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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 14


GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 1.5 Hours

Maximum Marks: 150

INSTRUCTIONS
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Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 75 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii)

If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
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INSIGHTS

Page 1

1. The idea of Invisible Hand of the free


market in an economy means that
a) Markets work in tandem with the
state.
b) Market forces of supply and demand
bring equilibrium in the economy.
c) Competition in the markets helps the
state to fulfil its obligations.
d) Individuals pursuing their own
interest frequently promote the good
of society than when they really intend
to promote it

2. Many economic roles which were under


complete government monopolies were
now opened for participation by the
private sector. This change in a economy
can be called
a) Privatization
b) Deregulation
c) De-reservation
d) De-licensing

3. Consider the following statements about


the role of the state in an economy.
1. The state cannot earn profits like a
private enterprise.
2. The state regulates competitive
practices in the economy.
3. The state has the responsibility to
redistribute economic resources in the
economy.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

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4. Consider the following statements about


the Indian constitution.
1. Public comments were invited while
finalizing the constitutional document.
2. It was put to referendum.
3. Some provisions of the constitution
came in force even before India
adopted the constitution fully on the
first republic day.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

5. The Constitution contains not only the


fundamental principles of governance but
also detailed administrative provisions.
This fact can be supported by looking up
in which of the following provisions of the
constitution?
1. Fifth and Sixth schedule
2. Centre-state relations
3. Appointment and functions of several
constitutional bodies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

6. Net Domestic Product (NDP) is arrived at


by
a) Subtracting the annual depreciation
and subsidies from the GDP.
b) Subtracting the annual depreciation
from the GDP.
c) Adding annual deprecation to the
GDP.
d) Adding the annual depreciation and
subsidies to the GDP.
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7. If the difference between the GDP and


NDP of an economy is becoming less year
over year, it may imply that
1. Research and development in the
economy is cutting down the levels of
depreciation in the economy.
2. The GDP growth rate has reduced
over years.
3. The government has reduced
subsidies and indirect taxes over the
years.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 only
All of the above

8. NDP is not used to compare the


economies of the world. This is because
a) The deprecation levels set by different
economies for goods are different.
b) NDP is also affected by the levels of
indirect taxes and subsidies offered by
an economy which can be different for
economies.
c) IMF and World Bank do not use NDP
for comparing economies.
d) None of the above

9. In which of the following cases, the Gross


National Product (GNP) of India would
increase?
1. More remittances are being sent by
Indians residing in Gulf countries.
2. India borrows less and lends more to
other World economies.
3. Software exports from India increase.

b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) All of the above

10. In which of the following ways is the


concept of GNP used across the World?
1. IMF ranks nations as per their GNP in
terms of Purchasing Power parity
(PPP).
2. GNP also shows the external strength
of the economy.
3. It shows the financial dependence of
one economy over the other.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

11. Consider the following statements about


Net National Product (NNP).
1. National Income of an economy is
counted in terms of NNP.
2. Per capita income of a nation is
obtained from NNP by dividing it
with the working population of the
country.
3. It is not influenced by factors external
to the economy.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1 only
1 and 3
2 and 3

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a) 1 and 2
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12. Factor Cost is an important component


while calculating national income. It is
a) input cost the producer has to incur
in the process of producing something
b) total market value of a product minus
subsidies given by the state
c) total market value of a product minus
indirect taxes imposed by the state
d) None of the above

13. Choose the correct equation of National


Income from the following.
a) National Income at Factor Cost = NNP
at Market Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
b) National Income at Factor Cost = GNP
at Market Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
c) National Income at Market Cost =
NNP at Factor Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies
d) National Income at Market Cost =
GNP at Factor Cost Indirect Taxes +
Subsidies

14. Which of the following do NOT require a


constitutional amendment?
1. Settlement of a boundary dispute
between India and another country
2. Changing the name of a state
3. Creation of a new state

15. The Constitution of India confers which of


the following rights and privileges on the
citizens of India (and denies the same to
aliens)?
1. Right to Education
2. Right against discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth
3. Freedom of speech and expression
4. Freedom of assembly
5. Right to conserve and safeguard
minority culture
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

