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TV SD Certified Six Sigma Green Belt Certification

Scheme code : CSSGB-Q5-005


Read the following instruction carefully before responding to the questions given in the examination paper.
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Ensure that you have filled up the basic details.


This exam consists of 75 multiple-choice questions.
Candidate need to score minimum 70 % of the total marks (i.e. 52 out of 75) to pass this examination.
Total duration of this examination is 120 minutes.
Candidate should Tick against only one correct answer in Multiple Choice Questions
There is no negative marking system applicable in this examination.
The examination is an open book examination.

Good luck!
Details to be filled up by the candidates
Date of Exam

June 21, 2015

Location:

Delhi

Duration:

120 Minutes

Total Marks:

75

Name of Candidate:
Date of Birth:
Contact Number:
Name of organization:
Email Id:

Q.1)

The most significant factor to be considered in establishing Six Sigma project metrics is:
Project timeline
A.
B.

Customer needs

C.

Ease of measurement

D.

Accuracy of measurement

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Q.2)

Q.3)

In a nutshell, Six Sigma is considered:


A business improvement approach
A.
B.

A focus on critical customer items

C.

An elimination of mistakes and defects

D.

A concentrated focus on business outputs

Which one the following is an appraisal cost?


Third party audit
A.
B.

Quality planning

C.

A systematic, independent examination and review to determine whether quality activities and
related results comply with planned arrangements
Cost of customer visits to address defective product

D.
Q.4)

Q.5)

Q.6)

Q.7)

Q.8)

Q.9)

Increasing performance in a Six Sigma Corporation from 3 sigma to 4 sigma would reduce defects per million by a
factor of:
2
A.
B.

C.

10

D.

16

The DPMO for a process is 860. What is the approximate 6 sigma level of the process?
4.2
A.
B.

4.4

C.

4.6

D.

4.8

Which of the following is most important when calibrating a piece of equipment?


The calibration sticker
A.
B.

The maintenance history card

C.

The standard used

D.

The calibration interval

Which of the following distribution is used in situations that have only two possible outcomes?
Binomial
A.
B.

Hypergeometric

C.

Geometric

D.

Weibull

What type of data contains infinite data points that may be displayed on a continuous measurement scale?
Continuous distributions
A.
B.

Statistics

C.

Parameters

D.

Discrete distributions

Which of the following statistical distributions can be used to compare sample means?
Chi-square distribution
A.
B.

Normal distribution

C.

t distribution

D.

Exponential distribution

Q.10) Given the following information:


Probability of 1 or more defects = .69
Probability of 2 or more defects = .34
Probability of 3 or more defects = .12
Probability of 4 or more defects = .03
What is the probability of 2 or fewer defects?
0.34
A.
B.

0.69

C.

0.46

D.

0.88

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Q.11) Determine the 95% confidence interval of a population proportion if 6 defectives were found in a sample size of 100
units.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.12) Refer to the drawings below. Which of the following statement can be made regarding the two Venn diagrams?
I. Drawing E represent mutually exclusive events A and B
II. Drawing F represents an intersection between events A and B
III. Drawing E represents a union between events A and B

A.

I only

B.

II only

C.

II and III only

D.

No statements are correct

Q.13) The opposite of an alpha risk is called as:


Beta risk
A.
B.

1-beta risk

C.

level of confidence

D.

1-level of confidence

Q.14) Which of the following statements best describes a bimodal distribution?


This distribution shows stratified data and has two distinct peaks
A.
B.

This distribution shows a single mode and bell shaped distribution

C.

This distribution is truncated

D.

This distribution has several distribution peaks

Q.15) Identify the legitimate techniques for assuring data accuracy and integrity form the options below:
I. Avoid unnecessary rounding of data
II. Screen data to remove entry errors
III. Remove outlier data, as they arise
IV. Record data in time sequence, when appropriate
I and IV only
A.
B.

I, II and IV only

C.

II, III and IV only

D.

I, II, III and IV

Q.16) The Alpha risk is the risk of:


Accepting the lot when Sample results are OK.
A.

B.

Not accepting the lot when sample results are OK

C.

Not accepting the lot when sample results are Not-OK

D.

Not rejecting the lot when sample results are Not-OK

Q.17) Select the incorrect statement from among the following. The IDs of a certain piece of tubing are normally
distributed with mean 1.00. The proportion of tubing with IDs less than 0.90 is:
Less than the proportion of IDs greater than 0.90
A.
B.

Less than 50 percent

C.

Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 1.10:

D.

Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 1.00

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Q.18) Select the incorrect statement from among the following. The IDs of a certain piece of tubing are normally
distributed with mean 10.00 mm. The proportion of tubing with IDs less than 9.00 mm is:
Less than the proportion of IDs greater than 9.00 mm
A.
B.

Less than 50 percent

C.

Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 11.00 mm

D.

Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 10.00 mm

Q.19) Which two of the following confidence interval calculations require the use of Z table values?
I. Large sample means
II. Small sample means
III. Variation confidence intervals
IV. Proportion confidence intervals
I and II only
A.
B.

II and III only

C.

I and III only

D.

I and IV only

Q.20) A master or reference gage is used for the purpose of checking:


The finished product
A.
B.

The working gage for accuracy prior to measuring the product

C.

The working gage after measuring the part to assure that both the part and measurements are
correct
The working gage for accuracy after measuring a given number of parts

D.

Q.21) What percentage of the area under the standard normal curve is included within (+/-) 1.5 standard deviations from 0?
0.8664
A.
B.

0.75

C.

0.668

D.

0.9332

Q.22) Certain Six Sigma improvement efforts have resulted in the need to replace the existing measurement system and
others have not. What could be reasons for staying with an existing system?
I. Its precise enough
II. No better equipment exists
III. The current measurement is based on count data
IV. The improvement has not been successful
I only
A.
B.

II and III only

C.

I, II and IV only

D.

I, II, III and IV

Q.23) Statistical analysis estimates population parameters from what?


Populations
A.
B.

Sample Statistics

C.

Group observations

D.

Population strata

Q.24) Which of the following statements regarding process flow charts is / are accurate?
I. There can be multiple paths through the flowchart
II. there can only be a single process flow start point
III. flow charts can have parallel processes
IV. a flow chart can have multiple end points
I and III only
A.
B.

I, II and IV only

C.

II, III and IV only

D.

I, II, III and IV

Q.25) Which of the following statements describes attribute data?


Number of employees wearing green shirts
A.
B.

Number of liters of chemical used in a process

C.

Diameter of a hole

D.

Miles per liter of automobile fuel economy

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Q.26) A process model typically consists of which five input elements from the following options?
I. Machines
II. Materials
III. Power
IV. Methods
V. Environment
VI. Feedback
VII. People
I, II, III and V only
A.
B.

II, III, IV, VI and VII only

C.

I, II, IV, V and VII only

D.

I, II, IV, VI and VII only

Q.27) Process flow improvement steps normally do NOT include:


I. Asking why we do it this way
II. Asking what would make it perfect
III. Analysing each step in detail
IV. The use of Pareto diagrams
V. A comparison with processes different than your own
I and V only
A.
B.

II and IV only

C.

III only

D.

IV Only

Q.28) Given the data below is normally distributed, and the population standard deviation is 3.1, what is the 90%
confidence interval for the mean?
22, 23, 19, 17, 29, 25
20.88 - 24.12
A.
B.

20.42 - 24.59

C.

21.65 - 23.35

D.

17.4 - 27.6

Q.29) Locational data might be found on a:


I. Defect location check sheet
II. Measles chart
III. Concentration chart
II only
A.
B.

I and II only

C.

II and III only

D.

I, II and III

Q.30) In a normal distribution, what is the area under the curve between + 0.7 and +1.3 standard deviation units?
0.2903
A.
B.

0.758

C.

0.258

D.

0.1452

Q.31) What table value is normally used to place a confidence interval on the slope of a line in simple linear regression?
t
A.
B.

C.

D.

Chi-square

Q.32) The equation below is:

A.

The covariance of X and Y

B.

The correlation coefficient of X and Y

C.

The coefficient of determination of X and Y

D.

The variance of the product of X and Y

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Q.33) All multi-vari charts would initially plot a measurement for which of the following categories?
Within batch
A.
B.

Top to bottom

C.

Positional

D.

Cylindrical

Q.34) Ultimate responsibility & ownership for development & maintenance of FMEA is with
Quality
A.
B.

Engineering

C.

Production

D.

Management

Q.35) A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and their gasoline mileage. The
correlation coefficient was found to be 0.35. Later, it was discovered that there was a defect in the speedometers and
they had all been set 5 miles per hour to fast. The correlation coefficient was computed using the corrected scores. Its
new value will be:
0.3
A.
B.

0.35

C.

0.4

D.

-0.35

Q.36) Goodness of fit calculations for various distributions have many features in common. Which two of the following are
included?
I. They all use the same DF
II. They all use the same assumed distributions
III. They all use a calculated chi-square test statistic
IV. They are use data values structured in cells
I and II only
A.
B.

