Student No.

______________

Medical Students
Post-test
===================

Encircle the letter of the best single answer:

1.

A 6-week-old child is being evaluated for a fever of unknown etiology As part of the laboratory
evaluation, a urine specimen was obtained that grew Escherichia coli with a colony count of
2000/uL. These findings would be definite evidence of a urinary tract infection if the sampled
urine:
B.
C.
D.
E.

2.

i. Has a specific gravity of 1.008

Is from a bag attached to the perineum of an uncircumcised boy
Is from an deal-loop bag
Is from a suprapubic tap
Is the first morning sample

A 6-year-old black boy has brown urine and healing impetigo lesions
He presents with hypertension,
a, periorbital edema, and hepatomegaly
The most likely cause of his problem is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

IgA nephropathy
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Idiopathic hypercalciuria
Pyelonephritis
Sexually transmitted disease

3. A 2-year-old boy develops bloody diarrhea shortly after eating in a fast-food restaurant. A few
days later, he develops pallor and lethargy; his face looks swollen and his mother reports that he has
been urinating very little. laboratory evaluation reveals low hematocrit and platelet count and
positive blood and protein in the urine. Which of the following diagnoses is likely to explain these
symptoms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Henoch-Schonlein purpura
IgA nephropathy
Intussusception
Meckel diverticulum
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

4. A 10-year-old boy has been having bellyaches for about 2 years. They occur at night as well as
during the day. Occasionally, he vomits after the onset of pain.
Occult blood has been found in his stool. His father also gets frequent
stomachaches. The most likely diagnosis is
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.

Peptic ulcer
Appendicitis
Meckel diverticulum
Intussusception
Pinworm infestation

5. A 6-month-old infant has large, foul-smelling stools and is not gaining weight.
Sweat chloride level was 68 mmol/L. Appropriate nutritional recommendations include
A. Supplementation with water-soluble vitamins
B. Pancreatic enzyme replacement
C. High-fat diet
D. Low-protein diet
E. Low-carbohydrate diet
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6. Gastro-oesophageal reflux associated with all except :

A.

Is obviated in the normal child by the presence of an intra-abdominal portion of

oesophagus
B. Is characteristically associated with a partial thoracic stomach (sliding hiatus hernia)
Is a recognized cause of projectile vomiting
D. Is usefully treated by alkali administration
E. Is harmless because it is self-limiting with growth
7. A male child, weight 4.2 kg, is admitted at age 3 weeks with a one week history of forceful
vomiting after feeds. He is alert and eager for food but exhibits a loss of skin elasticity and has
apparent distension in the left hypochondrium.
A. The most likely diagnosis is partial thoracic stomach
B. He has hyperosmolar dehydration
C. Characteristically he will have hypokalaemia
D. Initial fluid replacement should comprise normal saline 1020 mI/kg over one hour
E. He should be started on an anti-cholinergic e.g. atropine methyl nitrate (Eumydrin) 0.2 to 0.6
mg before feeds
8.In coeliac disease all true except :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

there is a recognized association with histocompatibility antigen HLA8

steatorrhoea is present.
Iron deficiency anaemia is characteristic.
rickets not occurs
a shock syndrome is recognized

9.In cystic fibrosis all are true except :

A. an increased incidence of respiratory infection
B. failure to thrive is a consequence of pancreatic insufficiency
C. the high sweat sodium content is of no clinical significance other than for diagnosis
D. rectal prolapse is a recognized mode of presentation
E. physiotherapy is an essential component of management
10. In Crohns disease all are true except :
A
B
C
D
E

the terminal ileum is most frequently involved

bloody diarrhoea and recurrent abdominal pain are present
the diagnosis is best made radiologically
growth retardation is a characteristic feature
surgery is curative

11. Coeliac disease all are false except :

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

is a recognised cause of psychomotor retardation

causes a characteristic placidity of mood
is characterised by constipation
is characterised by polymorph infiltration on jejunal biopsy
i s a recognised precursor of gastric carcinoma in later life unless dietary treatment is
permanent

12. In ulcerative colitis

A. a family history of immunologically mediated disease is a recognized feature
B. the ileum is involved in approximately 4ases out of 5
C. systemic complications, e.g. iritis, liver disease, skin involvement occurs less
commonly than in the adult
D. fistula formation and perianal abscesses are recognized complications
E. the diagnosis is best made on barium enema
13. Infantile spasms are true except :.
.
A
B
C
D
E

associated with a loss of consciousness

characteristically associated with organic brain disease
seen to occur more commonly when the child is drowsy rather than when alert
effectively treated with phenytoin
more serious in younger than older (>6 months) infants

14. In patients with petit mal there is characteristically except :

A loss of consciousness and posture
B awareness that attacks have occurred
C absences are characteristic
D a good response to sodium valproate
E improvement as they grow older
15.

