PARASITOLOGY

Physicians Licensure Examination

June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
1. Hookworms can cause iron deficiency anemia which is characterized as:
A. Hypochromic, microcytic
B. Hypochromic macrocytic
C. Hyperchromic macrocytic
D. Normochromic microcytic
2. Ancylostoma duodenale is characterized by the following, EXCEPT :
A. the infective filariform larvae penetrates skin.
B. larvae migrate through the lungs and are swallowed
C. iron deficiency anemia occurs in chronic cases
D. the most prevalent soil-transmitted helminth in the Philippines
3. All cestodes (tapeworms) have the following structures, EXCEPT:
A. Proglottids
B. Scolex
C. Neck
D. Spicules
4. This tapeworm may complete its life cycle in man without the need of an intermediate host:
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
5. This tapeworm may cause cysticercosis when its eggs are ingested by man.
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
6. This tapeworm may cause a hydatid cyst in man:
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
7. A 10 year old female from Samar presents with hepatosplenomegaly. You would want to run
diagnostic tests to rule out
A. Ascariasis
B. Hydatid Cyst
C. Schistosomiasis
D. Amebiasis
8. The following areas are endemic for schistosomiasis, EXCEPT:
A. Leyte, Mindoro, Samar
B. Davao, Sorsogon, Bukidnon
C. Cebu, Pampanga,
D. None of the above
9. The COPT is a diagnostic test which demonstrates the presence of antibodies against:
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Plasmodium spp.

PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
10. A 10 year old girl from Samar presented with an enlarged abodmen. Splenomegaly was
apparent and a Kato Thick Smear showed eggs with laterla knobs. This child is probably
infected with:
A. Taenia saginata,
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Schistosoma japonicum
11. The drug of choice for schistosomiasis and most trematode (fluke) infections is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Albendazole
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
12. The drug of choice for taeniasis and most cestode (tapeworm) infections is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Albendazole
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
13. The drug of choice for invasive amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis is:
A. Metronidazole
B. Albendazole
C. Niclosamide
D. Praziquantel
14. The recommended diagnostic test for Enterobius vermicularis (seatworm/pinworm) is :
A. direct fecal smear
B. Kato-Katz or Kato Thick Smear
C. Formol Ether Concentration Test
D. Peri-anal or Cellulose Tape Swab
15. Which of the following laboratory examinations would be the BEST step in identifying
parasites responsible for chronic diarrhea:
A. direct fecal smear
B. examination of concentrated stools using formol-ether concentration technique
C. examination of concentrated stools using Kato-Katz technique
D. serology for antibody titers
16. Giardiasis can be diagnosed with the following methods, EXCEPT
A. Formol Ether Concentration Test
B. The string test where a ball of weighted string is ingested and pulled out to examine
trophozoites
C. Immunofluroescence
D. Kato-Katz Smear
17. Trypanosoma cruzi is endemic in:
A. East Africa
B. West Africa
C. South Asia
D. South America
18. The tse-tse flies, Glossina sp., are the vectors for
A. Trypanosoma cruzi :
B. Leishmania donovani :
C. Leishmania spp. :
D. Trypanosoma brucei
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PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
19. Romanas sign, a swelling of the periorbital area, may be seen in :
A. Trypanosoma cruzi:
B. Trypanosoma brucei :
C. Leishmania donovani :
D Leishmania braziliense
20. In cases of chronic diarrhea in communities where raw or inadequately cooked fish is
traditionally eaten, which parasite would most likely be implicated?
A. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
21. Which of these parasites is fish-borne and causes chronic diarrhea?
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Heterophyes heterophyes
C. Cryptosporidium parvum
D. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
22. Which of these parasites is snail-borne and causes diarrhea?
A. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Echinostoma ilocanum
D. Capillaria philippinensis
23. In cases of chronic diarrhea with an underlying HIV infection, which parasite is most likely
to be involved?
A. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. hookworm infection
24. For which parasitic infections are repeated (periodic) chemotherapy of population groups a
valid preventive and control measure?
A. Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia
B. Taenia and Echinostoma
C. Ascaris, Trichuris, Hookworms, and Schistosoma
D. Capillaria philippinensis and heterophyid flukes
25. Why would Schistosoma japonicum persist despite identifying and treating all infected
individuals in a community?
A. Ineffective drug
B. Farm and domestic animals are reservoir hosts of Schistosoma japonicum
C. latent / quiescent stages are harbored in man and are eventually reactivated
D. Drug resistance
26. Autoinfection occurs in the following, EXCEPT:
A. Capillaria philippinensis
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Schistosoma japonicum
27. Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar are best differentiated by:
A. stool microscopy
B. stool ELISA
C. stool culture
D. None of the above
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PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
28. Bloody diarrheea can be due to this parasitic infection:
A. Ascariasis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Cryptosporidium parvum
29. The following can be acquired by drinking fecally-contaminated water, EXCEPT:
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Cryptosporidium parvum
30. Intestinal obstruction is a complication of :
A. Ascaris
B. Hookworm
C. Trichuris
D. Schistosoma
31. Skin penetration is the mode of infection of:
A. Ascaris
B. Hookworm
C. Trichuris
D. Taenia
32. Erratic migration into the bile duct occurs in:
A. Ascaris
B. Schistosoma
C. Trichuris
D. Echinostoma
33. The stage of Enterobius vermicularis that is infective to man is :
A. embryonated egg
B. larva
C. adult
D. cyst
34. The stages of development of Plasmodium which are responsible for malaria transmission :
A.
B.
C.
D.

