K@VK <V
VN V N
N % F N F
K <V N F
Conclusions: I. F @ V F < V (F)
II . K @ N K < N (T)
Only II is true.
2.
Optoin E
H W H W
W$ MW= M
M @ BM < B
H W= M < B
Conclusions: I. B * H B > H (T)
II. M % H M H (T)
So, both I and II are true.
3.
Option D
D%BD B
139
Option A
M*TM>T
T@KT<K
KNKN
M>T<KN
Conclusions: I. N * T N > T (T)
II. N * M N > M (F)
Only I is true.
5.
Option C
R$JR=J
J%DJD
D*FD>F
R=JD>F
Conclusions: I. D $ R D = R
II. D @ R D < R
Either I or II is true.
6.
Option A
MDM<D
D*KD>K
K@RKR
R*FR>F
Conclusions : I. F K F < K (False)
II. D * F D > F (False)
III. M R M < R (False)
IV. D * R D > R (False)
None is true.
7.
Option E
B%KBK
K$TK=T
T*FT>F
HFH<F
So, B K = T > F > H
Conclusions: I. B $ T B = T
II. T B T < B
III. H K H < K (True)
140
Option B
W*BW>B
B@FB F
FRF<R
R$MR=M
So, W > B F < R = M
Conclusions: I. W * F W > F (False)
II. M * B M > B (True)
III. R * B R > B (True)
IV. M * W M > W (False)
So, Only II and III are true.
9.
Option C
E@KEK
K$TK=T
TNT<N
B%NBN
Conclusions: I. T % E T E (True)
II. K N K < N (False)
III. B * T B > T (True)
IV. B * E B > E (True)
Only I, III and IV are true.
10.
Option C
Z$BZ=B
B%MBM
MFFR
F@RFR
Conclusions: I. Z * M Z > M (False)
II. F * B F > B (False)
III. R * M R > M (True)
IV. M @ Z M Z (True)
Only III and IV are true.
11.
Option C
H@THT
T$NT=N
FNF<N
B%FBF
So, H T = N > F B
Conclusions: I. F @ H F H (False)
141
Only II is true.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option E
F%TFT
T@JT=J
J*WJ>W
From all the statements together,
FT=J>W
Conclusions: I. J @ F J = F
II. J * F J > F
III. W $ T W < T
J is either greater than or equal to F. So either I or II and III are true.
18.
Option C
R*DR>D
DKDK
K$MK<M
From all the statements together,
R> D K < M
Conclusions: I. M * R M > R (False)
II. K $ R K < R (True)
III. D * M D > M (False)
So, only II is true.
19.
Option A
ZFZF
F$MF<M
M%KMK
From all the statements together,
ZF<MK
Conclusions: I. K * F K > F (True)
II. Z * M Z > M (False)
III. K * Z K > Z (False)
So, only I is true.
20.
Option D
H@BH=B
142
Option A
M$JM<J
J*TJ>T
KTKT
From all the three statements together,
M<J<TK
Conclusions: I. K * J K > J (False)
II. M $ T M < T (False)
III. M $ K M < K (False)
None is true.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
Option B
Option E
Option E
Option C
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option C
143
Chapter 9
Coding Decoding
Directions (Q. 1-3) Study the information given below carefully to answer the
following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as lop eop aop fop
means Traders are above laws
fop cop bop gop means Developers were above profitable
aop bop uop qop means Developers stopped following traders
cop jop eop uop means Following maps were laws
1.
2.
3.
Directions (Q. 4-8) Study the information and answer the following questions.
In a certain code language.
Economics is not money is writen as ka la ho ga
Demand and supply economies is written as mo ta pa ka
Money makes only part is written as zi la ne ki
Demand makes supply economics is written as zi mo ka ta
4.
5.
b) Only mo
e) Either mo or ta
c) Either pa or mo
6. What may be the possible code for demand only more in the given code
language?
a) xi ne mo
b) mo zi ne
c) ki ne mo
d) mo zi ki
e) xi ka ta
7. What may be the possible code for work and money in the given code
language?
a) pa ga la
b) pa la lu
c) mo la pa
d) tu la ga
e) pa la ne
8.
Directions (Q. 9-13) Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
In a certain code language driving is not easy is written as jo ro ho go,
rough and tough driving is written as no sa jo da, looks easy but dangerous is
written as ai ro to po and is rough tough dangerous driving is written as ho jo no
ai da
9.
10.
11.
12.
What may be the possible code for easy and solved in the given code
language?
a) sa go ro
b) sa ro cu
c) no ro su
d) cu ro go
e) sa ro to
13.
145
c) jo
15.
16.
c) jo
c) ro
c) bo to no
17.
18.
Directions (Q. 19-22) Study the following information to answer the given
questions.
In a certain code, ze lo ka gi is a code for must save some money, fe ka
so ni is a code for he made good money, ni lo da so is a code for he must be
good and we so ze da is a code for be good save grace.
19.
20.
21.
c) lo
c) be
c) ze
146
c) ja da we
Directions (Q. 23-27) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c, and d. You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letter, mark e) i.e., None of these as your answer.
Letter
Digit/Symbol Code
RATKFQEPJIMUDH
3@2194%58$67@
Conditions:
(i)
If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii)
If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as *.
(iii)
If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded
as the code for the last letter.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
DPEHQA
a) 7%#4@
d) @%#4@
b) @%#47
e) None of these
c) 7%#47
KEMRDF
a) *$379
d) *$37*
b) 1$379
e) None of these
c) 1$37*
AHDUQK
a) 1#764@
d) @#764@
b) 1#7641
e) None of these
c) *#764*
IDQJPT
a) 8745%2
d) 2745%2
b) 2745%8
e) None of these
c) *745%*
UDKFME
a) *719$
d) 719#$6
b) 6719$
e) None of these
c) *719$*
If white means black, black means red, red means blue. blue
means yellow and yellow means grey then which of the following
represents the colour of clear sky?
147
b) Red
e) None of these
c) Yellow
Directions (Q. 30-34) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c and d. You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, give e) i.e. None of these as the answer.
Letters:
Digit/Symbold Code:
M D R P A T W E I F H U K
5 6 # 7 8 1 @ $ 2 % 3 4
Z
9
Conditions:
(i)
If the first letter is a coinsonant and the last letter is a vowel, their
codes are to be interchanged.
(ii)
If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as *.
(iii)
If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to
be coded as the code for the consonant.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
TUKDIP
a) 14627
d) 16427
b) 14621
e) None of these
c) 74621
EFDMKA
a) $%6548
d) 8%6548
b) $%654$
e) None of these
c) *%654*
APWTUH
a) *7@1 *
d) 87@18
b) 87@13
e) None of the above
c) 37@@5
MARTWE
a) 58#1@$
d) $8#1@$
b) 58#1@5
e) None of these
c) $8#1@5
HEMKZI
a) 2$5493
d) 2$5492
b) 3$5492
e) None of these
c) 3$5493
148
36.
37.
Directions (Q. 38-43) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c, and d. You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letter,
based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark
the number of thatcombination as your answer. If none of the combination
correctly represents the group of letter, mark e) i.e. None of these as your
answer.
Letter:
Digit/Symbol Code:
RDAEJMKTBUIPWHF
4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % 7@ 3 9 #
Conditions:
(i)
If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to
be coded as ^.
(ii)
If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded
as the code for the last letter.
(iii)
If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant their codes
are to be interchanged.
38.
39.
40.
HIFMJU
a) 7#1*9
d) ^7#1*^
b) 97#1*9
e) None of these
c) 7#1*
AKTRBW
a) 3264%5
d) 5264%3
b) 3264%3
e) None of these
c) 324%65
EBPDRI
a) 7%@847
d) $%8@47
b) 7%@84$
e) None of these
c) $%@847
149
41.
42.
43.
BKAJIM
a) %25*71
d) 15*271
b) 125*7%
e) None of these
UKPDMA
a) 52@815
d) @2815
b) 2@815
e) None of these
METUFB
a) %$6#1
d) 1$6#%
b) 1$6#1
e) None of these
c) %25*7%
c) 2@81
c) %$6#%
Directions (Q. 44-48) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c and d. You have to
find out whi ch of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following conditions and the sub-conditions and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, mark e) i.e. None of these as your answer.