In primary proximal renal tubular acidosis all true except :

A. the urine pH below 6.0
B. there is bicarbonate wastage
C. growth failure is characteristic
D. nephrocalcinosis does not occur
E . deterioration of glomerular function characteristically ensues

16.

With urinary tract infection it is recognized all true except :

A. all patients require radiological or isotope investigation of kidneys
B. repeated infections cause less severe symptoms
C. fever indicates pyelonephritis as opposed to lower UTI
D. frequency and dysuria indicates low-grade infection when bacterial counts
do not achieve 100,000/ml
E. infection may be diagnosed in the absence of pyuria and proteinuria

17.

Suitable drugs for the prophylaxis of recurrent urinary infections include

A Cotrimoxazole
B Ampicillin
C Erythromycin
D Ciprofloxacin
E Oxytetracycline

18.

Haematuria is a characteristic feature of all except :

A steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome
B familial nephropathy with deafness (Alports syndrome)
C mesangial lgG/lgA disease
D beetroot ingestion
E anaphylactoid purpura

19. A child of 5 years presents with fits and coma. Apart from a sore throat the week before his
previous health has been satisfactory. There is haziness of the discs bilaterally and fine crepiations are
heard throughout the lung fields.
Blood pressure is 200/120 mmHg. The urine is rusty in colour and
stix testing for blood and protein is positive. serum urea is 25 mmol/l and electrolytes are normal.
Haemoglobin is 8.5 g/dl and haematocrit is 0.27
A Fits and coma are due to uraemia
B Anaemia is due to blood loss
C Crepitations are subsequent upon hypertensive heart failure
D Urgent treatment with parenteral hypotensives is indicated
E Urgent treatment with steroids is indicated
20. Recognized complications of the nephrotic syndrome include all except :
A. pyogenic infection
B. pulmonary oedema
C. urinary tract infection
D. acute tubular necrosis
E. thrombo-embolism
21.A 6 month-old infant can do all of the following except:
A. Sits with support.
B. Turns over.
C. Reaches and holds an object.
D. Creeps on abdomen.
E. Bears weight on legs when held on standing position
22. A developmentally normal child who is just able to walk with one hand held and says mama and
dada with meaning is probably what age?
A. 8 months
B. 10 months
C. 12 months
D. 14 months
E. 16 months
23. A 5-year-old girl with asymptomatic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is being seen
for a preschool evaluation.
Of the following, the vaccine that is CONTRAINDICATED is
A.
conjugated Haemophilus influenzae type b
B.
diphtheria-tetanus toxoids with pertussis
C.
measles-mumps-rubella
D.
oral poliovirus
E.
split virus influenza
24.All are correct for measles EXCEPT :
A. The incubation period is 8-12 days.
B. Infants are protected for at least 4 months after birth.
C. Koplik spots are pathognomonic for the disease.
D. Immunoglobulins are protective if given within 3 days of exposure.
E. Measles vaccine is contraindicated in exposed children.
25. A 4-year-old boy develops fever, swelling of the parotid gland, and headache.
Of the following, which complication is MOST likely to occur in this patient?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Deafness
C. Meningitis
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D. Myocarditis
E. Orchitis
26.The following is correct for Rubella:
A. Incubation period is 10 days.
B. Patient is infectious for 10 days after onset of rash.
C. Infants with congenital rubella secretes the virus in urine for a year.
D. Transplacental antibodies are not protective.
E. Immunoglobulins has no role in protection.
27. The most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is deficiency of
A. 3b{beta}-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
B. 11b{beta}-hydroxylase
C. 17-hydroxylase
D. 21b{beta}-hydroxylase
E. aldosterone
28. A 5-month-old female manifests weakness and hypotonia that began 1 month before admission.
Physical examination reveals an alert, smiling, interactive infant with weakness, absent deep tendon
reflexes, and fasciculations of the tongue. Her serum CPK level is 500 IU/mL. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. myasthenia gravis
B. spinal muscular atrophy
C. poliomyelitis
D. Guillain-Barr syndrome
E. muscular dystrophy
29. A full-term infant becomes cyanotic in the delivery room. After intubation and attempts at
stabilization, it is noticed that the infant has a scaffold abdomen and decreased breath sounds over the
left hemithorax. The most likely diagnosis is
A. pneumothorax
B. cardiomegaly
C. diaphragmatic hernia
D. neuroblastoma
E. atelectasis
30. A newborn female has a tracheoesophageal fistula. All of the following would be appropriate
EXCEPT
A. renal ultrasonography
B. cardiac ultrasonography
C. brainstem auditory evoked response testing
D. evaluation for anal atresia
E. vertebral radiographs
31. The metabolic alteration found in infants with pyloric stenosis is
A. hypochloremic acidosis
B. hypochloremic alkalosis
C. hyperchloremic acidosis