schizonts
ring forms
gametocytes
merozoites

35. The following provinces are endemic for malaria, EXCEPT:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Palawan
Mindoro
Sulu
Cebu

36. As a malaria preventive measure, chemoprophylaxis is indicated for the following high risk
groups EXCEPT:
A. pregnant women
B. tourists
C. occupationally exposed groups
D. permanent residents
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PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
37. As a malaria control measure, the use of Permethrin-treated mosquito nets is effective,
EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.

in killing the larval stages of Anopheles

in killing the adult stages
in repelling the adult stages
in preventing man-vector contact

38. The drug of choice for severe and complicated malaria is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Chloroquine
Quinine
Primaquine
none of the above

39. The presence of schizonts in a P. falciparum smear indicates the following:

A.
B.
C.
D.

good prognosis
bad prognosis
no bearing in prognosis
none of the above

40. Malabsorption and steattorhea (fatty stools) may be a clinical feature of this infection:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Cryptosporidium
D. Balantidium coli
41. Strawberry cervix may be a clinical feature of this infection:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Giardia lamblia
Entamoeba histolytica
Cryptosporidium
Trichomonas vaginalis

42. Tse-tse fly is the vector for:

A. Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Leishmania tropica
43. Skin penetration is the mode of infection of:
A. Echinostoma
B. Schistosoma
C. Trichuris
D. Paragonimus
44. The natural mode of transmission of Plasmodium is
A.
B.
C.
D.

blood transfusion
congenital transmission
mosquito bite
inoculation through contaminated needles

PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
45. The predominant species of Plasmodium in the Philippines is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium knowlesi
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae

46. The species which causes cerebral malaria is

A.
B.
C.
D.

P. vivax
P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. ovale

47. The most common site in extra-intestinal amoebiasis is

A. lung
B. cerebral hemisphere
C. Right lobe of the liver
D. Left lobe of liver
48. The infective stage of this nematode is a larval stage, EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.

hookworms
Capillaria philippinensis
Strongyloides stercoralis
Trichuris trichiura