Letter:
A M P R D H J T W E I KN F U
Digit/Symbol: 3 % 4 9 1 @ 2 5 6 * 7 8 $ ^
Conditions:
(i)
If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii)
If both the first as well as last letters are consonants, both are to be
coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii)
If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to
be coded as #.
44. APIWKN
a) 34*73
d) 84*73
45.
46.
47.
b) #4*7#
e) None of these
c) 84*78
HPEIUM
a) @46*^%
d) #46*^#
b) %46*^
e) None of these
c) @46*^@
RDEMKH
a) @16%79
d) 916%79
b) 916%7@
e) None of these
c) @16%7@
FWHRKE
a) 6@976
d) $@976
b) 6$ @97
e) None of these
c) 6@97$
150
48.
IDAPRU
a) *1349^
d) ^1349^
b) ^*1349
e) None of these
c) ^1349*
49.
50.
51.
52.
Directions (Q. 53-57) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
In a certain code language, exercise for your health is written as ja ka na se
Health and exercise must is written as ka se re tu
Must to exercise regularly is written as az ka dk tu
To your good life is written as mo ja fu az
53.
Which of the following may represent exercise regularly good for health?
a) Ja m o re dk az
b) fu ja re tu dk
c) ka se mo na dk
d) ka re az tu se
e) na se tu az dk
54.
55.
c) ja
b) ka tu
e) na ka
c) ka az
56.
57.
58.
59.
Directions (Q. 60-65) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c and d. you have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following digits/symbols coding system and the condition those
follow and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters mark e) i.e. None of
these as the answer.
Letter:
Digit/Symbol Code
PMAI DEJK F N Q B U W T
695 #7$1%2 @8 3* 4
Conditions:
(i)
If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii)
If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to
be coded as the code for the vowel.
152
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded
as the code for the last letter.
MKJIDE
a) 9%1#7$
d) $%17#9
b) $%1#79
e) None of these
c) 91%#7$
INQBWU
a) #@8*3
d) 3#@8*
b) 3@8*#
e) None of these
c) #8@*3
KFBPAW
a) *265%
d) %265*
b) % 265%
e) None of these
EFDJTP
a) 62714$
d) $2714$
b) $27146
e) None of these
c) $27416
NWANUD
a) @*5@37
d) @*5@3@
b) 7*5@3@
e) None of these
c) @5*@37
APFTQI
a) #62485
d) 56248#
b ) #6248#
e) None of these
c) 562485
c) *265*
Directions (Q. 67-72) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c, d, you have to find
out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based
on the following letter coding system and mark the number of that
combination as the answer. If none of the digits/symbols combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, mark e) i.e., None of these as the
answer.
Letter:
DLEGZKRUBWFHIAP
Digit/Symbol: 4 8 $ 1 # 5 7 2 6 % * 3 9 @
Conditions:
(i)
If the first letter is a vowel and the last is a consonant, both are to be
coded as the code of the consonant.
153
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
If both first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as ^.
If first letter is a consonant and last is a vowel, the codes for first and
last letters are to be interchanged.
ABWUPF
a) %26@%
d) %269@
b) %26@9
e) None of these
c) 926@%
BFIDWE
a) 2%346$
d) $2%634
b) %3426$
e) None of these
c) $%3426
WKGLBA
a) 951862
d) 951826
b) 651829
e) None of these
c) 651892
ZEFHIR
a) #$%*37
d) #%$*37
b) ^$%*3^
e) None of these
c) 7$%*3#
ELBGPU
a) $821@
d) $812@
b) 821@$
e) None of these
c) $821@
UHRKLZ
a) *758
d) #*758
b) *758#
e) None of these
c) #*758#
73.
74.
75.
F
Digit/Symbol 9
Code
A
2
K
$
E
M
*
S
@
P
8
L
1
Conditions:
i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, both are to be coded as
the code for the vowel.
ii) If the first letter is consonant and the last a vowel, the codes for the first and
the last letters are to be interchanged.
iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonant both are to be coded as ^
iv) If more than two vowels are there in the group of letters, all vowels are to
coded as -76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
BSQEGU
a) 5@67%
d) 5@67%
b) ^@67%^
e) None of these
c) @67%
MGSELI
a) *%@71#
d) %#@17*
b) *%@17#
e) None of these
c) #%@71*
IPKUSR
a) #8$@#
d) #8$4@
b) 48$@#
e) None of these
c) #8$@4
TEFSUM
a) ^79@^
d) ^79@^
b) 379@*
e) None of these
c) *79@3
KAGFUB
a) $2%95
d) ^2%9^
b) 52%9$
e) None of these
c) $2%95
AQMMTE
a) 76*32
d) 26*23
c) 26*32
155
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
e) None of these
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
Option B
Option A
Option B
Option E
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option D
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option E
Option A
Option D
Option B
D
P
@
%
H
#
Q
4
A
7
Option E
K
E
M
R
9
$
3
Condition (iii) follows
D
7
F
9
Option E
A
H
D
@
#
7
No condition follows.
U
6
Q
4
K
1
P
%
T
2
Option A
I
D
Q
8
7
4
No condition follows.
157
Option C
U
D
K
*
7
1
Condition (ii) follows
F
9
M
$
E
*
28.
Option C
Colour of clear sky is blue and according to question, blue means yellow so
the colour of clear sky will be yellow.
29.
Option A
M
O
5
1
D
3
E
#
D
3
E
#
A
%
R
8
L
2
O
1
A
%
D
3
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
Option A
T
U
K
1
4
Condition (i) follows.
L
2
D
6
I
2
P
7
Option C
E
F
D
M
*
%
6
5
Condition (ii) follows.
K
4
A
*
Option E
A
P
W
T
3
7
@
1
Condition (iii) follows.
H
3
Option C
M
A
R
$
8
#
Condition (i) follows.
T
1
W
@
E
5
Option A
H
E
M
2
$
5
Condition (i) follows.
K
4
Z
9
I
3
Option C
158
A
@
F
3
E
#
R
2
D
%
E
#
F
3
E
#
D
%
S
5
R
2
36.
Option C
37.
Option C
Bring the white board ka na di pa
White and black board na di sa ra
From equations (i) and (ii),
White board = na di
Put the code of white board in equation (i)
Bring the = ka or pa
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
Option D
H
I
F
^
7
#
Condition (i) follows.
M
1
J
*
U
^
Option A
A
K
T
R
3
2
6
4
Condition (iii) follows.
B
%
W
5
Option C
E
B
P
$
%
@
No condition follows.
D
8
R
4
I
7
Option E
B
K
A
J
1
2
5
*
Condition (ii) follows.
I
7
M
1
Option B
U
K
P
@
D
8
M
1
A
5
Option C
M
E
%
$
T
6
F
#
B
%
(i)
(ii)
159
45.
46.
47.
48.
Option B
A
P
I
W
#
4
*
K
7
N
#
Option E
H
P
E
I
%
4
6
*
Condition (ii) follows.
U
^
M
%
Option C
R
D
E
M
@
1
6
%
Condition (ii) follows.
K
7
H
@
Option C
F
W
H
6
@
Condition (i) follows.
R
9
K
7
E
$
R
9
U
^
Option A
I
D
*
1
A
3
P
4
Option E
Option A
1
2
D
E
3
A
4
N
4
N
1
D
3
A
2
E
And
1
R
2
O
3
A
4
D
4
D
1
R
3
A
2
O
So,
1
S
2
O
3
M
4
E
4
E
1
S
3
M
2
O
51.
Option B
T
R
3
9
M
E
4
$
I
T
7
3
A
*
A
*
E
$
I
7
L
@
M
4
49.
50.
And
So,
52.
N
%
Option D
160
54.
55.
Option C
Exercise ka
Regularly dk
Good mo or fu
For na
Health se
Option E
The code for life may be mo or fu.