D. hyperchloremic alkalosis
E. None of the above.
32. All are common pathogen in infants < 3months with pneumonia EXCEPT:
A. gp B strept.
B. Chlamydia.
C. H.influenza.
D. Staph
E. Gm ve organisms.

33. Breast milk is more rich than Cows milk in:

A.Carbohydrates.
B. Proteins.
C. Sodium.
D. Calcium.
E. Phosphorus.
34. All are early findings in Rickets EXCEPT:
A. Normal serum calcium.
B. High serum phosphorus.
C. Radiological changes.
D. Craniotabes.
E. Rachitic rosary.
EXCEPT:
.A. Measles Robeola virus
.B. German measles RNA virus
.C. Toxin.Scarlet fever Gp B strept
.D. Roseola infantum herpes simplex virus
.E. Erythema infectiosum parvovirus
:All of the following are correct incubation periods EXCEPT .36
.A. Measles 10 days
.B. Rubella 2-3 weeks
.C. Mumps 2-3 weeks
.D. Scarlet fever 6 days
E. Chicken pox 11-20 days.
37.Drug of choice for pneumonia in children from 3 months to 5 years is:
a.
penicillin
b.
cotrimoxazole.
c.
Beta-lactam
d.
Tetracycline.
e.
Gentamycin.
38.The MOST likely thing to be done to reduce the frequency and severity of asthma
attacks in a child with asthma and allergic rhinitis is to:
6

A.
B.
C.
D.

dust and vacuum the child's bedroom every day

keep the family cat and dog out of the child's bedroom
remove all house plants from the home
remove the carpeting from the child's bedroom and encase the mattress
in a dust-proof cover
E. restrict the child from playing sports outdoors

39. In chronic granulomatous disease, the neutrophils are:

A. It is of autosomal dominant inheritance.
B. Unable to increase their numbers in response to bacterial infections.
C. Leukemoid in number.
D. Markedly decreased in number.
E. Incapable of intracellular killing of certain bacteria.

40.An infant with eczema, thrombocytopenia, and recurrent otitis media is most likely to have which
one of the following disorders?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. Bruton disease
C. Graft-versus-host disease
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
E. Nezelof syndrome
41- A low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) in the face of anemia is usually associated with all of the
following except:
A. Iron deficiency.
B. Chronic disease.
C. Lead intoxication.
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency.
E. Spherocytosis
42- A normal MCV and a normal reticulocyte index are usually associated with which one of the
following:
A. Chronic disease.
B. Malignancy with bone marrow involvement.
C. Acute blood loss.
D. Acute aplastic anemia.
E. Malignancy without bone marrow involvement.
43- Abnormalities associated with extravascular hemolysis include.
A. Increase in plasma hemoglobin.
B. Decrease in serum haptoglobin.
C. Increase in urinary hemosiderin.
D. Increase in serum unconjugated bilirubin.
E. None of the above
44- Which of the following statements regarding iron in infancy is false?
A. About 4% of iron in fortified cow's milk formula is absorbed by infants.
B. About 10% of iron in unfortified cow's milk formula is absorbed by infants.
C. About 15% of iron in breast milk is absorbed by infants.
D. Absorption of iron by infants is generally greater than in adults.
E. Cow's milk and human milk have approximately the same iron content.
45- In iron deficiency anemia, which is the only blood test that allows the evaluation of iron reserve?
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A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Serum transferin
MCV.
Mean corspuscular hemoglobin.
Serum ferritin
Hemoglobin

46- Which of the following is the single most useful and to early diagnosis of folate deficiency?
A. RBC indices.
B. Serum folate.
C. Hyperesegmentation of neutrophil nuclei.
D. Bone marrow aspiration.
E. Whole blood folate.