16. Consider the following statements.


1. In India citizens by birth as well as a
naturalised citizen are eligible for the
office of President.
2. Foreigners staying in India do not
have to oblige to the fundamental
duties.
3. The Constitution does not prescribe
any qualifications for citizenship.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

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3 and 4 only
2 and 5 only
All except 1
All of the above

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

17. The application of fundamental rights to


the citizens can be restricted in which of
the following situations?
1. Presidents rule
2. Financial emergency
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3. Martial Law
4. Internal emergency

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
1 and 3 only

18. Consider the following statements about


the calculation of the Human
Development Index (HDI).
1. Life expectancy used in HDI data is
calculated at the time of death.
2. Under education, School enrolment
has a higher weightage than
educational attainment among adults.
3. Real per capita income used in the
calculation is adjusted for the differing
purchasing power parity among
nations.

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

20. Consider the following statements about


the Government of India Act, 1935.
1. It successfully established an All-India
federation.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
and introduced provincial autonomy
in its place.
3. It extended franchise.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 only
3 only

19. Which of the following correctly highlight


the difference between NITI Aayog and
the scrapped Planning Commission?
1. While Planning Commission enjoyed
the powers to allocate funds to
ministries and state
governments, NITI Aayog will be
an advisory body, or a think-tank.
2. States had a more direct and
authoritative role in NITI Aayog.
3. Planning Commission decided policies
for states and tied allocation of funds,
which NITI Aayog will not do.
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21. The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs &


Sports has revised the Scheme of
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar.
According to the revised plan, this scheme
will be given in following four categories.
They are,
1. Encouragement of sports through
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
2. Employment of sportspersons and
sports welfare measures
3. Sports for Development has been
provided for the NGOs in order to
recognize their contributions.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
INSIGHTS

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Page 5

22. An open competition system of selection


and recruitment of civil servants; and a
separate legislative wing for the
Governor-General was introduced by
a) Charter Act of 1853
b) Charter Act of 1833
c) Charter Act of 1861
d) Charter Act of 1892

23. Consider the following statements about


the Government of India Act 1858.
1. It abolished the East India Company.
2. It changed the entire structure of
government in India prevailing earlier.
3. As per the Act, Indian Government
was to be supervised and controlled in
England.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

24. Which of the following acts are concerned


with changes to the legislative councils in
British India?
1. Act of 1909
2. Act of 1892
3. Act of 1861
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1. Bicameralism
2. Direct elections
3. Dyarchy
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

26. Although the Simon Commission was


boycotted by all political parties in India,
some of the recommendations of the
commission were towards better
governance of India. These were
1. Abolition of dyarchy
2. Extension of responsible government
in the provinces
3. Establishment of a federation of British
India and princely states
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

27. The Jeevan Amrut Yojana of the


Maharashtra government is aimed at
providing the facility of
a) Blood supply to patients
b) Free piped drinking water to rural
Below poverty Line citizens
c) Free drinking water to the whole rural
Maharashtra
d) Organ donation facility to needy
patients

25. Which of the following were introduced


for the first time in India by the Act of
1919?
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28. As per a recent United Nations


Conference of Trade and Development
(UNCTAD) report, China has overtaken
the United States (US) as the top
destination for foreign direct investment
(FDI). Arrange the following countries in
decreasing order of the FDI they receive.
1. Hong Kong
2. Singapore
3. Canada
4. India
Choose the correct order from the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1234
2431
1243
2134

29. Consider the following statements about


the Maritime Silk Road (MSR) project.
1. It has been initiated by China.
2. It involves building infrastructure in
strategically significant countries, inter
alia, in Africa and Europe.
3. No ports will be built in Pakistan or
Bangladesh under MSR.