56.
Option B
Must tu
Exercise ka
57.
Option B
58.
Option A
1
2
N
E
Similarly,
1
2
M
A
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
Optoin B
Except the months of April and June, all other months have 31 days each.
3
W
4
S
3
W
2
E
1
N
4
S
3
T
4
E
3
T
2
A
1
M
4
E
Option C
REASON 5
Number of letters 1
BELIEVED 8 1 = 7
Similarly,
GOVERNMENT 10 1 = 9
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option A
161
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option D
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option A
162
Chapter 10
Decision Making
Directions (Q. 1-5) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Following are the conditions for admitting students in an Engineering
College:
(i)
Have secured at least 75% agreegate marks in XII Std. exam in science
stream.
(ii)
Have secured an average of at least 85% marks in Physics, Chemistry
and Mathematics in XII Std. exam.
(iii)
Pay Rs.50, 000 at the time of admission.
(iv)
Be at least 17 years old as on 01st May 2014
However, in the case of a candidate who fulfils all the criteria except
(a) (ii) Above, but has secured 90% aggregate marks, he/she should be referred
to the Principal.
(b) (iii) Above, but pays at least Rs.40000 he/she should be referred to the
Chairman, Admission.
Based on the above criteria and information provided below, make a decision in
each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data given are not enough to take
a decision mark your answer as data I nadequate. These cases are given to you as
on 01.05.2014. Give answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1.
Nisha Malhotra has secured aggregate 80% marks I n XII Std. exam in
science stream. She can pay Rs.40,000 at the time of admission. She has
secured 86% average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
2.
Arindam Ghosh was born on 25 August 1995. He can pay Rs.60,000 at the
time of admission. He has secured 80% aggregate marks in XII Std. exam
163
Arun Khanna has secured 90% aggregate marks in XII Std. exam in science
stream and he can also pay Rs.50,000 at the time of admission. He was born
on Feb. 20, 1996. He has secured 89% average marks in Physics, Chemistry
and Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
4.
Kiran Thapar was born on July 15, 1994. He can pay Rs.40,000 at the time
of admission. He has secured 79% average in Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics. He has secured 86% aggregate marks in XII Std. exam in
science stream.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
5.
Vimal Upadhyaya was born on September 20, 1996. He has secured 78%
aggregate marks in XII Std. exam in science stream. He can pay Rs.42,000
at the time of admission. He has secured 88% marks in Physics, Chemistry
and Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization:
The candidate must ____
(i)
Be at least 30 years old as on 01.03.2009
(ii)
Have secured at least 55% marks in graduation
164
12. Ketan Desai was born on 05th January 1979. He has been working for the past
five years in the personnel department of an organisation after completing his
Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 64 % marks. He has
secured 40% marks in the selection process and 52% marks in Graduation.
13. Anant Joshi has been working in the Personnel Department of an organisation
for the past six years. He was born on 07th November 1977. He has secured
60% marks in post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management. He has also
secured 55% marks in both Graduation and selection process.
14. Mohan Bajpai was born on 10th April 1975. He has secured 55% marks in
Graduation and 65% marks in Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel
Management. He has been working in the HR Department of an organisation
for the past six years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma.
15. Gopal Sharma has been working for the past five years in the HR Department of
an organisation after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in HR with 62%
marks. He has secured 50% marks in both Graduate and selection process. He
was born on 29th May 1974.
16. Arun Vohra has secured 55% marks in Graduation. He has been working in the
Personnel Department of an organisation for the past eleven years after
completing his post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management with 65%
marks. He has secured 50% marks in the selection process. He was born on 12th
August 1972.
17. Asha Dhar has secured 52% marks in Graduation and 62% marks in Post
Graduate Degree in Personnel Management. She has also secured 48% marks in
the selection process. She has been working for the past seven years in the
Personnel Department of an organisation after completing her Post Graduate
Degree. She was born on 08th June 1974.
18. Sudha Ghosal was born on 20th October 1976. She has been working as Deputy
Personnel Manager for the past four years in an organisation after completing
her Post Graduate Degree in HR with 67% marks. She has secured 60% marks
in Graduation and 45% marks in the selection process.
19. Amit Saxena was born on 25th July 1973. He has been working in the Personnel
Department of an organisation for the past eleven years after completing his
Post Graduate Diploma in HR with 70% marks. He has secured 60% ma rks in
both Graduation and selection process.
20. Navin Das was born on 14th April 1978. He has been working in the Personnel
Department of an organisation for the past six years after completing his Post
167
23. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization
for the past 7 years after completing her B.E. in IT with 70% marks. She has
secured 45% marks in selection interview and 55% marks in the written
examination. She was born on 12th November 1978.
24. Ashok Malhotra was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56% marks I n
both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58% marks in
BE-IT and 72% marks in ME-IT. He has been working in the systems
department of an organization for the past 11 years after copleting ME-IT.
25. Geema DSouza was born on 15th December 1972. She has secured 60% marks
in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as
Deputy Systems Manager for the last 6 years in an organization after
completing her BE-Electronics with 75% marks.
Directions (Q. 26-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Accounts Manager in an organization.
The candidate must
(i)
Be a graduate in Commerce with minimum 55% marks
(ii)
Be a post graduate in Commerce with minimum 50 % marks
(iii)
Have post qualification work experience of at least three years in the
Accounts department in an organization.
(iv)
Not be less than 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on
01.05.2008.
(v)
Have secured at least 40% marks in the selection process.
In the case if candidate satisfies all other criteria exceptA. At (ii) above but h as work experience of at least four years as Assistant
Accounts Manager in an organization. His/her case is to be referred to GMAccounts of the organization.
B. At (iii) above but has successfully completed CA/ICWA, the case is to be
referred to Director Finance.
In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one
of the following courses of action in each case based on the information
provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the
number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume
anything other the information provided in each case. All t he cases are given
to you as on 01.05.2008.
Give answer:
a) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
169
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option E
Option C
Suresh Mehtas condition (iii) is not given so data is insufficient to take
decision.
7.
Option D
Sudha Gopalan fulfils condition (b) instead of condition (ii) so, her case is
to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.
8.
Option A
Divya Kohli does not fulfil condition (i) so, she is not to be selected.
9.
Option B
Navin Marathe fulfils all conditions so, he is to be selected.
10.
Option E
Varun Malhotra fulfils condition (a) instead of (iv) so, his case is to be
referred to GM-Marketing.
11.
Option E
Meena Srivastava fulfils conditions (b) instead of condition (iv) so, her case
is to be referred to the President-Personnel.
12.
Option B
Ketan Desai does not fulfil condition (v) so, he is not to be selected.
171
13.
Option C
Post qualification work of Anant Joshi is not cleared (which is least 5
years) so, data is insufficient.
14.
Option C
Marks of selection process (i.e. 45%) is not cleared so, data is Insufficient.
15.
Option B
Gopal Sharma is overaged.
16.
Option D
Arun Vohra fulfils condition (a) instead of (iii) so, his case is to be referred
to the Director-Personnel.
17.
Option A
Asha Dhar fulfils all conditions so, she is to be selected.
18.
Option E
Sudha Ghosal fulfils condition (b) instead of (iv) so, her case is to be
referred to President-Personnel.
19.
Option D
Amit Saxena fulfils condition (a) instead of (iii) so, his case is to be referred
to the Director-Personnel.
20.
Option B
Navin Das does not fulfil condition (i) so, he is not to be selected.
21.
Option E
Sameers working experience is not cleared in years. So, data is
insufficient.
22.
23.
Option B
Neeta Pathak does not fulfil condition (iv) so, she is not to be selected.
24.
Optoin C
Ashok Malhotra fulfils condition (a) so, his case is to be referred to DGMsystems.
25.
Option D
Geema DSouza fulfils condition (b) so, her case is to be referred to GMsystems.
172
Option E
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option D
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option C
Option D
173
Chapter 11
Direction Sense
1.