47-Which one of the following is the earlier clinical manifestation of vit B12 deficiency.?
A neutrophi. hypersegmented ls.
B. megaloblastic anemia.
C. thrombocytopenia.
D. mild jaundice
E. leucopenia.
48- polycythemia may be found in each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Cyanotic congenital heart disease
B. Some renal tumors
C. Emphysema
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Juvenile diabetes.
49- -thalassemia major is associated with all of the following except:
A. Defect in -globin chain synthesis
B. The newborn infant is clinically and hematologically normal
C. The determination of A2 hemoglobin is important in diagnosis
D. Onset of clinical symptoms and sign usually beigns between 6 and 12 months of age
E. Peripheral blood shows hypochromic and usually microcytic anemia
50- Characteristic of G6PD deficiency in patients include all of the following except:
A. A sex-linked recessive pattern of inheritance
B. Persistence of low-grade anemia in patients
C. The most common clinical manifestation is episodic acute hemolysis usually following infection or drug
ingestion
D. In blacks, G6PD activity is near normal in reticulocytes and young erythrocytes
E. Heinz bodies are present only early in hemolytic episodes
51- Hodgkin's disease characterized by all of the following except :
A. It rare before 5 years of age.
B. The most common manifestation is painless, progressive enlargement of a lymph node
C. Involvement of auxiliary and cervical nodes equal are.
D. There is no characteristic abnormality of the blood.
E. Pel- Ebstein fever pattern .
52- All of the following are characteristic of congenital hypoplastic anemia (Diamond Blackfan
syndrome ) except
8

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Pure red cell aplasia

Anemia present at birth.
Associated with phenotypic anomalies.
Hepatosplenomegally.
Low reticulocyte count.

53-The prothrombin time (PT) is a function of all the following except

A. Factor II
B. F actor V.
C. FctorVII.
D. Factor X.
E. r Facto IX.

54-partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a function of all of the following EXCEPT

A. Factor VIII.
B. Factor VII.
C. Factor X.
D. Factor XI.
E. Factor IX.
55- Vitamin K- dependent factors include all of the following except
A. XI
B. IX.
C. VII.
D. X
E. II
56-Idiopathic thrombocytopenic pupura (ITP) is characterized by all of the following except
A. Presence of antiplatelet antibody
B. It frequently follows viral infection in children.
C. Spontaneous remission in most children.
D. Splenomegally.
E. Bone marrow examination may reveal increased number of megakaryocytes.
57-which of the following laboratory finding is not characteristic of ITP
A. Platelet count below 50,000.mm .
B. Normal PT, PTT, and thrombin time(TT)
C. Normal WBC count.
D. Bone marrow reveals erythroid hypoplasia.
E. Peripheral smear reveals few, relatively small platelets.
58-classic hemophilia is usually associated with all of the following except.
A. Major joint hemoarthrosis are common.
B. Abnormal PTT
C. Normal level of factor VIII antigen.
D. Abnormal clotting time.
E. Hematuria is a frequent manifestation.
59- Factor IX deficiency (hemophilia B) is characterized by all of the following except
A. Also called Christmas disease .
B. Transmitted as a sex-linked disease.
C. Prolonged PT.
D. Indistinguishable from classic hemophilia
E. Occurs in mild to severe forms.
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60-splenomegally may be caused by each of the following except

