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2)
3)
In the U.S. in 1996, the population was 265.5 million and the working age population
was 200.6 million. There were 133.9 million people in the labor force and 126.7 of
them were considered employed. The unemployment rate equaled ____.
A) 7.2 percent
B) 5.4 percent
C) 3.6 percent
D) 33 percent
4)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A person quits her job in order to spend time looking for a better-paying job. This is
an example of
frictional unemployment.
cyclical unemployment.
seasonal unemployment.
structural unemployment.
7)
A)
B)
C)
D)
8)
A)
B)
C)
D)
9)
A)
B)
C)
C)
10)
A)
B)
C)
D)
11)
A)
B)
C)
D)
12) When computing the consumer price index (CPI), the base year is
A) the earliest year for which the CPI was ever calculated.
B) the year that is chosen as the point of reference for comparison of prices with other
years.
C) the most recent year for which data are available.
D) the most recent year in which the inflation rate was close to zero.
13) The GDP deflator is
A) an index that measures real production.
B) a measure of the average level of prices of all goods and services included in GDP.
15) The ____ is the total number of people aged 16 years and older (and not in jail,
hospital or institutional care) while the ____ is the number of people employed and
the unemployed.
A) labor force; working-age population
B) labor force participation rate; labor force
C) working-age population; labor force
D) working-age population; labor force participation rate
16) Which of the following individuals is counted as an unemployed worker in the United
States?
A) an individual who works ten hours part-time but would like to work full-time.
B) a worker who has quit looking for work because he or she is convinced that no jobs
are available.
C) an individual who in the past month actively looked for work without finding it.
D) a person working in the home without pay.
17)
A)
B)
C)
D)
Suppose the money wage rate increases from $10 to $12. If nothing else changes,
the real wage increases.
the real wage decreases.
the quantity of goods and services that an hour of work can buy increases.
Both answers A and C are correct.
18) Suppose that Matt quits a job with the XYZ Corporation in order to look for more
rewarding employment. Matt would be best be considered as
A) still being employed.
B) included in the economys hidden employment.
C) frictionally unemployed.
D) cyclically unemployed.
19) Suppose that over a period of years the country of Quasiland switched from being an
agriculturally-based economy to a technologically-based economy. As a result, many
people lost jobs because they lacked the correct skills. These people would be
considered part of
A) frictional unemployment.
B) structural unemployment.
C) cyclical unemployment.
D) discouraged workers.
20) Suppose the country of Quasiland experienced a decrease in real GDP and people
were laid off from their jobs. The people would be considered part of
A) frictional unemployment.
B) structural unemployment.
C) cyclical unemployment.
D) discouraged workers.
21) When economists speak of full employment, they refer to the case in which the sum
of frictional and structural unemployment is
A) falling over time.
B) equal to zero.
C) equal to the actual amount of unemployment.
D) greater than the level of deficient demand unemployment.
22)
A)
B)
C)
D)
23)
A)
B)
C)
D)
2)
A)
B)
C)
D)
We distinguish between the long-run aggregate supply curve and the short-run
aggregate supply curve. In the long run
technology is fixed but not in the short run.
the price level is constant but in the short run it fluctuates.
the aggregate supply curve is horizontal while in the short run it is upward sloping.
real GDP equals potential GDP.
3) Along a short-run aggregate supply curve, a decrease in the price level causes
A) more output to be produced as consumer demand increases.
B) less output to be produced as firms decrease production.
C) more output to be produced as firms increase production because wages fall more
than the price level falls, making it profitable to hire more workers.
D) no change in output because firms do not change the quantity they produce.
4)
A)
B)
C)
D)
The curve labeled A in the above figure will shift rightward when
the price level falls.
technology increases.
population falls.
the price level rises.
5)
A change in ____ causes a movement along the short-run aggregate supply curve but
no shift in the short-run aggregate supply curve.
wage rates (the cost of labor)
technology
the quantity of capital
the price level
A)
B)
C)
D)
7)
A)
B)
C)
D)
In the above figure, B is the current long-run aggregate supply curve and E is the
current short-run aggregate supply curve. Technological advances cause the longrun aggregate supply curve and short-run aggregate supply curve to
remain B and E.
shift to A and D, respectively.
shift to C and F, respectively.
shift to C and remain E, respectively.
9)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A change in which of the following shifts the short-run aggregate supply curve?
A change in the wage rate.
An advance in technology.
A change in the quantity of capital.
All of the above shift the short-run aggregate supply curve.
10) Which of the following cause the short-run aggregate supply curve to shift?
I.
Changes in the size of the labor force.
II. Changes in money wages.
A) I only.
B) II only.
C) Both I and II.
D) Neither I nor II.
11)
A)
B)
C)
D)
12) The aggregate demand curve shows the ____ relationship between the price level
and ____.
A) positive; quantity of real GDP demanded
B) negative; aggregate labor demanded
C) positive; aggregate labor demand
D) negative; quantity of real GDP demanded
13) The aggregate demand curve illustrates a(n) ____ relationship between the price
level and the quantity of real GDP demanded.