P walked 20 m towards North, took a left turn and walked 10 m, then took a
right turn and walked 20 m, again took a right turn and walked 10 m. How
far is he from his starting point?
a) 50 m
b) 60 m
c) 40 m
d) Cant be determined
e) None of these
2.
Kunal walked 10 m, towards the East, turned right and walked another 15
m. He then turns left and walks 3 m. He finally takes a left turn after
walking 6 m. Which direction is he facing now?
a) East
b) North
c) West
d) South
e) South-West
3.
4.
Ram walks 12 kms to the North, then 10 kms. To West, 12 kms. to South.
How far is Ram from the starting point?
a) 9 kms.
b) 13 kms.
c) 8 kms.
d) 10 kms.
e) None of these
5.
One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishals shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction
was Udai facing?
a) East
b) West
c) North
d) South
e) None of these
6.
Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First
car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns
left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back to
reach the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break down the other
car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance
between two cars at this point?
a) 65 km
b) 75 km
c) 80 km
d) 85 km
e) None of these
7.
The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs
along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat.
How much total distance is covered by the cat?
a) 10
b) 14
c) 38
174
e) None of these
8.
9.
10.
One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow
of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?
a) East
b) South
c) West
d) Data is inadequate e) None of these
11.
Rohit walked 25 m towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20
m. He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right
and walked 15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in
which direction?
a) 35 m East
b) 35 m North
c) 30 m West
d) 45 m East
e) None of these
12.
If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that
of U?
a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) T
e) None of these
175
15.
The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each
other?
a) QP
b) QR
c) PT
d) TS
e) None of these
16.
c) R
17.
Starting from a point, Raju walked 12 m North, he turned right and walked
10 km, he again turned right and walked 12 m, then he turned left and
walked 5 m. How far is he now and in which direction from the starting
point?
a) 27 m towards East
b) 5 m towards East
c) 10 m towards West
d) 15 m towards East
e) None of these
18.
19.
20.
Facing towards South, Ram started walking and turned left after walking 30
m, he walked 25 m and turned left and walked 30 m. How far is he from his
starting position and in which direction?
a) At the starting point only
b) 25 m, West
c) 25 m, East
d) 30 m, East
e) None of these
176
The town of Paranda is located on Gree lake. The town of Akram is West of
Paranda. Tokhada is East of Akram but West of Paranda. Kokran is East of
Bopri but West of Tokhada and Akram. If they are all in the same district,
which town is the farthest West?
a) Paranda
b) Kokran
c) Akram
d) Tokhada
e) Bopri
22.
23.
24.
A dog runs 20 metre towards East and turns Right, runs 10 metre and turns
to right, runs 9 metre and again turns to left, runs 5 metre and then turns to
left, runs 12 metre and finally turns to left and runs 6 metre. Now which
direction dog is facing?
a) East
b) North
c) West
d) South
e) None of these
25.
Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 06:00 p.m. hour
hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 09:15
p.m.?
a) South-East
b) South
c) North
d) West
e) None of these
26.
27.
A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and
went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his
uncles house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his
North and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting
point?
a) 80 m
b) 100 m
c) 140 m
d) 260 m
e) None of these
177
28.
Ravi wants to go to the University. He starts from his home which is in the
East and comes to a crossing. The road to the left ends in a theatre, straight
ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West
e) None of these
29.
A river flows West to East and on the way turns left and goes in a semicircle round a hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction
in the river finally flowing?
a) West
b) East
c) North
d) South
e) None of these
30.
You go North, turn right, then right again and then go the left. In which
direction are you now?
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West
e) None of these
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option A
Required distance
Option C
Required distance
= DF
= 150 (25 + 25 + 35)
= 150 85 = 65 km
= 8 + 6 + 8 + 6 + 8 + 6
= 28 + 100
= 28 + 10 = 38 m
8.
Option B
X will face in the end towards South.
9.
Option B
S is in the South-East of Q.
10.
Option B
Sun rises in the East in the morning. Since the shadow of Suresh falls to his
right. So, he is facing South.
178
11.
12.
13.
Option A
Required distance
= AE
= 20 + 15 = 35 m towards East
Option A
Required distance = 40 20 = 20 km
Option C
Flat R will be next to U
14.
Option C
URP flat combination get South facing flats.
15.
Option A
QP is diagonally opposite to each other.
16.
17.
Option D
18.
Option B
19.
Option D
20.
Option C
21.
Option E
22.
Option D
23.
Option A
The man firstly faces the direction OA. On moving 45 clockwise, he faces
the direction OB.
Now, again he moved 180 clockwise, now, he will be facing OC. From
here he moved 270 anticlockwise, Finally he is facing OD, which is SouthWest.
24.
Option B
25.
Option D
179
Option A
M is in the East of K.
27.
Option B
28.
Option A
180
29.
Option B
30.
Option C
181
Chapter 12
Letter and Number Series
1.
If in the word ISOLATE, all the consonants are replaced by the previous
letter in the alphabet and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter then
all the letters are arranged alphabetically, which letter will be third from the
right end?
a) P
b) B
c) N
d) Q
e) None of these
2.
If in the word EQUALITY, the positions of first and the fifth letters are
interchanged; similarly the positions of the second and the sixth letters are
interchanged and so on. Which letter will be third from the right end?
a) Q
b) U
c) I
d) T
e) None of these
3.
How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters AERT,
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) Four
4.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFRESHING each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the
English alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
5.
If in the number 38564927 first all the even digits are arranged in ascending
order and then all the odd digits are arranged in ascending order, which
digit will be fourth from the right end?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4
e) None of these
6.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BOARDING each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
7.
How many such digits are there in the number 284371 each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when they are arranged in
descending order?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
182
8.
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters only
once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
9.
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ONDE
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
10.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUMPING each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
11.
How many such digits are there in the number 6837941 each of which is as
far away from the beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged
in descending order within the number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
12.
13.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAPLER each of
which has as m any letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
14.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
15.
e) None of these
16.
How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of
which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits
are arranged in ascending order within the number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
17.
The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are
interchanged. Similarly the positions of 3rd and 4th digits are interchanged
and so on till the position of 7th and 8th digits. Which of the following will
be 3rd to the right of three after the rearrangement?
a) 9
b) 7
c) 8
d) 2
e) None of these
18.
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MRTA
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
19.
The positions of the first and the fifth digit in the number 53216894 are
interchanged. Similarly, the position of the second and the sixth digit are in
terchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from t he
right end after the rearrangement?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 9
e) None of these
20.
The positions of how many digits in the number 53147926 will remain
unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending
order?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
21.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word HOARDINGS each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
22.
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DISCREDIT each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
184
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with 3rd, 4th, 6th
and 8th letters of the word SINGLETON, which of the following will be 3rd
letter of that word? If no such word can be made, g ive X as the answer
and I f more than one such word can be made, give Y as the answer.
a) N
b) O
c) E
d) X
e) Y
24.
25.
How many such digits are there in the number 764528 each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged
in descending order within the number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
26.
27.
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EPRY
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Directions (Q. 28-34) In each of the following questions, a series is given with
one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.
28.
29.
30.
31.
b) XX
e) None of these
c) WX
b) YXZ
c) XWV
e) None of these
b) gv
e) None of these
c) vb
b) 36
c) 38
185
32.
33.
34.
d) 45
e) None of these
b) 68
e) None of these
c) 72
b) 465
c) 441
e) None of these
c) CABD
35.
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LTSO
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
36.
How many such digits are there in the number 928416375 each of which is
as far away from th e beginning in the number as when the digits are
arranged in descending order within the number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
37.
Directions (Q. 38-43) Study the number series given below and answer the
questions which follow.
6
78998797789787696897798976887
38.
How many such numbers are there in the given series each of which when
subtracted from the following number has a difference of 2?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Nine
e) None of these
39.
Which of the following nu mbers is obtained when 18th number from the
left of the number series is added to 19th from the right?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 10
d) 17
e) None of these
186
How many nines are there in the given series each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd number?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) More than four
41.
How many such even numbers are there in the given series each of which is
immediately followed by an even number?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
42.
How many such odd numbers are there in the given series each of which is
immediately preceded by an even number?