3. There were to be no nominated


members in the CA as per the decided
scheme.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

31. Consider the following statements.


1. If the secondary sector contributes 50
per cent or more to the total produce
value of an economy, it is an industrial
economy.
2. The tertiary sector always provides
livelihood to the largest number of
people in Industrial economies.
3. Shift from agrarian sector to the
service sector always happens
gradually with the growth of the
Industrial sector.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1 only

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

30. Consider the following statements about


the constituent assembly (CA).
1. It was based on a scheme suggested by
the Cabinet mission.
2. All provinces and princely state were
to be represented in the CA as per the
decided scheme.
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32. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the


value of the all final goods and services
produced within the boundary of a nation
during one year. For India, this calendar
year period is from
a) 1st April to 31st March
b) 1st Jan to 31st December
c) 1st March to 28th February
d) There is no standard calendar year
period. GDP is calculated for different
annual periods

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33. Consider the following uses of the concept


of GDP.
1. It does not say anything about the
qualitative aspects of the produced
goods and services by the economy.
2. It is used by the IMF/WB in the
comparative analyses of its member
nations.
3. If the GDP is growing at the same rate
every successive year, it will add the
same
income to the income to the
economy in all these years.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

allowed. Now consider the following


courses of action.
1. Complain to the local police authority
about this discrimination and violation
of your fundamental right of free
movement
2. Approach the state High court of this
violation of fundamental right
3. Approach the Supreme Court with a
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on the
same issue
Which of the above options are legally and
constitutionally appropriate?

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

34. The structural part of the Constitution is,


to a large extent, derived from the
Government of India Act of 1935. This
argument is supported by which of the
following features/provisions of the
constitution?
1. Public Service Commission of Union
and States
2. Federal polity
3. Division of powers in lists between
Centre and states
4. Bicameralism in state assemblies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) All of the above
35. Consider that you belong to the religion
Zoroastrianism. You are outside a Hindu
temple managed by the state and want to
enter. But somewhere at the entry you
find this written Only Hindus are
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a)
b)
c)
d)

2 only
3 only
All of the above
None of the above

36. India has adopted the parliamentary


system of Government. It is based on the
principle of
a) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the legislature and executive
organs
b) Cooperation and co-ordination
between the legislative and executive
organs
c) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the legislature and judicial
organs
d) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the executive and judicial
organs

37. Consider the following statements.


1. The term Federation has nowhere
been used in the Constitution.
2. The state and local governments
derive their authority from the
constitution rather than from the
Union government.
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Which of the above is/are true?


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

38. Consider the following statements.


1. As per the Independence Act of 1947,
the constituent assembly was to
become the first dominion legislature.
2. The constituent assembly was not a
fully sovereign body.
Which of the above is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1. The government takes the sole


responsibility of providing goods and
services to the population.
2. No direct payments are made by the
consumer.
3. Prices of the goods and services are
determined in the open market.

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

39. Among all the committees of the


Constituent Assembly, the most important
committee was the Drafting Committee.
Who among the following were NOT the
members of the committee?
1. N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
2. Syed Mohammad Saadullah
3. T T Krishnamachari
4. Dr K M Munshi

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

41. Which of the following arguments can be


forwarded to weaken the proposition of
choosing Industry as the prime mover of
the Indian economy post-independence?
1. Lack of investible capitalbe the case
of either the government or the private
sector.
2. Absence of the market for industrial
goods.
3. Industry as a prime mover cannot
work in a state led economy.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

4 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All were the members

40. Consider the following statements about a


State led distribution network in an
economy.

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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 only
3 only

42. For industrialisation and its success, every


economy needs the healthy presence of
some basic industries. These are
1. Electricity
2. Oil Refining
3. Coal
4. Crude Oil
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
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a)
b)
c)
d)

All of the above


2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

43. Many Public Sector Units (PSUs) were


established post-independence. Which of
the following functions were NOT
performed by them?
1. Providing disposable income to the
government
2. Provision of Public goods
3. Cutting down the monopoly existing
in the private sector then

45. Which of the following arguments


support a market led economy?
1. Dynamic operation of market forces
brings a state of equilibrium to the
economy.
2. It values continuous improvement in
provision of goods and services as it is
based on competition.
3. Markets can fulfil all the needs of an
economy.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 3
1 only
2 only
3 only

44. Consider the following statements about


the Charter Act of 1833.
1. The act created, for the first time, a
Government of India having authority
over the entire territorial area
possessed by the British in India.
2. It ended the activities of the East India
Company as a commercial body.
3. It separated, for the first time, the
legislative and executive functions of
the Governor-Generals council.

