TI.642 845V8.07.176Q A.

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Exam
: Cisco 642-845
Title
: Optimizing Converged
Cisco Networks
Version : V8.07
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1. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec
tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per
second (kBps).
Answer: CE
2. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.
B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.
C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.
D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.
Answer: BC
3. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Answer: BD
4. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).
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B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby
APs.
C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.
D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.
E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.
Answer: BD
5. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)
A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.
B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.
C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.
D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.
E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of
traffic.
F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.
Answer: BD
6. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.
B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.
C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.
D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.
E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.
Answer: CE
7. Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP
stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed
Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
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C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to
guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on)
to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the
DSCP value.
F. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which
traffic is classified.
Answer: BDF
8. Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?
A. G.711, PCM
B. G.728, LDCELP
C. G.729, CS-ACELP
D. G.729A, CS-ACELP
Answer: A
9. Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and
assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F. 55
Answer: D
10. What are the steps for configuring stateful NBAR for dynamic protocols?
A. Use the command ip nbar protocol-discovery to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the
command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
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B. Use the command match protocol rtp to allow identification of real-time audio and video traffic. Use the
command ip nbar port-map to extend the NBAR functionality for well-known protocols to new port numbers.
C. Use the command match protocol to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar
port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
D. Configure a traffic class. Configure a traffic policy. Attach the traffic policy to an interface.
E. Configure video streaming. Configure audio streaming. Attach the codec to an interface.
Answer: D
11. Two sites are using a multisite centralized call processing model. The voice gateway on the remote
branch has lost IP connectivity to its Cisco CallManager server. Which feature enables the remote gateway
to take the role of the call agent during the WAN failure?
A. automated alternate routing (AAR)
B. Cisco CallManager Attendant Console
C. real-time protocol (RTP)
D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)
Answer: D
12. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers have been configured as VoIP gateways. They must also support
traditional telephony devices to connect to analog telephones. Which two configuration changes would
correctly support the voice requirements? (Choose two.)
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A. On each router, under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, add the port fa0/0 command.
B. On each router, under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, add the port 1/0/0 command.
C. On each router, configure dial-peer voice 1 as a voip connection and configure dial-peer voice 2 as a
pots connection.
D. Under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, change the destination pattern of 1111 to 2222 on the R1
router, and 2222 to 1111 on the R2 router.
E. Under the dial-peer voice 2 voip configuration, change the destination pattern of 1111 to 2222 on the R1
router, and 2222 to 1111 on the R2 router.
F. Under the dial-peer voice 2 voip configuration, change the destination target address of 10.2.2.2 to
10.1.1.1 on the R1 router, and the destination target address of 10.1.1.1 to 10.2.2.2 on the R2 router.
Answer: BE
13. To have the best possible voice quality and to utilize effectively the available bandwidth, which queuing
and compression mechanisms need to be used? (Choose two.)
A. class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ)
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. priority queuing (PQ) or custom queuing (CQ)
D. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
E. TCP header compression
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F. UDP header compression
Answer: BD
14. Which three statements about end-to-end delay are true? (Choose three.)
A. End-to-end delay is the sum of propagation delays, processing delays, serialization delays, and queuing
delays.
B. Coast-to-coast end-to-end delay over an optical link is about 20 ms.
C. Processing delay depends on various factors, which include CPU speed, CPU utilization, IP switching
mode, and router architecture.
D. Propagation and serialization delays are related to the media.
E. Propagation delay is the time it takes to transmit a packet and is measured in bits-per-second (bps).
F. Serialization delay is the time it takes for a router to take the packet from an input interface and put it into
the output queue of the output interface.
Answer: ACD
15. What three statements are true about the various deployments of the 802.1x Extensible Authentication
Protocol (EAP)? (Choose three.)
A. EAP-FAST has the ability to tie login with non-Microsoft user databases.
B. EAP-TLS supports static passwords.
C. PEAP supports one-time passwords.
D. LEAP does not support multiple operating systems.
E. LEAP supports Layer 3 roaming.
F. PEAP does not work with WPA.
Answer: ACE
16. Refer to the exhibit. What variation of the 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) uses this
authentication process?
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A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TLS
Answer: A
17. What are three security problems with Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)? (Choose three.)
A. WPA is based on the outdated IEEE 802.11i standard.
B. WPA uses RSN, which uses the same base encryption algorithm as RC4.
C. WPA requires a hardware upgrade that may not be supported by all vendors.
D. WPA uses TKIP, which uses the same base encryption algorithm as WEP.
E. WPA is susceptible to a DoS attack when it receives two packets in quick succession with bad MICs,
forcing the AP to shut down the entire Basic Service Set (BSS) for one minute.
F. WPA is susceptible to a security weakness when preshared keys are used.
Answer: DEF
18. Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQoS for Enterprise? (Choose two.)
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A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. RTP is used to generate the policy.
D. LLQ, cRTP, and LFI are used to automatically discover the policy.
E. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
F. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.
Answer: BF
19. Which three methods would help prevent critical network-traffic packet loss on high speed serial
interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. policy routing
B. increase link capacity
C. WRED
D. CBWFQ
E. LFI
F. WFQ
Answer: BCD
20. Interface congestion is causing drops in voice packets and TCP packets. The drops result in jerky
speech quality and slower FTP traffic flows. Which two technologies would proactively address the TCP
transfer rate and the voice problems? (Choose two.)
A. CBWFQ
B. LLQ
C. traffic shaping
D. WRED
Answer: BD
21. What form of AutoQoS is supported on Cisco Catalyst 2950 switches with the Enhanced Image?
A. AutoQos Enterprise
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B. AutoQoS Campus
C. AutoQoS VoIP
D. AutoQoS LAN
Answer: C
22. Which two statements about the DiffServ QoS model are true? (Choose two.)
A. DiffServ requires RSVP to set up a path through the network to accommodate the requested QoS.
B. Network traffic is identified by class, and the level of service is chosen for each class.
C. The DiffServ model relies on a fairly simple mechanism to provide QoS over a wide range of equipment.
D. RSVP enables the DiffServ model to provide end-to-end QoS.
E. The DiffServ model is more scalable than the IntServ model.
F. The flow-based approach of the DiffServ model is ideal for large scalable implementations such as the
public Internet.
Answer: BE
23. Which two statements are true about the various methods of implementing QoS? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco AutoQoS can be used repeatedly to apply a single QoS policy to multiple interfaces.
B. Cisco AutoQoS includes an optional web-based GUI for automating the configuration of QoS services.
C. Cisco AutoQoS provides capabilities to automate VoIP deployments.
D. The auto qos global configuration command is used to configure Cisco AutoQoS.
E. The Modular QoS CLI (MQC) is the best way to fine tune QoS configurations.
F. The SDM QoS wizard is the fastest way to implement QoS.
Answer: CE
24. Which two statements are true about analog to digital conversion of voice signals for use in digital
telephony networks? (Choose two.)
A. The three required steps in the analog to digital conversion are sampling, encoding, and compression.
B. The three required steps in the analog to digital conversion are sampling, quantization, and compression.
C. The three required steps in the analog to digital conversion are sampling, quantization, and encoding.
D. The output of the sampling process is a pulse code modulation (PCM) signal.
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E. The output of the sampling process is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.
Answer: CE
25. Which two statements are true about the digital audio in a VoIP network? (Choose two.)
A. Standard encoding techniques create an uncompressed digital data rate of 4000 bps.
B. Standard encoding techniques create an uncompressed digital data rate of 8000 bps.
C. Standard encoding techniques create an uncompressed digital data rate of 64,000 bps.
D. Voice quality is not a concern if compression is not used.
E. Two methods of quantization are linear and logarithmic.
F. Two methods of compression are u-law and a-law .
Answer: CE
26. Which statement is true about Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) ports on a router?
A. The FXS interface allows an analog connection to be directed at the public switched telephone network
(PSTN's) central office.
B. The FXS interface connects directly to a standard telephone, fax machine, or similar device and supplies
ring, voltage, and dial tone.
C. The FXS interface connects directly to an IP phone and supplies ring, voltage, and dial tone.
D. The FXS interface connects directly to ISDN voice channels.
Answer: B
27. Which two statements are true about voice ports on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Calls to the PSTN can be made via the use of FXO or T1/E1 trunk ports.
B. Calls to the PSTN can be made via FXS or T1/E1 trunk ports.
C. Analog and IP phones can be connected to the VoIP network via FXO or T1/E1 trunk ports.
D. Calls between analog phones that are attached to the FXS ports in a VoIP network can be completely
processed by voice-enabled routers.
Answer: AD
28. What are two major sources of delay that can be managed by QoS in voice-enabled networks?
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(Choose two.)
A. propagation delay
B. voice packet serialization delay
C. congested egress queues
D. header overhead
E. packets dropped because of CRC errors
Answer: CD
29. Which statement is true about a distributed call control environment and the processing of dialed digits
from an IP phone?
A. The router that is directly connected to the IP phone will look up the called number in its call routing table.
B. The router that is directly connected to the IP phone will inform its call agent when a service request is
detected.
C. When the IP phone is picked up, the IP phone initiates the service request.
D. The directly connected router passes the collected digits to its call agent, and the call agent looks up in
its call-routing table the called number.
Answer: A
30. What are two steps that are taken when a router converts a voice signal from analog to digital form?
(Choose two.)
A. sampling
B. packetization
C. quantization
D. serialization
Answer: AC
31. Which three pieces of information are used to calculate the total bandwidth of a VoIP call? (Choose
three.)
A. the packetization size
B. the serialization of the interface
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C. the quantization
D. the packet rate
E. the UDP overhead
F. the TCP overhead
Answer: ADE
32. Which statement is true about the configuration of AutoQoS on a Frame Relay interface?
A. AutoQoS can be configured from a different subinterface if the DLCI is already assigned to one
subinterface.
B. Multilink PPP (MLP) over Frame Relay must be manually configured on low speed DLCIs.
C. For low-speed Frame Relay DLCIs with Frame Relay-to-ATM Interworking, the AutoQoS cannot be
configured if a virtual template is already configured for the DLCI.
D. AutoQoS can be configured on a Frame Relay DLCI only if a map class is attached to the DLCI.
Answer: C
33. Which two statements about the DiffServ model are true? (Choose two.)
A. A class can be identified as a single application, multiple applications with similar service needs, or be
based on the source or destination IP addresses.
B. A drawback of the DiffServ model is that it does not provide backward compatibility with devices that can
only use the ToS field.
C. DiffServ uses the DiffServ field in the MAC header to mark frames into behavior aggregates (BAs).
D. The DiffServ field occupies the same eight bits of the MAC header that were previously used for the ToS
field.
E. The first six high-order bits of the DiffServ field are used to identify the Resource Reservation Protocol
(RSVP) value.
F. The primary goal of DiffServ is scalability.
Answer: AF
34. Which three statements about classification marking of traffic at Layer 2 are true? (Choose three.)
A. A Frame Relay header includes a 1-bit discard eligible (DE) bit to provide the class of service (CoS).
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B. An ATM header includes a 1-bit DE field to provide the CoS.
C. An MPLS EXP field is inserted in the Layer 3 IP precedence field to identify the CoS.
D. The CoS field only exists inside Ethernet frames when 802.1Q or Inter-Switch Link (ISL) trunking is used.
E. In the IEEE 802.1p standard, three bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
F. In the IEEE 802.1q standard, six bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
Answer: ADE
35. In which three network technologies is traffic shaping used to prevent and manage congestion?
(Choose three.)
A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
B. Data-link switching (DLSw)
C. Route Processor Redundancy (RPR)
D. Frame Relay (FR)
E. Metro Ethernet
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Answer: ADE
36. Which two statements about the QoS functionality of the Cisco SDM are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first step when using the SDM QoS wizard is to select the inbound interface on which the QoS policy
must be applied.
B. The SDM QoS wizard can be used to optimize LAN, WAN, and VPN interfaces.
C. The SDM QoS wizard supports network-based application recognition (NBAR) to provide deep and
stateful packet inspection.
D. The SDM QoS wizard will apply custom queuing and priority queuing policies to the identified interfaces.
E. The SDM QoS wizard will apply low latency-queuing, custom-queuing and priority-queuing policies to the
identified interfaces.
F. To create and manage the QoS settings, the user must select the QoS wizard task under the Monitor
option.
Answer: BC
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37. Which two statements about the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption mechanism are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The two methods of authentication using the WEP encryption are open and shared key.
B. The 802.11 standard defines WEP security using 128-bit keys.
C. WEP can provide stronger authentication through the use of LEAP, PEAP, or EAP-FAST.
D. WEP is a scalable encryption solution that uses static keys for authentication.
E. WEP security provides only one-way authentication.
F. WEPv2 offers improved encryption by replacing the RC4 encryption mechanism with the AES (symmetric
block cipher) mechanism.
Answer: AE
38. Which two statements about the Wireless Control System (WCS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco WCS is designed to support 1500 Cisco WLAN controllers and up to 50 APs.
B. The Cisco WCS runs on a dedicated network device such as the Cisco 2700 network appliance.
C. The Cisco WCS runs on various Windows and Linux platforms.
D. The Cisco WCS screen displays four main menu sheet tabs consisting of Monitor, Configure, Security,
and Alarm.
E. The Cisco WCS uses the SNMP protocol to communicate with the controllers.
Answer: CE
39. Which two statements about the Wireless Location Appliance are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Wireless Location Appliance acts as a server to one or more Cisco WCSs. It collects, stores, and
passes on data from its associated Cisco WLAN controllers.
B. Before using the Web interface, the initial configuration of the Wireless Location appliance must be done
using the command-line interface (CLI).
C. The Cisco 2000, 2700, 4100, and 4400 are examples of Wireless Location Appliances.
D. The Wireless Location Appliance visually displays the location information of WLAN devices and
forwards this information to third-party applications using the Simple Network Management Protocol
(SNMP).
E. The Wireless Location Appliance visually tracks up to 15,000 WLAN devices and can store this
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information for 90 days.
Answer: AB
40. What best describes an FXO interface?