II and III only

C.

I and III only

D.

III and IV only

Q.37) What is the principal advantage of multi-vari charting?


It graphically displays the variation in a process
A.
B.

It keeps track of the time that measurements were made

C.

It assists in the breakdown of components of variation

D.

It is much easier to plot that most control charts

Q.38) The correlation coefficient for Test # 1 equals -0.89 and the correlation coefficient for Test # 2 equals 0.79.
Assuming the tests are in different subject areas, what statement is untrue?
Both tests show a strong correlation
A.
B.

The scatter around the regression line is greatest for Test # 1

C.

The slope for test #1 is negative

D.

Y increases as X increases in Test # 2

Q.39) The input categories for a classical cause and effect diagram would NOT include:
Maintenance
A.
B.

Manpower

C.

Machine

D.

Material

Q.40) In Ishikawa diagrams, the box at the far right usually contains the:
Problem statement
A.
B.

Environment factors

C.

Methods

D.

Manpower considerations

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Q.41) In order to calculate a performance capability index, what two facts must be known about the process?
I. The specification limits
II. The process average
III. The process standard deviation
IV. The process confidence interval
I and II only
A.
B.

I and III only

C.

II and III Only

D.

II and IV only

Q.42) Why are variable control chart subgroup sizes generally 3, 4, 5 or 6?


I. Large subgroup sizes would permit an opportunity for process changes with the subgroup
II. they fit onto traditional chart paper very well
III. they are large enough so that averages of data will follow the normal distribution
IV. they permit a separation of within time from time to time variation
II and III only
A.
B.

I and II only

C.

I, III and IV only

D.

I, II, III and IV

Q.43) When would Cp equal Cpk in a capability index calculation?


When the standard deviation is low
A.
B.

When the specification limits are wide

C.

When CP = PP

D.

When the process is perfectly centered

Q.44) If it is suspected that a process requiring a process capability determination is not a normal process but appears to be
stable. The least desirable action to take, at this point, would be to:
Advise the customer and request specification changes
A.
B.

Reduce variation to the point that it doesnt matter

C.

Transform the data to that of a normal distribution

D.

Test the normality assumption using a chi-square test

Q.45) If it is suspected that a process requiring a process capability determination is not a normal process but all sample
readings appears to be within specs. The least desirable action to take, at this point, would be to:
Continue Process with 100% Inspection
A.
B.

Re-validate Measurement System

C.

Observe Process to identify Special Causes to take action

D.

Continue Process & take actions if any part gets rejected.

Q.46) Statistical Process Control requires a strategy of ---Quality


A.
B.

Prevention

C.

Detection

D.

None of the above

Q.47) Given that resistors are produced in lots of 1000, and that the average number of defective resistors per lot is 12.7,
what are the upper and lower limits for the control chart appropriate for this process?
LCL = 2.0 UCL = 23.4
A.
B.

LCL = 3.8 UCL = 20.2

C.

LCL = 0.031 UCL 0.131

D.

LCL = 1.5 UCL = 26.7

Q.48) Determine the reported Cpk for a process with a spread of 10 units, an average of 23, and upper and lower
specification limits of 15 and 35 respectively.
1.6
A.
B.

0.8

C.

2.4

D.

1.2

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Q.49) If we drew a large number of samples from a controlled process, we would not be surprised to discover:
I. Some differences among the values of the sample means
II. A distribution of sample means around some central value
III. That many sample means differ from the process average
I only
A.
B.

II only

C.

I and III only

D.

I, II and III

Q.50) What quality luminary is generally recognized as having created the control chart?
Deming
A.
B.

Shewhart

C.

Juran

D.

Ishikawa

Q.51) What is the danger in using the formula:

to determine standard deviation for use in calculating a capability index?


Most processes are not control charted so R bar is not available
A.
B.

The factor d2 works when the process is in control and most processes aren't

C.

Automatic data collection provides a direct determination of standard deviation

D.

There is no danger, the calculation is just as valid as using individual readings

Q.52) Which type of Control Chart checks Pass / Fail?


X-Bar / Range Chart
A.
B.

C Chart

C.

P Chart

D.

All of these

Q.53) When the process spread is compared with the specification range, which of the following courses of action may
result:
I. Do nothing
II. Center the process
III. Reduce the variability
I only
A.
B.

II only

C.

III only

D.

I, II and III

Q.54) Given a Cp of 1.5 for a process and the same standard deviation and specification limits for the calculation of
capability or performance indices, one would not be surprised to find:
I. CR and PR to be equal
II. CR to be less than PP
III. PR to be less than CP
IV. CP and PP to be equal
I only
A.
B.