49. The following statements are true regarding Capillaria philippinensis, EXCEPT:
A. The intermediate host is a fish
B. The natural definitive host is most probably migratory birds
C. Diarrhea, abdominal pain and borborygmi compose the clinical triad of capillariasis.
D. The infective stage is the embryonated egg
50. The main pathology in schistosomiasis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

obstruction of blood vessels

liver failure
granuloma formation around eggs
toxemia

51. The habitat of the adult Schistosoma japonicum is the:

A.
B.
C.
D.

liver
brain
mesenteric veins
small intestines

52. Most common cause of death in chronic schistosomiasis is:

A.
B.
C.
D.

anoxia
bleeding esophageal varices
liver failure
sepsis

PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
53. The following statements are true regarding paragonimiasis and TB:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Chest X-ray can differentiate one from the other

Ziehl Neilsen smear can diagnose both paragonimiasis and TB
Clinical manifestations (chronic cough, hemoptysis) are similar
The drugs of choice are similar

54. The following statements are true regarding transmission of Paragonimus, EXCEPT:
A. The infective stage is found in the muscles and gills of the mountain crab.
B. The crab is commonly eaten inadequately cooked
C. The ova are expelled only in feces
D. Snails serve as first intermediate hosts.
55. Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Opistorchis spp.
Fasciola hepatica
Fasciolopsis buski
Echinostoma ilocanum

56. The best time to collect blood to diagnose bancroftian filariasis:

A.
B.
C.
D.

between 10 am and 2 pm
between 10 pm and 2 am
between 10 am and 2 am
between 10 pm and 2 pm

57. The pathology caused by adult Ascaris include the following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.

intestinal obstruction
cholecystitis
volvulus
pneumonitis

58. Clinical manifestations of angiostrongylosis may be any of the following EXCEPT:

A.
B.
C.
D.

asthma
impairment of memory
disorientation
incoherence

59. Which of the following preventive measures are specific for strongyloidiasis and hookworm
infection?
A. avoidance of eating raw meat
B. use of protective shoes and gloves
C. hygienic personal habit
D. boiling water
60. One of the following is not true about the seatworm (Enterobius):
A.
B.
C.
D.

eggs undergo development in the soil

eggs can infect man via inhalation
parasite exhibits familial tendency
parasite may cause eczematous perianal lesions

PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
61. Respiratory symptoms can be observed in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Ascariasis
B. Necatoriasis
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. Trichuriasis
62. The trematode which is transmitted by skin penetration of infective cercaria
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Echinostoma ilocanum
D. Schistosoma japonicum
63. Granuloma formation and subsequent fibrosis around schistosome eggs result in the
following EXCEPT:
A. portal hypertension
B. hepatosplenomegaly
C. portosystemic collateral circulation
D. intestinal fistulas
64. Relapse which is caused by reactivation of hypnozoites is present in the following
Plasmodial species:
A.
B.
C.
D.

P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. cynomolgi

65. Malignant tertian fever is present in the following Plasmodial species:

A.
B.
C.
D.

P. vivax
P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. ovale

66. The following mechanisms cause severe malarial anemia EXCEPT:

A.
B.
C.
D.

post - schizogonic mechanical destruction of RBCs

complement- mediated lysis of RBCs
immune-mediated depression of erythropoiesis
severe blood loss

67. The vector for malaria in the Philippines:

A. Aedes aegypti
B. Anopheles flavoristris
C. Culex sp.
D. Mansonnia sp.
68. Quartan malaria is characterized by a 72-hour (3-day) cycle of fever, chills and sweating.
This is caused by:
A. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium vivax

PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
69. The flask-shaped ulcer is the characteristic lesion of this protozoan:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Giardia lamblia
Entameba histolyitca
Blastocystis hominis
Cryptosporidium parvum

70. The species of ameba which causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is:
A. Acanthameba
B. Naegleria
C. Entameba histolytica
D. Endolimax nana
71. In communities of high socio- economic status, food borne amebiasis is transmitted through:
A.
B.
C.
D.

inadequate cooking of food

mechanical vectors
food handlers who are asymptomatic cyst passers
inadequate washing of fruits and vegetables

72. Barbers-pole is one of the diagnostic features of:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Trichinella spiralis
Capillaria philippinensis
Angiostrongylus cantonensis
Strongyloides stercoralis