A. analog trunks that provide the Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) feature
B. analog trunks that provide VoIP gateway functionality
C. analog trunks that connect a gateway to plain old telephone service (POTS) device such as analog
phones, fax machines, and legacy voice-mail systems
D. analog trunks that connect a gateway to a central office (CO) or private branch exchange (PBX)
Answer: D
41. Which two statements about the WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
A. WLSE supports centralized configuration.
B. WLSE supports distributed configuration.
C. WLSE can pick up statistics on a device even if the device is not properly configured.
D. WLSE can be used to upgrade the firmware on APs and bridges.
E. WLSE monitors device fault and performance conditions but cannot report any policy misconfigurations.
Answer: AD
42. A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be
applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
A. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
C. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
E. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface and use the qos pre-classify command.
Answer: D
43. Which QoS preclassification option will require the use of the qos pre-classify command for the VPN
traffic?
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A. VPN traffic needs to be classified based on the Layer 2 header information.
B. VPN traffic needs to be classified based on the IP precedence or DSCP.
C. VPN traffic needs to be classified based on IP flow or Layer 3 information, such as source and
destination IP address.
D. VPN traffic with Authentication Header (AH) needs to preserve the ToS byte.
Answer: C
44. To provide quality of service (QoS) for voice traffic in an IEEE 802.1q network, which class of service
(CoS) value should be used in the 3-bit, user priority bits (PRI) field?
A. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 010.
B. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 011.
C. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 100.
D. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 101.
E. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 110.
F. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 111.
Answer: D
45. What is the goal of QoS in a network?