46. In India, all citizens irrespective of the


state in which they are born or reside
enjoy the same political and civil rights of
citizenship all over the country and no
discrimination is made between them
excepting in few cases in
1. Tribal areas
2. State of J&K
3. Areas mentioned under Article 371 of
the Constitution
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

47. Which of the following terminologies find


a mention in the Constitution of India?
1. Consolidated fund of India
2. State Public Service Commission
3. Financial emergency
4. Quasi-legislative
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Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1. Territory of India is a wider


expression than the Union of India as
the former includes
only states &
UTs.
2. India can acquire foreign territories
according to the modes recognised by
international
law.
3. Parliament can establish new states
that were not a part of the Union of
India.

1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

48. State emergency or Presidents rule can be


applied to an Indian state on which of the
following grounds?
1. Failure to comply with Centres
directions
2. Breakdown of constitutional
machinery in the state
3. Threat to the financial stability of the
state
4. Internal aggression in the state

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

49. Consider the following statements about


the Preamble of the Constitution.
1. The Preamble of the source of
authority of the Constitution.
2. It declares the nature of the Indian
state.
3. It envisages political as well as social
ideals.

51. Article 3 of the Constitution authorizes the


Parliament to
1. Increase or diminish the area of any
state
2. Merge a state and Union Territory to
form a new state
3. Grant special status to the newly
created weak states
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

50. Consider the following statements.


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52. The Supreme Court of India is


1. A federal court
2. The guarantor of the fundamental
rights of the citizens
3. The guardian of the Constitution
4. The enforcer of Central as well as state
laws
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Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

Parliament only with the prior


recommendation of the President.
2. Before the bill is approved by the
Parliament, it refers the same to the
state legislature concerned for
expressing its views within a specified
period.

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

53. That the Indian Constitution is founded


on the bedrock of the balance between the
Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles has been
a) Ruled by the Supreme Court
b) Provided for in the Constitution of
India
c) Affirmed by a resolution of the
Parliament
d) Affirmed by a resolution of the
Constituent assembly of India

54. The Constitution of India stands for a


secular state. Hence, it does not uphold
any particular religion as the official
religion of the Indian State. Which of the
following articles of the Constitution
reveal the secular character of the Indian
State?
1. Article 14
2. Article 15 and 16
3. Article 30
4. Article 44

Which of the above is/are correct?


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

56. The term State has been used in different


provisions concerning the fundamental
rights against which the citizens are
protected. State can include which of the
following?
1. A Public Sector Undertaking
2. District Planning Committee
3. A Private party under a Public Private
Partnership (PPP) contract with the
government
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above

55. Consider the following statements about


the process of creation of new states.
1. A bill which intends to form a new
state can be introduced in the
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57. Article 14 of the constitution says that the


State shall not deny to any person
equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory
of India. Which of the following would
come under equal protection of the
laws?
1. The equal subjection of all persons to
the ordinary law of the land
administered by ordinary law courts.
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2. Similar application of the same laws to


all persons who are similarly situated
3. Equality of opportunity to all under
the laws made by the Parliament
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only

58. Writ of Mandamus is a command issued


by the court. It can be issued to
1. Governors
2. Tribunals
3. Inferior courts
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

59. As per the Supreme Court, which of the


following are included in the Freedom of
Speech and expression?
1. Right against tapping of telephonic
conversation
2. Right to know about government
activities.
3. Right against bandh called by a
political party or organisation
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

All of the above


2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only

60. Right to fair trial, Right to hearing, Right


to speedy trial and Right to free legal aid
are provided to citizens under which of
the following fundamental rights?
a) Equality before law and equal
protection of laws
b) Right to Life and Liberty
c) Right against arbitrary arrest and
detention
d) Right against exploitation

61. Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits


traffic in human beings, forced labour and
other similar forms of forced labour. It is
enforced by which of the following laws
made by the Parliament?
1. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
2. Contract Labour Act, 1970
3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