I and IV only

C.

II and III only

D.

I, II, III and IV

Q.55) If Cpk(upper) were determined to be 2.0 and Cpk(lower) were determined to be 1.0, what factual statements can be
made about the process?
I. The process is shifted to the lower
II. A calculation error has been made
III. The process is not stable
IV. Cpk must be reported as 1.0
IV only
A.
B.

I and IV only

C.

II and III only

D.

I, III and IV only

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Q.56) Pre-control starts a process specifically centered between:
Process limits
A.
B.

Specification limits

C.

Normal distribution limits

D.

Three-sigma control limits

Q.57) If the specifications for a process are unknown but the standard deviation of the process is known to be 1.0, which of
the following can NOT be determined?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
A.

I and II only

B.

I and III only

C.

III and IV only

D.

I, II, III and IV

Q.58) You are plotting a control chart and the last two of three points are greater than 2 sigma, four out of the last five
points are beyond 1 sigma and eight successive points are on one side of the center line; you should:
Stop the process immediately
A.
B.

Take more readings and continue to plot

C.

Write a discrepancy notice to the supervisor

D.

Investigate to determine what has changed

Q.59) Compute the upper control limit for an S chart, based on a sample size of 10, if the process is in control with a mean
of 40 and a sample standard deviation of 7.
12
A.
B.

13.3

C.

15.7

D.

21

Q.60) Recognizing the nature of process variability, the process capability target is usually:
Looser than product specifications
A.
B.

The same as product specifications

C.

Tighter than product specifications

D.

Not related to product specifications

Q.61) Six Sigma project methodology normally begins with what initial step?
Problem definition
A.
B.

Define

C.

Project charter

D.

Champion approval

Q.62) For many of the new quality management tools, the typical strength relationship symbols are illustrated via:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.63) When selecting potential team members, it is important those candidates:
Are from the same work group
A.
B.

Are at the same level within the organization

C.

Can discontinue their normal duties while participating on the team

D.

Have a reason to work together

Q.64) In the preparation of a project, efforts should be made to identify and involve various parties affected by the planned
changes. These other parties are known as:
process owners
A.
B.

champions

C.

team leaders

D.

stakeholders

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Q.65) A well-constructed problem statement includes all of the following Except:
Description of current process performance
A.
B.

Proposed solution

C.

Impact if problem is not solved

D.

Estimate of Cost of Poor Quality

Q.66) A new product such as a Pepsi with lemon twist would be considered:
New to the world
A.
B.

An addition to the product line

C.

A repositioned product

D.

Product improvement

Q.67) The boundaries of a project are contained in the:


Problem statement
A.
B.

Project scope

C.

Goal statement

D.

Resource required

Q.68) The project charter will be useful in many ways, including:


Providing a consistent target for the team
A.
B.

Permitting the team leader to develop milestones from it

C.

Assuring the champion will assign responsible team members

D.

Ensuring team members will support the charter

Q.69) Arrange the following design steps into a logical sequence from start to finish.
I. Measure and determine customer needs and specifications
II. Define the project goals and customer needs specifications
III. Analyze the process options
IV. Verify and validate the design
V. Develop the design details for producing the customer needs
I, II, III, IV, V
A.
B.

II, I, III, V, IV

C.

II, I, IV, III, V

D.

I, II, V, III, IV

Q.70) Project management is summarized as:


Vision, plan and implement
A.
B.

Goals, objectives and measurement

C.

Designing, engineering and manufacturing

D.

Planning, scheduling and controlling

Q.71) A project has more than one critical path. This means that:
Crashing an event might shorten the project time
A.
B.

The critical path was not calculated correctly

C.

Delaying an event on a critical path may not delay the project

D.

Shortening any one event cannot shorten the project duration

Q.72) Which groups of employees in the organization have the most to lose by employee involvement efforts?
Top management
A.
B.

Middle management

C.

Supporting staff functions

D.

Operators

Q.73) The elements of project management are:


I. Objectives
II. Planning
III. Scheduling
IV. Controlling
I, II and III only
A.
B.

I, II and IV only

C.

I, III and IV only

D.

II, III and IV only

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Q.74) Understanding, controlling and improving an organizations processes to create value for all stakeholders would be
called:
The SIPOC diagram
A.
B.

Process performance metric

C.

Business process management

D.

The establishment of KPIVs and KPOVs

Q.75) In robust design, a factor that can cause unknown variability, or an error in the response factor, is considered a:
Signal factor
A.
B.

Control factor

C.

Noise factor

D.

Response factor

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