A. prevent packets from being dropped
B. increase available bandwidth
C. reduce hardware errors
D. provide predictable network service
E. eliminate propagation delay
F. eliminate jitter and packet loss
Answer: D
46. Which two IntServ functions are required on a router? (Choose two.)
A. admission control
B. DSCP classification
C. monitoring
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D. marking
E. scheduling
Answer: AE
47. What is a drawback to using the IntServ model?

A. RSVP that signals QoS requests per individual flow
B. not scalable to large implementations
C. admission control not supported
D. use of dynamic port numbers
E. UDP not supported
Answer: B
48. Which three statements are true about the application of QoS models? (Choose three.)
A. The DiffServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
B. The DiffServ model can be used to deliver QoS based upon IP precedence, or source and destination
addresses.
C. The DiffServ model requires RSVP.
D. The best effort model is suitable for applications such as file transfer and e-mail
E. The IntServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
F. The IntServ model attempts to deliver a level of service based on the QoS specified by each packet
Answer: BDE
49. What are three considerations when choosing the QoS model to deploy in a network? (Choose three.)
A. the routing protocols being utilized in the network
B. the applications utilizing the network
C. the traffic destinations
D. network addressing scheme
E. cost of implementation
F. the amount of the control needed of the resources
Answer: BEF
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50. What are two steps needed to define a QoS policy for a traffic class? (Choose two.)
A. Determine a minimum bandwidth guarantee.
B. Determine interfaces to which to apply policy.
C. Assign priorities to the class.
D. Configure access control lists.
Answer: AC
51. Which three statements are true about the data traffic characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose three.)
A. Latency must be kept below 150 ms.
B. Latency is not a concern as long as jitter is kept below 30 ms.
C. Voice packets do not require a specific type of queuing.
D. Voice packets are rather small
E. Voice packets require TCP for rapid retransmission of dropped packets.
F. Voice packets require a fairly constant bandwidth reserved for voice control traffic as well as for the voice
payload.
Answer: ADF
52. Which statement is true about the comparison of voice traffic with video traffic?
A. Video conferencing traffic tends to be much more bursty in nature and is more prone to have an impact
on other traffic flows.
B. Latency requirements are less stringent for video traffic than for voice traffic.
C. Video traffic is less sensitive to dropped packets than for voice traffic.
D. Video traffic requires the retransmission capabilities of TCP whereas voice uses UDP.
E. Voice traffic tends to be much more bursty in nature and is more prone to have an impact on other traffic
flows.
F. Voice traffic requires the retransmission capabilities of TCP whereas video uses UDP.
Answer: A
53. When analog signals are digitized using the G.711 codec, voice samples are encapsulated into protocol
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data units (PDUs) involving which three headers? (Choose three.)
A. IP
B. TCP
C. RTP
D. UDP
E. H.323
F. cRTP
Answer: ACD
54. Which header or set of headers does cRTP compress?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 2 and Layer 3
E. Layer 3 and Layer 4
Answer: E
55. When a router converts analog signals to digital signals, what three steps are always included in the
process? (Choose three.)
A. involution
B. encoding
C. sampling
D. quantization
E. compression
F. companding
Answer: BCD
56. Assume that network-based application recognition (NBAR) has been configured to gather traffic for all
known protocols on an interface. Which command will display the statistical results of all recognized
protocols?
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A. show ip nbar
B. show ip nbar pdlm
C. show ip nbar port-map
D. show ip nbar protocol-discovery
Answer: D
57. Which statement is true about the components of a queuing mechanism?

A. Each subinterface has its own hardware queue and can experience congestion just like its main
interface.
B. Hardware queuing is only used if the software queues are experiencing congestion.
C. Hardware queues and software queues are not used concurrently.
D. The hardware queuing system always uses the FIFO queuing mechanism.
Answer: D
58. Which two statements are true about the Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access
version 2 (WPA2) security solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Both WPA and WPA2 require authentication support via IEEE 802.1X and Pre-Shared Key (PSK).
B. Both WPA and WPA2 address all known Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) vulnerabilities in the IEEE
802.11i security implementation.
C. WPA is supported on client devices only. WPA2 is supported on both access point (AP) and client
devices.
D. WPA provides only a standard for authentication. WPA2 provides a standard for authentication and
encryption.
E. WPA requires encryption support via Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). WPA2 provides encryption
support via (symmetric block cipher) AES-CCMP.
Answer: AE
59. Which two Cisco AutoQoS configuration statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The auto discovery qos command is supported on serial interfaces, subinterfaces, and virtual interfaces.
B. CEF must be enabled before configuring the auto discovery qos command.
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C. The auto discovery qos privilege EXEC command must be configured on a router for several days to
collect a sampling of data traffic.
D. The auto qos trust command relies on NBAR to provide VoIP classification.
E. The auto qos voip command configures the VoIP classification on routers and switches.
Answer: BE
60. What accurately describes the usage of a Cisco AutoQoS command?