A. Thalassemia
B. Typhoid
C. Leukemia
D. Chronic liver disease
E. Dematomyositis.
61. The Apgar score:
A. is only measured in asphyxiated babies.
B. is recorded at 2 and 10 min.
C. is a reliable indicator of future brain damage.
D. records 5 different criteria.
E. ranges from 5- 25.
62.A 15- days old baby has a conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. The differential diagnosis includes:
A. breast milk jaundice.
B. hyperthyroidism.
C. ABO incompability .
D. congenital cytomegalovirus infection.
E. Crigler- Najjar syndrome.
63. In Fallot's tetralogy:
A. cyanosis is present from birth.
B. heart failure occurs during the first 6 weeks of life.
C. there is a typical pansystolic murmur from the ventricular septal defect.
D. a subclavian artery to pulmonary artery shunt will abolish cyanotic spells.
E. correction of the defect is only possible by heart transplantation.
64. Simple febrile convulsion:
A. Frequently recur during a 24-hours period.
B. may occur at any age between 6months' and 5 years.
C. may be focal.
D. may sometimes occur without fever.
E. should always be investigated by lumbar puncture to exclude meningitis.
65. Management of status epilepticus should include :
A. intramuscular diazepam immediately on arrival to hospital.
B. low concentration oxygen if there is any respiratory difficulty.
C. sedation with short acting barbiturate if the patient remains agitated after the seizure has been terminated.
D. intravenous phenytoin if appropriate initial therapy is ineffective.
E. generous rehydration fluid administration.
66. An Erb's palsy found on routine neonatal examination:
A. is more likely to occur in low birth weight infants than those with birth weight over 4 kg.
B. results from damage to the lower roots of the brachial plexus.
C. results in weakness of the deltoid and brachioradialis muscles.
D. results in loss of the grasp reflex of the affected hand.
E. is usually associated with an ipsilateral Horner syndrome.
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A 4 months' old boy requires surgery if he is found to have :

a non- retractile foreskin.
bilydateral hroceles.
a left inguinal hernia.
an undescended right testis.
10

E. an umbilical hernia.
68. Teething is a recognized cause of :
A. febrile convulsions.
B. diarrhea.
C. persistent pyrexia.
D. irritability.
E. hematemesis.
69. The following statement is truer of Crohn's disease than ulcerative colitis (UC.):
A. fistula formation is common.
B. a featureless bowel with loss of haustration is seen on barium enema.
C. toxic dilatation of the colon is a potentially fatal complication.
D. there is an increased risk of malignancy.
E. relapse may be preserved by long term sulphasalazine.
70. Hirschsprung's disease :
A. affects both sexes equally.
B. may affect any part of the bowel.
C. has an increased incidence in Down syndrome.
D. always presents in the neonatal period.
E. is usually associated with a distended rectum loaded with faces.
71. The following genetic disorders are inherited as X-linked recessive:
A. Hemophilia A.
B. achondroplasia.
C. myotonic dystrophy.
D. congenital spherocytosis.
E. cystic fibrosis.
72. Regarding Down syndrome ;
A. the incidence is 1 in 1500.
B. the palpebral fissures are slope upwards.
C. Brushfield spots are found in the mouth.
D. microglossia causes speech delay,
E. a single palmar crease is pathognomonic of the syndrome.
73. Cleft palate :
A. rarely causes difficulty with feeding in infancy.
B. occurs in 1:10 000 births.
C. is associated with a chromosomal abnormality in the majority of cases.
D. should be repaired between 3 and 4 years of age.
E. is associated with recurrent serous otitis media.
74. Laryngomalacia :
A. is due to abnormally complaint laryngeal cartilage.
B. is characterized by stridor which develops around 2 years of age .
C. causes lifelong symptoms in the majority of cases.
D. require endoscopic confirmation, even in mild cases.
E. requires tracheostomy in around 20% of cases.
75. The following are causes of conductive hearing loss in a child:
A. perinatal asphyxia.
B. congenital cytomegalovirus infection
C. severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in the neonatal period.
D. exposure to toxic levels of aminoglycoside antibiotic.
11

E. serous otitis media.

76. The clinical features of Turner syndrome include.:
A. tall stature
B. polydactyl.
C. ovarian failure.
D. hydrocephalus.
E. asplenism.
77. Aortic stenosis :
A. is associated with Noonan syndrome.
B is unlikely to occur in the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve.
C. usually presents with symptoms before school age.
D. can be treated by trans- catheter balloon valvuloplasty.
E. will not require treatment if asymptomatic.

78. In managing an unconscious child :

A. identifying the cause of the coma takes priority over other aspects of care.
B. endotracheal intubation is contraindicated if there is no gag reflex.
C. hypoglycemia is diagnostic of insulin overdose.
D. ingestion of drugs is an important cause to consider at any age.
E. a lumbar puncture should be performed promptly .
79.The following findings would be more suggestive of a significant murmur than an innocent
murmur :
A. a continuous murmur in the second right intercostals space which disappears on lying flat.
B. a grade 2/6 systolic murmur .
C. the presence of a thrill.
D. spilitting of a thrill.
E. an increase un the loudness of a murmur after exercise.
80. Sudden infant death syndrome:
A. affects 1in 200 infants under 1 year of age.
B. may be prevented by prone lying.
C. is commoner in the winter months.
D. has double the risk of recurrence in sibling born after the index case.
E. is often caused by inhalation of vomit.
81-Factors affecting physical growth include all of the following except:
A. Genetic & hereditary.
B. Sex.
C. Nutrition.
D. Chronic illness.
E. Going to school at early age.
82-Vaccines can be given in all these conditions except:
A. Mild upper respiratory tract infection.
B. Two vaccines together.
C. Feeding.
D. Anaphylactic reaction to the vaccine.
E. Nasal block.
83-Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) (hayaline membrane disease) is characterized by all of the
following except:
12