A) multiplied
B) direct and proportional
C) direct but not necessarily proportional
D) inverse
14) In the above figure, the short-run aggregate supply curve is SAS1. If money wages in
the economy increase, there is a
A) movement upward along SAS1.
B)
C)
D) shift to SAS2.
15) In the above figure, the short-run aggregate supply curve is SAS1. If the prices of
resources in the economy drop because of reductions in tariffs and quotas placed on
imports, there is a
A) movement upward along SAS1.
B)
C)
D) shift to SAS2.
16) The quantity of real GDP demanded equals $7.2 trillion when the GDP deflator is 90.
If the GDP deflator rises to 95, the quantity of real GDP demanded equals
A) less than $7.2 trillion.
B) $7.2 trillion.
C) more than $7.2 trillion but less than $7.8 trillion.
D) more than $7.2 trillion but without more information it is not possible to determine
how much more.
17) A movement along the aggregate demand curve but no shift in the aggregate
demand curve is caused by which of the following?
A) A change in tax rates.
B) A change in the price level.
C) A change in fiscal policy.
D) None of the above because they all shift the aggregate demand curve.
18)
A)
B)
C)
D)
If you have 1,000 dollars in wealth and the GDP deflator increases 20 percent, then
the 1,000 dollars will buy 20 percent fewer goods and services.
the 1,000 dollars will buy 20 percent more goods and services.
the real value of the 1,000 dollars increases.
you will be able to buy fewer goods, but the real value of those goods will increase.
19)
A)
B)
C)
D)
If you have 5,000 dollars in wealth and the GDP deflator decreases 20 percent, then
the 5,000 dollars will buy 20 percent fewer goods and services.
the 5,000 dollars will buy 20 percent more goods and services.
the real value of the 5,000 decreases.
the real value of the 5,000 dollars remains constant.
20) A rise in the price level will have an effect on aggregate demand because
A) people like to spend more when prices are higher.
B) the real value of peoples wealth varies directly with the price level and so does
their spending.
C) the real value of peoples wealth decreases and so they decrease their
consumption.
D) the more money people have, the more it is worth and hence the more goods and
services they demand.
21) According to the intertemporal substitution effect, when the price level increases,
the interest rate
A) increases and the quantity of real GDP demanded increases.
B) increases and the quantity of real GDP demanded decreases.
C) decreases and the quantity of real GDP demanded decreases.
D) is not affected.
22) When the price level in France increases while the exchange rate and the price level
in the U.S. remain the same, the result is
A) U.S.-made goods become relatively cheaper compared to French-made goods.
B) French citizens are more likely to buy U.S.-made goods.
C) U.S. citizens are less likely to buy French-made goods.
D) All of the above answers are correct.
23)
A)
B)
C)
D)
24)
A)
B)
C)
D)
25) In the above figure, the movement from point B to point A may be the result of
A) an increase in government purchases because of a war.
B) an increase in government purchases because of increases in education
expenditures.
C) an increase in the demand for manufacturing goods because of new technology.
D) a fall in the price level.
26)
A)
B)
C)
D)
In the above figure, the movement from point A to point B may be the result of
an increase in the real value of wealth.
a decrease in the real value of wealth.
a decrease in interest rates.
an increase in exports.
27)
A)
B)
C)
D)
In the above figure, the shift from point C to point B may be the result of
an increase in the price level.
a decrease in the price level.
a decrease in government purchases.
an increase in the quantity of money.
28) In the short run, at the point of intersection between the aggregate demand and the
short-run aggregate supply curves,
A) the equilibrium price level is established.
B) there is neither a surplus nor a shortage of goods on the market.
C) the equilibrium level of real GDP is established.
D) All of the above answers are correct.
29) In the above figure, the economy is at point A when changes occur. If the new
equilibrium has a price level of 100 and real GDP of $8.0 trillion, then it must be the
case that
A) aggregate demand has increased.
B) aggregate demand has decreased.
C) aggregate supply has decreased.
D) aggregate supply has increased.
30) One possible result of decreases in aggregate demand coupled with a stable
aggregate supply is
A) a recession.
B) an increase in employment levels.
C) an economic expansion.
D) a rise in the price level.
31)
A)
B)
C)
D)
34) Suppose the current situation is such that the price level is 120, real GDP is $4
trillion, and GDP along the long-run aggregate supply is $3.6 trillion. What will take
place to restore the long-run equilibrium?
A) The price level will fall until long-run aggregate supply increases to $4 trillion.
B) The price level will fall and money wages will rise until real GDP along the long-run
aggregate supply curve is $4 trillion.
C) Money wages will rise until real GDP is $3.6 trillion.
D) Aggregate demand will increase until both short-run and long-run aggregate supply
equal $4 trillion.