A. On Catalyst switches, the show auto discovery qos command is used to display the data collected during
the Auto-Discovery phase.
B. On Catalyst switches, the show auto qos command is used to display packet statistics of all classes that
are configured for all service policies.
C. On Cisco routers, the show mls qos maps command is used to verify the CoS-to-DSCP maps for egress
packet queuing.
D. On Cisco routers, the show auto qos command is used to display the AutoQoS interface templates,
policy maps, class maps, and ACLs.
Answer: D
61. Which certification-based protocol is implemented for wireless QoS between an AP and a wireless client
over RF media?
A. WMM using DCF
B. WMM using EDCF
C. 802.1e using DCF
D. 802.1e using EDCF
Answer: B
62. A branch office of Acme Insurance has 15 IP phones connected to the main office using the distributed
call processing model. Normally, the phones work with great quality. However, during very busy times when
all of the agents are on the phone at the same time, the voice quality drops precipitously. Words or phrases
or both are dropped from conversations. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. Large files are being downloaded over the WAN network.
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B. IP phone traffic is not being classified correctly.
C. More bandwidth is required for the office LAN.
D. Call Admission Control has not been implemented.
E. Employees are watching videos over the Internet.
F. Header compression is not being used.
Answer: D
63. What are three features of voice traffic on a network? (Choose three.)
A. bursty
B. constant
C. bandwidth intensive
D. small packet sizes
E. time-sensitive
F. retransmittable
Answer: BDE
64. A stream of voice packets transmitted over a WAN network encounters differing queuing delays. One
router in the path used by the voice packets delays some of the packets for 4 ms while transmitting a large
video file, but delays other packets only 2 ms. Another router delays some packets 5 ms, but transmits
others in 2 ms. How would you best describe this type of problem?
A. end-to-end delay
B. interference from bulk data traffic
C. processing delays
D. serialization delays
E. jitter
Answer: E
65. What are three of the functions that AutoQoS performs when it is configured on a switch? (Choose
three.)
A. synchronizes FIFO, PQ, CQ, and MDRR with WFQ, CBWFQ, and LLQ
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B. enables strict priority queuing for voice traffic, and weighted round robin queuing for data traffic
C. enables low latency queuing to ensure that voice traffic receives priority treatment
D. enforces a trust boundary on switch access ports and uplinks/downlinks
E. modifies queue sizes as well as queue weights where required
F. adjusts link speeds to adapt to QoS needs
Answer: BDE
66. What are two components of the Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. WCS
B. WLSE
C. WLC
D. WDS
E. LWAPP
Answer: BD
67. What are two components of the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. WCS
B. WLSE
C. Location Appliance
D. WDS
E. WLSE-Express
Answer: AC
68. What are two features of WLSE-Express wireless management? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management for autonomous access points
B. centralized management for lightweight access points
C. centralized management that requires an external AAA server
D. centralized management with integrated AAA server
E. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 1500 devices for 30 days
F. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 2500 devices for 30 days
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Answer: AD
69. What are two features of WCS wireless management? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management for autonomous access points
B. centralized management for lightweight access points
C. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 1500 devices for 30 days
D. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 2500 devices for 15 days
E. the inclusion of an integrated AAA server
F. an external AAA-server requirement
Answer: BC
70. After logging into the WCS wireless management server, the administrator is presented with the initial
home page showing the network summary. There are four main menu choices across the top horizontal
screen. What is the purpose of the Location menu choice?
A. to configure the location and addition of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) using an IP address
B. to enable the "on demand" location of a single rogue AP or rogue client
C. to configure the communication with a Location Appliance
D. to configure the location and addition of a wireless access point using an IP address
Answer: C
71. What is the correct procedure for adding an access point in WCS?
A. Choose Configure > Access_Point, then enter the AP MAC address.
B. Choose Configure > Access_Point, then enter the IP address of the AP.
C. Choose Configure > Controller, then enter the IP address of the WLC.
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D. Wait until the WLC downloads its code from the WCS and choose the access point from the list under
the WLC option of the Configure menu.
E. Wait until the AP downloads its code from the WCS and choose the access point from the list under the
Access_Point option of the Configure menu.
Answer: C
72. Which two statements about the open and shared key wireless-authentication methods are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Shared key authentication is considered more secure than open authentication.
B. Shared key authentication is considered less secure than open authentication.
C. If the WEP keys do not match using the open authentication method, the client will not authenticate,
associate, and transfer data.
D. If the WEP keys do not match using the open authentication method, the client will still be able to
authenticate and associate, but will not transfer data.
E. If the WEP keys do not match using the open authentication method, the client will still be able to
authenticate, associate, and transfer data.
Answer: BD
73. Which two statements best describe enhanced wireless security encryption? (Choose two.)
A. TKIP protects RC4 encryption keys.
B. CKIP and TKIP protect AES encryption keys.
C. TKIP encryption is more processor intensive than AES encryption is.
D. WPA requires TKIP encryption, whereas WPA2 supports AES encryption.
E. WPA requires AES encryption, whereas WPA2 supports TKIP encryption.
Answer: AD
74. Which statement is true about the capabilities of a voice gateway router?
A. Voice gateways with analog interfaces need a gatekeeper to convert analog signals into digital format
before voice is encapsulated into IP packets.
B. Voice gateways need a gatekeeper to interconnect the VoIP networks with the PSTN network.
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C. Voice gateways with Cisco Unified CallManager Express (CME) can permanently act as a call agent for
IP phones.
D. Voice gateways equipped with a DSP module can take the role of the call agent during WAN failure.
Answer: C
75. Which statement is true about the distributed call control in a VoIP network?
A. The VoIP endpoints have the intelligence to set up and control calls.
B. Call setup and control functionality is centralized in one call agent or cluster.
C. Call setup and control resides in call agents that are distributed throughout the network.
D. Each VoIP device has separate call control, voice packetization, and transport mechanisms.
Answer: A
76. Using the G.729 codec and the default cRTP configuration, what is the approximate VoIP bandwidth
savings across a Frame Relay link that adds a 6 byte frame header?
A. 55%
B. 58%
C. 60%
D. 63%
Answer: B
77. The Acme company has determined that during its busiest hours, the average number of internal VoIP
calls across the WAN link is four (4). Since this is an average, the WAN link has been sized for six (6) calls
with no call admission control. What will happen when a seventh call is attempted across the WAN link?
A. The seventh call is routed via the PSTN.
B. The call is denied and the original six (6) calls remain.
C. The call is completed and the first call is dropped.
D. The call is completed, but all calls have quality issues.
E. The call is completed but the seventh call has quality issues.
Answer: D
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78. Acme Company has offices around the country. With the use of Cisco Unified CallManager, the
company has deployed a VoIP network in a multisite centralized configuration. Which IOS gateway feature
should be deployed to enable VoIP devices to register with a local gateway and continue to function when
the connection to the Cisco Unified CallManager is broken?
A. Gatekeeper multizone
B. Call Admission Control (CAC)
C. Automatic Alternate Routing (AAR)
Answer: D
79. Acme Company has several offices around the country. The company has deployed a VoIP network
with Cisco Unified CallManager in a multisite centralized configuration but there is a requirement to place a
call agent at some of the remote sites. Which IOS gateway feature should be deployed at the remote site to
enable local call control?
A. Gatekeeper multizone
B. Call Admission Control (CAC)
C. Automatic Alternate Routing (AAR)
E. Cisco Unified CallManager Express (CME)
Answer: E
80. Identify the link efficiency mechanism.

A. LFI
B. LLQ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ
E. WRED
Answer: A
81. Refer to the exhibit. A router has a 256 kbps Frame Relay circuit connected to interface serial 0/0. As a
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large FTP packet is being placed into the hardware transmit queue of interface serial 0/0, a voice packet is
placed into the priority queue of that interface. How, and in what order, will the packets be transmitted?
A. The voice packet will be transmitted first, followed by the FTP packet in its entirety.
B. The voice packet will be transmitted first, followed by the fragmented FTP packet.
C. The FTP packet will be fragmented and the voice packet will be interleaved.
D. The FTP packet will be transmitted first in its entirety, followed by the voice packet.
Answer: D
82. In a VoIP network, which three call signaling protocols are supported by the Cisco CallManager for call
setup, call maintenance, and call teardown? (Choose three.)
A. H.323
B. UDP
C. RTP
D. TCP
E. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)
F. session initiation protocol (SIP)
Answer: AEF
83. Refer to the exhibit. What type of interface will connect the voice gateway router R1 to the analog phone
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and the fax machine?
A. The analog phone will be connected to the FXS port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXO
port on router R1.
B. The analog phone will be connected to the FXO port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXS
port on router R1.
C. Both devices will be connected to the FXS ports on router R1.
D. Both devices will be connected to the FXO ports on router R1.
E. Both devices will be connected to the E and M ports on router R1.
Answer: C
84. What type of services are provided by the Cisco IOS gateways in a VoIP network with Cisco CallManger
functionality?
A. Cisco IOS gateways provide services such as address translation and network access control for the
devices on the network.
B. Cisco IOS gateways provide services such as bandwidth management and accounting.
C. Cisco IOS gateways provide media termination and signal translation between the public switched
telephone network (PSTN) and IP networks.
D. Cisco IOS gateways provide zone management for all registered endpoints in the network.
Answer: C
85. What are two components of the QoS Integrated Services (IntServ) model? (Choose two.)
A. link efficiency
B. admission control
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C. classification and marking
D. shaping and policing
E. congestion avoidance using the RTP protocol
F. resource reservation using the RSVP protocol
Answer: BF
86. Which QoS model manages the QoS requirements for the network on a per-hop behavior (PHB) basis?
A. best-effort delivery
B. ingress committed rate (ICR)
C. shaping and policing
D. egress committed rate (ECR)
E. Integrated Services (IntServ)
F. differentiated services (DiffServ)
Answer: F
87. Refer to the exhibit. What QoS model should be used to reserve the requested bandwidth and delay
needed for each allowed VoIP call regardless of changing network conditions?
A. best-effort delivery
B. ingress committed rate (ICR)
C. shaping and policing
D. egress committed rate (ECR)
E. Integrated Services (IntServ)
F. differentiated services (DiffServ)
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Answer: E
88. Which two statements are true about the protocols that are used for transmitting voice traffic? (Choose
two.)
A. RTP multiplexing is used to keep multiple phone conversations separate.
B. RTP provides end-to-end delivery services for voice traffic.
C. UDP is used to ensure a reliable transmission from sender to receiver.
D. RTP is used to provide resource reservation for the voice stream.
E. UDP provides multiplexing of multiple phone conversations.
Answer: BE
89. What best describes processing delay?

A. the time required from receipt of the incoming frame, until the frame/packet has been queued for
transmission
B. the time taken for a single packet to traverse the physical medium from one end to the other
C. the time taken to place a frame on the physical medium for transport
D. the time spent for a packet to reside in the output queue of a router
Answer: A
90. What are two reasons for packet loss on a VoIP connection? (Choose two.)
A. serialization delay
B. overrun
C. full buffers and queues
D. propagation delay
E. shaping delay
F. TCP header errors
Answer: BC
91. What is the best description of serialization delay?