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Eleven
e) None of these
43.
How many such sevens are there in the given series each of which is
immediately preceded by 9 and also immediately followed by 8?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Option A
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option B
OptionC
Option D
Option C
Option C
DONE and NODE
Option C
J
U
M
10
21
13
P
16
I
9
N
14
G
7
Option C
Number
6
8
3
7
Decreasing Order
9
8
7
6
There will be no change in the place of 8 and 1.
Option B
Series are increasing as follows:
P
PO
PON
PONM PONML
9
4
4
3
1
1
PONMLK
187
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
Option C
S
T
A
S T and S P
Option C
O
B
J
E
Two pairs formed IO, TV
Option B
T
O
L
E
According to question,
S
P
K
F
Alphabetically,
B
F
K
M
th
So, P is 4 from the right.
Option C
8
4
2
In increasing order
1
2
4
Option A
Number:
9
Arrangement: 5
Option C
The meaningful words are: MART, TRAM
Option B
Number:
5
3
2
1
After interchanging the digits
6
8
9
4
5
3
Option B
Number:
2
6
In decreasing order:
Option E
Option E
D
I
S
C
R
E
So, CE, DI, DE, EI are pairs of letters.
Option A
1
S
7
T
8
O
9
N
2
I
3
N
4
G
5
L
6
E
188
24.
25.
26.
6
7
4
6
5
5
2
4
8
2
Option A
AB, ABC, ADCD, ABCDE, ABCDEF, ABCDEFG, ABC D
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
Option C
Meaningful words PREY, PYRE
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option D
9 + 6 = 15
15 + 8 = 23
23 + 10 = 33
33 + 12 = 45
32.
Option B
4+3=7
7 + 4 + 3 = 14
14 + 3 + 7 = 24
24 + 7 + 10 = 41
41 + 10 + 17 = 68
33.
Option A
5 3 + 1 = 16
16 3 + 3 = 51
51 3 + 5 = 158
158 3 + 7 = 481
Option A
CBA ABC
Reverse order
ABCD DCBA
ABCDE EDCBA
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option E
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
189
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option B
190
Chapter 13
Logical Arrangement
1.
(i) Key (ii) Door (iii) Lock (iv) Room (v) Switch on
a) v, i, ii, iv, iii
b) iv, ii, i, v, iii
d) i, iii, ii, iv, v
e) None of these
c) i, ii, iii, v, iv
3.
(i) Windows (ii) Walls (iii) Floor (iv) Foundation (v) Roof (vi) Room
a) iv, v, iii, ii, i, vi
b) iv, iii, v, vi, ii, i
c) iv, ii, i, v, iii, vi
d) iv, i, v, vi, ii, iii
e) None of these
4.
(i) Site (ii) Plan (iii) Rent (iv) Money (v) Building
a) iv, i, ii, v, iii
b) iii, iv, ii, v, i
d) i, ii, iii, v, iv
e) None of these
c) ii, iii, v, i, iv
(i) Cut (ii) Put on (iii) Mark (iv) Measure (v) Tailor
a) iv, iii, i, v, ii
b) iii, i, v, iv, ii
d) i, iii, ii, iv, v
e) None of these
(i) Mother (ii) Child (iii) Milk (iv) Cry (v) Smile
a) i, v, ii, iv, iii
b) ii, iv, i, iii, v
d) iii, ii, i, v, iv
e) None of these
5.
6.
7.
8.
(i) Word (ii) Paragraph (iii) Sentence (iv) Letters (v) Phrase
a) iv, i, v, ii, iii
b) iv, i, iii, v, ii
c) iv, ii, v, i, iii
191
e) None of these
9.
(i) Caste (ii) Family (iii) Newly married couple (iv) Clan (v) species
a) ii, iii, i, iv, v
b) iii, iv, v, i, ii
c) iii, ii, i, iv, v
d) iv, v, iii, ii, i
e) None of these
10.
(i) Elephant (ii) Cat (iii) Mosquito (iv) Tiger (v) Whale
a) v, iii, i, ii, iv
b) iii, ii, iv, i, v
c) i, iii, v, iv, ii
d) ii, v, i, iv, iii
e) None of these
11.
(i) Protect (ii) Pressure (iii) Relief (iv) Rain (v) Flood
a) ii, iv, iii, i, v
b) ii, iv, v, i, iii
d) iii, ii, iv, v, i
e) None of these
(i) Rainbow (ii) Rain (iii) Sun (iv) Happy (v) Child
a) iv, ii, iii, v, i
b) ii, iii, i, v, iv
d) ii, i, iv, v, iii
e) None of these
12.
13.
(i) Patients (ii) Diagnosis (iii) Bill (iv) Doctor (v) Treatment
a) i, iv, iii, ii, v
b) i, iv, ii, v, iii
c) i, iv, ii, iii, v
d) i, ii, iii, iv, v
e) None of these
14.
(i) Table (ii) Tree (iii) Wood (iv) Seed (v) Plant
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v
b) iv, v, iii, ii, i
d) iv, v, ii, iii, i
e) None of these
15.
(i) Doctor (ii) Fever (iii) Prescribe (iv) Diagnose (v) Medicine
a) ii, iv, iii, v, i
b) i, iv, iii, ii, v
c) ii, i, iii, iv, v
d) ii, i, iv, iii, v
e) None of these
16.
(i) Index (ii) Contents (iii) Title (iv) Chapters (v) Introduction
a) iii, ii, v, i, iv
b) ii, iii, iv, v, i
c) iii, ii, v, iv, i
d) v, I, iv, ii, iii
e) None of these
17.
(i) Book (ii) Pulp (iii) Timber (iv) Jungle (v) Pape
a) iii, ii, v, i, iv
b) iv, iii, ii, v, i
d) v, iv, iii, i, ii
e) None of these
18.
(i) College (ii) Child (iii) Salary (iv) School (v) Employment
a) iv, i, iii, v, ii
b) i, ii, iv, iii, v
c) ii, iv, i, v, iii
d) v, iii, ii, i, iv
e) None of these
19.
(i) Study (ii) Job (iii) Examination (iv) Earn (v) Apply
a) i, iii, v, ii, iv
b) i, iii, ii, v, iv
c) i, ii, iii, iv, v
d) i, iii, v, iv, ii
e) None of these
192
(i) Frog (ii) Eagle (iii) Grasshopper (iv) Snake (v) Grass
a) v, iii, i, iv, ii
b) i, iii, v, ii, iv
c) v, iii, iv, ii, i
d) iii, iv, ii, v, i
e) None of these
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option A
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option D
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option C
Option A
Option A
193
Chapter 14
Mathematical Operations
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation
correct?
(6 + 3) + (4 7) = 29
a) + and
b) and +
c) and +
d) and
e) None of these
5.
6.
9 5 4 3 2 = ?
a) 2
d) 3
7.
8.
b) 9
e) None of these
c) 3
194
9.
10.
11.
When multiplying in binary the decimal values 13 11, what is the third
partial product?
a) 100000
b) 100001
c) 0000
d) 1011
e) None of these
12.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Option C
Option E
28 12 + 4 6 4 = ?
? = 28 + 12 4 6 4
? = 28 + 12/4 6 4
? = 28 + 3 24
?= 7
Option B
? = 42 24 + 6 4 3
= 42 24 6 + 4 3
= 42 24/6 + 12
= 42 4 + 12 = 50
Option C
(6 + 3) + (4 7) = 29
(6 3) + (4 + 7) = 29
18 + 11 = 29
Option A
28 7 + 2 2 = 0
28 7 2 2 = 0
28 28 = 0
Option E
9 5 4 3 2 = 9 5 4 3/2 = 19/2
195
7.
Option B
8.
Option C
9.
Option B
10.
Option A
11.
Option A
12.
Option C
20 + 8 8 4 2 = 20 + 8 2 2 = 20 + 8 4 = 24
196
Chapter 15
Odd Man Out Series
1.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) PS
b) FI
c) AD
d) KN
e) GD
2.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) 23
b) 29
c) 37
d) 39
e) 31
3.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) Yellow
b) Blue
c) Pink
d) Green
e) Red
4.
Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Table
b) Chair
c) Bench
d) Desk
e) Wood
5.
Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that d oes not belong to that group?
a) 27
b) 64
c) 125
d) 216
e) 384
6.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 35
b) 80
c) 45
d) 60
e) 75
7.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the o ne that does not belong to that group?
a) Sweet
b) Cake
c) Pastry
d) Bread
e) Biscuit
8.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 39
b) 27
c) 48
d) 42
e) 24
197
Four of the following five are a like in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) VT
b) MK
c) DB
d) KH
e) XV
10.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 187
b) 323
c) 119
d) 221
e) 289
Directions (Q. 11-19) In each of the following questions, select the one which is
different from the other three responses.
11.
a) Aptitude
d) Behaviour
b) Altitude
e) None of these
c) Attitude
12.
a) SSA
d) NASA
b) RMSA
e) None of these
c) RUSA
13.
a) 63
d) 66
b) 69
e) None of these
c) 65
14.
a) 108
d) 225
b) 91
e) None of these
c) 144
15.
187 : 11
d) 224 : 14
b) 194 : 12
e) None of these
c) 195 : 13
16.
a) D
d) J
b) G
e) None of these
c) H
17.
a) SRT
d) VUW
b) PON
e) None of these
c) KJL
18.
a) EVFU
d) GTHS
b) CXDW
e) None of these
c) AZBX
19.
a) Square
b) Equilateral Triangle
c) Rhombus
d) Right Angle Triangle
20.
Four of the following five are alike in a cretain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 21
b) 35
c) 42
d) 56
e) 49
198
21.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Table
b) Desk
c) Wardrobe
d) Computer
e) Chair
22.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is one that does not belong to that group?
a) Orange
b) Apple
c) Guava
d) Papaya
e) Mango
23.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Option E
Option D
Option C
Option E
Option E
Option C
Apart from 45, sum of both digits of every number will be an even number
but 45 = 4 + 5 = 9 which is an odd number.
7.
Option A
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
Option C
199
13.
Option B
The number 91 is a product of two prime numbers. 13 7 = 91
15.
Option B
16.
Except in the number pair 194-12, in all other number pairs the first number
is completely divisible by the second number.
187/11 = 17; 195/13 = 15; 224/14 = 16
But, 194/12 = 16.166
Option B
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
D position number 4
H position number 8
J position number 10
G position number 7 (An odd number)
Option B
Option C
Option D
Except in the case of right angle triangle, in all other geometrical figures, all
the sides are equal.
Option E
The number of 49 is a perfect square of a natural number.
Option D
Computer is a mechanical device. All others are wooden items.
Option A
Orange is citrus fruit.
Optoin B
Except the months of April and June, all other months have 31 days each.
200
In a row of 35 children, M is 15th from the right end and there are 10
children between M and R. What is Rs position from the left end of the
row?
a) 15th
b) 5th
c) 30th
d) Data inadequate
e) None of the above
2.
3.
4.
In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from behind
and Mamta is just in the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the
queue. What position does Mamta occupy from the front?
a) 20th
b) 19th
c) 18th
th
d) 17
e) None of these
5.
Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting 14th from the left and Q is 7th
from the right. If there are four boys between P and Q. How many boys are
there in the row?
a) 25
b) 23
c) 21
d) 19
e) None of these
6.
Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunita that Aligarh was more than 10
kilometers but less than 15 kilometers from there. Sunita knew that it was
more than 12 but less than 14 kilometers from there. If both of them were
correct, which of the following could be the distance of Aligarh from the
platform?
a) 11 km
b) 12 km
c) 13 km
d) 14 km
e) 15 km
7.
The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half hours from New Delhi
Railway Station. An announcement was made at the station that the train for
Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 18.00 hrs.
At what time was the announcement made?
201
b) 17.10 hrs.
c)
16.00
e) None of these
8.
How many 6s are there in the following series of numbers which are
preceded by 7 but not immediately followed by 9?
6795697687678694677695763
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
9.
How many 7s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 9
and followed by 6?
7897653428972459297647
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) None of these
10.
How many 6s are there in the following number sequence which are
immediately preceded by 9 but not immediately followed by 4?
5 6 4 3 2 9 6 3 1 6 4 9 6 4 21 5 9 6 7 2 1 4 7 4 9 6 4 2
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) More than four
11.
51473985726315863852243496
How many odd numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately
preceded and also immediately followed by an even number?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) More than 4
12.
Answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Option D
Option D
K>B>W>F>J
So, W is the third heaviest.
Option E
J >L> H>D>F
H is 3rd to reach.
Option C
202
5.
Option A
6.
Option C
7.
Option E
8.
Option C
9.
Option A
10.
Option B
11.
Option D
12.
Option C
203
Chapter 17
Arithmatic Reasoning
1. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was
the total of their ages three years ago?
a) 71 years
b) 72 years
c) 74 years
d) 77 years
e) None of these
2. A woman says, If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my
husbands age. He is, of course, senior to me and the difference between
our ages is one-eleventh of their sum. The womans age is
a) 23 years
b) 34 years
c) 45 years
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
3. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 coloumns of mango trees. The
distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left
from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the garden is
a) 20 m
b) 22 m
c) 24 m
d) 26 m
e) None of these
4. A motorist knows four different routes from Bristol to Birmingham. From
Birmingham to Shefield he knows three different routes and from Sheffield
to Carlisle he knows two different routes. How many routes does he know
from Bristol to Carlisle?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 24
e) None of these
5. If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how
many days?
a) 1 day
b) 4 days
c) 40 days
d) 100 days
e) None of these
6. Five bells begin to toll together and toll respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7,
10 and 12 seconds. How many times will they toll togethe in one hour
excluding the one at the start?
a) 7 times
b) 8 times
c) 9 times
d) 11 times
e) None of these
7. Today is Varuns birthday. One year, from today he will be twice as old as
he was 12 years ago. How old is Varun today?
a) 20 years
b) 22 years
c) 25
years
d) 27 years
e) None of these
204
b) 2
e) None of these
c) 3
17. Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of
equal size. Each of the small pieces is 20 grams in weight. If she has seven
pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the original cake?
a) 240 gm
b) 220 gm
c) 225 gm
d) 250 gm
e) None of these
18. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one
of the following numbers cannot represent the total number of children in
the class?
a) 48
b) 44
c) 42
d) 40
e) None of these
19. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read
none of these two. How many of them read French and English both?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) None of these
20. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut
each roll of equal length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a
minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24 minutes?
a) 30 rolls
b) 58 rolls
c) 120
rolls
d) 150 rolls
e) None of these
21. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. By counting heads they are 80. The
number of their legs is 200. How many peacocks are there?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 40
d) 60
e) None of these
22. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on
each side of the square. How many poles did he need altogether?
a) 54
b) 84
c) 104
d) 108
e) None of these
23. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in pack, I am left
with one sweet. If I keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the
minimum number of sweets I have to pack and distribute?
a) 25
b) 35
c) 56
d) 65
e) None of these
24. A man has Rs.480 in the denominations of one rupee notes, five rupee notes
and ten rupee notes. The number of each denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has?
206
b) 75
e) None of these
c) 90
25. A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins.
How many years older is C and D?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
e) None of these
Answers:
1. Required sum = (80 3 3) years = (80 9) years = 71 years
2. Let x and y be the tens and units digits respectively of the numeral
denoting the womans age
Then, womans age = (10x + y) years, husbands age = (10y + x) years
Therefore (10y + x) (10x + y) = (1/11) (10y + x + 10x + y)
(9y 9x) = (1/11) (11y + 11x) = (x + y)
10x = 8y
x = 4/5y
Clearly, y should be a single digit multiple of 5, which is 5.
Hence, womans age = 10x + y = 45 years
3. Each row contains 12 plants.
There are 11 gapes between two corner trees (11 2) metres and 1 metre on
each side is left.