35) The long-run aggregate supply curve is vertical at $5 trillion but the short-run
aggregate supply curve intersects the aggregate demand curve at $6 trillion. We
know that
A) the economy is operating below full employment in the short run, and will adjust by
hiring more workers, thus decreasing unemployment.
B) the price level is too high. The long-run equilibrium will occur with a lower price
level.
C) adjustments will occur so that the long-run aggregate supply equals $6 trillion.
D) adjustments will occur so that the short-run aggregate supply eventually intersects
the aggregate demand curve at $5 trillion.
36) In the above figure, suppose the economy had been at point A and now is at B. What
could have caused the movement to B?
A) Unusually good weather causes the wheat crop to be larger than normal.
B) Government purchases increased.
C) Winter storms cause factories in the north to be shut down for several weeks.
D) Money wages rose.
37) A decrease in short-run aggregate supply causes the equilibrium price level to ____
and the equilibrium quantity of real GDP to ____.
A) increase; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) decrease; increase
D) decrease; decrease
38) In the short run, a supply shock that shifts the short-run aggregate supply curve
leftward
A) raises the price level and real GDP.
B) raises the price level and decreases real GDP.
C) lowers the price level and increases real GDP.
D) lowers the price level and real GDP.
39)
A)
B)
C)
D)
40) In the above figure, which of the following will cause a movement from point b to
point c?
I.
an increase in human capital
II. an increase in physical capital
III. an increase in labor input
A) I only.
B) I and II.
C) III only.
D) I, II and III.
41) In the above figure, suppose the country of Laborious is operating at point b. If the
country wanted to move to point e, it could do so by
A) decreasing the amount of capital input.
B) increasing labor productivity.
C) increasing the number of hours of labor input.
D) All of the above answers are correct.
42) Suppose the country of Redland wants to increase its labor productivity. Which of the
following would contribute to this increase?
A) an increase in the use of computer technology.
B) a downward shift in Redlands production function.
C) a movement upward along Redlands production function.
D) an increase in the amount of labor used.
43) Suppose that the country of Bluelands want to increase labor productivity. To
accomplish this goal, the government can
A) allow people to work more hours.
B) provide training programs so that people can increase their human capital.
C) move the nation along its production function.
D) encourage people to take less leisure time.
44) Ulysses Umbrella Factory first opened with 20 workers making 500 umbrellas per
day. After 3 months in operation, these same factory workers in the same factory
were able to make 1000 umbrellas per day. This increase in output is probably due to
A) an increase in human capital.
B) an increase in physical capital.
C) an increase in real wages.
D) increases in technology.
45)
A)
B)
C)
D)
46)
A)
B)
C)
D)
47)
A)
B)
C)
D)
If the labor demand curve shifted rightward, it may have been because
the marginal product of labor has increased.
the population has increased.
the natural rate of unemployment has increased.
labor productivity has decreased.
48) If economists in the country of Tiny Town estimate that real GDP increases by $100
when an extra hour of labor is used, the economists are calculating
A) the PPF.
B) the marginal product of labor.
C) the real wage.
D) the labor demand curve.
49) In the above figure, for a movement from point b to point c, the marginal product of
labor equals
A) $75.
B) $150.
C) $200.
D) 5,000,000 hours.
50) If the price level rises relative to the money wage rate, firms ____ the quantity of
labor they demand and workers ____ the quantity of labor they supply.
A) increase; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) decrease; increase
D) decrease; decrease
51)
A)
B)
C)
D)
52) If the real wage increases from $15 per hour to $18 per hour, the quantity of labor
supplied will increase
A) because of the income effect.
B) if the labor demand curve shifts rightward.
C) because the labor supply curve shifts leftward.
D) because the opportunity cost of not working increases.
53)
A)
B)
C)
D)
54) If the economy is at a point on its SAS curve such that real GDP is greater than
potential GDP,
A) the real wage is less than the equilibrium real wage.
B) the economy is operating efficiently.
C) there is a shortage of labor.
D) there will be an increase in labor productivity.
55)
A)
B)
C)
D)
56) In the above figure, which of the following might have shifted the demand curve for
labor from LD0 to LD1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
57) In the above figure, as a result of the rightward shift in the demand curve for labor
from LD0 to LD1, the equilibrium level of employment ____ and potential GDP ____.
A)
B)
C)
D)
increases; increases
increases; decreases
decreases; increases
decreases; decreases
58)
A)
B)
C)
D)
59) In the above figure, which of the following would be a reason why the wage rate falls
to $10 per hour?
A) The nations capital stock increased.
B) There were advances in technology.
C) The population grew.
D) The quantity of human capital increased.
C
D
B
B
D
D
C
A
D
C
B
D
D
C
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
D
A
B
A
B
C
B
D
A
B
D
B
C
D
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
D
A
C
A
C
C
D
B
B
B
C
C
B
A
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
52)
53)
54)
55)
56)
B
A
B
A
A
B
B
B
C
D
B
A
B
A
57) A
58) A
59) C