A. Expiratory grunting & tachypnea are constant features.

B. Increased oxygen requirement.
C. Surfactant deficiency.
D. Initial deterioration over the first 48 hours.
E. In large weight babies.
84-Reflexes present in a newborn baby include all of the following except:
A-Moro reflex.
B-Grasp reflex.
C-Babinski reflex.
D-Tonic neck reflex.
E-Stepping reflex.

85-Causes of pleural effusion include all of the following except:

A-Inflammatory causes like pneumonia.
B-Cardiac causes like heart failure.
C-Mediastinal tumor.
D-Bronchial asthma.
E-Hypoproteinemia.
86-Complications of bacterial meningitis include all of the following except:
A-Pleural effusion.
B-Convulsions.
C-Cerebral abscess.
D-Hydrocephalus.
E-Mental retardation.
87-Skeletal manifestations of advanced rickets include:
A-Head bossing.
B-Delayed dentition.
C-Marfans sign.
D-Harrisons sulcus at thorax.
E-All of the above.
88-Causes of death in kwashiorkor include:
A-Intercurrent infection.
B-Water and electrolyte disturbances.
C-Hypoglycemia.
D-Hypothermia.
E-All of the above.
89-Recognized causes of mental retardation include all of the following except:
A-Congenital infection.
B-Birth asphyxia.
C-Neonatal jaundice.
D-Congenital heart disease.
E-Chromosomal disorders.
90-Recognized clinical pictures of marasmus include:
A-Growth failure.
B-Hunger.
C-Loss of subcutaneous fat.
D-Muscle wasting.
E-All of the above.
13

91-Causes of heart failure include all of the following except:

A-Congenital heart disease.
B-Rheumatic fever.
C-Anemia.
D-Acidosis.
E-Acute bronchitis.
92-A baby is jaundiced at 12 hours old. The causes to consider include all of the following
except:
A-Congenital infection.
B-Haemolytic diseases.
C-Congenital spherocytosis.
D-Biliary atresia.
E-ABO incompatibility
93-Triggers for asthma attacks include:
A-Respiratory viral infection.
B-Air pollutants like cigarette smoke.
C-Foods like chocolate.
D-Emotions.
E-All of the above.
94-Extrapulmonary causes of Neonatal Respiratory Distress include all of the following: except
A-Congenital lobar emphysema.
B-Asphyxia.
C-Upper airway obstruction.
D-Diaphragmatic hernia.
E-Hyperthermia.
95-Adequate diet should supply:
A-Adequate amount of water.
B-Adequate calories.
C-Adequate carbohydrates, fat & proteins.
D-Adequate amount of fiber.
E-All of the above.
96-Contraindications of breast feeding include all of the following except:
A-Active Tuberculosis.
B-Severely undernourished mother.
C-HIV infection.
D-Premature infant.
E-Abnormalities of the mouth of the newborn.
97-Constant findings of clinical pictures of kwashiorkor include:
A-Growth failure.
B-Mental changes.
C-Edema.
D-Disturbed muscle-fat ratio.
E-All of the above.
98-Normally, the result of fertilisation is:
A-Restoration of the full number of chromosomes .
B-Numberof chromosomes 50 .
C-Number of chromosomes 44 .
D-All of the above .
E-None of the above .
14

99-Risk factors in Embryonic period(1st 8 weeks) include all of the following except:
A-Genetic disorders.
B-Intrauterine infections.
C-Teratogenic drugs.
D-Maternal pelvic irradiation.
E-Disorders of placenta & umbilical cord.
.
100- Weaning means:
A-Stop breast feeding completely and start normal food.
B-Stop breast feeding completely and start formula feeding like Nan or Materna milk.
C-Introduction of foods other than milk in the infants diet.
D-Usually started at the age of 10-12 months.
E-None of the above.
GOOD LUCK

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