A. the time it takes for a Layer 3 switch or a router to switch a packet from an inbound interface to the queue
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of the outbound interface
B. the time it takes for a packet to propagate from source to destination
C. the time it takes to place a frame on the physical medium for transport
D. the time a packet resides in the outbound queue of a router
Answer: C
92. Which technology can be used to help prevent DoS attacks on infrastructure devices such as routers
and switches?
A. MAC address filtering
B. control plane policing
C. AAA
D. SNMP
E. rate-limiting
Answer: B
93. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. Telnet traffic originating from the router will be rate limited unless it is destined for hosts 10.1.1.1 or
10.1.1.2.
B. The configuration will not rate limit any Telnet traffic until it is applied to a router interface.
C. All Telnet traffic destined for the router will be rate limited.
D. Telnet traffic from hosts 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2 destined for the router will not be rate limited.
Answer: D
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94. What are three Cisco Unified CallManager features? (Choose three.)
A. programming interface to external applications
B. FXS and FXO port negotiation
C. AutoQos VoIP trust boundaries
D. signaling and device control
E. LLQ for voice and video traffic
F. directory and XML services
Answer: ADF
95. What management tool could be used to provide centralized configuration, monitoring, and
management in a network built on Cisco wireless LAN controllers and Lightweight APs?
A. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) Express
C. Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. Wireless Domain Services (WDS)
E. WLAN Controllers (WLC)
Answer: C
96. How does weighted random early detection (WRED) prevent packet loss?
A. increases link capacity
B. increases buffer space to accommodate bursts of traffic from delay-sensitive applications
C. provides prioritized forwarding for drop-sensitive applications
D. drops lower priority packets before congestion occurs
E. separates traffic into as many as 64 queues that can be uniquely prioritized
Answer: D
97. What are three types of packet delays that occur in a network? (Choose three.)
A. timing
B. queuing
C. differential
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D. serialization
E. packetization
F. propagation
Answer: BDF
98. What are two ways to minimize the delay of VoIP packets that are traversing a network? (Choose two.)
A. Use WFQ, CBWFQ, and LLQ to prioritize delay-sensitive packets.
B. Use WFQ, CBWFQ, and LLQ to compress the payload.
C. Give TCP packets priority over UDP packets.
D. Use control plane policing for cRTP queuing.
E. Use stacker and predictor to compress the payload.
Answer: AE
99. What are three factors used to determine the amount of bandwidth that is required for a single VoIP call?
(Choose three.)
A. codec
B. link speed
C. Layer 2 encapsulation
D. packet overhead (IP/UDP/RTP)
E. link delay
F. total number of simultaneous calls that are allowed
Answer: ACD
100. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the function of the frame-relay voice-bandwidth
24000 command that is shown in the partial configuration?
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A. It limits the total bandwidth available on the Frame Relay link.

B. It provides call admission control by limiting the number of voice calls over the Frame Relay link.
C. It sets up IP RTP Priority features that reserve bandwidth for voice traffic flows.
D. It is functionally equivalent to configuring LLQ.
E. It limits the bandwidth that is taken by individual voice calls to 24000 b/s.
Answer: B
101. What are two reasons to implement H.323 gatekeepers? (Choose two.)
A. to eliminate the need for VoIP gateways
B. to scale a VoIP installation with multiple gateways
C. to provide call admission control and limit the number of simultaneous calls on the network
D. to meet the requirement to control H.323 gateways on a LAN
E. to accept call requests and reduce the load on the gateway
Answer: BC
102. Refer to the exhibit. The network has been configured with H.323 gateways and gatekeepers as
shown. Which statement is true when a call is placed?
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A. A gatekeeper is contacted to determine the correct local gateway to use.

B. A gateway will receive the call and forward a call request to the local gatekeeper.
C. A gateway will receive the call and forward a call request to the gatekeeper on the other side of the WAN.
D. A gatekeeper will receive the call and forward a call request to the remote gateway.
Answer: B
103. Refer to the exhibit. What will the H.323 gateways do when they receive a call request?
A. forward an admission request to the local gatekeeper

B. forward an admission request to the remote gatekeeper
C. send a location request to the remote gateway
D. send a location request to the remote gatekeeper
Answer: A
104. What is the term that is used to describe the process of converting a signal from digital to analog?
A. packetization
B. quantization
C. decoding
D. sampling
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Answer: C
105. Which two options can be used as traffic descriptors when classifying and marking traffic? (Choose
two.)
A. incoming interface
B. Layer 2 differentiated services code point (DSCP)
C. Layer 3 IP precedence
D. outgoing interface
Answer: AC
106. What are three problems with the tail drop mechanism of managing interface congestion? (Choose
three.)
A. Queuing introduces equal delays for packets of the same flow, resulting in jitter.
B. When congestion occurs, dropping affects most of the TCP sessions, which simultaneously back off and
then restart again.
C. All buffers can temporarily be seized by aggressive flows, and normal TCP flows experience buffer
starvation.
D. There is no differentiated drop mechanism. Higher priority traffic is dropped in the same way as besteffort traffic.
E. In TCP starvation, traffic exceeds the queue limit because of the bursty nature of packet networks. A
router cannot handle multiple concurrent TCP sessions.
F. Global synchronization occurs because multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates at random
intervals in response to packet dropping.
Answer: BCD
107. Cisco provides two enhancements to 802.11 security which protect a WEP key from exploits. Which
two technologies provide these security enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. 802.1x
B. Cisco Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (CKIP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST)
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D. Cisco Message Integrity Check (CMIC)
E. One-Time Passwords (OTP)
F. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Answer: BD
108. Which two QoS classification and marking statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In a Frame Relay network, delay sensitive traffic is tagged with the discard eligible (DE) bit.
B. In an MPLS network, the three most significant bits of the DSCP or the IP precedence of the IP packet
are copied into the MPLS EXP field.
C. In an MPLS network, the MPLS EXP bits are used to identify up to 16 CoS values.
D. The differentiated services code point (DSCP) field consists of the first three bits of the IP precedence
field in the header of an IP packet.
E. The 802.1Q standard uses a three bit field referred to as the user priority bits (PRI) to mark packets as
belonging to a specific CoS.
Answer: BE
109. Which two pairings match the application with the correct CoS value? (Choose two.)
A. CoS 0 = Best-Effort Data
B. CoS 1 = Best-Effort Data
C. CoS 3 = High Priority Data
D. CoS 4 = High Priority Data
E. CoS 5 = Voice Bearer
F. CoS 7 = Voice Bearer
Answer: AE
110. Which two characteristics are common between traffic policing and traffic shaping? (Choose two.)
A. The rate of traffic is measured and compared to a configured policy.
B. Classification is used to differentiate traffic.
C. Traffic is marked and sent out according to priority.
D. Both can be applied to inbound and outbound traffic.
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E. Both buffer traffic to ensure a predetermined traffic rate.
F. Both drop traffic that is above a predetermined traffic rate.
Answer: AB
111. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives an Ethernet frame that contains an IP datagram of 1500 bytes.
The packet will be forwarded if it conforms to the traffic policing policy that is applied outgoing on the serial
interface. Using single token-bucket class-based policing, which three settings would allow the entire
packet to be transmitted during time period T_c? Assume the token bucket is full of tokens. (Choose three.)
A. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 100 msec

B. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 10 msec
C. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 1 msec
D. CIR = 512 Kb/s, T_c = 100 msec
E. CIR = 512 Kb/s, T_c = 10 msec
F. CIR = 512 Kb/s, T_c = 1 msec
Answer: ABD
112. Which two statements or sets of statements are true about the application of the qos pre-classify
command? (Choose two.)
A. If the classification policy is based upon the ToS byte, the qos pre-classify command is required because
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the ToS byte only appears in the inner IP header.
B. The ToS byte is copied to the outer header by default. Therefore, the qos pre-classify command is not
necessary.
C. With GRE encapsulation, the qos pre-classify command is applied on the tunnel interface. This practice
allows for different QoS configurations on each tunnel.
D. With GRE encapsulation, the qos pre-classify command is applied on the physical interface. This
practice allows for different QoS configurations on each interface.
E. With IPsec encapsulation, the qos pre-classify command is applied on the physical interface. This
practice allows for different QoS configurations on each interface.
Answer: BC
113. Which device is normally used to translate telephone numbers or names to IP addresses for call
routing in an H.323 network?
A. call agent
B. IP phone
C. multipoint control unit
D. gatekeeper
Answer: D
114. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the order of signaling and call processing events
when a branch employee calls headquarters?
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A. P,S,T,U
B. U,T,S,P
C. S,U,P,T
D. P,U,S,T
E. S,P,U,T
F. S,P,T,U
Answer: C
115. Which three functions are associated with a Cisco Unified CallManager? (Choose three.)
A. connects traditional telephony devices to voice over IP infrastructure
B. converts analog signals to digital format
C. performs voice compression
D. performs call processing
E. performs dial plan administration
F. performs signaling and device control
Answer: DEF
116. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum available bandwidth for the path between the workstation
and the server?
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A. 256 kb/s
B. 512 kb/s
C. 1 Mb/s
D. 10 Mb/s
E. 100 Mb/s
F. 110.768 Mb/s
Answer: A
117. Refer to the exhibit. What three actions can be taken to guarantee QoS for voice traffic? (Choose
three.)
A. Implement traffic policing on the ISP routers.

B. Prioritize traffic on customer routers.
C. Configure random early detection on the customer routers.
D. Implement TCP/RTP header compression on the links between the customer and ISP routers.
E. Implement network-based application recognition (NBAR) on the ISP routers.
F. Configure low latency queuing (LLQ) on the customer routers.
Answer: BDF
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118. Which two statements are true about Voice over IP (VoIP) packet delivery in a digital infrastructure?
(Choose two.)
A. Packets can arrive out of order.
B. Packets must take the same path to the destination.
C. Once packets are received at the destination router, the router performs sampling to ensure the quality
of the voice traffic.
D. Packets can experience varying delays across the network.
E. Packets containing voice samples are sequentially numbered by default, allowing for reordering upon
arrival at the terminal router along the path.
Answer: AD
119. A network administrator noticed that a router has been experiencing abnormally high route processor
CPU utilization near 100%. Such utilization cannot be explained by known traffic patterns. The network
administrator determined that the router has been the target of DoS attacks. What QoS feature should be
configured on the router to help protect it from DoS attacks?
A. CPU Reservation Policing
B. traffic shaping
C. weighted RED
D. Control Plane Policing
Answer: D
120. Refer to the exhibit. A Wireless Location Appliance has been included in the wireless network. Which
statement is true about the location calculation process performed by the Location Appliance?
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A. The access points (APs) collect and aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI)
information from all Wi-Fi devices on the network and send it to the Location Appliance by way of the
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
B. The access points (APs) collect and aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI)
information from all Wi-Fi devices on the network and send it to the Location Appliance through the
Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP).
C. The wireless LAN controllers aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI) information from
the lightweight access points (APs) and send it to the Location Appliance by way of the Simple Network
Management Protocol (SNMP).
D. The wireless LAN controllers collect and aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI)
information from all Wi-Fi devices on the network and send it to the Location Appliance through the
Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP).
Answer: C
121. Which three options are prerequisites to configuring Cisco AutoQoS? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be globally enabled.
B. Prior to the enabling of the Cisco AutoQoS feature, the bandwidth command must be applied on all
interfaces or subinterfaces.
C. After the enabling of the Cisco AutoQoS feature, the bandwidth command must be applied on all
interfaces or subinterfaces .
D. QoS policies must be enabled on all interfaces that will participate in the AutoQoS configuration.
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E. An IP address must be configured on all low-bandwidth interfaces (768 kb/s or lower) that will participate
in the AutoQoS configuration.
F. An IP address must be configured on all interfaces that will participate in the AutoQoS configuration.
Answer: ABE
122. What are the three models of quality of service (QoS) in a network?
A. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
B. first-in, first-out (FIFO)
C. best-effort
D. CBWFQ
E. IntServ
F. DiffServ
Answer: CEF
123. Within the WMM policy, how many default QoS radio access categories are there?
A. 8
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: C
124. What is an advantage of the IntServ QoS model?

A. It supports admission control that allows a network to reject or downgrade new RSVP sessions if one of
the interfaces in the path has reached the limit (that is, all reservable bandwidth is booked).
B. RSVP signals QoS requests per individual flow. In the request the authorized user (authorization object)
and needed traffic policy (policy object) are sent. The network can then provide best-effort delivery to these
individual flows.
C. RSVP streamlines communication by making it unnecessary to inform network devices of flow
parameters (IP addresses and port numbers).
D. Because of the stateful RSVP architecture, continuous signaling does not have to occur.
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E. The flow-based approach is scalable to large implementations, such as the public Internet, because
RSVP tracks each individual flow.
Answer: A
125. Refer to the exhibit. The column headings A, B, and C, represent Layer 2 and 3 QoS packet marking
methods. Which option correctly matches the QoS marking method with its values?
A. A = 802.11e priority values, B = 802.1p priority values, C = DSCP priority values

B. A = 802.11e priority values, B = DSCP priority values, C = 802.1p priority values
C. A = 802.1p priority values, B = 802.11e priority values, C = DSCP priority values
D. A = 802.1p priority values, B = DSCP priority values, C = 802.11e priority values
E. A = DSCP priority values, B = 802.1e priority values, C = 802.11p priority values
F. A = DSCP priority values, B = 802.1p priority values, C = 802.11e priority values
Answer: F
126. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, where is LWAPP encapsulation
implemented?
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A. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the WLAN access point and the wireless clients.
B. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wireless LAN controller and the wireless clients.
C. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wired switch and the wireless clients.
D. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wireless LAN controller and the WLAN access point.
E. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wired switch and the WLAN access point.
F. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wired switch and the wireless LAN controller.
Answer: D
127. Refer to the exhibit. What is the configuration an example of?
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A. enabling modular QoS over Frame Relay

B. enabling Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. enabling distributed compressed Transmission Control Protocol
D. enabling latency and jitter reduction for Transmission Control traffic
E. enabling TCP header compression
Answer: E
128. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are to be configured as VoIP gateways. On the basis of the
information in the exhibit, which dial peer configuration would be valid?
A. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 1 pots

R1(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R1(config-dial-peer)# port 1/0/0
B. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 1 voip
C. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 1 pots
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D. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 1 voip
Answer: A
129. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are to be configured as VoIP gateways. On the basis of the
information in the exhibit, which dial peer configuration would be valid?
A. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 2 pots

R1(config-dial-peer)# session target ipv4:10.1.1.1
B. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 2 voip
C. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 2 pots
D. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 2 voip
Answer: D
130. Refer to the exhibit. A portion of the template that was generated on a Cisco router by AutoQoS is
displayed. Which two signaling protocols are classified? (Choose two.)
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A. MGCP
B. RTCP
C. SQLnet
D. Citrix
E. H.323
Answer: AE
131. Which two methods are available for modifying the active Cisco AutoQoS configuration on a router?
(Choose two.)
A. TFTP in ROM Monitor mode
B. QoS Policy Manager (QPM)
C. Security Device Manager (SDM)
D. command-line interface (CLI)
Answer: BD
132. What is the maximum number of access points that can be supported from a single Wireless LAN
Solution Engine (WLSE) console?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
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D. 2500
E. 3000
F. 3500
Answer: D
133. Which three benefits are realized by implementing Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose
three.)
A. improved WLAN security
B. simplified AP deployment
C. dynamic RF management
D. on-demand location of rogue APs
E. system-wide control of status and alarm monitoring
F. automatic channel and power level adjustment
Answer: ABC
134. When deploying a Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) with the 2700 series location appliance, to
within what range is on-demand location of rogue APs possible?
A. 1 meter
B. 5 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 25 meters
E. 33 meters
Answer: C
135. Which three user interfaces exist for the Cisco WLAN Controllers? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)
B. command-line interface (CLI)
C. Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. TFTP
E. an HTTPS web user interface
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F. an HTTP web user interface
Answer: BCE
136. End-to-end QoS is maintained in the Cisco WLAN deployment model by utilizing what parameter in
lieu of 802.1p?
A. IP precedence
B. type of service (ToS)
C. class of service (CoS)
D. differentiated services code point (DSCP)
Answer: D
137. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded based upon the displayed settings in this page of the
wireless controller graphical user interface?
A. Wireless clients are required to be WMM/802.11e compliant to use WLAN ID 1.