All of the above


2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only

62. Consider the following provisions of the


Civil Nuclear Liability Act, 2010 that has
been in news for some time.
1. This Act limits the liability of the
operator in case of nuclear accident.
2. It secures the operator the right to
recourse under certain circumstances.
3. It provides a mechanism to
compensate victims of nuclear
damage.
Which of the above provisions have been cause(s)
of contention between India and other nuclear
supplier countries in recent times?
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

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a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

63. Recently, two beneficial algal species Ulva


paschima Bast and Cladophora goensis
Bast were discovered off the west coast of
India. Consider the following statements
about them.
1. They are endemic to India.
2. These species have excellent carbon
capture properties.
3. They can be used as bio-fuels.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

64. The Indian constitution explicitly contains


which of the following provisions for
exercising direct democracy?
1. Referendum
2. Plebiscite
3. Recall
4. Initiative
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 only
3 and 4 only
None of the above

3. Article 16
4. Article 19
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only

66. The status of the Preamble of the


Constitution has always been a question
of debate in the country. The present
opinion of the Supreme Court about the
status of the Preamble is that
a) It is a part of the constitution but
cannot be amended.
b) It is a not part of the constitution and
cannot be amended.
c) It is a part of the constitution and can
be amended.
d) It is not a part of the constitution but
can be amended.

67. Mass de-worming campaigns of school


children have been used both as a
preventive as well as a treatment method.
In this regard, the union ministry of
Health & Family Welfare launched the
National De-worming initiative. Which of
the following problems due to worming
will the scheme tackle?
1. Malnutrition
2. Wasting
3. Cognitive Impairment
4. Tissue damage that may require
corrective surgery
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

65. Which of the following provisions of the


chapter on Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution ensure civic equality?
1. Article 13
2. Article 14
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a)
b)
c)
d)
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2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
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68. Consider the following statements about


the recently launched Deen Dayal
Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana.
1. The scheme lays Greater emphasis on
projects for poor rural youth in Jammu
and Kashmir
2. The scheme provides for greater
support for placed candidates in terms
of post-placement support, migration
support and alumni network.
3. Demand led skill training at no cost to
the rural poor

order, morality and the like. Which of the


following can be done by the state
constitutionally?
1. Regulate a religious institution
2. Throw open Hindu religious
institutions of a public character to all
classes and sections of
Hindus.
3. Restrict a religious practice
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Which of the above are the features of the


scheme?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

69. The vision of Digital India as launched


by the Prime Minister seeks of achieve
which of the following within the
stipulated time period?
1. Broadband for All rural panchayats
2. A digital cloud access to every Indian
citizen
3. One Common Service Centre in each
Gram panchayats
4. E-healthcare services

71. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court


is narrower and less discretionary than
that of a high court in what respects?
1. High courts can enforce legal rights
too, SC cannot.
2. High court can issues it both against
persons and state, SC can issue it only
against the
later.
3. SC cannot refuse to issues writs when
it comes to Fundamental Rights, High
courts can.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Choose the correct answer using the codes given


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

70. Although India is a secular country, the


state can take some steps to ensure public
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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

72. Consider the following statements about


the write of Habaes Corpus.
1. It can be issued by even District courts
in India.
2. It can be issued against private
individuals too.
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3. It cannot be issued when the detention


of the person is lawful.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given


below.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

73. Consider the following statements about


the Right to Freedom from taxation for
Promotion of religion.
1. The state cannot use public tax money
for the promotion of any religion.
2. The state cannot impose a fee on any
religious activities.
Which of the above is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

75. Judicial review in India is based on the


procedure established by law contained
in the Indian Constitution (Article 21).
What is meant by this principle?
a) Courts can review a Parliamentary
enactment if it is not reasonable.
b) Courts can review a Parliamentary
enactment if it goes against the goals
and objectives enshrined in the
constitution.
c) Courts can review a Parliamentary
enactment only if it was not enacted
following the right procedure.
d) None of the above

74. Consider the following statements about


the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
1. Any court in India can be moved for
enforcing this right.
2. The right to move to courts can never
be suspended under this right.
3. A citizen cannot go directly to the
Supreme Court to get this right
enforced. He has to go
by way of
appeal to higher courts.

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