73. Man acquires infection with Trichinella spiralis by:

A.
B.
C.
D.

ingestion of half-cooked meat containing encysted larvae

ingestion of green leafy vegetables contaminated with human feces
ingestion of fresh water fish, raw or half cooked
skin penetration by filariform larvae

74. Trichinosis in man can be diagnosed by the following EXCEPT:

A.
B.
C.
D.

stool examination
biopsy of superficial skeletal muscle
Bentonite flocculation test (BFT)
Fluorescent antibody test

75. Chicleros ulcer, usually found in the ear lobe, may be seen in :
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Leishmania braziliense
76. Winterbottoms sign, a swelling of posterior cervical nodes, may be seen in :
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Leishmania braziliense

PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
77. Espundia, a form of mucocutaneous ulcer, may be seen in :
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Leishmania braziliense
78. Kala azar is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin and splenomegaly with
amastigotes found in the involved organs. The protozoan that causes this is:
A. Leishmania mexicanus
B. Leishmania tropicana
C. Leishmania braziliensis
D. Leishmania donovani
79. Hydrocoele is most likely caused by :
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Mansonella sp.
80. Nocturial periodicity is demonstrated by :
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Mansonella sp.
81. Confluent body nuclei is characterstic of :
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Mansonella sp.
82. The large intestine is the natural habitat of this adult worm :
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Necator americanus
83. Which is true concerning cutaneous larva migrans:
A. Man is the natural definitive host
B. Man is an accidental host
C. Man is a paratenic host
D. Man is a reservoir host
84. Rectal prolapse can occur with this infection :
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Necator americanus
85. Perianal itching is a manifestation of infection with :
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Necator americanus

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PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
86. The lungs are the natural habitat of this adult worm :
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Echinostoma ilocanum
C. Heterophyes
D. Opistorchis
87. Larvae pass through the lungs for all of these worms, EXCEPT :
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Necator americanus
88. These parasites can all cause significant anemia, EXCEPT:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Plasmodium falciparum
89. These parasites can involve the heart, EXCEPT :
A. Heterophyes
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trypanosoma brucei
D. Haplorchis sp.
90. These parasites have obligate intracellular stages, EXCEPT :
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Leishmania sp.
91. The species of ameba which can cause keratitis is:
A. Acanthameba
B. Naegleria
C. Entameba histolytica
D. Endolimax nana
92. The following molecules are associated with the virulence of E. histolytica, EXCEPT:
A. lectin
B. cystein protease
C. amebapore
D. excretions / secretions
93. In the circumoval precipitin test (COPT), the specimen to be collected from the patient is:
A. feces
B. urine
C. whole blood
D. anticoagulated blood
94. The stage of the filaria parasite which is responsible for chronic deforming disease is:
A. Adult
B. microfilaria
C. L1
D. L3

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PARASITOLOGY
Physicians Licensure Examination
June 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm
95. Man is an accidental host of the following parasites, EXCEPT:
A. Raillietina garissoni
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Taenia sagniata
96. The following statements are true of animal hookworms, EXCEPT:
A. They do not develop into adult stage in man
B. They produce respiratory symptoms in man
C. They produce serpiginous lesions on human skin
D. They are provided with definite dentition
97. A 4-year old boy had skin lesions which showed burrowing tracks in the skin and intense
itching in the affected area. Application of lindane resulted in improvement. The lesions
were most probably due to:
A. dermatophytosis
B. sporotrichosis
C. tinea versicolor
D. scabies
98. The infective stage of Ascaris and Trichuris is the :
A. rhabditiform larva
B. filariform larva
C. embryonated egg
D. feritilized egg.
99. An 18 year old female complained of vaginal discharge. A smear of the discharge showed a
pear-shaped, flagellated organism. This pathogen is:
A. Neisseria gonorhea,
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Candida albicans
100.The reduviid or kissing bugs are vectors for :
A. American trypanosomiasis
B. African trypanosomiasis
C. Visceral leishmaniasis
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

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