B. QoS service is offered to WMM/802.11e capable wireless clients and default QoS is offered for nonWMM/802.11e wireless clients.
C. WMM/802.11e QoS requests will be ignored.
D. The session will time out in one hour.
E. The WLAN ID is the association from the WLAN SSID to a unique administratively defined number that
in turn corresponds to security policies.
Answer: C
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138. The Cisco SDM will create a QoS policy that provides services to two types of traffic. Which two
statements indicate the default QoS parameters that are created by SDM? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic will be sorted into two QoS classes.
B. Real-time traffic will be sorted into one QoS class.
C. Voice traffic will be considered real-time traffic while call signaling will be considered business-critical.
D. All traffic except real-time will be considered best-effort.
E. Routing, management, and transactional traffic will be considered business-critical.
F. Voice and call signaling traffic will be considered real-time.
Answer: EF
139. When Cisco SDM is used to generate QoS policy, various QoS classes will be created and assigned a
percentage of the interface bandwidth. Which three statements indicate the default bandwidth values that
are assigned by SDM for outgoing traffic on a WAN interface? (Choose three.)
A. Voice traffic will be assigned 47% of the interface bandwidth.
B. Voice call signaling will be assigned 33% of the interface bandwidth.
C. Telnet, SSH, and other traffic that is generated to manage the router is assigned 5% of the interface
bandwidth.
D. Best-effort traffic will be assigned 38% of the interface bandwidth.
E. Routing protocol traffic will be assigned 5% of the interface bandwidth.
F. Transactional traffic will be assigned 5% of the interface bandwidth.
Answer: CEF
140. Which statement is true about the Call Admission Control (CAC) feature in VoIP networks?
A. CAC is used to allocate enough bandwidth for the number of calls that are allowed on the VoIP network.
B. CAC is used to protect the quality of the voice calls by preventing call establishment if enough resources
are not available on the network.
C. CAC provides queuing mechanisms for voice calls if the packets exceed the configured or budgeted rate.
D. In a VoIP network the CAC can be replaced with the LLQ QoS mechanism if it has been properly
implemented.
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Answer: B
141. What can be used to maintain the voice quality on a link by limiting the number of calls that can be
active at any given time?
A. Call Management Link Agent
B. Traffic policing
C. Call Admission Control
D. QoS Link Congestion Management
E. Oversubscription Link Detection
Answer: C
142. Which two VoIP capabilities are utilized when the CallManager and the gateway are configured for
Survivable Remote Site Telephony? (Choose two.)
A. Analog phones, connected to the PSTN, act as internal call agents if IP communication to the
CallManager is lost.
B. An onsite gateway reroutes calls over the PSTN if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
C. The IP phones can reroute calls over the PSTN if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
D. Local voice gateways can assume the function of a call agent if IP communication to the CallManager is
lost.
E. IP phones use an internal call agent if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
Answer: BD
143. Which two statements are correct about the signaling methods that are utilized for transmitting voice?
(Choose two.)
A. Channel-associated signaling transmits control signals in band and therefore reduces the bandwidth
available for the voice data stream.
B. Channel-associated signaling utilizes a separate TDM channel for transmitting control signals.
C. Common channel signaling transmits control signals in band and therefore reduces the bandwidth
available for the voice data stream.
D. Common channel signaling uses one of the TDM channels to transmit control information reducing the
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number of channels available for voice.
E. ISDN BRIs implement channel-associated signaling.
Answer: AD
144. Which three practices are important to the implementation of a DiffServ QoS architecture? (Choose
three.)
A. Because services are allocated throughout the network before the transmission of data begins, traffic
classes can be guaranteed QoS services.
B. Traffic classes are marked with Layer 2 markings to allow for more granularity in identifying traffic
classes.
C. Traffic classes are marked with Layer 3 markings to allow them to traverse different network types
without loss of QoS information.
D. Traffic classes allow networks to provide proper QoS treatment of packets without applications having to
request services.
E. Based upon the network capabilities, QoS markings are placed on packets as needed throughout the
network to allow for proper QoS treatment of packets.
F. QoS markings are placed on packets as close to the network edge as possible to allow distribution and
core devices to determine QoS actions as quickly as possible.
Answer: CDF
145. Refer to the exhibit. An IP packet, Ethernet frame, and MPLS frame are shown. Which two statements
are correct about the QoS marking relationships between them? (Choose two.)
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A. A provider MPLS network will utilize IP precedence, CoS or EXP bits to provide QoS service through the
provider network.
B. QoS markings from the Ethernet frame or IP packet will be mapped to MPLS EXP bits to allow for QoS
service to be continued through a provider network.
C. MPLS mappings by the provider will change the IP ToS bits as a packet traverses an MPLS network.
D. Some networks require Ethernet CoS bits to be mapped to IP ToS bits because end devices can only
mark at Layer 3.
E. Mapping CoS bits from the Ethernet frame to the IP ToS bits can be provisioned only at the edge of the
provider network.
Answer: BD
146. In the design of a QoS solution, which two factors should be taken into consideration? (Choose two.)
A. On congested links, all forms of traffic will require some form of QoS.
B. All traffic types and requirements should be examined to determine the number of traffic classes required.
C. In the implementation of link efficiency mechanisms on links that typically transport relatively large
packets, header compression will be most efficient.
D. In the implementation of link efficiency mechanisms on links that typically transport relatively small
packets, header compression will be most efficient.
E. In the implementation of link efficiency mechanisms on links that typically transport relatively small
packets, payload compression will be most efficient.
F. Payload compression provides more available bandwidth and reduces processing delay time.
Answer: BD
147. In a VoIP network, which type of interface would an analog fax machine connect to?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. E&M
Answer: C
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148. Which set of steps represents the correct sequence a router would take when converting an analog
signal to a digital signal?
A. Step 1: quantization
Step 2: sampling
Step 3: encoding
B. Step 1: sampling
Step 2: encoding
Step 3: quantization
C. Step 1: quantization
Step 2: sampling
Step 3: encoding
D. Step 1: sampling
Step 2: quantization
Step 3: encoding
Answer: D
149. What is the purpose of the Control Plane Policing (CoPP) feature of a network device?
A. to protect the CPU from high utilization
B. to direct traffic across the control plane to its appropriate destination
C. to protect the control plane against excessive legitimate IP data traffic
D. to protect the control plane against DoS attacks
E. to protect the route processor from resource exhaustion from legitimate IP data packets
Answer: D
150. Refer to the exhibit. This QoS policy will be applied outgoing on FastEthernet0/1 interface. Which one
of the following QoS classes is not enabled but will be listed in the configuration summary?
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A. SDMVoice-FastEthernet0/1
B. SDMSignal-FastEthernet0/1
C. SDMTrans-FastEthernet0/1
D. SDMManage-FastEthernet0/1
E. SDMRout-FastEthernet0/1
F. SDMBulk-FastEthernet0/1
Answer: F
151. Which Control Plane Policing (CoPP) statement is true?