Therefore length = (22 + 2)m = 24 m
4. Total number of routes from Bristol to Carlisle = (4 3 2) = 24
5. Less cats, more days
(indirect proportion)
Less mice, less days
(direct proportion)
Let the required number of days be x.
Cat
4
:
100
:: x : 100
Mice
100
:
4
100 4 x = 4 100 100 or x = 4 100 100 / 100 4 = 100
6. L.C.M. of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 is 420
So, the bells will toll together after every 420 seconds i.e. 7 minutes.
Now, 7 8 = 56 and 7 9 = 63
Thus, in 1 hour (or 60 minutes), the bells will toll together 8 times,
excluding the one at the start.
7. Let Varuns age today = x years
Then, Varuns age after 1 year = x + 1 years
Therefore, x + 1 = 2 (x 12)
x + 1 = 2x 24
207
9. All but nine died means All except nine died i.e. 9 sheep remained alive.
10. Total number of digits = (Number of digits in 1 digit page numbers +
number of digits in 2 digit page numbers + number of digits in 3 digit
page numbers
= (1 9 + 2 90 + 3 267) = (9 + 180 + 801) = 990
11. Suppose the boy got x sums right and 2x sums wrong.
Then, x + 2x = 48
3x = 48
x = 16
12. Let the fathers age be x and the sons age be y.
Then, x y = y or x = 2y
Now, x = 36, So, 2y = 36 or y = 18
Therefore Sons present age = 18 years
So, sons age 5 years ago = 13 years
13. Let the number be x. Then x + 13x = 112
14x = 112
x=8
14. Total number of handshakes = 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 45
15. Out of every 16 persons, there is one captain, so, number of captains
1200/16 = 75
16. Since the number of carbons is 2, only two copies can be obtained.
17. Seven pieces consist of 6 smaller equal pieces and one half cake piece.
Weight of each small piece = 20 gm
So, total weight of the cake = 2 (20 6) = 240 gm
18. Let number of girls = x and number of boys = 3x
Then, 3x + x = 4x = total number of students
Thus, to find exact value of x, the total number of students must be divisible
by 4
19. Option B
208
Option C
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option C
Option B
209
Chapter 18
Classification
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of the following questions, five words have been given
out of which four are alike in some manne, while 5th one is different. Choose the
word which is different from the rest.
1. Choose the word which is different from the rest
a) Chicken
b) Snake
d) Crocodile
e) Frog
c) Swan
c) Helmet
c) Emu
c) Atharvaveda
c) Oil
Directions (Q. 6-10): Out of the five figures marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), four
are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four.
Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
6. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
c) 3
210
e) 5
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the following questions, five words have been
given out of which four are alike in some manner, while 5th one is different. Choose
the word which is different from the rest.
11. Choose the word which is different from the rest
a) Pear
b) Apple
d) Guava
e) Orange
12. Choose the word which is different from the rest
a) Dagger
b) Hammer
d) Sword
e) Blade
c) Litchi
c) Knife
c) Varanasi
c) Scallop
b) Quay
e) Mast
c) Stern
Directions (Q. 16-20): Out of the five figures marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), four
are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four.
Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
16. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
(1)
a) 1
d) 4
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
b) 2
e) 5
c) 3
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Option A
Option D
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option A
Option E
Option D
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option B
Option D
Option C
Option C
Option D
Option C
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Chapter 19
Dice Problem
1. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol *
a) @
d) +
b) $
e) None of these
c) 8
2. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When number 1 on the top.
What number will be at the bottom?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 6
e) None of these
3. From the four positions of a dice given below, find the colour which is
opposite to yellow?
a) Violet
b) Red
c) Rose
d) Blue
e) None of these
4. From the positions of a cube are shown below, which letter will be on the
face opposite to face with A?
a) D
b) B
c) C
d) F
e) None of these
5. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?
a) 3
d) 2/3
b) 5
e) None of these
c) 6
a) 4
d) 3
b) 1
e) None of these
c) 2
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7. When the digit 5 is on the bottom then which number will be on its upper
surface?
a) 1
d) 6
b) 3
e) None of these
c) 4
8. Observe the dots on the dice (one to six dots) in the following figures. How
many dots are contained on the face opposite to the containing four dots?
a) 2
d) 6
b) 3
e) None of these
c) 5
9. Four usual dice are thrown on the ground. The total of number on the top
faces of these four dice is 13 as the top faces showed 4, 3, 1 and 5
respectively. What is the total of the faces touching the ground?
a) 12
b) 13
c) 15
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
10. A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways.
If 1 is opposite to 5 and 2 is opposite to 3, then
a) 4 is adjacent to 3 and 6
b) 2 is adjacent to 4 and 6
c) 4 is adjacent to 5 and 6
d) 6 is adjacent to 3 and 4
11. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol C?
a) D
d) F
b) E
e) None of these
c) B or D
a) 54
b) 55
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
c) 50
13. If there are five dots at the bottom, then how many dots will be on its upper
surface?
a) 1
d) 4
b) 2
e) None of these
c) 3
14. Two positions of dice are shown below. What will be on the top when B
is at bottom?
a) F
d) E
b) D
e) None of these
c) A
15. Two positions of dice are shown below. What number will appear on the
opposite to the face containing 5?
a) 2
d) 6
b) 4
e) None of these
c) 1
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16. Two positions of a cube with surfaces are shown below. When the surface
D touch the bottom, what surface will be on top?
a) D
d) F
b) A
e) None of these
c) B
17. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When C is at the bottom then
what is on top?
a) A
d) D
b) B
e) None of these
c) C
18. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with alphabet d?
a) a
d) f
b) g
e) None of these
c) c
19. Two positions of a cube are shown below. When the surface D touch the
bottom, what surface will be on the top?
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c) E
20. How many dot/dots will appear on the face opposite to the face with Four
Dots?
a) 3 dots
d) 5 dots
b) 2 dots
e) None of these
c) 1 dot
Answers:
1. Option C
The symbols of the adjacent faces to the face with symbol * are @, -, + and
$. Hence the required symbol is 8.
2. Option B
According to the rule (2) when one is at the top, then 5 will be at the
bottom.
3. Option A
The colours adjacent to yellow are orange, blue, red and rose. Hence violet
will be opposite to yellow.
4. Option A
The letters of the adjacent faces to the face with letter A, are B, F, C and E.
Hence D is the letter of the face opposite to the face with letters (A).
5. Option A
Here the common faces with number 3, are in same positions. Hence 6 is
opposite to 2 and 5 is opposite to 1. Therefore 4 is opposite to 3.
6. Option B
As the numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 are adjacent to 6. Hence the number on the
face opposite to 6 is 1.
7. Option A
According to the rule No.3, common faces with number 2 are in same
positions. Hence when the digit 5 is on the bottom then 1 will on the upper
surface.
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Option D
Option E
Option A
Option B
Option B
Option B
Option E
Option C
Option E
Option A
219
Chapter 20
Statement and Arguments
Directions (Q. 1-5): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
1. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are
insufficient for internal use itself?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, we have to earn foreignexchange to pay for our imports.
II.
No, even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
2. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western
countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to
general public in India?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, many such drugs require different doses and duration for
Indian population and hence it is necessary.
II.
No, this is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
3. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its
energy requirements?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.
II.
No, harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India
lacks in.
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Directions (Q. 11-15): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a wweak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
11. Statement: Should all the unauthorized structures in the city be
demolished?
Arguments:
I.
No, where will the people residing in such houses live?
II.
Yes, this will give a clear message to general public and they will
refrain from constructing unauthorized buildings.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
12. Statement: Should there be a maximum limit for the number of ministers
in the Central Government?
Arguments:
I.
No, the political party in power should have the freedom to decide
the number of ministers to be appointed.
II.
Yes, the number of ministers should be restricted to a certain
percentage of the total number of seats in the Parliament to avoid
unncessary expenditure.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
13. Statement: Should foreign films be banned in India?
Arguments:
I.
Yes, they depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values.
II.