A. Traffic to be policed is identified using the control-plane global configuration command.
B. The control-plane global configuration command enters the Cisco Modular QoS CLI (MQC) mode.
C. The control-plane global configuration command enters the control-plane configuration mode.
D. Traffic to be policed is identified using the control-plane interface configuration command.
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E. The control-plane interface configuration command enters the Cisco Modular QoS CLI (MQC) mode.
F. The control-plane interface configuration command enters the control-plane configuration mode.
Answer: C
152. Refer to the exhibit. The QoS policy will be applied outgoing on an interface. Based on the indicated
bandwidth allocation, which statement is true?
A. Bandwidth allocation is set to default values.

B. This QoS policy will be applied to an Ethernet interface.
C. When traffic from an FTP session exceeds more than 25% of the outgoing bandwidth on the interface, it
will be dropped.
D. Voice traffic on the interface will restrict all remaining traffic to 50% of the bandwidth.
E. Real Time traffic will be allocated 50% of 50000 kb/s.
F. The three types of traffic must share the interface bandwidth.
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Answer: F
153. Refer to the exhibit. Wireless security is based on IEEE 802.1x with WPA. Which three statements are
true? (Choose three.)
A. The access point is an EAP supplicant.

B. The client is an EAP supplicant.
C. Client traffic will be encrypted by an AES cryptographic algorithm.
D. Client traffic will be encrypted by an RC4 cryptographic algorithm.
E. The client is operating in WPA personal mode.
F. The client is operating in WPA enterprise mode.
Answer: BDF
154. Refer to the exhibit. Wireless security is based on IEEE 802.1x with WPA2. Which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. The access point is an EAP authenticator.

B. The client is an EAP authenticator.
C. Client traffic will be encrypted by an AES cryptographic algorithm.
D. Client traffic will be encrypted by TKIP.
E. Client authentication uses PSK.
Answer: AC
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155. Which option correctly identifies the four main menus of a Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS)?
A. Home, Configure, Location, and Monitor
B. Home, Configure, Monitor, and Refresh
C. Home, Monitor, Refresh, and Administration
D. Monitor, Configure, Location, and Administration
E. Monitor, Configure, Refresh, and Administration
F. Monitor, Location, Refresh, and Administration
Answer: D
156. Which two commands should be entered on a WLAN controller to remove any residual configuration?
A. Enter the clear controller command followed by the reload command.
B. Enter the clear controller command followed by the reset command.
C. Enter the clear controller command followed by the reset system command.
D. Enter the erase startup-config command followed by the reload command.
E. Enter the erase startup-config command followed by the reset command.
F. Enter the erase startup-config command followed by the reset system command.
Answer: B
157. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the table that is displayed in the lower left
hand corner? (Choose two.)
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A. This section is called the Alarm Monitor Area.

B. This section is called the Alarm Control Area.
C. This section is called the System Status Area.
D. Orange alarms indicate a major alarm.
E. Red alarms indicate a major alarm.
F. Yellow alarms indicate no problems.
Answer: AD
158. Which set of classes correctly identifies the four traffic classes, from highest priority to lowest priority,
specified in the 802.11e standard?
A. gold, silver, bronze, and platinum
B. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
C. titanium, gold, silver, and bronze
D. voice and video, best effort, background, and scavenger
E. voice, video, best effort, and background
F. voice, video, best effort, and scavenger
Answer: E
159. Which two statements about the Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM) standard are true? (Choose two.)
Testinside
A. Lower-priority traffic is assigned short interframe wait-timers to allow higher-priority traffic access to the
wireless network first.
B. Packets that are not assigned to a specific access category are categorized by default as the
background access category.
C. The WMM standard was implemented after the 802.11e standard was approved to provide support for
non 802.11e devices.
D. WMM is a Wi-Fi Alliance standard that was implemented before the 802.11e standard was approved.
E. WMM uses Enhanced DCF (EDCF) to stipulate fixed and random wait times for the different access
classes.
Answer: DE
160. When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are
used to identify the access categories?
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background
F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger
Answer: A
161. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the
WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
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A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.

B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B.
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.
Answer: BF
162. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS
levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote
branch?
Testinside
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will
not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain
adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to
maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter,
and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
Answer: D
163. Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity
Answer: D
164. Using the fewest commands possible, drag the commands on the left to the blanks on the right to
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configure and apply a QoS policy that guarantees that voice packets receive 20 percent of the bandwidth
on the S0/1/0 interface.
Answer:
165. To configure Control Plan Policing(CoPP) to deny Telnet access only from 10.1.1.1, drag the
commands on the left to the boxes on the right and place the commands in the proper order.
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Answer:
166. Drag each descriptor on the left to the QoS model on the right to which the descriptor applies. Not all
descriptors apply.
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Answer:
167. Drag the wireless 802.1e priority level groupings on the left to the appropriate Wi-Fi
Multimedia(WMM)access categories on the right.(Not all groupings will be used)
Answer:
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168. Drag each term on the left to its time definition on the right. There will be one term unused.
Answer:
169. Add a new wireless LAN controller (WLC) to the WCS wireless management server. From the left, drag
each procedure to its step sequence on the right.
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Answer:
170. Drag each wireless EAP authentication protocol above to its definition below.
Answer:
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171. Drag each WLSE feature above to its benefit below.
Answer:
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172. Drag Drop Drag the steps required to convert compressed digital signals to analog signals to their
correct order on the right.
Answer:
173.
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Answer:
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1)
2) Which two statements most accurately identify what has caused the occasional poor video quality
experienced by the Law Solutions, Inc.? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient bandwidth is creating a bottleneck transiting from the FastEthernetG/O to the Serial O/3/0
interface.
B. Auto-Discovery did not have an opportunity to detect the video traffic.
C. AutoQoS was implemented an the incorrect interface
D. A policy matching DSCP value 46 (ef) was not applied on the outbound interface.
Answer: BD
3) Which QoS model has been implimented on the Branch router by Auto QoS for the various expected
traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion, haw has AutoQoS configured the router to facilitate outbound video traffic
on the SerialO/3/0 interface?
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A. Video traffic will be associated with the priority queue by using a DSCP value of 46 (ef}.
B. Video traffic will be associated with the AutoQaS-Signaling-SeO/3/0 class and its related policy through
use of the H.323 protocol.
C. Video traffic will only be queued on the local FastEthernetO/0 interface using a DSCP value of 46 (ef).
D. Video traffic will be associated with the "class-default" and use WFQ.
Answer: D
174.
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Answer:
1) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the Central from the IP Phone
on the local network?
A. 46 (ef)
B. 4B(vs6)
C. 50
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: A
2) Which DSCP value will the Branch router apply to voice traffic destined for the IP Phone on the local
network from the Central site?
A. 46 (ef]
B. 48(cs6)
C. 5
D. 56(cs7)
E. 70
Answer: B
3) Which QoS model has been implemented on the Branch router by the SDM wizard for the various
expected traffic types?
A. Best Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. Priority Queuing
Answer: C
4) During periods of congestion which queuing method will be applied to outbound traffic on the Serial
O/3/0 interface?
A. Low Latency Queuing
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B. Class-based Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin
D. Round Robin
E. No queuing is applied to outbound traffic on this interface.
Answer: A
175. Exhibit:
Answer:
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176. Hotspot
Answer:
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3. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)

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40. What best describes an FXO interface?

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45. What is the goal of QoS in a network?

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47. What is a drawback to using the IntServ model?

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54. Which header or set of headers does cRTP compress?

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57. Which statement is true about the components of a queuing mechanism?

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60. What accurately describes the usage of a Cisco AutoQoS command?

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80. Identify the link efficiency mechanism.

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89. What best describes processing delay?

91. What is the best description of serialization delay?

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93. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

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A. It limits the total bandwidth available on the Frame Relay link.

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A. A gatekeeper is contacted to determine the correct local gateway to use.

A. forward an admission request to the local gatekeeper

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A. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 100 msec

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A. Implement traffic policing on the ISP routers.

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124. What is an advantage of the IntServ QoS model?