No, foreign films are of a high artistic standard.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
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228
Answers:
1. Option A
Clearly, India can export only the surplus and that which can be saved after
fulfilling its own needs, to pay for its imports. Encouragement to export
cannot lead to shortages as it shall provide the resources for imports. So,
only argument I holds.
2. Option A
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5. Option A
India cannot part with a State that is a major foreign exchange earner to it.
So, argument I holds strong. Further, giving away a piece of land
unconditionally and unreasonably is no solution to settle disputes. So,
argument II is vague.
6. Option D
The age of a person is no criterion for judging his mental capabilities and
administrative qualities. So, none of the arguments holds strong.
7. Option C
Opening up of new industries is advantageous in opening more employment
avenues, and disadvantageous in that it adds to the pollution. So, either of
the arguments holds strong.
8. Option A
Pollution at ground level is the most hazardous in the way of being
injurious to human and animal life. So, argument I alone holds.
9. Option A
Before indulging in new development programme it is much necessary to
plan the exact target, policies and their implementation and the allocation of
funds which shows the right direction to work. So, argument I holds strong.
Also, planning ensures full utilization of available resources and funds and
stepwise approach towards the target. So, spending a part of money on it is
no wastage. Thus, argument II is not valid.
10. Option B
I does not provide a strong reason in support of the statement. Also, it is not
possible to analyze the reaally deserving and not deserving. So, argument II
holds strong.
11. Option B
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235
Chapter 21
Statement and Assumptions
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
1. Statement: You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation
period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the
period for confirmation.
Assumptions:
I.
The performance of an individual generally is not known at the
time of appointment offer.
II.
Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation
period.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
2. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I.
At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and
is ready to learn.
II.
The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
a) Both I and II are implicit
3. Statement: In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide
conveyance allowance to our employees. In charge of a company tells
Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:
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240
20. Statement: The coffee powder of company X is quite better in taste than
the much advertised coffee of company Y.
Assumptions:
I.
If your product is not good, your spend more on advertisement.
II.
Some people are tempted to buy a product by the advertisement.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
Directions (Q. 21-25): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
21. Statement: Because of the large number of potholes in road X, reaching
airport in time has become difficult.
Assumptions:
I.
Reaching airport in time may not be always necessary.
II.
There is no other convenient road to the airport.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
22. Statement: Safety and health practices in many Indian companies are well
below the international standards.
Assumptions:
I.
International standards of health and safety are ideal and unrealistic.
II.
Indian organizations do not consider safety and health management
as their prime social responsibility.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
242
26. Statement: Many historians have done more harm than good by distorting
truth.
Assumptions:
I.
People believe what is reported by the historians.
II.
Historians are seldom expected to depict the truth.
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered
I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
27. Statement: As there is a great demand, every person seeking tickets of the
programme will be given five tickets.
Assumptions:
I.
The organizers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II.
No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
28. Statement Computer education should start at schools itself.
Assummptions:
I.
Learning computers is easy.
II.
Computer education fetches jobs easily.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
29. Statement: If he is intellegent, he will pass the examination.
Assumptions:
I.
To pass, he must be intelligent.
II.
He will pass the examination.
244
30. Statement: Today I must satisfy myself only by looking at a pink headed
duck in an encyclopaedia.
Assumptions:
I.
Pink headed ducks are as good as extinct now.
II.
People refer to encyclopaedia to know only about things which do
not exist now.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
Answers:
1. Option E
The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as
the statement mentions. So, I is implicit. The statement mentions that the
individuals worth shall be reviewed before confirmation. So, II is also
implicit.
2. Option A
Since the statement talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5, it
means that the child is mentally prepared for the same at this age. So, I is
implicit, But nothing about admission after 6 years of age is mentioned in
the statement. So, II is not implicit.
3. Option B
Assumption I goes against the statement. So, it is not implicit. The
allowance will serve as a reward to the employees and shall provoke them
to come on time. So, II is implicit.
4. Option A
I directly follows from the statement and so is implicit. Also, the statement
is a suggestion and does not tell about a Government policy or its position
of funds. So, II is not implicit.
5. Option A
The mothe warns her child with the expectation that he would stop
troubling her. So, I is implicit. The general nature of children cannot be
derived from the statement. So, II is not implicit.
245
6. Option E
Since a surcharge has been levied to fund drought relief programmes, it
follow the Government does not have sufficient money for the same. So, I
is implicit. Besides, the percentage of surcharge must have been decided
after studying the expected inflow in relation to amount of funds required.
So, II is also implicit.
7. Option B
Nothing is mentioned about lather formation by the detergent. So, I is not
implicit. Also, detergents should be used as they clean clothes better and
more easily. So, II is implicit.
8. Option E
The statement lays stress on enforcing attendance. This implies that
children in villages do not attend school regularly. So, I is implicit. Besides,
the statement calls one school for every village a substantial achievement.
So, II is also implicit.
9. Option A
The fact given in I directly follows from the phrase -------- for a better fiscal
management in the statement. So, I is implicit. However, the public
response to the new policy cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit.
10. Option A
It follows from the statement that books on this topic were available before
also but they were not lucid. So, I is implicit. But a general comment as II
cannot be made from the given statement. So, II is not implicit.
11. Option A
The amount of compensation must have been decided keeping in mind the
monetary position of the Government. So, I is implicit. However, nothing
can be said about the frequency of railway accidents in future. So, II is not
implicit.
12. Option B
Films are indispensable does not mean that they are the only means of
entertainment. So, I is not implicit. II follows from the statement. So, it is
implicit.
13. Option D
Neither the volume of readership of the Times in areas other than the
Metropolis nor the reason for its huge acclamation is evident from the
statement. So, neither I nor II is implicit.
14. Option E
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248
Chapter 22
Statement and Conclusions
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either I or II follows
d) If neither I nor II follows and
e) If both I and II follow
1. Statement: In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were
200. Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions:
I.
80% of the team consists of spinners.
II.
The opening batsmen were spinners.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
e) Both I and II are follow
2. Statement: The old order changed place to new.
Conclusions:
I.
Change is the law of nature.
II.
Discard old ideas because they are old.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
3. Statement: Government has spoiled many top ranking financial institutions
by appointing bureaucrats as Directors of these institutions.
Conclusions:
I.
Government should appoint Directors of the financial institutes
taking into consideration the expertise of the person in the area of
finance.
249
12. Statement: The national norm is 100 beds per thousand populations but in
this state, 150 beds per thousand are available in the hospitals.
Conclusions:
I.
Our national norm is appropriate.
II.
The states health system is taking adequate care in this regard.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
13. Statement: Our securities carry market risk. Consult your investment
advisor or agent before investing.
Conclusions:
I.
One should not invest in securities.
II.
The investment advisor calculates the market risk with certainty.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
14. Statement: Money plays a vital role in politics.
Conclusions:
I.
The poor can never become politicians.
II.
All the rich men take part in politics.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
15. Statement: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.
Conclusions:
I.
Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.
II.
People cannot eat vegetables.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
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254
6. Option D
The manager might have humiliated Sachin not because of his dislike but
on account of certain negligence or mistake on his part. So, I does not
follow. Also, nothing about Sachins rapport with his colleagues can be
reduced from the statement. So, II also does not follow.
7. Option D
The fact that a certain rule has been more welcomed in a certain coutry does
not imply that the problem is more prevalent there. So, I does not follow.
Also, the amendment seeks to discourage only sexual harassment of women
and shall in no way discourage employment of women. So, II also does not
follow.
8. Option D
Neither the citizens response to the decision nor the reason for opposition
by other nations can be deduced from the statement. So, neither I nor II
follows.
9. Option A
According to the statement, even senior cabinet ministers are always ready
to conform to the Prime Ministers views. So, I follows. However, II
contradicts the given statement and so does not follow.
10. Option E
According to the statement, National Aluminium Company has moved
India from a position of shortage in the past to self sufficiency in the
present. This means that previously, India had to import aluminium. So, I
follows. Also, it can be deduced that if production increases at the same
rate, India can export it in future. So, II also follows.
11. Option E
The statement implies that it is easier to say than to do something and what
people say is different from what they do. So, both I and II follow.
12. Option B
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